UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz – 03rd February 2024

Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!

Q 1. Consider the following statements regarding Forest Fires in the Himalayas 

1. Ground fire is more damaging than surface fires, capable of destroying vegetation completely. 
2. About 55% of Himachal’s forest area is covered with chir pine which is highly susceptible to forest fires 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  C 

Why this question- This winter, the Himalayan Region, particularly in Himachal and Uttarakhand, has experienced numerous forest fires, primarily attributed to a deficiency in precipitation.

Source: DTE

Explanation:  Statement I is Correct  Understanding Forest Fires    Definition  A forest fire, also known as a bush or vegetation fire, refers to uncontrolled and non-prescribed combustion of plants in natural settings like forests, grasslands, brush lands, or tundra.   It consumes natural fuels and spreads based on environmental conditions such as wind and topography.    Conditions for Wildfires  Three essential conditions must be present for a wildfire to occur: Fuel, Oxygen, and a Heat source.    Classification of Forest Fires    Surface Fire  Primarily spreads along the ground, engulfing surface litter on the forest floor.    Underground Fire  Low-intensity fires that consume organic matter beneath the forest floor.  Spreads entirely underground, challenging to detect and control.  Can persist for months, leading to soil and vegetative cover destruction.    Ground Fire  Fires in subsurface organic fuels, burning beneath the surface.  No clear distinction between underground and ground fires.  More damaging than surface fires, capable of destroying vegetation completely.  Statement II is Incorrect  Factors Contributing to Himalayan Region Forest Fires    Lack of Snowfall and Precipitation  Winter months’ absence of snowfall and rainfall leaves the region dry.  Snowfall and precipitation are critical for maintaining soil moisture.    Dry Conditions  Lack of moisture in soil and vegetation creates favorable conditions for fires.  Dry leaves and soil act as potential fuel.    Human Activities  Careless activities like discarding cigarettes or uncontrolled burning can trigger fires.  Controlled burning by the forest department may contribute if not properly managed.    Vulnerable Tree Species  Presence of fire-prone and flammable species like Chir pine increases the fire risk.  About 15% of Himachal’s forest area is covered with chir pine.    Long Dry Spell  Extended periods without rainfall or snowfall create a susceptibility to fires.    Government Initiatives to Address Forest Fires    National Action Plan for Forest Fires (NAPFF)  Initiated in 2018 to reduce forest fires by informing and empowering forest fringe communities.    Forest Fire Prevention and Management Scheme (FPM)  Government-sponsored program dedicated to assisting states in dealing with forest fires.    Strategies for the Future    Advanced Fire Detection and Monitoring  Implement advanced systems, including satellite-based technologies, for early warnings and rapid response.    Community Engagement  Involve local communities in forest management and prevention efforts.  Conduct awareness programs on responsible forest practices and fire safety.    Sustainable Forest Management  Implement practices focusing on biodiversity, promoting fire-resistant vegetation, and reducing flammable tree species.

Q 2. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-Urban) Scheme 

1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) is serving as a flagship program under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) in India 
2. Encompasses the entire urban area of the country excluding the Census towns 
3. Promotes women empowerment by facilitating house ownership in the name of a female member or joint names. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: B 

Why this question- During an event dedicating homes constructed under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-Urban) Scheme, the Prime Minister emotionally addressed the crowd, shedding tears

Source: ABP

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  About Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-Urban) Scheme  Overview  Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) has been in implementation since June 2015, serving as a flagship program under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) in India.    Objective  Aimed at providing all-weather pucca houses to eligible beneficiaries in urban areas by 2022, implemented through States/UTs/Central Nodal Agencies.  Statement 2 is Incorrect  Coverage  Encompasses the entire urban area of the country, including statutory towns as per Census 2011 and subsequently notified towns, including Notified Planning/Development Areas.    Implementation Verticals  Implemented through four verticals:  Beneficiary Led Construction/ Enhancement (BLC)  Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP)  In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR)  Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS)    Continuation and Funding  In August 2022, the Union Cabinet approved the extension of PMAY-U until December 31, 2024, excluding CLSS.  Credit linked subsidy component as a Central Sector Scheme, while other three components as Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).  Statement 3 is Correct  Basic Amenities  All houses include essential amenities like toilets, water supply, electricity, and kitchens.    Women Empowerment  Promotes women empowerment by facilitating house ownership in the name of a female member or in joint names.    Inclusive Approach  Provides preference to differently-abled persons, senior citizens, SCs, STs, OBCs, Minority groups, single women, transgender individuals, and other weaker and vulnerable sections of society.    Cafeteria Approach  Adopts a cafeteria approach, tailoring solutions based on geographical conditions, topography, economic factors, land availability, and infrastructure.

