Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
Q 1. Consider the following statements regarding Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
- The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 defines a child as an individual below the age of 18
- The 2016 amendment prohibits children from engaging in any occupation and adolescents from hazardous occupations.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- The Labor Department has been instructed to furnish a report following an investigation into allegations of child labor. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Definition and Objective The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 defines a child as an individual below the age of 14. Objective: Regulate working hours and conditions for child workers and prohibit their employment in hazardous industries. Statement II is Correct Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 Amendment Overview The 2016 amendment prohibits children from engaging in any occupation and adolescents from hazardous occupations. Stricter Punishments: Introduces harsher penalties for employers violating the Act. Cognizable Offense: Makes employing a child or adolescent against the Act cognizable. Government Intervention: Grants the government authority to restrict the employment of adolescents in hazardous conditions |
| Additional Information: Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2017 Amendment Details Framework Enhancement: Introduces a comprehensive framework for the prevention, prohibition, rescue, and rehabilitation of child and adolescent workers. Family Enterprises Clarification: Provides clarity on issues related to family enterprises. Safeguards for Creative Workers: Ensures specific working hour and condition safeguards for creative workers or artists permitted under the Act. Enforcement Duties: Specifies duties and responsibilities for law enforcement agencies, aiming for effective implementation and compliance. |
2. Consider the following statements regarding Artificial Intelligence
- Artificial Intelligence can effectively Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
- Artificial Intelligence can effectively do Disease diagnosis
- Artificial Intelligence can effectively do wireless transmission of electrical energy
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- An OpenAI official faced criticism for likening her interaction with ChatGPT to therapy, even though she acknowledged not having undergone therapy before. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Artificial Intelligence (AI) can be employed to optimize energy usage in industrial units. AI algorithms can analyze data, predict energy needs, and automate processes to enhance energy efficiency, thus reducing electricity consumption. Statement 2 is Correct AI has shown promise in disease diagnosis by analyzing medical data, images, and patterns. Machine learning algorithms can assist in identifying diseases, analyzing medical images, and providing diagnostic insights. However, it is crucial to note that AI is a tool to aid healthcare professionals and not a replacement for human expertise. Statement 3 is Incorrect While AI itself does not directly perform wireless transmission of electrical energy, it can be used in the development and optimization of systems that enable wireless energy transmission. Technologies like AI can contribute to the efficient management and control of wireless energy transmission systems, enhancing their effectiveness |
Q 3. Consider the following statements regarding The Cauvery River
- The Cauvery River, often referred to as the ‘Dakshi Bharat ki Ganga’ or ‘the Ganga of the South,’ originates from Talakaveri.
- The Cauvery basin encompasses the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
| Why this question– A research paper indicates that approximately 12,850 square kilometers of natural vegetation in the Cauvery basin has been depleted. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct The Cauvery River: A Geographical Overview The Cauvery River, often referred to as the ‘Dakshi Bharat ki Ganga’ or ‘the Ganga of the South,’ originates from Talakaveri on the Brahmagiri range near Cherangala village in Kodagu (Coorg) district of Karnataka, at an elevation of 1,341 m. Stretching over a length of 800 km, the river flows in a southeasterly direction for 705 km through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, descending the Eastern Ghats with impressive falls. Before reaching the Bay of Bengal south of Cuddalore, Tamil Nadu, the river forms an extensive delta, aptly named the “garden of southern India,” with numerous distributaries. Statement 2 is Correct The Cauvery basin encompasses the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry, covering an area of 81 thousand sq. km. Bounded by the Western Ghats on the west, Eastern Ghats on the east and south, and ridges separating it from the Krishna and Pennar basins to the north. The basin is physiographically divided into three regions: the Western Ghats, the Plateau of Mysore, and the Delta. The fertile delta area is a crucial tract in the basin, hosting a variety of soil types, including black soils, red soils, laterites, alluvial soils, forest soils, and mixed soils. Rainfall patterns vary across the basin, with Karnataka receiving primarily from the southwest monsoon and partially from the northeast monsoon. Tamil Nadu, on the other hand, benefits significantly from the northeast monsoon. The upper catchment experiences southwest monsoon rains during the summer, while the lower catchment receives rainfall from the retreating northeast monsoon in winter. This consistent rainfall makes the Cauvery almost a perennial river, with minimal fluctuations in flow, making it valuable for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. The basin boasts scenic attractions, such as the Sivasamudram Falls near Sivasamudram, reaching a width of 300 m in the rainy season. These falls contribute hydroelectric power to regions like Mysore, Bengaluru, and the Kolar Gold Fields. The Cauvery stands out as one of the best-regulated rivers, with 90 to 95 percent of its irrigation and power production potential already harnessed. Finally, the river gracefully drains into the Bay of Bengal, with the majority of the basin dedicated to agricultural land, constituting 66.21% of the total area. |
4. Consider the following statements regarding Chief Minister
- Article 164 mandates the President to appoint the Chief Minister.
