UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Solved PYQs – Environment

The UPSC Prelims examination from 2013 to 2023 has consistently emphasized the importance of environmental issues, reflecting the growing global concern for sustainable development. Questions in this period have covered a wide array of topics, ranging from biodiversity conservation and climate change to environmental legislations and international agreements. In 2013, candidates were tested on their knowledge of the National Biodiversity Authority and its functions. Subsequent years saw questions on topics such as the significance of the Montreal Protocol, the Ramsar Convention, and the role of carbon credits in climate change mitigation. The examination also delved into India’s domestic environmental policies, including the National Action Plan on Climate Change and the National Green Tribunal. Understanding environmental concepts such as ecological footprint, REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation), and the concept of Carbon Trading has been crucial for aspirants. The consistent inclusion of environmental questions in the UPSC Prelims underscores the need for civil servants to possess a holistic understanding of the challenges and solutions related to environmental sustainability.

2023

1. Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Answer: (c)

• Once the Centre notifies an area as a community reserve, as per Section 33 of the WLPA Act, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state becomes the governing authority of the forest, whose consent is required for all decisions pertaining to the area. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• After a forest has been made into a community reserve:
  • People are allowed to hunt there. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • People can collect non-timber forest produce. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • People are not allowed to use it for agricultural practices such as jhum cultivation. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
    

2. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (c)

• In India, the Biological Diversity Act 2002 (BD Act), is in close synergy with the Nagoya Protocol and aims to implement provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The Nagoya Protocol sought to ensure commercial and research utilisation of genetic resources led to sharing its benefits with the government and the community that conserved such resources. Under Section 41(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, every local body in the State shall constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee within its area of jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Some of the major functions of Biodiversity Management Committee are:
  • To prepare People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with local people.
  • Ensuring the protection of the knowledge recorded in PBR, especially to regulate its access to outside persons and agencies.
  • Conservation, sustainable use and access and benefit sharing of biological resources.
  • Regulation of access to the biological resources and/ or associated Traditional Knowledge, for commercial and research purposes.
  • May levy charges by way of collection fees from any person for accessing or collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes from areas falling within its territorial jurisdiction.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

3. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

• Marsupials (Metatheria) are pouched mammals, that is mammals in which the females bear their young alive but in an almost foetal state and, in most species, carry them within an external pocket or pouch formed by a flap of dermal tissue on the abdomen. The most familiar marsupials are the kangaroos. The Marsupials are native to Australia. They are not naturally found in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• However, marsupials can thrive in various habitats, not only in montane grasslands with no predators. They can live in any part of the forest habitat. Hence, statement II is not correct

4. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). 

5. Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b)

• Lion-tailed macaque, also known as the wanderoo, thrives in the upper canopy of tropical evergreen rainforests and monsoon forests, at a wide range of elevations, from 330 to 6,000 ft (100–1,850 m). They are endemic to the Western Ghats. Lion-tailed macaques are diurnal and live in groups of 10 to 20 individuals. Hence, 1 is not correct.
• Malabar Civet is a nocturnal and elusive animal. It is endemic to Western Ghats of India. They are mainly found in Wooded plains and hill slopes of evergreen rainforests. Hence, 2 is correct.
• Sambar deer is native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia that is listed as a vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List since 2008. Sambar are nocturnal or crepuscular animals and rest during the day under the cover of heavy forest. Hence, 3 is correct.

6. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honeybees
(d) Wasps

Answer: (c)

Option (a) is correct: Honeybees perform waggle dance to communicate the location of food sources or new nest sites to their colony mates. The dance consists of a straight run followed by a loop to one side and then another straight run followed by a loop to the other side, forming a figure-eight pattern. The angle of the straight run relative to gravity indicates the direction of the food source relative to the sun, and the duration of the straight run indicates the distance of the food source from the hive. 

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psycho active properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (d)

• Mushrooms act as antibacterial, immune system enhancer and cholesterol lowering agents; additionally, they are important sources of bioactive compounds. As a result of these properties, some mushroom extracts are used to promote human health and are found as dietary supplements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Psychedelic mushrooms are wild or cultivated mushrooms that contain psilocybin, a naturally occurring psychoactive and hallucinogenic compound. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Recently, an increasing number of mushrooms have been found to contain insecticidal compounds. Among these are species ofLactarius (Russulaceae), which react to wounding by exuding a milky fluid and/or color change reactions, which could be a warning reaction. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• A mushroom documentation project in the forests of Northeast India has revealed a bioluminescent or light emitting variety of mushroom. The new species named Roridomyces phyllostachydis was first sighted on a wet August night near a stream in Meghalaya’s Mawlynnong in East Khasi Hills district and later at Krang Shuri in West Jaintia Hills district. It is now one among the 97 known species of bioluminescent fungi in the world. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

8. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c)

• Indian squirrels are found in India (south of the Vindhyas) and Sri Lanka. They live in tropical dry forests, rainforests, mangrove forests, grasslands, scrub, parks, gardens, and urban areas. They are solitary and only come together during the breeding season. They are active during the day spending their time both in trees and on the ground. Sometimes they live in a system of burrows that they use for shelter and storage. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. Squirrels hide nuts this way as preparation for cold weather when otherwise food will be scarce. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Indian squirrels are omnivores. They feed mainly on nuts and fruits but will also eat seeds, insects, small mammals and reptiles, eggs, and even sometimes chicks of birds. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

9. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Researchers have spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from fruit and scrape insects using a stick from a hole in a tree in the wild. Orangutans are the largest arboreal mammal, spending most of their time in trees. Long, powerful arms and grasping hands and feet allow them to move through the branches. These great apes share 96.4% of our genes and are highly intelligent creatures. 

10. Consider the following:

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a group of industrial chemicals primarily used for cooling and refrigeration. HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air-conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection. 

11. Consider the following activities:

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:  Carbon sequestration is the technologies designed to tackle global warming by capturing CO₂ at power stations, industrial sites or even directly from the air and permanently storing it underground. It describes the long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to either mitigate or defer global warming. Some of the methods of Carbon sequestration are:

• Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
• Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
• Capturing carbon dioxide directly or indirectly from the atmosphere and then storing or burying it in a suitable deep, underground location.