Q 3. Consider the following statements regarding Kanger Valley National Park 

1. Kanger Valley National Park is positioned along the Kholaba River, a tributary of the Mahanadi. 
2. It is home to underground limestone caves with formations of stalagmites and stalactites 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: B 

Why this question– Kanger Valley National Park is spearheading a novel collaboration with organizations and government departments for an innovative ecological restoration plan.

Source: TOI

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect  About Kanger Valley National Park  Location  Situated in Jagdalpur, Bastar district, Chhattisgarh, Kanger Valley National Park is positioned along the Kholaba River, a tributary of the Godavari.    Establishment  Attained national park status in 1982.  Spans an area of 200 square kilometers with an average width of 6 km (north to south) and length of 34 km (west to east).  Entire park designated as a core area, without a buffer zone.   Statement 2 is Correct  Topography    Known for diverse land formations, including low, flat areas, gentle slopes, steep inclines, plateaus, valleys, and stream courses.  Features three remarkable caves – Kutumbasar, Kailash, and Dandak – renowned for unique geological structures.    Geological Wonders    Home to underground limestone caves with formations of stalagmites and stalactites.  Tirathgarh Waterfall is a prominent attraction within the park.    Flora  Exhibits a mixed humid deciduous forest type, abundant in Sal, Saugaun, teak, and bamboo trees.    Fauna  Diverse wildlife includes tigers, mouse deer, leopards, wildcats, sambar, chital, barking deer, langurs, jackals, rhesus macaques, and flying squirrels.  Aerial fauna comprises common hill myna, red jungle fowl, spotted owlet, racket-tailed drongos, parrots, and more.    Human Presence  Hosts a significant tribal population.    Natural Attractions  Features the ongoing growth of stalagmites and stalactites in the limestone caves, adding to the park’s geological allure

Q 4. Consider the following statements  

1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent 
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage 
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: C 

Why this question- DNA extracted from the bones and teeth of ancient Europeans, dating back up to 34,000 years, sheds light on the origins of Multiple Sclerosis.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  This statement is referring to germline gene editing, a process where genetic modifications are made in the reproductive cells (sperm or egg cells) of an individual.   This alteration can be inherited by future generations. Technologies like CRISPR-Cas9 have been used in experimental settings to edit the germline.  Statement 2 is Correct  This statement is also accurate. With advancements in gene-editing technologies, particularly CRISPR-Cas9, it is possible to edit the genome at the early embryonic stage.   This allows for the modification of specific genes in an embryo, and the changes may be carried through to all the cells as the embryo develops.  Statement 3 is Correct  Research has explored the possibility of injecting human induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) into the embryos of animals, including pigs.   This process is part of the effort to create chimeric organisms, where cells from different species coexist.   The intention is often to study developmental processes, disease mechanisms, or potentially generate organs suitable for transplantation.

Q 5. Concerning lamprey fish consider the following statements 

1. Found in coastal and fresh waters, lampreys inhabit temperate regions worldwide, especially in Africa. 
2. Migrate between fresh water ecosystems for their lifecycle as they are not adaptable to marine environments. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: C 

Why this question– A recent research study has identified two potential new species of lamprey fish in the waters of California.

Source: PO

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect  About lamprey fish  Overview  Lampreys are ancient, jawless fish with eel-like bodies, existing for over 350 million years.  Belonging to the primitive group of jawless fish called Agnathans, they are boneless.    Habitat  Found in coastal and fresh waters, lampreys inhabit temperate regions worldwide, excluding Africa.    Physical Features  Vary in size from 15 to 100 centimeters (6 to 40 inches).  Lack scales, fins, and gill covers, resembling eels.  Breathe through seven pairs of tiny gill openings behind mouths and eyes.  Skeletons made of cartilage, similar to sharks.  Statement 2 is Incorrect   Distinctive Mouth  Jawless, circular, fleshy sucker serves as the mouth.  Filled with hundreds of small teeth and a rasping tongue.    Migratory Behavior  Migrate between fresh and saltwater for their lifecycle.  Spend most of their lives at sea, entering freshwater for spawning and the juvenile life stage.    Parasitic Feeding  Attach themselves to large animals, such as fish and whales, using their sucker mouths.  Feed as parasites by rasping into the host’s flesh with sharp teeth and extracting blood.