- Chief Minister serves for a fixed tenure of 5 years.
- Chief Minister allocates and reshuffles portfolios, holding the key role in the council.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- Chhattisgarh has appointed Vishnu Deo Sai, a seasoned tribal leader, as its new Chief Minister. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Appointment Constitutional Provision: Article 164 mandates the Governor to appoint the Chief Minister. Majority Party Leader: The leader of the party with the majority in assembly elections becomes the Chief Minister. Executive Authority: Chief Minister holds real executive authority, though the Governor retains discretionary powers. Non-Legislature Appointment: A non-legislator can serve as Chief Minister for six months, requiring subsequent election to the legislature Statement 2 is Incorrect Term of the CM Governor’s Pleasure: Chief Minister serves at the Governor’s pleasure but can’t be dismissed without majority loss. Vote of No-Confidence: Removal possible via a vote of no-confidence in the State Legislative Assembly. Statement 3 is Correct Powers and Functions With Respect to Council of Ministers Ministerial Appointments: The Governor appoints ministers based on Chief Minister’s recommendations. Portfolio Allocation: Chief Minister allocates and reshuffles portfolios, holding the key role in the council. Council Collapse: Chief Minister’s resignation can lead to the council’s collapse. With Respect to Governor Link Between Governor and Council: Acts as a crucial link between the Governor and the state council of ministers. Appointment Advice: Advises the Governor on crucial appointments like advocate general and commission members. With Respect to State Legislature Policy Announcement: Chief Minister declares policies on the legislative floor. Dissolution Recommendation: Recommends legislative assembly dissolution to the Governor. Other Functions State Planning Board Chairman: Heads the State Planning Board. Zonal Council Vice-Chairman: Serves as the vice-chairman of the relevant zonal council. National Council Membership: Member of the Inter-State Council and NITI Aayog Governing Council. Government Spokesperson: Chief spokesman for the state government. Emergency Crisis Manager: Takes a leadership role during emergencies. People’s Representative: Meets and addresses people’s concerns, receiving memoranda and addressing problems. Services Head: Political head of the state’s services. |
5. With reference to the following statements
- The PM Vishwakarma Scheme is a dedicated initiative aimed at uplifting Scheduled Caste women and girls.