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

• Aerospace and automobiles were some of the first industries to adopt carbon fibre. The high modulus of carbon fibre makes it suitable structurally to replace alloys such as aluminium and titanium. The weight savings carbon fibre provides is the primary reason carbon fibre has been adopted by the aerospace industry. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Currently, the most common recycling process used to recover carbon fibre from composite waste is pyrolysis, where high heat basically burns off the resin. Solvolysis, which uses a solvent to dissolve the resin, has long been claimed to offer superior properties. However, one of the main challenges to date has been obtaining recycled carbon fibre keeping the same mechanical properties as virgin carbon fibre. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

13. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (c)

• One major source of mercury emissions is small-scale gold mining that occurs in many countries. Artisanal gold mining currently contributes more than 35 per cent of all global mercury emissions created by people. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Coal-based thermal power plants are a known source of mercury pollution. When coal is burned to generate electricity, trace amounts of mercury present in coal can be released into the atmosphere as emissions. These emissions contribute to mercury pollution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Acute or chronic mercury exposure can cause adverse effects during any period of development. Mercury is a highly toxic element; there is no known safe level of exposure. Ideally, neither children nor adults should have any mercury in their bodies because it provides no physiological benefit. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

14. Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 

1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3) initiative focus for its investments?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 

(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative was launched in 2015 as a proof of concept to explore innovative ways of financing sustainable infrastructure projects in developing countries. The initiative aimed to leverage UNOPS’s expertise and experience in delivering infrastructure solutions that meet the needs and aspirations of people and communities. S3i seed funds large-scale affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure projects. It does not focus on mass rapid transport infrastructure. 

2022

1. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: According to the Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972, any wild animal that is hunted—aside from vermin—belongs to the State Government. If the animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National Park that the Central Government has designated, the animal—or any animal-related item—belongs to the Central Government. The Bombay High Court declared in a major decision in 2012 that wild animals, including the tiger, should be recognized as “government property for all purposes.”

Statement 2 is correct: The law governing the subject of wildlife, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found.

Statement 3 is not correct: Only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State. This provision is applicable to wild animals listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which includes leopards. Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing.

2. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(c) Crab

(d) Spider

Answer: (a)

The ant–fungus mutualism is a symbiosis seen between certain ant and fungal species, in which ants actively cultivate fungus much like humans farm crops as a food source. Leafcutter ants use leaves as their fertilizer to grow their crop: fungus. They cultivate their fungal gardens by providing them with freshly cut leaves, protecting them from pests and molds, and clearing them of decayed material and garbage. In return, the fungus acts as a food source for the ants’ larvae.

Option (a) is correct: Such group of ants are found across the American continents and the West Indies. These ants are known as fungus growers because they maintain an obligate mutualism with fungi cultured inside their nests, and which is the only food source for the larvae and an important resource for the adult ants as well.

3. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

(a)      Central Water Commission

(b)      Central Ground Water Board

(c)      Central Ground Water Authority

(d)      National Water Development Agency

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and control of groundwater development and management in the country.

4. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Greenwashing is when a company purports to be environmentally conscious for marketing purposes but actually isn’t making any notable sustainability efforts. It is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound. Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly.

5. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations 

(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” 

(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” 

(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank 

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct: The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.” It monitors 32 countries, accounting for more than 80 percent of global emissions. 

It is a collaboration of two organizations, Climate Analytics, and New Climate Institute. It aggregates country’s actions to the global level and evaluates climate change mitigation targets, policies and action.

6. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements? 

(a). The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation. 

(b). Algae from the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. 

(c). Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. 

(d). Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. 

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct: Tropical rainforests are frequently referred to be the “lungs of the planet” because they typically breathe oxygen in and carbon dioxide out. Because of their tremendous and long-lasting capacity to filter contaminants from the water that flows through them, natural wetlands are frequently referred to as “earth’s kidneys.” Heavy metals in aquatic environments, such as lakes and rivers, have been studied extensively because of their toxicity, persistence, and tendency to bioaccumulate. Many studies have shown that aquatic plants are sinks for heavy metals in aquatic ecosystems. Because of their capacity to accumulate heavy metals, several species of aquatic macrophytes such as H. verticillata and water hyacinth have been used to remove heavy metals from waste water. The ability of aquatic plants to actively and passively absorb huge amounts of metals from water and/or sediment through multiple organs such roots, stems, and leaves makes these plants suited for heavy metal modifications in the aquatic environment.

7. In the context of In WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 

1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. 
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) 1, 3 and 4 

(b) 1 and 4 only 

(c) 2, 3 and 4 

(d) 1 and 2 only 

Answer: (b) 

Statement 1 is correct: WHO’s new guidelines recommend air quality levels for six pollutants — particulate matter (PM), ozone (O₃), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO) — that are not just health hazards but they also give rise to other damaging pollutants. The recommendation for PM 2.5 is that the annual average should not exceed 5 micrograms per cubic metre, or 15 micrograms per cubic metre in a day.  

Statement 2 is not correct: Ozone is one of the main components of photochemical smog at ground level. It is created when pollutants like nitrogen oxides (NOx) from industry and car emissions and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from vehicles, solvents, and industry react with sunlight (photochemical reaction). Ozone levels are typically highest during the afternoon hours of the summer months, when the. influence of direct sunlight is the greatest. Inclement weather is unpleasant, especially with cold wind and rain. So, Ozone pollution will low during inclement weather.

Statement 3 is not correct: While particles with a diameter of 10 millimetres or less, or PM10, can enter and lodge deep inside the lungs, particles with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, or PM2.5, are much more harmful to human health. The lung barrier is permeable, and PM2.5 can get into the bloodstream. 

Statement 4 is correct: The health of people can be significantly impacted by excessive ozone in the air. Breathing issues, asthma attacks, lowered lung function, and lung illnesses can all be brought on by it.

8. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 

1. It is a fungus. 
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north- eastern India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 3 only 

(c) 1 and 2 

(d) 2 and 3 

Answer: (c) 

Statement 1 is correct: Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota. One of the most sought-after edible mushrooms, guchhi is known for its spongy, honeycombed head and savoury flavour but all of that comes at a high price. 

Statement 2 is correct: Gucchi mushrooms are mostly grown in Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jammu & Kashmir in India, where they develop in clusters on logs in rotting wood.  The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially and grow in conifer forests across temperature regions.

Statement 3 is not correct: There are only a few brief weeks in the spring when fresh morel mushrooms are available. Locals gather it from the wild environments in the northwest Himalayas.

9. Which of the following is not a bird? 

(a) Golden Mahseer 

(b) Indian Nightjar 

(c) Spoonbill 

(d) White Ibis 

 Answer: (a)

Mahseer roughly translates as mahi fish and Sher tiger; it is also referred as tiger among fish. It is a large cyprinid and known to be the toughest among the fresh water sport fish. Golden Mahseer lives in fast-moving waters, inhabiting hill streams with a rocky and stony substrate. They can be found in temperatures between 5°C and 25°C. The Golden Mahseer inhabits the Himalayan foothills, the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra basins and can also be found down south in the Balmore, Cauvery, Tambra Parini, and Kosi Rivers.

10. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants ? 

1. Alfalfa 
2. Amaranth 
3. Chickpea 
4. Clover 
5. Purslane (Kulfa) 
6. Spinach 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only 

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only 

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only 

(d) 1, 2, 4,5 and 6 

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct: Nitrogen fixation is a chemical process by which molecular nitrogen (N₂), with a strong triple covalent bond, in the air is converted into ammonia (NH₃) or related nitrogenous compounds, typically in soil or aquatic systems but also in industry.  Rhizobium is rod-shaped nitrogen-fixing bacteria live symbiotically within the roots of several leguminous plants such as alfalfa, sweet clover, sweet pea, lentils etc.