Q 6. Consider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustard 

1. It is mainly found in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan and generally Inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands. 
2. It is among the world’s smallest flying birds. 
3. Designated by the IUCN as a Vulnerable species.  

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: A 

Why this question- The Supreme Court has issued a directive to the Centre, urging transparency regarding its strategies to conserve the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  Great Indian Bustard: Overview    Scientific Information  Scientific Name: Ardeotis nigriceps  Among the heaviest flying birds.    Distribution and Population  Current viable population: 100-150 individuals in India.  Mainly found in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan, hosting approximately 100 individuals.    Habitat  Inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands.  Statement 2 is Incorrect  Distinctive Features  Size and Appearance  Among the largest flying birds.  Horizontal body, long bare legs, resembling an ostrich.  Males and females are roughly the same size.  Largest individuals weigh up to 15 kg (33 pounds).    Coloration  Distinguished by a black crown on the forehead.  Pale neck and head.  Brownish body with wings marked in black, brown, and grey.    Breeding and Lifespan  Breeds during the monsoon season.  Females lay a single egg on open ground.  Lifespan: 12-15 years.  Statement 3 is Incorrect   Feeding Habits  Opportunist eaters.  Diet varies with seasonal food availability.  Feed on grass seeds, insects (grasshoppers, beetles), and occasionally small rodents and reptiles.    Conservation Status  IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered.  Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule 1.  CITES: Appendix 1.

Q 7. Consider the following statements regarding post office act 2023: 

1. The Act grants authority to the Director General of Postal Services for regulating additional services but cannot fix the charges without parliamentary approval 
2. Introduces digital addressing standards, replacing physical addresses with precise geographical coordinates 
3. It maintains Common frameworks for regulating public and private postal services, eliminating the disparities to larger extent. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: A 

Why this question- A recent article explores the Parliament’s recent approval of the Post Office Act, 2023, replacing the colonial-era Indian Post Office Act, 1898

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect  Key Highlights of the Post Office Act, 2023    Director General of Postal Services  The Act grants authority to the Director General of Postal Services for regulating additional services and fixing charges without parliamentary approval.    Interception of Shipments  Empowers the Central Government to intercept, open, or detain postal items in the interest of security, public order, or preventing contraventions.  Statement 2 is Correct  Identifiers and Post Codes  Introduces digital addressing standards, replacing physical addresses with precise geographical coordinates.    Removal of Offences and Penalties  Omits penalties for theft or destruction of postal articles by a Post Office officer, creating potential legal gaps.    Penalty under Section 7  Specifies liability for charges related to Post Office services and outlines the recovery process.    Removes Centre’s Exclusivity  Eliminates the exclusive privilege of the Centre for conveying all letters by post, allowing private courier services to operate more freely.  Statement 3 is Incorrect  Deficiencies in the Post Office Act, 2023    Regulation of Postal Services different from Courier Services  Maintains distinct frameworks for regulating public and private postal services, leading to disparities.    Lack of Procedural Safeguards Violates Fundamental Rights  Fails to specify procedural safeguards for intercepting postal articles, potentially infringing on privacy and freedom of speech.    The Ground of ‘Emergency’ is Beyond the Reasonable Restrictions  The term ’emergency’ lacks clear definition, potentially providing broad grounds for interception, raising constitutional concerns.    Exemption from Liability for Lapses in Services  Lacks a framework for addressing lapses in postal services, contrasting with the accountability established for the Railway sector.    Removal of all Offenses and Penalties  Eliminates consequences for illegal opening of postal articles, potentially impacting individuals’ right to privacy.    Lack of Clarity on Consequences in Certain Cases  Fails to specify consequences for officers involved in fraudulent or wilful actions, leaving potential legal ambiguities.

Q 8. Consider the following statements regarding Solar Power in India 

1. One of the previous initiatives by government to encourage solar power is the Rooftop Solar Programme launched in 2022. 
2. Rajasthan leads in total solar capacity. 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  D 

Why this question- Prime Minister Modi unveiled the ‘Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana,’ a government initiative to provide rooftop solar power systems to one crore households.