- It is being Implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
| Why this question– The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched by the Centre, has garnered over 21 lakh applications in two and a half months. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect PM Vishwakarma Scheme: Nurturing Artisan Heritage Overview The PM Vishwakarma Scheme is a dedicated initiative aimed at uplifting traditional artisans and craftsmen engaged in diverse occupations such as blacksmithing, goldsmithing, pottery, carpentry, and sculpting. The scheme emphasizes preserving cultural heritage and integrating these skilled artisans into the formal economy and global value chains. Statement 2 is Incorrect Administrative Framework Implemented as a Central Sector Scheme, the initiative is fully funded by the Government of India. The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME) serves as the nodal ministry, with joint implementation by MoMSME, the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, and the Department of Financial Services under the Ministry of Finance. Key Features Recognition and Support: Artisans enrolled in the scheme receive a PM Vishwakarma certificate and an identity card. Additionally, they are eligible for collateral-free credit support of up to Rs 1 lakh (first tranche) and Rs 2 lakh (second tranche) at a concessional interest rate of 5%. Skill Development and Empowerment: A budget of Rs 13,000 crore for five financial years (2023-2024 to 2027-2028) has been allocated. The scheme offers a stipend of Rs 500 for daily skill training and a Rs 15,000 grant for the purchase of modern tools. Scope and Coverage: Encompassing 18 traditional trades in both rural and urban areas, the scheme includes carpenters, boat-makers, blacksmiths, potters, sculptors, cobblers, tailors, and more. Registration and Implementation: Artisans can register for the Vishwakarma Yojana at common services centers in villages. While the central government provides funding, state governments’ support is also solicited. Objectives Ensure seamless integration of artisans into domestic and global value chains, enhancing market access and opportunities. Preserve and promote India’s rich cultural heritage rooted in traditional crafts. Assist artisans in transitioning to the formal economy and integrating them into global value chains. Significance Recognizing the indispensable role of Vishwakarmas in society, the scheme aims to provide crucial support to these artisans, acknowledging their contribution regardless of technological advancements. The initiative underscores the need to integrate traditional artisans into the global supply chain, ensuring the preservation of India’s cultural legacy |
Q 6. Consider the following statements regarding Ghaggar River
- It originates from the Dhaula Dhar Range in northwestern Himachal Pradesh.
- Key tributaries of the Ghaggar include the Kaushalya River, Markanda, Sarsuti, Tangri, and Chautang.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- In an effort to raise awareness about the harmful impact of waste disposal in the Ghaggar River, residents from across the Ghaggar region conducted a cleanliness drive at the Chatt Puja Ghat of the river recently. |
| Source: TOI |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Exploring the Ghaggar River Characteristics The Ghaggar River is a seasonal watercourse, flowing intermittently and predominantly during the monsoon season. Course Originating from the Shivalik Range in northwestern Himachal Pradesh, the river courses approximately 200 miles (320 km) southwest through Haryana, where it merges with the Saraswati River. Its journey concludes as it dries up in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan. Notably, the Ghaggar River contributes to two irrigation canals extending into Rajasthan. In Pakistan, the river is known as the Hakra, forming the Ghaggar-Hakra River. Statement II is Correct Historical Significance The Ghaggar River holds historical importance, with many historians associating it with the Vedic Saraswati River. The banks of the Ghaggar have revealed numerous settlements from the Indus Valley Civilization, suggesting a connection to the ingenious Vedic Aryans. It is speculated that the riverbed once received the waters of the Sutlej and Yamuna. Tributaries Key tributaries of the Ghaggar include the Kaushalya River, Markanda, Sarsuti, Tangri, and Chautang. |
7. Consider the following statements regarding acidification of oceans
- The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected by ocean acidification.
- The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected by ocean acidification.
