Prepare for the UPSC Prelims with comprehensive topic-wise questions on Indian Polity and Governance, focusing on Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies. Master every aspect of the subject with this meticulously curated resource. From understanding the roles and functions of key constitutional bodies to delving into the significance of non-constitutional bodies in governance, this collection equips you with the essential knowledge for success. Boost your exam readiness by tackling a diverse range of questions, covering both theoretical concepts and practical applications. Stay ahead of the competition with targeted preparation tailored to the specific requirements of the UPSC Prelims. Ace your exam confidently by immersing yourself in this invaluable resource. Elevate your understanding, sharpen your skills, and embark on your journey towards success in the UPSC Prelims with our UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Questions – Indian Polity and Governance – Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies.
Q1. Assertion (A) The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India. Reason (R) The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body. (1996)
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A. The Constitution of India uses the term ‘minorities’ in certain articles but does not provide a specific definition. The term ‘minorities’ appears in Articles 29 to 30 and 350A to 350B. The National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, defines Muslim, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Christian, and Zoroastrian communities as minority groups under Section (2)(c). The National Commission for Minorities was established under this Act, although it is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. While the Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body, it operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India.
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India. (1999)
1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (d)
Statements (1) and (3) are accurate regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India. The NHRC is a public statutory body established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 1993, comprising a chairperson and five members. The chairperson must be a retired Chief Justice of India, and members should be serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court. The NHRC is entrusted with the responsibility of safeguarding and advancing human rights in India, albeit its authority is recommendatory. However, Statements (2) and (4) are incorrect. There is indeed no formation of a State Human Rights Commission in every state, and the chairperson of the National Commission for Women does not serve as an ex-officio member of the NHRC. Additionally, it is not obligatory to appoint a woman as a member of the commission.
Q3. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India. (2000)
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
Statements (1) and (2) accurately describe the role and appointment process of the Attorney General of India. The Attorney General serves as the chief legal advisor to the Indian Government and is appointed by the President upon the recommendation of the Union Cabinet, as per Article 76(1) of the Constitution of India. The individual appointed must possess qualifications equivalent to those required for a judge of the Supreme Court.
However, Statements (3) and (4) are incorrect. The Constitution does not specify a fixed tenure for the Attorney General of India. Instead, the Attorney General holds office at the pleasure of the President and can be removed by the President at any time, without any prescribed procedure outlined in the Indian Constitution.
Q4. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to (2000)
(a) distribution of revenue between the centre and the states
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
Ans. (a)
The Finance Commission in India primarily functions to provide recommendations on the distribution of tax revenue between the Union and the States. Constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, the Commission addresses two key aspects in its work: firstly, it rectifies vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the center and states, and secondly, it strives for the equalization of public services across all states. However, it’s important to note that while the Ministry of Finance prepares the annual budget, the recommendations of the Finance Commission are executed through an order issued by the President of India.
Q5. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India? (2002)
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee
Ans. (a)
The Finance Commission recommends the principles guiding the grant-in-aid of revenues to the states from the Consolidated Fund of India. Constituted by the President of India under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, the Commission plays a crucial role in advising on the allocation of resources to the states, thereby ensuring a fair distribution of funds for their development and welfare.
Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to India. (2002)
1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
4 . The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
Statements (2) and (3) are accurate regarding India. The power of the Election Commission of India stems from Article 324 of the Constitution of India, granting it authority over the conduct of elections in the country. As per the Election Commission Act, 1991, the salary of the Chief Election Commissioner is equivalent to that of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
However, there’s a slight inaccuracy in the statement regarding the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner. The process for removal is challenging, as it requires a two-thirds majority of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha present and voting against the Chief Election Commissioner for disorderly conduct or improper actions
Q7. Five Year Plan in India is finally, approved by (2002)
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(c) Planning Commission
(d) National Development Council
Ans. (d)
The five-year plans in India were ultimately approved by the National Development Council (NDC). Established in 1952, the NDC serves as the apex body for decision-making and discussions on development issues in India, with the Prime Minister of India presiding over its proceedings.