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement I is Incorrect  Previous Initiatives for Rooftop Solar Promotion    Introduction  In 2014, the government launched the Rooftop Solar Programme.  Aiming for 40 GW cumulative installed capacity by 2022.    Target Achievement and Extension  By the end of 2023, only 11 GW rooftop solar energy generated.  The deadline extended to 2026 due to unmet targets.    Features of the Rooftop Solar Programme  Consumer benefits through DISCOM tendered projects or the National Portal.  DISCOMs’ role limited to technical feasibility, net-meter installation, and system inspection.  Net metering allows credits for surplus solar energy added to the grid.  Monetary benefits for surplus power as per prevailing regulations.  Statement II is Correct  Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana    Overview  New scheme aiming to achieve 40 GW rooftop solar capacity.    Implementation Details  Involves installing solar power systems on residential rooftops.  Aims to reduce electricity bills for the poor and middle class.    Current Solar Capacity in India    Installed Capacity  Total solar power capacity: 73.31 GW (as of December 2023).  Rooftop solar capacity: 11.08 GW (as of December 2023).    State-wise Performance  Rajasthan leads in total solar capacity (18.7 GW).  Gujarat tops in rooftop solar capacity (2.8 GW).    Need for Solar Energy Expansion in India    World Energy Outlook by IEA  India expected to witness the largest energy demand growth globally over the next 30 years.  IEA emphasizes the need for sustainable and secure energy sources.    Renewable Energy Goals  India targets 500 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2030.  A shift towards reliable and sustainable energy sources.

Q 9. Consider the following statements regarding river Teesta: 

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim 
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta 
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: A 

Why this question- Bangladesh’s Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina secured a historic fourth consecutive term, with India promptly extending congratulations, underscoring their strong bilateral ties.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect  The source of the river Teesta is in the Himalayas, but it is not the same as that of the Brahmaputra.   The Teesta River originates from the Tso Lhamo Lake in North Sikkim, while the Brahmaputra has its source in Tibet.   The two rivers have different origins and flow in different directions.  Statement 2 is Correct  The River Rangeet does indeed originate in Sikkim.   It is formed by the confluence of two rivers, Rathong Chu and Rangpo Chu, and it is a major tributary of the Teesta River.   The Rangeet River joins the Teesta in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal, India.  Statement 3 is Incorrect   The Teesta River flows into the Bay of Bengal, but it forms the border between the Indian state of West Bengal and the country of Bangladesh before entering the Bay of Bengal.   The river does not directly flow into the Bay of Bengal on the border; rather, it serves as a natural boundary between the two regions.

Q 10. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) 

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits 
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. Km beyond its borders 
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: A 

Why this question-: ISRO has introduced the second-generation Distress Alert Transmitter (DAT-SG), a homegrown technology enabling fishermen at sea to send emergency messages from their boats.

Source: ET

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  IRNSS currently operates with a constellation of 7 satellites, 3 in geostationary orbit (GEO) and 4 in geosynchronous orbit (GSO).   GEO satellites remain fixed over a specific point on Earth, while GSO satellites appear stationary to an observer on Earth but follow a figure-eight pattern around the equator.   Statement 2 is incorrect  IRNSS primarily covers India and a region extending about 1500 km (930 miles) beyond its borders.   It doesn’t reach 5500 sq. km beyond the borders.   There is an extended service area with limited functionality that reaches further, but the primary service area is smaller.  Statement 3 is Incorrect   As of January 2024, India does not have a satellite navigation system with full global coverage.   While there are plans for expanding IRNSS (now renamed NavIC) to global reach, these plans are still in progress and haven’t materialized as of the mentioned date

Q 11. Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) 

1. Enacted in 1993 due to concerns about foreign interference in India’s affairs through financial support to independent organizations 
2. FCRA mandates registration for all associations, groups, and NGOs intending to receive foreign donations which is valid for 5 years 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  D 

Why this question- The revocation of FCRA registrations for two major NGOs, the Centre for Policy Research (CPR) and World Vision India (WVI), has triggered discussions on India’s regulatory framework for foreign contributions.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement I is Incorrect  Introduction to FCRA  Enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period due to concerns about foreign interference in India’s affairs through financial support to independent organizations.  Aims to regulate foreign donations to prevent adverse impacts on internal security, ensuring alignment with sovereign democratic principles.    Evolution of FCRA  2010 Amendment: Streamlined regulations, forbidding foreign contributions for activities harmful to national interests.  2020 Amendment: Introduced Aadhaar number requirement for key functionaries, designated FCRA bank accounts, complete ban on domestic transfer of foreign funds, and reduced administrative expense limit from 50% to 20%.  Statement II is Correct  Applicability and Renewal  FCRA mandates registration for all associations, groups, and NGOs intending to receive foreign donations.  Initially valid for 5 years, renewable upon compliance with prescribed norms.    Purposes of Foreign Contributions  Registered associations can receive foreign contributions for social, educational, religious, economic, and cultural purposes.    Monitoring Authority  Ministry of Home Affairs oversees FCRA compliance.  In 2015, MHA mandated NGOs to operate accounts in banks with core banking facilities for real-time security access.  In 2023, rules were amended, requiring FCRA-registered NGOs to disclose assets created using foreign funds in their annual returns