- The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected by ocean acidification.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
| Why this question-The nocturnal Diel Vertical Migration (DVM) of deep-sea creatures, like zooplankton, for nourishment and safety is a mesmerizing natural phenomenon with profound implications for the Earth’s Carbon Cycle |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct While some calcareous phytoplankton may benefit from increased bicarbonate availability in more acidic conditions, the overall impact on different species may vary. It’s a complex area of study, and the effects can depend on specific phytoplankton species and environmental conditions. However, generally the growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected by ocean acidification. Statement 2 is Correct Ocean acidification poses a significant threat to coral reefs. Corals build their skeletons with aragonite, a form of calcium carbonate. As oceans become more acidic, it hampers the ability of corals to produce and maintain their skeletons, making them more vulnerable to damage and inhibiting reef growth. Statement 3 is Correct Many marine animals, especially those with calcium carbonate shells or skeletons in their larval stages, can be adversely affected by ocean acidification. The increased acidity makes it challenging for these larvae to build and maintain their protective structures, impacting their survival rates. |
8.Consider the following statements regarding Pangalokha Wildlife Sanctuary
- It is situated in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
- The Pangolakha Range, positioned below the Chola Range, acts as a natural divide between Sikkim and Bhutan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– A Royal Bengal Tiger was recently sighted at an elevation of 3,640 meters in the Pangalokha Wildlife Sanctuary in Sikkim. |
| Source: DH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Exploring Pangalokha Wildlife Sanctuary Location and Connectivity Situated in the East Sikkim district, Pangalokha Wildlife Sanctuary is intricately linked to the forests of Bhutan and Neora Valley National Park in West Bengal. Vegetation Encompassing alpine, temperate, and subtropical vegetation, the sanctuary features high-altitude lakes near JelepLa. Noteworthy flora includes Rhododendron, Silver Fir, Juniper Forest, moss-filled oak forests, and dense bamboo thickets. Rich Flora and Fauna The sanctuary boasts a diverse array of charismatic species, including red pandas, snow leopards, Himalayan musk deer, Himalayan goral, and Himalayan black bears. The habitat is characterized by Rhododendron-covered hills, making it a haven for unique plant and animal life. The region is further accentuated by its scenic landscapes and the presence of high-altitude lakes. Statement 2 is Correct The Pangolakha Range, positioned below the Chola Range, acts as a natural divide between Sikkim and Bhutan. |
9. Consider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
- It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates
- It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year
- It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- In its latest bimonthly meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), the RBI has opted to keep the benchmark interest rates unchanged for the fifth consecutive time. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in India is responsible for deciding the benchmark interest rates, particularly the repo rate. The repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks, influencing the overall interest rate structure in the economy. Statement 2 is Incorrect The MPC is a 6-member body, not 12. It consists of three members from the RBI, including the Governor, the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, and another officer. The other three members are external and appointed by the central government. The committee is not reconstituted every year; instead, external members have a fixed term. Statement 3 is Incorrect The MPC functions under the chairmanship of the RBI Governor, who is the ex-officio chairperson of the committee. The Union Finance Minister does not chair the MPC but may have policy discussions and consultations with the committee. |
Q 10. With reference to Pinna nobilis consider the following statements
- Pinna nobilis, commonly known as the noble pen shell, is a large species of Mediterranean clam.
- It is vulnerable according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– Marine biologists have recently reported a significant resurgence in the population of a large clam, once on the brink of extinction, in the waters off Croatia. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Understanding Pinna nobilis: A Critically Endangered Marine Clam Overview Pinna nobilis, commonly known as the noble pen shell, is a large species of Mediterranean clam belonging to the marine bivalve mollusc family Pinnidae. Recognized for its remarkable size, with shells growing up to 1.2 meters across, these clams play a crucial ecological role by filtering seawater, fostering the flourishing of other organisms. Distinctive Features These clams anchor themselves to rocks using a robust byssus made up of silk-like threads, historically used for cloth production. The secretion of these fibres, composed of keratin and proteins, can reach lengths of up to 6 cm. The inner surface of the shell boasts a striking mother-of-pearl lining. Pinna nobilis also hosts symbiotic shrimp within its shell, believed to provide warnings to the clam in the face of threats, prompting it to close shut Statement 2 is Incorrect Distribution and Threats Endemic to the Mediterranean Sea, Pinna nobilis faces vulnerability to pollution and shell damage due to its relatively fragile nature. The species experienced a significant decline starting around 2016 due to a deadly pathogen. Conservation Status With a critically endangered status according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), Pinna nobilis requires urgent conservation efforts to ensure its survival in the Mediterranean ecosystem. |
Q 11. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Mouse Deer
- The Indian Mouse Deer, scientifically known as Moschiola indica, is the smallest deer species in India.