The amaranth plant is a grain and green crop plant, because it is not a pulse crop so do not nitrogen fixing mechanism. Purslane plant is one of the few vegetables that’s rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which are important to support healthy arteries and can help prevent strokes, heart attacks, and other forms of heart disease. It also do not have nitrogen fixing mechanism at root zone.

Additional Info:

• Clovers, vetches, and peas are nitrogen-fixing plants used by farmers worldwide  
• Peas or beans can be used as a summer nitrogen-fixing cover crop or harvested for food. Both ways, they enrich the soil with plant-suitable N. Southern peas prefer warm seasons and are sown when the soil temperature reaches 60F. 
• Beans: fava (aka faba, broad), alfalfa, green (aka French), runner, field sweet, peanuts (aka groundnuts), soybeans, cream, black-eyed, or purple-hulled beans, lupins, lentils, cowpeas

11. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations ? 

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs 

(b) Development of building materials using plant residues 

(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas 

(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas. 

 Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct: Biorock technology greatly accelerates coral settlement, growth, healing, survival, and resistance to environmental stresses such as high temperature, sediment, and pollution. All other marine organisms examined also benefit. The late architect developed the ground-breaking technique known as “biorock technology” in 1976 to create marine-based natural construction materials. Growing limestone breakwaters to safeguard islands and coastal areas from erosion and sea level rise, as well as fish and shellfish mariculture, have both been made possible with the use of biorock technology. It is a special technique that enables coral reefs and other marine ecosystems, such as salt marshes, mangroves, and oyster reefs, to live and regenerate.   

12. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: 

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas 

(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora 

(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas 

(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces 

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct: Miyawaki, an afforestation technique developed by the Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s, is used to grow urban forests. With this method, small plots of land are transformed into miniature forests by compressing the layers of a forest—shrubs, trees, and canopies. The method involves planting two to four trees per square metre. Miyawaki forests grow in two to three years and are self-sustaining. They help lower temperatures in concrete heat islands, reduce air and noise pollution, attract local birds and insects, and create carbon sinks. As a result, after three years the plantation becomes maintenance-free, grows 10 times quicker, and is about 30 times denser.

2021

1. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.

Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
2. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1
3. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
4. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as the 2020 Tree City of the World.

Statement 2 is correct: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests. It was given for its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests.  

2. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements:

1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: Rajapakar is a Climate-Smart Village (CSV), a part of a project led by the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS). Built on the principles of CSA, this program provides technological, organizational and systemic support to farmers in association with institutions to help them cope with climate change, in 36 sites across 20 countries. CCAFS Climate-Smart Villages (CSVs) have effectively brought together international knowledge and local action to assist farmers in producing more food sustainably while reducing greenhouse gas emissions and boosting climate change resistance.

Statement 2 is correct: In order to effectively promote development and guarantee food security in a changing climate, agricultural systems must be transformed and reoriented. This strategy is known as climate-smart agriculture (CSA). The governance and management of the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS) are based on lessons learned by CGIAR headquartered in France.

Statement 3 is correct: With a wide range of collaborators around the world, ICRISAT, a CGIAR Research Center, undertakes agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. It is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization. ICRISAT is headquartered in Patancheru near Hyderabad, Telangana, India, with two regional hubs and six country offices in sub-Saharan Africa. It is a member of the CGIAR Consortium. CGIAR is a global research partnership for a food secure future.

3. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Answer: (b)

Option 1 is incorrect: Copepods are a group of small crustaceans found in nearly every freshwater and saltwater habitat. Copepods are major secondary producers in the World Ocean

Option 2 is correct: Cyanobacteria, also called blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms found naturally in all types of water. These organisms are primary producers who use sunlight to make their own food.  

Option 3 is correct:  Diatoms are photosynthesising algae. Diatoms are one of the major primary producers in the ocean

Option 4 is incorrect: Foraminifera are single-celled organisms that are found in most marine environments. They are heterotrophic organisms which consumes smaller organisms and organic matter.  

4. Consider the following animals:

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: Hedgehogs are tiny mammals with low-lying bodies and short limbs. Hedgehogs will curl up into a ball when scared or irritated so a predator will feel the full force of their razor-sharp spines and leave the hedgehog alone.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Marmots are a genus of moderately big ground squirrels. Upon seeing a predator, the yellow-bellied marmot whistles to warn the others in the area, after which it typically hides in a nearby rock pile until there is no more threat. Since they hibernate underground in the winter, these herbivores are not visible during the summer, when they are active and frequently spotted in groups. Of the squirrel family, they are the heaviest.

Statement 3 is correct: Uniquely, pangolins have thick, overlapping scales covering them. If under threat, a pangolin will immediately curl into a tight ball and will use their sharp-scaled tails to defend themselves.

5. Concerning the New York declaration on Forests, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 5
3. 3 and 4
4. 2 and 5

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The New York Declaration on Forests was endorsed at the 2014 Climate Summit by more than 150 governments, companies, indigenous peoples and civil society organizations committed to doing their part to achieve the Declaration’s ten goals and follow its accompanying action agenda.

Statement 2 is correct: New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) emphasises ten goals which includes halting natural forest loss by 2030. The targets also include restoring 350 million hectares of degraded landscapes and forestlands, improving governance, increasing forest finance, and reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation as part of a post-2020 global climate agreement. 

Statement 3 is incorrect: The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a voluntary and non-binding international declaration to take action to halt global deforestation.  

Statement 4 is correct: It has presently over 200 endorsers – including national governments, subnational governments, companies, indigenous groups, financial institutions and NGOs. These endorsers have committed to doing their part to achieve the NYDF goals and follow its accompanying action agenda. 

Statement 5 is incorrect: India is not its signatory.

6. Magnetite particles suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d)

Option 1 is correct: The automotive industry uses ceramic or ferrite magnets to make vehicles safer. One of the most impressive uses is in the Anti-lock Braking System (ABS) of vehicles. These use of magnets in motor vehicles can generate magnetic particles. 

Option 2 is correct: Engines of motor vehicles can generate magnetic particles as they use high powered magnets which generate magnetic flux.  

Option 3 is correct: In Microwave, a magnetic stirrer is used which can generate magnetic particles. 

 Option 4 is correct: Power Plants releases metal content along with ash. Use of coal in power plants is a major source of combustion-associated magnetite fine particles. 

Option 5 is correct: Telephone line produces low frequency, low energy electromagnetic field which are the potential source of magnetite particles.

7. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

1. Catfish
2. Octopus
3. Oyster
4. Pelican

Answer: (c)

Option 3 is correct: Oysters are small organisms, found cemented to rocks or other hard substrates.   Oysters are filter feeders, which mean they consume food by moving a lot of water through their bodies. The beating of cilia pumps water through the oyster’s gills. Plankton, algae, and other particles get caught in the gill mucus. These particles are subsequently carried to the oyster’s mouth and esophagus where they are consumed before being taken to the stomach where they are digested.