Q 12.Consider the following statements regarding ‘Amrit Dharohar Capacity Building Scheme’ 

1. The ‘Amrit Dharohar Capacity Building Scheme’ is a joint effort by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change 
2. Spanning the next three years from 2023, the scheme aims to promote the optimal utilization of wetlands 
3. Out of the 16 identified Ramsar sites, five serve as pilot projects under the scheme 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two  
3. All three  
4. None 

Answer: B 

Why this question- The Central government is leading a substantial revolution in the domain of wetland tourism through the ‘Amrit Dharohar Capacity Building Scheme.’

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect  Amrit Dharohar Capacity Building Scheme: Fostering Sustainable Wetland Tourism    Collaborative Initiative  The ‘Amrit Dharohar Capacity Building Scheme’ is a joint effort by the Ministry of Tourism and the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.  Statement 2 is Correct  Implementation Period and Objectives  Spanning the next three years from 2023, the scheme aims to promote the optimal utilization of wetlands.  It targets the enhancement of biodiversity, carbon stock, eco-tourism opportunities, and income generation for local communities.    Strategic Focus  The primary emphasis is on transitioning from high-volume tourism to high-value nature tourism, particularly at ecologically sensitive wetlands.  Statement 3 is Correct   Aim of the Scheme  The primary goal is to boost livelihood opportunities for local communities by harnessing the nature-tourism potential of Ramsar Sites across the country.    Collaborative Implementation  The scheme operates in convergence with various Central Government ministries and agencies, State wetland authorities, and a network of formal and informal institutions and individuals.    Pilot Projects and Skill Development  Out of the 16 identified Ramsar sites, five serve as pilot projects under the scheme.  Pilot sites include Sultanpur National Park (Haryana), Bhitarkanika Mangroves (Odisha), Chilika Lake (Odisha), Sirpur (Madhya Pradesh), and Yashwant Sagar (Madhya Pradesh).  Training programs under the Alternative Livelihood Programme (ALP) and Paryatan Navik Certificate focus on skill development, with a 30 hours/15 days training program for participants.

Q 13. Consider the following statements regarding Parakram Diwas: 

1. Established in 2011, Parakram Diwas is an annual celebration in India marking the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose 
2. In 2022, a hologram near India Gate marked Netaji’s 125th birth anniversary. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: B 

Why this question– The Prime Minister of India recently took part in the Parakram Diwas celebrations at the Red Fort on January 23, 2024, commemorating the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose.

Source: HT

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect  Parakram Diwas: Commemorating Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose’s Birth Anniversary    Initiation and Significance  Established in 2021, Parakram Diwas is an annual celebration in India marking the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose.  The term “Parakram” in Hindi translates to courage or valour, reflecting Netaji’s strong and courageous spirit and the resilience of those who fought for India’s freedom.    Celebration Overview  Various events and activities are organized to highlight the historical significance of Netaji’s role in the freedom struggle.  The Ministry of Culture collaborates with institutions like the Archaeological Survey of India, National School of Drama, Sahitya Akademi, and the National Archives of India for comprehensive celebrations.  Activities delve into the profound legacy of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and the Azad Hind Fauj.  Statement 2 is Correct  Legacy Display: Netaji’s 125th Birth Anniversary  In 2022, a hologram near India Gate marked Netaji’s 125th birth anniversary.  The hologram, initially installed, was later replaced by a grand statue on September 8, 2022, near India Gate in New Delhi.

Q 14. With reference to Soda Lakes consider the following statements: 

1. Soda Lakes typically exhibit a very low pH range of 0-5 
2. Prokaryotes, such as bacteria and archaea, dominate in soda lakes 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– Researchers have found that a shallow “soda lake” in western Canada bears similarities to Darwin’s concept of “warm little ponds,” suggesting it could be a suitable environment for the origins of life on early Earth.