- Its IUCN conservation status is Vulnerable
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: C
| Why this question- In a recent animal exchange initiative by the Indira Gandhi Zoological Park with Kakatiya Zoological Park in Warangal, IGZP welcomed two new species, Mouse Deer and Chousingha. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement I is Correct Indian Mouse Deer – Key Details Overview The Indian Mouse Deer, scientifically known as Moschiola indica, is the smallest deer species in India, known for its nocturnal behaviour. Statement II is Incorrect Distribution Endemic to the Indian Subcontinent. Mainly found in peninsular India, with historical records in Nepal. Sri Lanka has a distinct species called the spotted chevrotain (Moschiola meminna). Commonly encountered in various forest areas along the Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats up to Orissa, and central Indian forests. Features Small in size, measuring 25-30 cm at shoulder height, and weighing between two to four kg. Dark brown fur with white underparts. Characterized by four or five light rows of white spots on the back. Males possess tusk-like upper canines. Unique three-chambered stomach instead of the typical four-chambered stomach in ruminants. Forages on the forest floor for fruits, roots, leaves, herbs, and occasionally consumes insects, crustaceans, and small mammals. Conservation Status IUCN: Least Concern. |
| Additional Information: Chousingha – Key Facts Overview The four-horned antelope, or chousingha (Tetracerus quadricornis), is a small antelope native to India and Nepal. Distribution Endemic to the Indian subcontinent. Found in woodland areas across India. Features Smallest antelope species in Asia. Identified by four horns, distinguishing them from other bovids with two horns. Typically, diurnal and solitary, occasionally seen in loose groups of three to four. Sedentary animals, residing in the same region throughout their lives. Yellowish-brown to reddish coat, slender build, small legs, and a short tail. Conservation Status IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. |
Q 12. Consider the following statements
- Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body
- National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) has entered into a Memorandum of Common Purpose (MoCP) with the Mississippi River Cities and Towns Initiative (MRCTI). |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) is not established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It is established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Statement 2 is Correct The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body. It was established in 2005 following the recommendations of the Tiger Task Force. It aims to strengthen tiger conservation and combat poaching. Statement 3 is Correct The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. It was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and its primary objective is to take measures for the prevention, control, and abatement of environmental pollution in the Ganga. |
Q 13. Consider the following statements regarding Radiocarbon dating
- Radiocarbon dating, also known as carbon-14 dating, is a scientific technique capable of determining the age of organic materials up to around 60,000 years.
- The process involves the continuous formation of carbon-14 in the upper atmosphere.
- The fundamental principle of half-life enables researchers to determine the age of various organic materials.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
| Why this question- Archaeologists have employed radiocarbon dating to analyse East Asia’s oldest true wooden frame saddle, shedding light on how advances in equestrian technology likely contributed to the rise of Mongolian steppe cultures. |
| Source: PO |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct About Radiocarbon Dating Radiocarbon dating, also known as carbon-14 dating, is a scientific technique capable of determining the age of organic materials up to around 60,000 years. Developed in the late 1940s by Willard Libby at the University of Chicago, this method relies on the decay of the carbon-14 isotope, a radioactive form of carbon. It has applications in historical studies and atmospheric science. Statement 2 is Correct The process involves the continuous formation of carbon-14 in the upper atmosphere through cosmic ray neutron interactions with nitrogen-14 atoms. This newly formed carbon-14 is then absorbed by plants and animals during their lifetimes. When these organisms die, the carbon-14 begins to decay into other atoms. By measuring the remaining carbon-14 atoms, scientists can estimate the time elapsed since the organism’s death. Statement 3 is Correct With a half-life of approximately 5,730 years, carbon-14 undergoes decay, wherein half of the atoms in a sample transform into other atoms within that time frame. This fundamental principle enables researchers to determine the age of various organic materials, including remnants of animals, humans, plants, paper, leather, and even building materials like logs |
Q 14. Concerning Mummified Baboons consider the following statements
- Recent DNA analysis has successfully traced the origin of mummified baboons to the ancient city of Adulis, situated in present-day coastal Europe.
