Here are 25 Questions, a part of our series on UPSC Prelims Mock Test.
Q1. Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.
- The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’
liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – B
- The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
- There is no mention of the term “Basic Structure” anywhere in the Indian Constitution. The idea that the Parliament cannot introduce laws that would amend the basic structure of the Constitution evolved gradually over time and in many cases. The idea is to preserve the nature of Indian democracy and protect the rights and liberties of people. This doctrine helps to protect and preserve the spirit of the Constitution document.
Q2. Consider the following statements:
- The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – B
- The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution was significant as it removed partially the distortions that were introduced into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment. It wanted to provide that certain changes in the Constitution which would have the effect of impairing its secular or democratic character, abridging or taking away fundamental rights prejudicing or impeding free and fair elections on the basis of adult suffrage and compromising the independence of judiciary.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.On 16 October 2015, in a 4-1 majority verdict, the Supreme Court held that both the Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014, and theNational Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014, were unconstitutional as it would undermine the independence of the judiciary.
Q3. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer – A
- The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru
Q4. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
- The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – A
- The governor can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year. Article 208 of the Constitution: A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. Thus, it’s not mandated in the Constitution for the State legislature to (ALWAYS) follow/copy the rules of Lok Sabha. So, 2 is wrong. Thus, answer A: only 1.
Q5. Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth The schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – A
- The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment in 1951 along with Article 31-B with a view to providing a “protective umbrella” to land reform laws to save them from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights. The SC upheld the validity of Article 31-B and Parliament’s power to place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule. The Supreme Court has said that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial scrutiny and that such laws do not enjoy blanket protection. Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after the Keshwanand Bharti Judgment on April 24, 1973, when it propounded the “basic structure” doctrine, were open to challenge.
Q6. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Answer – D
- The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution, which is popularly referred to as the?Anti-Defection Law inserted by the 1985 Amendment to the Constitution. It has provisions relating to disqualification of the Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection.
Q7. Consider the following statements:
- An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – D
- An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of After duly passed by both Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the President for assent
Q8. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharalal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Answer – C
- Jawaharlal Nehru was chairman of the Union Constitution Committee, Union Powers Committee, and States Committee for negotiating with states
Q9. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Forests: Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchange: Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank: Union List
(d) Public Health: State List
Answer – B
- The seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution, on the basis of the financial criteria adopted, contains three lists viz., the union list, the state list and the concurrent list. In the Union List, Post Office Saving Bank is Entry 39 along with Stock Exchanges and Future Markets is Entry 48.
Q10. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Answer -D
- The Preamble to the Constitution of India is A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Q11. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Answer – D
- Historically speaking, the term liberty was initially defined as the absence of all restraints on an individual. This is known as the negative concept of liberty. Early liberalism championed negative liberty. John Stuart Mill, the nineteenth-century English political philosopher, described, “Restraint as an evil”. – Liberty should be coupled with social restrain and subordinated to liberty of the greatest number of common happiness. So, accordingly, ‘B’ is wrong, and ‘D’ seems most appropriate.
Q12. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and Liberty?
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger
Answer – B
- The correct answer is If there are no laws, there is no liberty. The absence of all restraints on an individual is defined as liberty
Q13. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Answer – A
- The mind of the makers of the constitution of India is reflected in the Preamble to the Constitution
Q14. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
Answer – B
- The preamble of the Indian Constitution provides for the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. There was no Economic liberty embodied in the preamble. The preamble declares India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.
Q15. ‘Economic Justice’, as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in the
(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble and Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Answer – B
- Economic, Justice’, as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in the Preamble and Directive Principles.
Q16. Which one of the following is part of the preamble of the Constitution of India?
(a) We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic do hereby Adopt, Enact, and Give to ourselves this Constitution
b) We, the members of the Parliament, do hereby Adopt, Enact, and Give to ourselves this Constitution
(c) We, the people of the Constituent Assembly, do hereby Adopt, Enact, and Give to ourselves this Constitution
(d) None of the above
Answer – A
- The Preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out guidelines, which guide the people of the nation, and to present the principles of the Constitution, and to indicate the source from which the document derives its authority, and meaning. WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
- JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity, and to promote among them all, FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this 26th day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION
Q17. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been made in the
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Preamble to the Constitution
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Fundamental Rights
Answer – C
- To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity, and integrity of India” is a provision made in the. Article 51A(c) of the Constitution of India ays that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
Q18. In India, the separation of the judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
(a) The Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principle of state policy
(c) The Seventh schedule
(d) The conventional practice
ANswer – B
- Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the State Policy. Article 50 prescribes the Separation of the judiciary from the executive.
Q19. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
- Preamble
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer – D
- The preamble to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about dignity of an individual. The preamble of Indian Constitution speaks about “EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity”
- Article 23 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions the Right to Work. A similar concept in Article 41 of the Indian Constitution, under the head of DPSPs.
- Article 29 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about duties. A similar concept was inserted in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 under Part IV-A of the Constitution (Article 51A)
Q20. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare state?
(a) Directive principles of state policy
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh Schedule
Answer – A
- Directive principles of state policy are given in Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Article36 to 51).
- Article 38 mentioned about State’s securing a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
Q21. With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- They shall be enforceable by courts
- They shall not be enforceable by any court
- The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer – D
- Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the State Policy (Article 36 to Article 51)
- Article 37: Provisions of Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court
- Article 37 of the Indian Constitution also states that it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws as they are fundamental in the governance of the country
Q22. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
- legislative function.
- executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – D
- Fundamental rights operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature.
- The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters
Q23. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education, and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work for workers
Answer – B
- The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State: To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39). To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A). To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
- (Article 43 A). To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
Q24. In the Constitution of India, the promotion of international peace and security is included in the
(a) Preamble to the constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
ANswer – B
- In the Constitution of India, the promotion of international peace and security is included in Part V of the constitution i.e Directive Principles of State Policy
Q25. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer – C
- Article 37 of the Constitution of India says that the Directive Principles are not enforceable in any courts of law in India, but are fundamental in the governance of the country.
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