Q8. Consider the following statements. (2003)
The function (s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the states and centre the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from states.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State Governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
Statements (2) and (3) accurately describe the role of the Finance Commission of India. The Commission’s primary functions involve allocating the net proceeds of taxes between the Central and State governments based on their respective contributions to those taxes, as well as determining the factors guiding Grant-in-Aid to the States and its extent. However, Statements (1) and (4) are incorrect. The Finance Commission does not have the authority to approve the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India, nor does it oversee any reports concerning financial matters.
Q9. Consider the following statements. (2004)
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3
Ans. (b)
Statements (2) and (3) accurately describe the establishment and functions of the National Development Council (NDC). The NDC, founded in 1952, aims to strengthen and mobilize the country’s efforts for balanced and rapid development across all regions. The Secretary of the Planning Commission also serves as the Secretary of the NDC, with administrative support from the Planning Commission. Economic and social planning falls within the concurrent list under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, making it a shared responsibility among states, Union Territories, and the Union. However, Statement (1) is incorrect; the highest decision-making body for planning in India is indeed Parliament.
Q10. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its chairman? (2004)
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Ans. (c)
According to the National Human Rights Commission Act 1993, only a retired Chief Justice of India is eligible to serve as its chairman. The NHRC comprises a chairman and five members, excluding ex-officio members. Arun Kumar Mishra, a former Judge of the Supreme Court, currently holds the position of chairperson of the commission. The appointment of the chairperson and members of the NHRC is made by the President of India.
Q11. Which one among the following commission was set-up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India? (2006)
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Ans. (c)
The Election Commission was established in pursuance of a specific provision under an article of the Constitution of India. It is a permanent and independent body established directly by the Constitution of India to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
Q12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. (2007)
| List I (Persons) | List II (Positions) |
| A. Nagender Singh | 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India |
| B. AN Ray | 2. President International Court of Justice |
| C. RK Trivedi | 3. Chief Justice of India |
| D. Ashok Desai | 4. Attorney-General of India |
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (b)
The correct matching is as follows: A-2 (Ajit Nath Ray), B-3 (Nagendra Singh), C-1 (Ram Krishna Trivedi), D-4 (Ashok H. Desai).
Ajit Nath Ray served as the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India and was the lone dissenter among eleven judges who examined the constitutionality of the Bank Nationalisation Act in 1969. He held the position of Chief Justice from 1973 to 1977. Nagendra Singh, an Indian lawyer and administrator, served as the President of the International Court of Justice from 1985 to 1988. Ram Krishna Trivedi served as the Chief Election Commissioner of India from 1982 to 1985. Ashok H. Desai, an Indian lawyer practicing in the Supreme Court of India, served as the Attorney General of India from 1996 to 1998.
Q13. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India? (2007)
1. VP Singh
2. R. Venkataraman
3. YB Chavan
4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
All of these individuals have served as Union Finance Ministers of India. Vishwanath Pratap Singh held the position during the Rajiv Gandhi-led government from 1984 to 1987. Ramaswamy Venkataraman served as Finance Minister during the Indira Gandhi-led government from 1980 to 1982. Yashwantrao Balwantrao Chavan was the Finance Minister of India in the Indira Gandhi-led government from 1970 to 1974. Pranab Mukherjee held the position during the UPA-led government from 2009 to 2012.
Q14. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements. (2009)
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court and no appeal lies against there to before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Statement (1) accurately describes Lok Adalats. Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, Lok Adalats have been granted statutory status. The decisions made by Lok Adalats are considered as verdicts of Civil Courts and are binding on all parties involved. Additionally, there is no provision for an appeal against the verdict made by Lok Adalat.
However, Statement (2) is incorrect. Civil cases, matrimonial cases, Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACT cases), and petty offense cases are indeed primarily referred to Lok Adalats.
Q15. Consider the following statements. (2009)
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set-up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur
(STOS) Shastri.