8. In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?

1. Carbon cycle
2. Nitrogen cycle
3. Phosphorus cycle
4. Sulphur cycle

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Carbon and Nitrogen cycle are the gaseous cycles. Here, the main reservoir of nutrients is the atmosphere or the hydrosphere. In sulphur cycle, nutrient is released by weathering of rocks, erosional runoff and decomposition of organic matter. The sulphur cycle is mostly sedimentary but two of its compounds hydrogen sulphide (H2S) and sulphur dioxide (SO2) add a gaseous component to its normal sedimentary cycle. 

• In Phosphorus cycle, nutrients got released mainly by weathering of rocks since the Phosphorus mainly occurs as a mineral in phosphate rocks. It enters the cycle from erosion and mining activities.  

9. Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Jellyfish feed on phytoplankton and zooplankton. Detritivores are often invertebrate insects such as mites, beetles, butterflies, and flies; mollusks such as slugs and snails; or soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes, and woodlice.

10. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for

1. Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
2. Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
3. Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
4. Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:  The formula used to specify measurement, reporting, and verification for GHG emissions related to the operation of different types of buildings in specific climate areas is known as the Common Carbon Metric. It excludes value-based analyses of the measures, such as benchmarking or weighing.

Carbon footprint of an entity is the total amount of greenhouse gases that are generated by that entity.

11. Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: 

• The word symbiosis refers to this partnership. 
• The invertebrate class Cnidaria frequently has a symbiotic relationship with the single-celled dinoflagellate algae known as zooxanthellae.
• Some fungi are found living inside plant roots. The fungus receives nutrients from the plants in exchange for water and specific nutrients from the plants. Algae and fungi coexist as lichen in a symbiotic relationship.
• Additionally, protozoa develop symbiotic relationships with other creatures. Protozoan symbiosis mainly includes: a strong mutualistic relationship between a protozoan and a single-celled symbiont (such as bacteria, cyanobacteria, or single-celled algae), or between a protozoan and a multicellular organism (ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants)

12. ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of

1. Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry
2. Ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International Importance’ under the Ramsar
3. Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degrade lands
4. ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:  R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). The R2 Standard was originally developed to prevent the misuse and improper recycling of electronic waste.  The Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI) institute defines the R2 Standard as, “the premier global environmental, worker health and safety standard for the electronics refurbishing and recycling industry”. A goal of this standard is to help prevent unnecessary recycling, and so a reuse business was born. Reuse refers to a product that’s been used but still has life in it

13. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Copper smelting does not release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment.  

Statement 2 is correct: The slag produced can contain significant concentrations of a number of potentially toxic elements including arsenic, lead, cadmium, barium, zinc, etc. The slag can release these potentially toxic elements into the environment under natural weathering conditions and cause pollution of soils, surface waters and groundwater. As slag is considered chemically inert, it is mixed with cement and is used to construct roads and railroad beds. It is also used for sandblasting. Moreover, it is also added to roofing shingles.

Statement 3 is correct. Copper smelters are the largest source of sulphur oxides (SOx) and trace elements. Suspended particles have a pollution scope of 2-3 km, while Sulphur dioxide has a range of as much as 15 km.

14. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements :

1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power
3. Its use causes Sulphur emissions into environment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct:  Furnace oil is a dark viscous residual fuel obtained by blending heavier component of crude oil. It is a is a product of oil refineries. 

Statement 2 is correct: Applications of Furnace oil:

• Marine engines and slow speed engines for power generation,
• Drying tea leaves,
• Gas turbines for power generation,
• Feed stock for fertiliser manufacturing,
• Thermic fluid heaters and hot air generators.

Statement 3 is correct: Sulphur is a natural component in crude oil that is present in gasoline and diesel unless removed. Furnace oil has high component of sulphur leading to its emission when burned.

15. What is blue carbon?

1. Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
2. Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
3. Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
4. Carbon present in atmosphere

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Blue carbon is the term for carbon captured by the world’s ocean and coastal ecosystems. Our ocean and coasts provide a natural way of reducing the impact of greenhouse gases on our atmosphere, through sequestration. Sea grasses, mangroves, and salt marshes along our coast “capture and hold” carbon, acting as something called a carbon sink. The ability of these vegetated ecosystems to remove carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere makes them significant net carbon sinks, and they are now being recognised for their role in mitigating climate change.

16. In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?

1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct: Lichens have specific requirements for their habitats. These requirements are: water, air, nutrients, light, and substrates. Lichens occur from sea level to high alpine elevations, in many environmental conditions, and can grow on almost any surface.  

Mosses are non-flowering plants that produce spores and have stems and leaves, but don’t have true roots. The individual plants are usually composed of simple leaves that are generally only one cell thick, attached to a stem that may be branched or unbranched and have only a limited role in conducting water and nutrients. 

Fern is a member of a group of vascular plants (plants with xylem and phloem). They grow in soils. Ferns require indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid atmosphere.  

Mushroom or toadstool is the fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus, typically produced above ground, on soil, or on its food source.

2020

1. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?

1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only 
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d)

Benzene (C₆H₆) is a colorless, flammable liquid with a sweet odor. It evaporates quickly when exposed to air. Benzene is formed from natural processes, such as volcanoes and forest fires, but most of the exposure to benzene results from human activities. Ethylbenzene and Styrene production, Cyclohexane production, Cumene production, Phenol production, Nitrobenzene production, etc., are the major sources of emissions of benzene pollution.

Statement 1 is correct: The main sources of benzene in the environment include automobile exhaust, industrial sources, and fuel evaporation from gasoline filling stations.

Statement 2 is correct: Active and passive exposure to tobacco smoke is also a significant source of exposure to benzene pollution. Benzene is highly volatile, and exposure occurs mostly through inhalation.

Statement 3 and statement 4 are correct: There are various toxic paints and varnishes that are used to cover wood and wooden furniture. Wood burning and using varnished wooden furniture are also sources of benzene pollution.

Statement 5 is correct: During fires, polyurethane foams burn rapidly and produce dense smoke, toxic gases, and intense heat. Carbon monoxide is the most common, but smoke also contains benzene, toluene, nitrogen oxides and hydrogen cyanide. Using products made of polyurethane may cause benzene pollution.

2. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?

1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   1. 1, 2 and 3
   2. 1, 2 and 4 only
   3. 1, 3 and 4 only
   4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

Fertigation is a method of fertilizer application in which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation water by the drip system. In this system fertilizer solution is distributed evenly in irrigation.

Statement 1 is correct: Drip irrigation also avoids water spillage on the field which could have promoted weed growth or increased soil alkalinity due to water logging. So, controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible through it.