- Papio Anubis, the more widely distributed baboon species, ranges across central sub-Saharan Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– For over a century, scientists have grappled with the mystery of the origin of mummified baboons in Egypt. Recently, researchers unveiled the secrets behind these ancient relics by employing mitochondrial DNA analysis. |
| Source: CNN |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Unveiling Ancient Trade Routes: DNA Analysis Traces Mummified Baboons to Coastal Eritrea Recent DNA analysis has successfully traced the origin of mummified baboons to the ancient city of Adulis, situated in present-day coastal Eritrea. This study not only unravelled the mystery surrounding these baboons but also provided insights into the potential location of the lost city of Punt, a significant trading partner with ancient Egypt and Adulis. The findings underscored the historical trade relationships between Egypt and Adulis, highlighting the Red Sea as a crucial hub in the trade history connecting India, Egypt, and Europe. The baboons in question, belonging to the species Papio Anubis and Papio hamadryas, shed light on the Old-World monkeys’ historical presence in this region. Statement 2 is Correct Papio Anubis, the more widely distributed baboon species, ranges across central sub-Saharan Africa. On the other hand, Papio hamadryas is found in the area of the southern Red Sea, specifically in Ethiopia, Somalia, and Eritrea. Both species, rated as “Lower Risk, Least Concern” by the IUCN Red List, play a fascinating role in unveiling ancient trade routes and connections in the Red Sea region. |
Q 15. Consider the following statements regarding Saiga Antelope
- It is listed under Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
- The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has reclassified the species from “Critically Endangered” to “Near Threatened.”
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has reclassified the species from “Critically Endangered” to “Near Threatened.” |
| Source: DTE |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Overview of the Saiga Antelope Physical Characteristics The Saiga antelope is a large migratory herbivore known for its distinctive appearance. Its most notable feature is an unusually large and flexible nose, characterized by an internal structure that functions as a filter. This unique nasal adaptation serves multiple purposes, such as filtering out dust stirred up by the herd during warm summers and warming icy air before it reaches the lungs in cold winters. Habitat and Distribution Habitat Saiga antelopes thrive in open dry steppe grasslands and semi-arid deserts, adapting to diverse environmental conditions. Historical Range These antelopes were once widespread across the Eurasian Steppe, a vast grassland extending from Hungary in Europe to Manchuria in Asia. Current Distribution Presently, Saiga antelopes are found in fragmented populations within Kazakhstan, Mongolia, the Russian Federation, and Uzbekistan. Sub-species The Saiga has two distinct sub-species: Saiga tatarica tatarica, distributed in most of its range, and Saiga tatarica mongolica, exclusively found in Mongolia. Conservation Status IUCN– The Saiga antelope is categorized as “Near Threatened” on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. CITES– It is listed under Appendix II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Threats The Saiga antelope faces significant threats, primarily attributed to hunting activities and habitat destruction. These challenges contribute to the species’ vulnerable status and necessitate conservation efforts to safeguard its populations. Statement II is Correct The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has reclassified the species from “Critically Endangered” to “Near Threatened.” |
Q 16.Consider the following statements regarding Financial Stability and Development Council
- It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
- It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
- It monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Financial Stability Board has urged increased cross-border cooperation and information sharing among local authorities in its latest report on crypto-asset intermediaries. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is not an organ of NITI Aayog. It is an autonomous body that operates independently of NITI Aayog. FSDC was established to strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability and promoting sustainable development Statement 2 is Correct The FSDC is headed by the Union Finance Minister of India. The Finance Minister serves as the Chairperson of the council. The council comprises various financial regulators, heads of financial institutions, finance ministry officials, and other relevant stakeholders. Statement 3 is Correct One of the primary objectives of the FSDC is to monitor macro-prudential supervision of the economy. This involves assessing and overseeing the overall financial stability and resilience of the financial system to identify and address systemic risks. |
Q 17. Consider the following statements regarding Web browser
- A web browser is software designed to explore the World Wide Web (www).