2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
( a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Statement (2) accurately describes the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT). Established by the Central Administrative Tribunal Act in 1985, under Article 323A of the Indian Constitution, it was formed by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. Members of CAT are drawn from legal and administrative backgrounds to leverage expertise in both domains, and they are all appointed by the President of India.
However, Statement (1) is incorrect. The Central Administrative Tribunal was actually established during the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi, not Rajiv Gandhi. Indira Gandhi served as the Prime Minister of India from 1980 to 1984, while Rajiv Gandhi served from 1984 to 1989.
Q16. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council? (2009)
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Minister of Water Resources
(c) Minister of Environment and Forests
(d) Minister of Science and Technology
Ans. (a)
In India, the Prime Minister serves as the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council (NWRC). Established on March 10, 1983, under the chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India, with the Union Minister of Irrigation (now Water Resources) as the Vice-Chairman, the NWRC plays a crucial role in water resource management. The first National Water Policy was adopted in 1987 under the purview of the NWRC.
Q17. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the follow- ing statements is correct? (2010)
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
Lok Adalats have been granted statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. According to this act, any dispute that has not yet been brought before any court and is likely to be filed before the court can be referred to a Lok Adalat. However, it’s important to note that matters relating to offenses not compoundable under the law cannot be settled in Lok Adalats. As per Section 18(1) of the 1987 Act, a Lok Adalat has the jurisdiction to determine and arrive at a compromise or settlement between parties to a dispute in respect of any case pending before the court.
Q18. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? (2013)
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman of Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
Ans. (b)
The National Development Council (NDC) serves as the apex body for decision-making and deliberations on development matters in India. It is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes members such as Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of Union Territories, and members of NITI Aayog (formerly known as the Planning Commission).
Q19. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India? (2014)
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1,2 and 5
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) All of these
Ans.(c)
The National Development Council (NDC) and the Parliament are both associated with planning in India. The process of passing a Five-Year Plan in India involves various departments, councils, and bodies. Initially, the draft plan was prepared by the Planning Commission, then it was submitted to the Union Cabinet for approval. Following approval by the Union Cabinet, it was forwarded to the National Development Council (NDC) for further scrutiny. Finally, after NDC’s approval, the plan was sent to the Parliament for its endorsement. The 12th Five-Year Plan marked the culmination of this process, as it was the last Five-Year Plan of India. It has since been replaced by a three-year action plan launched by NITI Aayog.
Q20. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/ reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Statement (2) is correct regarding the Gram Nyayalaya Act. Gram Nyayalayas, or Village Courts, were indeed established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008. According to the act, the District Court, in consultation with the District Magistrate, prepares a panel consisting of the names of social workers at the village level with integrity for appointment as conciliators, possessing qualifications and experience as prescribed by the High Court.
However, Statement (1) is incorrect. Gram Nyayalayas deal with both Civil and Criminal cases, including those with a value of up to 250 only. These courts are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who enjoys the same benefits as a Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
Q21. Consider the following statements. (2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Elections Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
Statement (3) is indeed correct. The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body under the Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India. According to Clause 1 of Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the Election Commission of India holds the power of superintendence, direction, and control over elections to Parliament, state legislatures, the Office of the President, and Vice-President of India. Additionally, the ECI is vested with the authority to resolve disputes related to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
However, Statements (1) and (2) are incorrect. The Election Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989, was indeed adopted in 1990, which transformed the commission into a three-member body consisting of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Deputy Election Commissioners. Moreover, the Election Commission of India itself decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
Q22. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? (2018)
1. The NGT has been established by an act and CPCB has been created by an executive order of the government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reducing the burden of litigation in the High Courts whereas the CPCB promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells, aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Statement (2) is indeed correct. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established in 2010 to handle cases related to environmental issues.
However, Statement (1) is incorrect. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was indeed constituted in 1974, not 1981, under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Its mandate includes promoting cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by preventing, controlling, and abating water pollution.
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