Statement 2 is not correct: Fertigation is the technique of supplying dissolved fertilizers to crops through an irrigation system. But phosphatic fertilizers are insoluble in water and thus cannot be applied to the field by fertigation. Hence, efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is not possible.

Statement 3 is correct: By this method, fertilizer use efficiency is increased from 80 to 90 percent as they are delivered directly to roots via drip. As water and fertilizer are supplied evenly to all the crops through fertigation there is possibility for getting 25-50 per cent higher yield. So, increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.

Statement 4 is correct: Leaching Process describes the release of organic and inorganic contaminants or radionuclides from a solid phase into a water phase, when influenced by processes such as desorption, complexation, and mineral dissolution. This is correct since overapplication, and soil waterlogging is avoided. Therefore, reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

3. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.

 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: Desert National Park is situated in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It covers an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district and remaining 1262 km² is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State. The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert. DNB was demarcated and notified in 1980. 

Statement 2 is not correct: The Thar desert is the most thickly populated desert in the world with an average density of 83 persons/ km². However, the human population within the DNP is low (4-5 persons per km²). There are around 70 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park.

Statement 3 is correct: The DNP is the most important site for the long-term survival of the Globally Threatened Great Indian Bustard and other endemic fauna and flora. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Other birds of significance identified by BirdLife International, include the Eleven bird species that are representative of Biome-13.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: As per the report ‘National Compilation on Dynamic Groundwater Resources of India, 2017’ of CGWA, out of the total 6881 assessment units (Blocks/Mandals/ Talukas) in the country, 1186 units in various States (17%) have been categorized as ‘Over-Exploited’, 313 units (5%) are ‘Critical’, and 972 are semi-critical units (14%).

Statement 2 is correct: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted for the purposes of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the country, under sub- section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Statement 3 is correct: As per report of Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of UN, the countries with the largest extent of areas equipped for irrigation with groundwater, in absolute terms, are India (39 million ha), China (19 million ha) and the USA (17 million ha).

5. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

1. Corbett
2. Ranthambore
3. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
4. Sunderbans

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Critical Tiger Habitats (CTH), also known as core areas of tiger reserves, are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 based on scientific evidence that “such areas are required to be kept as inviolative for the purpose of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers”.The CTHs are notified by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose.

Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve is the largest tiger reserve in India. The reserve spreads over five districts, Kurnool District, Prakasam District, Guntur District, Nalgonda District and Mahbubnagar district. The total area of the tiger reserve is 3,728 km2 (1,439 sq mi).

Area of the core/critical tiger habitat:

• Corbett (Uttarakhand): 821.99 sq. kms
• Ranthambore (Rajasthan): 1113.36 sq. kms
• Sundarbans (West Bengal): 1699.62 sq. kms
• Nagarjunsagar Srisailam (part of Andhra Pradesh): 2595.72 sq. kms

6. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

1. A license is required to cultivate that plant.
2. Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
3. It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
4. Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Schedule VI has been added to include the specified plant species to be protected by the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 1991. Placement in Schedule VI provides for regulation in cultivation of a specified plant and restricts its possession, sale, and transportation. Both cultivation and trade of specified plants can only be carried out with prior permission of competent authority. 

Additional Info:

The Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 is enacted for protection of plants and animal species. The Act provides for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants. It has six schedules which give varying degrees of protection.

• Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide absolute protection – offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
• Species listed in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also protected, but the penalties are much lower.
• Schedule V includes the animals which may be hunted.
• The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting.

7. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’?

It is a measure, in monetary value, of the

1. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.
2. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
3. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
4. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The social cost of carbon is a measure of the economic harm from those impacts, expressed as the dollar value of the total damages from emitting one ton of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere in a given year.

Additional Info:

India’s country-level social cost of carbon emission was estimated to be the highest at $86 per tonne of CO₂. It means the Indian economy will lose $86 by emitting each additional tonne of CO₂. India is followed by the US ($48) and Saudi Arabia ($47).

8. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (a)

The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus indicus) is a subspecies of the Asian elephant found on the Asian mainland. Other subspecies of Asian elephants are found on the islands of Sri Lanka and Sumatra. Indian elephants are considered an endangered species.

Statement 1 is correct: Indian elephants are both diurnal and nocturnal. The elephant herd is led by the oldest and largest female member (known as the matriarch). This herd includes the daughters of the matriarch and their offspring.

Statement 2 is correct: The Indian elephants have a polygynous mating system. These animals breed year-round. Before mating, males usually engage in aggressive fights, which occasionally result in serious injuries or even death. The winner joins an all-female group, driving away other males. A breeding pair remains together for about 3 weeks. Gestation period lasts for 22 months, yielding a single baby.

Statement 3 is not correct: Females between 14 – 45 years may give birth to calves approximately every four years with the mean interbirth intervals increasing to five years by age 52 and six years by age 60.

Statement 4 is not correct: The population of India’s national heritage animal— the elephant—has dipped in the country in the last five years (2012-2017). Among the states, the highest population was recorded in Karnataka (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054). As far as regions are concerned, the highest population was in the southern region (11,960) followed by the northeast region (10,139), east-central region (3,128) and northern region (2,085).

9. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

1. Nagarhole National Park
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: Nagarhole Tiger Reserve, previously known as Rajiv Gandhi (Nagarhole) National Park, was named after the river ‘Nagarhole’ which literally means ‘Serpent River’ in Kannada language. Nagarhole tiger reserve forms a critical connecting habitat for tigers and elephants to other areas of Western Ghats through Brahmagiri wildlife sanctuary and to the Eastern Ghats through Bandipur Tiger reserve. It is located in the Cauvery basin.

Statement 2 is not correct: This park is spread over 1012.86 square kilometres in East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. It has historically experienced varying levels of protection, beginning as a reserve forest in 1882, a wildlife sanctuary in 1978, and as a national park from 2008.The park lies along the left and right banks of the river Godavari and cuts through the Papikonda hill range of Eastern Ghats.

Statement 3 is correct: Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve is a protected area and tiger reserve along the Western Ghats in the Erode district of the state of Tamil Nadu.

Statement 4 is correct: Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Kerala and was set up in 1973. These are located in the southern trenches of the famous Western Ghats, ranked 8th in the list of the World’s Biodiversity Hotspots. The protected areas here share their boundaries with the protected area network of Nagarhole and Bandipur Tiger Reserves of Karnataka in the northeast and Mudumalai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu in the southeast. It lies in the Cauvery basin.

10. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are

1. Birds
2. Primates
3. Reptiles
4. Amphibians

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White- throated redstart are birds.

Ceylon frogmouth: It is a grey-brown nocturnal bird species that is found in the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka’s forested habitats. It is distinguished by its wide, hooked bill with slit-like nostrils and a large head with eyes facing forward.

Coppersmith Barbet: It is a short, stocky bird, with a leaf-green body that allows it to remain well- camouflaged in the canopy. The Coppersmith Barbet feeds mainly on the fruits of common fig trees, such as banyan, peepul and cluster fig, as well as the occasional insect. Also called crimson-breasted barbet and coppersmith, it is an Asian barbet with crimson forehead and throat, known for its metronomic call that sounds similar to a coppersmith striking metal with a hammer.