Source: PO

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect  Overview of Soda Lakes  Soda Lakes typically exhibit a pH range of 9 to 11.  High carbonate concentration, particularly sodium carbonate, contributes to the alkalinity, and they may contain elevated levels of sodium chloride and other salts, making them saline or hypersaline.    Productivity and Environment  Soda Lakes are highly productive ecosystems, surpassing freshwater lakes.  They naturally occur in arid and semi-arid regions.  Statement 2 is Correct  Geology and Formation  Geological, climatic, and geographic conditions are crucial for a lake to become alkaline.  Topography limiting water outflow leads to the formation of an endorheic basin.  Evaporation in a suitable climate, like a desert climate, raises the water’s pH.    Factors Influencing pH  The dissolution rate of carbonate salt in lake water depends on the surrounding ecology.  The relative absence of magnesium and calcium is vital for soda lake formation, as their presence can neutralize the water’s pH.    Biodiversity in Soda Lakes  Prokaryotes, such as bacteria and archaea, dominate in lakes with higher alkalinity.  Multicellular organisms like brine shrimp and fish are abundant in most soda lakes.    Examples of Soda Lakes  Africa and Asia, with vast desert conditions, host numerous soda lakes.  Eastern Africa, especially Kenya, Tanzania, and Ethiopia, has a significant number, with Lake Natron in Tanzania being notable.  India and China lead in the number of soda lakes in Asia, including Lake Van, Tso Kar Salt Lake, Pangong Salt Lake, and Lake Zabuye.

Q 15. Consider the following statements regarding Mpemba Effect: 

1. It involves the peculiar observation that hot water can freeze faster than cold water under similar conditions 
2. Frost acts as an insulator, potentially slowing the loss of heat during the cooling process 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  A 

Why this question- Scientists remain captivated by the Mpemba effect due to its intricate interplay of physical mechanisms.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement I is Correct  Understanding the Mpemba Effect:  Origin and Naming  Named after Tanzanian student Erasto Mpemba, who highlighted this counterintuitive phenomenon in 1969.    Counterintuitive Observation  Involves the peculiar observation that hot water can freeze faster than cold water under similar conditions.    Historical Noticing  While Aristotle, Francis Bacon, and René Descartes had observed this effect centuries earlier, it gained scientific attention more recently.    Various Experiments Conducted  Researchers have undertaken numerous experiments to comprehend the causes of the Mpemba effect.  However, a consensus conclusion has not been reached.  Statement II is Correct  Microbubbles Hypothesis  One posited cause is the presence of microbubbles suspended in water heated by boiling.  These cavities may enhance convection and accelerate heat transfer as the water cools.    Evaporation Contribution  Warmer water evaporates more, and this evaporation process is inherently endothermic (similar to how sweat cools the skin).  Enhanced convection and accelerated heat transfer occur in warmer water due to its lower density.    Frost as an Insulator  Another factor considered is the presence of frost in cold water.  Frost acts as an insulator, potentially slowing the loss of heat during the cooling process.    Compounds in Water Hypothesis  Scientists explore the possibility of compounds like calcium carbonate precipitating and dissolving in water during boiling.  This process might alter the freezing point of the water.    Ongoing Scientific Inquiry  Despite various hypotheses, ongoing scientific inquiry continues to unravel the complexities of the Mpemba effect

Q 16. .Consider the following statements regarding National Monetization Pipeline 

1. The NMP aims to generate Rs 6-lakh crore by leasing core assets of the Central government over FY 2022-30 
2. It aims to optimize resources by introducing private sector efficiency and market-driven approaches 
3. Balancing asset transfer without compromising market dynamics and end-user costs is a major concern  

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two  
3. All three  
4. None 

Answer: B 

Why this question- The Central government has recently opted to initiate an Asset Recycling Drive as part of the National Monetization Pipeline (NMP), to create funds for fresh investments in infrastructure projects.