- Tim Berners-Lee introduced the World Wide Web in 2000s.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– Web browsers serve as our digital gateways to the expansive realm of the internet, simplifying our ability to navigate and reach web pages effortlessly with a simple click. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Understanding Web Browsers Overview A web browser is software designed to explore the World Wide Web (www), acting as an intermediary between the server and the client by requesting web documents and services. It functions as a compiler, rendering HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) to display web pages, including text, links, images, and additional elements such as stylesheets and JavaScript functions. Examples of Web Browsers Notable examples of web browsers include Google Chrome, Microsoft Edge, Mozilla Firefox, and Safari Statement 2 is Incorrect Historical Background In the early days of the internet, browsing was text-based until Tim Berners-Lee introduced the World Wide Web in 1990, accompanied by the inaugural web browser, ‘WorldWideWeb.’ The transformative Mosaic browser in 1993 introduced images to the web landscape, leading to the ‘Browser Wars’ between Netscape Navigator and Internet Explorer. Evolutionary Leaps Mozilla Firefox in 2004-2005 broke the dominance of Internet Explorer, introducing innovations like tabbed browsing and add-ons. Google’s Chrome emerged in 2008, revitalizing the browser market with its speed and minimalism. Other contenders like Apple’s Safari and Microsoft Edge evolved, offering diverse options. Anatomy of Web Browsers Request and Response Browsing initiates a digital communication sequence between servers, analogous to sending and receiving messages. Deconstructing the Response Webpage information arrives in HTML, CSS, and JavaScript files, each playing a vital role in constructing the final web page. HTML, CSS, and JavaScript HTML provides the architectural blueprint, defining the structure of the page. CSS acts as the interior designer, controlling aesthetics like color schemes and fonts. JavaScript adds dynamism, making pages interactive and responsive. Rendering The browser assembles the webpage by decoding HTML, applying CSS for aesthetics, and executing JavaScript for interactivity. Data Management Cookies store browsing data, while the cache retains frequently accessed files, enhancing page loading times. Security Measures Browsers employ encryption protocols like HTTPS and warning systems to ensure user safety. The Future of Browsing As technology advances, browsers embrace cutting-edge technologies like WebAssembly for near-native performance. Support for Virtual Reality (VR) and Augmented Reality (AR) experiences is on the horizon. Privacy features are also being enhanced, providing users with more control over their digital footprint. Web Browsers as Digital Architects Web browsers, often unsung heroes, translate code into dynamic web pages, forming the backbone of online experiences. Understanding the intricate processes underlying their operation enhances appreciation for the seamless magic they bring with every click. |
Q 18. Consider the following statements regarding Smooth-Coated Otter
- These otters inhabit a vast region in southern Asia, ranging from India eastward.
- As the smallest otter in Southeast Asia, smooth-coated otters adult weights ranging from 7 to 11 grams.