White-throated redstart is found in the Indian Subcontinent and Southeast Asia, as well as some adjoining areas. The species ranges across Afghanistan, Bhutan, Cambodia, India, Laos, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Thailand, Tibet, and Vietnam. Its natural habitat is temperate forests.

Gray-chinned minivet is a small minivet species distributed in Indian subcontinent and southeast Asia. These minivet species are common resident birds of the thorn jungles and shrubs in their range. These minivets are polytypic species.

11. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

1. Kanha National Park
2. Manas National Park
3. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Hard ground swamp deer (Barasingha or Rucervus duvaucelii), the state animal of Madhya Pradesh, is seeing a revival in the Kanha National Park and Tiger Reserve (KNPTR) after having been perilously close to extinction for a long time. KNPTR is on the Maikal range of the Satpura hills and is spread over an area of 940 square kilometers between the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh. The swamp deer is endemic to KNPTR.

12. Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?

1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The musk deer is most likely found in Askot Wildlife Sanctuary (also known as Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary), located in Pithoragarh district of Kumaun, Uttarakhand and in the Gangotri Wildlife National Park in Uttarkashi District of Uttarakhand in India.

Additional Info:

• Askot Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located 54 km from Pithoragarh, near Askot in Uttarakhand state of India. This sanctuary has been set up primarily with the object of conserving the musk deer and its habitat. 
• Gangotri National Park: Established in 1989, it is located in the upper catchment of Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand. The park is home to blue sheep, Himalayan Tahr, musk deer, snow leopard etc. 
• Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary: It is a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar Pradesh. It was founded in 1972. In this sanctuary, tiger, chital, hog deer, wild boars, otters, and many more animals find themselves a home.
• Manas National Park: Manas National Park is located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan. It is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur and pygmy hog. It is famous for its population of the wild water buffalo.

13. In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?

1. Copper slag
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
5. Portland cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 4 and 5 only
4. 1 and 5 only

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: Copper slag is a by-product obtained during smelting and refining of copper. The waste copper slag can be used as abrasive tools, road construction, and ballast. The use of copper slag in cement and concrete provides potential environmental as well as economic benefits for all related industries, particularly in areas where a considerable amount of copper slag is produced.

Statement 2 is correct: Cold asphalt mix is produced by mixing unheated mineral aggregate with either emulsified bitumen or foamed bitumen. cold asphalt mix does not require any heating of aggregate which makes it economical and relatively pollution-free (no objectionable fumes or odours).

Statement 3 is correct: Geotextile is a synthetic permeable textile material used to improve the soil characteristics and has the ability to separate, filter, reinforce, protect and drain when used in association with soils. It is mostly used for filtration and separation in the road constructions.  

Statement 4 is not correct: Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) is a combination of approximately 95% stone, sand, or gravel bound together by asphalt cement, a product of crude oil. The wide use of hot mix technology leads to environmental pollution as these plants emit a huge amount of greenhouse gases.

Statement 5 is not correct: Portland Cement is an important construction ingredient around the world, and as a result, cement production is a significant source of global carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions.

15. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Coal ash, also referred to as coal combustion residuals or CCRs, is produced primarily from the burning of coal in coal-fired power plants. Coal ash includes a number of by-products produced from burning coal, including: Fly Ash, Bottom Ash, Boiler Slag, Flue Gas Desulfurization Material.

Statement 1 is correct: Coal ash commonly contains some of the earth’s deadliest toxics: arsenic, lead, mercury, cadmium, chromium, and selenium. Without proper management, these contaminants can pollute waterways, ground water, drinking water, and the air.

Statement 2 is correct: Thermal power plants produce large amounts of nitrogen oxides and sulphur dioxide—the pollutants that cause acid rain—when they burn fossil fuels, especially coal, to produce energy.

Statement 3 is correct: According to Coal India Limited, the ash content of coal produced in the country is generally 25 to 45% whereas average ash content of imported coal varies from 10 to 20%.

16. What is the use of biochar in farming?

1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Biochar is a charcoal-like product that is the residue of a renewable energy production process called slow-pyrolysis. It is a porous carbonaceous solid produced by heating various biomass feedstocks under high temperatures in an oxygen-limited environment. Products like paper mill waste, green waste, animal manures or other biomass can be recycled by heating to 550 degrees Celsius in the absence of oxygen. The process generates energy and biochar.

Adding biochar to soil increases its carbon content and can mitigate greenhouse gas emissions. This mitigation can occur by several means, long term transfer of carbon into biochar, which would otherwise decompose naturally and emit carbon dioxide and methane, production of syngas and bio–oil, which can be used as energy alternatives to fossil fuels, and reduced emissions of nitrous oxide from fertilizer application.

Statement 1 is correct: It can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.

Statement 2 is correct: Due to its adsorption ability, some biochar have the potential to immobilize heavy metals, pesticides, herbicides, and hormones; prevent nitrate leaching and faecal bacteria into waterways; and reduce N²O and CH₄ emissions from soils. 

Statement 3 is correct: Biochar holds potential for long-term carbon sequestration, improving soil health and water- holding capacity, and further reducing emissions of greenhouse gases associated with fertilizer application. 

2019

1. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

1. Manas National Park
2. Namdapha National Park
3. Neora Valley National Park
4. Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Valley of Flowers national park located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand and is known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and the variety of flora. The valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and 3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m.

Additional Information:

• Valley of Flowers National Park and Nanda Devi National Park parks are encompassed in the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. This Reserve has been in the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2004.
• The valley was declared a national park in 1982 and now it is a World Heritage Site. The major forest types of the reserve are temperate. The entire Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve lies within the Western Himalayas Endemic Bird Area (EBA).
• The Valley of Flowers National Park is the second core zone of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. Seven restricted-range bird species are endemic to this part of the EBA.

2. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the New world and introduced in the Old World?

1. Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
2. Tobacco, cotton and rubber
3. Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
4. Rubber, coffee and wheat

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The New and Old World is often quoted in the context of agricultural crops. Europe, Asia, and Africa share a common agricultural history that originated from the Neolithic Revolution. The three continents shared common domesticated plants making it easy to group them together.

The Old-World crops include wheat, rye, oats, lentils, and barley. Such crops did not exist in America until their introduction in the 1490s by post-Columbian contact. The New World crops include rubber, tobacco, sunflower, cocoa, and cashew. Some plants such as cotton and yam as well as some animals like the dog are believed to have existed in both worlds.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic lions that once ranged from Persia (Iran) to Palamau in Eastern India were almost driven to extinction by indiscriminate hunting and habitat loss. A single population of less than 50 lions persisted in the Gir forests of Gujarat by late 1890’s. With timely and stringent protection offered by the State Government and the Center Government, Asiatic lions have increased to the current population of over 500 numbers. It is part of the Schedule I species of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 that covers endangered species.