Source: FE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect   Understanding the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP)    Overview of NMP  The NMP aims to generate Rs 6-lakh crore by leasing core assets of the Central government over FY 2022-25.  Sectors involved include roads, railways, power, oil and gas pipelines, telecom, and civil aviation.  Focus on core assets of central government line ministries and CPSEs in infrastructure sectors.    Expansion of Scope  Coordination underway to include assets from states at both central and state levels.  Non-core asset monetization transferred from DIPAM to DPE for efficiency.  Aligns with the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) to support Rs 111 trillion investments in six years through FY25.  Statement 2 is Correct  Need for NMP  Addresses challenges such as cost overruns, overcapitalization, resource optimization, coordination issues, and labor reforms.  Aims to optimize resources by introducing private sector efficiency and market-driven approaches.    Significance of NMP  Aligned with PM Gati Shakti for integrated infrastructure development.  Boosts the economy, generates employment, and supports competitiveness.  Utilizes underutilized public assets to fund new projects and infrastructure augmentation.    Achievements and Expectations  Mining sector leads monetization in 2023-24, surpassing targets significantly.  NHAI contributes significantly through Toll Operate Transfer (ToT), securitization, and Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT) models.  Expectations for power, railways, and oil and gas sectors in FY24.  Statement 3 is Correct  Challenges Associated with NMP    Taxpayers’ Concerns  Concerns about double charges on public assets post-monetization.  Balancing public investment and private involvement to address taxpayer apprehensions.    Cycle of Asset Creation and Monetization  Potential for a cycle of creating and monetizing assets as they become liabilities.  Ensuring a strategic approach to prevent asset management challenges.    Asset-Specific Challenges  Challenges in capacity utilization, regulated tariffs, and investor interest in specific sectors.  Addressing issues related to gas and petroleum pipelines, power sector assets, and national highways.    Monopolization Concerns  Critique on potential monopolization and reduced competition.  Balancing asset transfer without compromising market dynamics and end-user costs.    Way Forward for NMP  Enhance transparency in the monetization process for stakeholder trust.  Communicate benefits in terms of economic growth, job creation, and improved infrastructure.  Continuously refine policy framework to address emerging challenges.  Establish a supportive regulatory environment and a robust monitoring system for project performance.

Q 17.Consider the following statements regarding LED lamps: 

1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps 
2. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer lifespan than LED lamps 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences has declared that, whereas incandescent light bulbs illuminated the 20th century, LED lamps would be the illumination source for the 21st century

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  Sodium lamps, specifically high-pressure sodium (HPS) lamps, emit light in almost all directions (360 degrees).   They are omnidirectional, meaning they emit light uniformly in all directions. On the other hand, LED lamps are directional light sources. LEDs emit light in a specific direction, making them more energy-efficient for certain applications where focused light is needed.   LED streetlights, for example, can be designed to direct light where it is needed, reducing light pollution and increasing overall efficiency.  Statement 2 is Incorrect  In general, LED lamps have a longer lifespan compared to sodium lamps. LED lamps can last significantly longer, with lifespans often exceeding 25,000 to 50,000 hours or more.   On the other hand, high-pressure sodium lamps typically have a shorter lifespan, often around 12,000 to 24,000 hours.   The longer lifespan of LED lamps is one of the reasons they are preferred for street lighting despite their potentially higher upfront cost, as they result in lower maintenance and replacement costs over time

Q 18. Consider the following statements regarding Wild Life Licensing Rules 2024 

1. In the new rules, consultation with the central government is required for licensing related to any wild animal specified in Schedule I. 
2. The new rules however do not outline specific factors for authorized officers to consider when granting licences 
3. Schedule II includes important species like endangered mammals, birds, turtles, geckos, and snakes 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two  
3. All three  
4. None 

    Answer: B 

Why this question- The central government has recently amended the wildlife trade rules through the introduction of the Wild Life (Protection) Licensing (Additional Matters for Consideration) Rules, 2024.

Source: DTE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  Understanding the Wildlife Licensing Rules 2024    Changes in Schedule I  In the new rules, consultation with the central government is required for licensing related to any wild animal specified in Schedule I to the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.  Schedule I includes species like tigers, elephants, rhinos, emphasizing their need for utmost protection.    Modification in Schedule II  Notable change: The new guidelines remove licensing restrictions for species listed in Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.  Licences for trading in Schedule II species can now be granted without consultation or approval from the central government.  Statement 2 is Incorrect  Factors Considered in Licensing  The new rules outline specific factors for authorized officers to consider when granting licences.  Factors include the applicant’s capacity, source and manner of obtaining supplies, existing licences in the area, and implications on hunting or trade  Statement 3 is Correct   Concerns Regarding the New Rules    Exclusion of Schedule II Species  Lack of clarity on why licensing restrictions for Schedule II species have been removed.  Schedule II includes important species like endangered mammals, birds, turtles, geckos, and snakes.  Concerns arise about the level of protection these species will receive.    Rationalization of Schedules in 2022  Schedules of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, were rationalized in The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022.  Questions raised on the alignment of the exclusion of certain Schedule II species with the rationalization process.  Experts inquire whether these species have indeed increased in numbers, justifying a lower level of protection.