- The IUCN Red List categorizes smooth-coated otters as Vulnerable.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Kawal Tiger Reserve is transforming into a flourishing sanctuary for a fascinating aquatic species known as the smooth-coated otter, locally referred to as “Neeti Pilli” in Telugu. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Smooth-Coated Otter Overview Species Information The smooth-coated otter, scientifically known as Lutrogale perspicillata, represents the sole extant species in the genus Lutrogale. Geographical Distribution These otters inhabit a vast region in southern Asia, ranging from India eastward. Additionally, there exists a distinct population residing in the marshes of Iraq. Statement 2 is Incorrect Habitat Preferences Smooth-coated otters predominantly thrive in lowlands, coastal mangrove forests, peat swamp forests, freshwater wetlands, large forested rivers, lakes, and rice paddies. They are known to construct permanent burrows with underwater entrances and tunnels leading to chambers above high-water lines. Despite their aquatic adaptation, these otters are equally adept at traveling long distances overland in search of suitable habitats. Distinctive Features As the largest otter in Southeast Asia, smooth-coated otters boast adult weights ranging from 7 to 11 kg, with lengths of up to 1.3 m. Their fur is characterized by a smooth and shorter texture compared to other otters, ranging in color from light to dark brown dorsally and light brown to almost gray ventrally. Adapted for water activities, they exhibit strong swimming abilities and often engage in group hunting, adopting a V-formation while fishing upstream. Statement 3 is Correct Conservation Status The IUCN Red List categorizes smooth-coated otters as “Vulnerable.” |
Q 19. Concerning Karrar Combat Drones consider the following statements:
- The Karrar combat drone is an Unmanned Combat Air Vehicle (UCAV) designed and developed by Israel.
- Karrar drone boasts an impressive operational range of up to 1,000 kilometers.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– Iran has recently revealed advanced Karrar combat drones equipped with air-to-air missiles, bolstering its capabilities in air defense. |
| Source: WION |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Overview of Karrar Combat Drones The Karrar combat drone is an Unmanned Combat Air Vehicle (UCAV) designed and developed by Iran, marking a significant advancement in the country’s drone technology. As the first long-endurance and combat-capable Iranian drone, it plays a pivotal role in enhancing air defense capabilities, particularly along border areas. Statement 2 is Correct Key Features Operational Range Introduced in 2010, the Karrar drone boasts an impressive operational range of up to 1,000 kilometers (620 miles). Maximum Speed Fueled by its turbojet installation, the drone can achieve a maximum speed of 560 miles per hour. Service Ceiling Altitude The Karrar is designed to operate at high altitudes, with a reported service ceiling reaching 47,000 feet. Launch and Recovery Notably, the drone lacks retractable or fixed undercarriage. It utilizes a rocket-assisted launch mechanism, employing a catapult launching rail, and is recovered through a parachute-retarded freefall. Majid Thermal Missile Equipped with the Iranian-made Majid thermal missile, the Karrar drone enhances its air defense capabilities. The Majid missile features advanced thermal and optical seekers, significantly improving tracking and interception precision. Strategic Deployment The drone is strategically deployed along border regions, providing air defense units with cost-effective capabilities to intercept and neutralize potential aerial threats. This approach offers a more economical alternative to traditional manned fighter sorties. The integration of advanced features and the utilization of cutting-edge technology position the Karrar combat drone as a notable asset in Iran’s defense arsenal. |
Q 20. Consider the following statements regarding copper smelting plants
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment
3 They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- Less than 8% of India’s coal power plants have adopted recommended SO2 emission reduction technology, according to a recent analysis by the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA). |
| Source: DTE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect While copper smelting processes involve high temperatures and can release pollutants, lethal quantities of carbon monoxide are not typically associated with copper smelting. The primary emissions from copper smelting are more commonly sulphur dioxide (SO2) and particulate matter. Carbon monoxide is not a major byproduct of copper smelting and is more often associated with incomplete combustion in processes like vehicle engines. Statement 2 is Correct Copper slag, a byproduct of the smelting process, contains various heavy metals. When exposed to environmental conditions, such as rain or water, these heavy metals can leach into the surrounding soil or water, causing contamination. The leaching of heavy metals poses environmental risks as they can accumulate in ecosystems, potentially harming plants, animals, and humans. Statement 3 is Correct The smelting of copper involves the heating of copper ores, and this process can release sulphur dioxide (SO2) into the air. SO2 is a major air pollutant that can lead to respiratory issues, contribute to acid rain, and have adverse effects on the environment. Efforts are made to control and minimize SO2 emissions from copper smelting to mitigate its environmental impact. |
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