Statement 2 is not correct: The double-hump camel is a native of Gobi Desert, and is found on a vast expanse of cold-desert areas across Mongolia, China, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and parts of Afghanistan.

Statement 3 is not correct: One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in Bhutan, Nepal, Indonesia, Malaysia and India. These countries signed a declaration- ‘The New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’ for the conservation and protection of the species.

4. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?

1. Creating the artificial rains in some regions.
2. Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones.
3. Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth.
4. Reducing the global warming.

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) proposes spraying particles into the upper atmosphere to block sunlight. SAI acts as a reflective barrier against incoming sunlight ultimately resulting in cooling the planet. The use of sulphate is due to its property to be able to reflect all radiations.

Thus, Cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere are used to reduce global warming.

Additional Information:

Cirrus clouds are known as high-altitude clouds, as they are at a height of 6-18 km above the Earth’s surface. They trap the heat of the atmosphere, thinning them reduces their heat trapping capacity hence could bring down the heat of the Earth’s climate.

5. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

1. Extraction of rare earth elements
2. Natural gas extraction technologies
3. Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
4. Waste-to-energy technologies

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: In developing Three-Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20), the Niti Aayog has drawn a broader framework for addressing the issue of municipal solid waste (MSW). The solution being suggested by the Action Agenda is twin-fold: waste-to-energy incinerators for bigger municipalities and composting method of waste disposal for small towns and semi-urban areas. While proposing incineration as a solution, the Niti Aayog has also assessed the benefit-cost ratio of thermal pyrolysis and plasma gasification technologies.

Additional Info:

Pyrolysis: It is a process that uses heat to break down combustible materials in the absence of oxygen, producing a mixture of combustible gases (primarily methane, complex hydrocarbons, hydrogen, and carbon monoxide), liquids and solid residues.

Plasma gasification: It is a thermal process which uses plasma to produce syngas by converting organic matter.

Incineration: It is a waste treatment process that involves the combustion of organic substances contained in waste materials. It is a way to treat waste through controlled burning. Waste is shredded and heated to over 1025 degree Celsius in a furnace. The process has mainly three by-products: Pavers bricks, Fly ash with carbon and Activated carbon.

Biomethanation: It is a process of anaerobic digestion in which organic materials are converted into biogas. This process gives biogas and manure as end products.

6. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

1. Neyyar, ldl Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
2. Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park.
3. Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park.
4. Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve was established in 2001 and is spread across the two states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It is located in the southernmost end of the Western Ghats. It is listed on the World Network of Biosphere Reserves. The reserve includes three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara and Nayar, as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve. It consists mostly of tropical forest and possesses a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated plants such as cardamom, Jamun, nutmeg, pepper and plantain.

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: Green sea turtles eat seagrasses and algae, though juveniles’ snack on crabs, sponges, and jellyfish. Whether or not a turtle is a carnivore, a herbivore, or an omnivore depends on the particular species. For instance, tortoises are almost always exclusively herbivores. Their diets usually consist of plants. Most aquatic turtles are carnivores, it however depends on the species of aquatic turtle. Semi-aquatic turtles are mostly omnivores and their nutritional requirements are usually best met with a diet i.e. meat and vegetables.

Statement 2 is correct: Fish are of two types mainly, there are carnivores’ fish that eat the meat of other animals, and there are herbivores’ fish that eat herbs, seaweeds and coral reefs etc. Herbivore fish are usually small in number as compared to carnivores’ fish.

Statement 3 is correct: Manatees, sometimes called sea cows, are large mammals that live in warm sea waters. They live in shallow coastal areas and feed on sea vegetation.

Statement 4 is correct: Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles.

8. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife             Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer             Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin             Chambal River
3. Rusty Spotted Cat             Eastern Ghats 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Western Ghats region is famous for freshwater biodiversity. Mahseer, belonging to the genus Tor, is considered a prized sports fish of great cultural value. In the Cauvery the Mahseer community comprises two varieties—a “blue-finned” fish and an “orange-finned, hump-backed”.

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Irrawaddy dolphin is a species of river dolphin found in parts of South Asia. Chilika lake, in Odisha is home to the only known population of Irrawaddy Dolphins in India.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Forests of the Eastern Ghats are home to some endangered and lesser-known mammal species like the Fishing Cat, Rusty Spotted Cat, Indian Pangolin etc. It is a threatened Species as per IUCN, listed in Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

9. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?

1. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
2. They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
3. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
4. They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Microbeads are small, solid, manufactured plastic particles that are less than 5mm in diameter and do not degrade or dissolve in water. They may be added to a range of products, including rinse-off cosmetics, personal care and cleaning products. Microbeads are used in these products for a variety of purposes. This includes as an exfoliant, a bulking agent, to prolong shelf life, or for the controlled release of active ingredients.

Microbeads are not captured by most wastewater treatment systems. If washed down drains after use, they can end up in our rivers, lakes and oceans. These tiny plastics persist in the environment and have a damaging effect on marine life, the environment and human health.

10. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan Nettle (Girardinia Diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of:

1. Anti-malarial drug
2. Biodiesel
3. Pulp for paper industry
4. Textile fibre

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Himalayan nettle(Girardinia diversifolia) is found to be a sustainable source of textile fiber. For the Himalayan Indian Nettle, Government of India has granted approval for a project titled Development of products from Himalayan Indian nettle to Department of Jute and Fibre Technology, Institute of Jute Technology, University of Kolkata.

Additional Info:

Girardinia diversifolia is largely used in traditional medicine for the treatment of several diseases such as gastric disorders, chest pain, rheumatism, tuberculosis, headache, joint aches, diabetes, asthma, gastritis, headache, joint pain, tuberculosis, gonorrhea and delivery problems.

11. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. Methane hydrate is an “ice” that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits where temperature and pressure conditions are favourable for its formation. As Global Warming led to rise in temperature therefore it might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

Statement 2 is correct: Methane hydrates tend to form along the lower margins of continental slopes, where the seabed drops from the relatively shallow shelf, usually to about 150 meters below the sea surface. The susceptibility of gas hydrates to warming climate depends on the duration of the warming event, their depth beneath the seafloor or tundra surface, and the amount of warming required to heat sediments to the point of dissociating gas hydrates.

Statement 3 is correct: The problem with methane is that it does not vanish without a trace, even though it remains in the atmosphere relatively briefly, 10 years on an average. In the presence of free oxygen, a methane molecules single atom of carbon disengages from its four hydrogen atoms to become carbon dioxide.

12. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Burning of crop or biomass residue means burning of living or dead vegetation including grassland, forest, agricultural waste for fuel. Recent crop harvesting practices use mechanical harvesters in the rice and wheat farm system in India which leave behind large quantities of crop residue in the field. However, there is no suitable method available for managing the crop residues. Burning of crop residues emits traces of carbon dioxide, methane, carbon monoxide, nitrous oxide, sulphur dioxide and particulates which affect human health.