Q 19. Concerning Coral Reefs consider the following statements 

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters 
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: D 

Why this question-Researchers have charted the most extensive deep-sea coral reef ever identified, situated along the Atlantic coastline of the United States.

Source: DH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  Coral reefs are primarily found in tropical and subtropical waters, where the sea surface temperature is generally warm.   The optimal temperature range for coral reef formation is typically between 20 to 28 degrees Celsius (68 to 82 degrees Fahrenheit).   These conditions are prevalent in tropical regions, particularly around the equator.  Statement 2 is Correct  Australia’s Great Barrier Reef is the largest coral reef system in the world and is a UNESCO World Heritage site. Indonesia and the Philippines are known for their extensive coral reef ecosystems as well. Together, these three countries host a significant portion of the world’s coral reefs.  Australia: The Great Barrier Reef, off the northeast coast of Australia, is the largest coral reef system globally and a UNESCO World Heritage site. It is home to a vast array of marine life and is of critical ecological importance.    Indonesia: Indonesia is an archipelagic country with a high level of marine biodiversity. The Coral Triangle, which includes parts of Indonesia, is a hotspot for coral reef diversity. The region is known for its vibrant coral reefs and is considered the global epicenter of marine life.    Philippines: The Philippines is part of the Coral Triangle and hosts a diverse range of coral reefs. It is recognized for its marine biodiversity, and its reefs are essential for both ecological and economic reasons.

Q 20. Consider the following statements regarding Geographical Indication’ status: 

1. GI is regulated under the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights at the World Trade Organization. 
2. While many EU nations classify GI into Protected GI (PGI) and Protected Destination of Origin (PDO), India currently adopts only the PGI category and not PDO 
3. Globally, agricultural products and foodstuffs make up 51.8% of registered GIs, followed by wines and spirits at 29.9%. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two  
3. All three  
4. None 

Answer: B 

Why this question- The journey of India’s Geographical Indication (GI) tags spanning over two decades encounters challenges, as the limited outcomes underscore the necessity for reforms in the registration processes.

Source: DTE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  Definition: Linking Quality to Geographic Origin    A Geographical Indication (GI) is a designation assigned to products originating from a specific geographical area, signifying that the inherent qualities or reputation of the products are closely tied to that particular origin.    Legal Framework and Governance: Upholding Standards    GI is regulated under the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) at the World Trade Organization (WTO).   In India, the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 aims to register and protect geographical indications related to goods  Statement 2 is Correct  Categories in EU and India: PGI and PDO    While many EU nations classify GI into Protected GI (PGI) and Protected Destination of Origin (PDO), India currently adopts only the PGI category.   This certification extends beyond agricultural products to include non-agricultural items, like handicrafts, rooted in the unique skills and resources of specific regions.    GI as a Socio-Economic Catalyst: Empowering Communities    GI serves as a robust tool for safeguarding traditional knowledge and culture, fostering socio-economic development in the regions associated with the certified products.  Statement 3 is Incorrect   Status of GI Tags Registration: A Global Perspective    Global Landscape: Registration Statistics    India faces a lag in GI registration compared to other nations. As of December 2023, only 547 out of 1,167 applications have been registered. Globally, Germany leads with 15,566 registered products, followed by China with 7,247, according to 2020 data from the World Intellectual Property Organization.    Composition of Registered GIs: A Global and Indian View    Globally, wines and spirits make up 51.8% of registered GIs, followed by agricultural products and foodstuffs at 29.9%. In India, handicrafts constitute approximately 45%, while agriculture comprises about 30% of GI products.    Concerns Regarding the GI Tags in India: Addressing Challenges    Challenges with GI Act and Registration Process: Modernization Imperative    The GI Act of 1999 requires timely amendments to meet current challenges. Simplifying registration forms and application processing times is crucial for increased compliance.    Ambiguity in Producers’ Definition: Streamlining Benefits    Lack of clarity in defining “producers” leads to intermediaries benefiting from GIs, diluting advantages for genuine producers.    Disputes at the International Level: Highlighting Attention Gaps    International disputes, as seen with products like Darjeeling tea and Basmati rice, underscore that GIs receive less attention compared to patents, trademarks, and copyrights.    Academic Attention: Encouraging Scholarly Focus    Limited academic focus on GIs is evident in India. Efforts are needed to bolster academic interest and research in this field.

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