Punjab and Haryana are both responsible for causing air pollution due to burning. These two states contribute to 48 per cent of the total emission due to paddy burning across India.

Additional Info:

The majority of tropospheric ozone formation occurs when nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon monoxide (CO) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs), such as xylene, react in the atmosphere in the presence of sunlight.

Q 13. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

1. pesticides in agriculture.
2. preservatives in processed foods.
3. fruit-ripening agents.
4. moisturizing agents in cosmetics.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Carbofuran, Phorate and Triazophos are pesticides used in agriculture. Pesticides are chemical compounds that are used to kill pests; including insects, rodents, fungi, and unwanted plants (weeds). Pesticides include herbicides for destroying weeds and other unwanted vegetation, insecticides for controlling a wide variety of insects, fungicides used to prevent the growth of molds and mildew, disinfectants for preventing the spread of bacteria, and compounds used to control mice and rats.

To promote organic farming in Kerala, the state agriculture department had ordered a ban on the use of pesticides. Kerala Agriculture University was asked to provide alternatives to the banned pesticides, which include carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos, methyl demethon, prophenophos and triazophos. The university suggested less hazardous pesticides, like acephate, carbaryl, dimethoate and flubendiamide.

Q 14. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendation of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilization of wetlands, recognizing the fundamental ecological functions of wetlands and their economic, cultural, scientific, and recreational value. The Ramsar Convention came into force in 1975. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981. Currently, India has 42 Ramsar Sites.

Statement 1 is not correct: Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of Government of India to protect only Ramsar Sites and not all the wetlands in India.

Statement 2 is not correct: Under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2010, Wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and man-made wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland.

Statement 3 is correct: Under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, “wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and man-made wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland.

15. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%).

Statement 2 is correct: Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production and India is globally the biggest source of ammonia emission, nearly double that of NOx emissions.

Statement 3 is correct: The poultry industry, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.

Additional Info:

The Indian Nitrogen Assessment assesses the sources, impacts, trends and future scenarios of reactive nitrogen in the Indian environment. Nitrogen particles make up the largest fraction of PM 2.5, the class of pollutants closely linked to cardiovascular and respiratory illness. While the burning of crop residue is said to be a key contributor to winter smog in many parts of North India, agriculture remains the largest contributor to nitrogen emissions.

16. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen – enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one -fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce emission of carbon monoxide up to 70%, not complete emission.

Statement 2 is correct: H-CNG as fuel also reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

Statement 3 is correct: Hydrogen-Enriched CNG (H-CNG) is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%. The US, Brazil, Canada, and South Korea have all conducted trials and found that they get reduction in emissions from buses using H-CNG.

Statement 4 is not correct: Physical blending of CNG and hydrogen involves a series of energy- intensive steps that would make H-CNG more expensive than CNG.

Q 17. Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to take all measures as it deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing controlling and abating environmental pollution. It does not talk about public participation.

Statement 2 is correct: The Environment Protection Act 1986, empowers the government of India to lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever, provided that different standards for emission or discharge may be laid down under this clause from different sources having regard to the quality or composition of the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from such sources.

18. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Waste generators have to segregate waste into five categories.
2. The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
3. The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
4. It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Answer: (c)

Option (a) is incorrect: Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams- Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.

Option (b) is incorrect: The Rules are now applicable beyond Municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbase, Port and harbour, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance.

Option (c) is correct: Under the Solid Waste Management, Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having 1 million or more population within two years. In case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or stand-alone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having 0.5 million or more population and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years. Hence, rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for identification of landfill sites and waste processing facilities.

Option (d) is incorrect: Waste deposition centers for domestic hazardous waste shall be established in a city or town in a manner that one center is set up for the area of twenty square kilometers or part thereof and notify the timings of receiving domestic hazardous waste at such centers. So, it is not mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

19. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to:

1. fossil of a kind of dinosaur
2. an early human species.
3. a cave system found in North-East India.
4. a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent.

Answer: (b)

For the first time, scientists have found fossils from an extinct ancient human lineage known as the Denisovans outside of Siberia.

Option (b) is correct: Denisovans were an extinct group of hominins that were close relatives of Neanderthals. They are known primarily from a handful of fossil fragments found at Denisova Cave in Siberia, and from genetic clues that linger in the DNA of people across Asia.

2018

1. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Manipur
3. Meghalaya
4. Nagaland

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya, in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2002. The habitat comprises lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen, and Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests.

National Parks in Arunachal Pradesh: Mouling and Namdapha, etc.

Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh: D’ Ering Memorial, Dibang, Eagle Nest, Itanagar, Kane, Mehao, Pakhui, Sessa Orchid, etc.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The definition ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ is incorporated in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

Statement 2 is correct: Baiga Tribals became India’s first community to get Habitat Rights. Baigas are considered as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in the Indian Constitution and rely mostly on shifting cultivation, forest produce and fishing for sustenance. The tribe numbers only 150,000 people spread over forested areas of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Statement 3 is not correct: The definition of the Habitat Rights was incorporated through an Amendment in the FRA in 2012. As per the amendment, the District Level Committee under the Act shall ensure that all PVTGs receive Habitat Rights, in the Consultation with the concerned traditional institutions of these groups, after filing claims before the Gram Sabha.

3. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water – table

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: Depletion of sand in the streambed causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It leads to decreased salinity in the river.

Statement 2 is correct: The sediment in the mining site, if it contains toxic material due to long time accumulation, will cause groundwater pollution.

Statement 3 is correct: Riverbed becomes dry due to exposure to solar radiation, decreasing the surface and groundwater. It causes lowering of the water tables.

Additional Info:

“Sand mining” is a practice that is used to extract sand from various environments, such as beaches, inland dunes and dredged from ocean beds, and riverbeds of deltaic regions. The mining is in operation in all the continents of the Globe. Environmental problems occur when the rate of extraction of sand, gravel and other materials exceeds the rate of deposition. It disturbs and completely removes the habitat from the mined zones. Moreover, it leads to changes in its channel form, physical habitats, and food webs – the river’s ecosystem. It also increases the velocity of flow in rivers which destroys flow-regime and eventually erodes the riverbanks.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2.  More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia, and the Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: Mostly the coral reefs are in tropical waters, located between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, in the Pacific Ocean, the Indian Ocean, the Caribbean Sea, the Red Sea, and the Persian Gulf.

Statement 2 is correct: Indonesia, followed by Australia and the Philippines are the largest reef nations, while France comes in fourth. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia, and Philippines.

Statement 3 is correct: Coral reefs are the most diverse communities on the planet. These tropical marine communities occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor, but are inhabited by at least 25% of all marine species. Scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described species from thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats – four times the number of animal phyla found in tropical rain forests.

Additional Info:

Coral Reefs are most commonly known as the rainforest of oceans. They are the underwater structures that are formed of coral polyps, held together by calcium carbonate. Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms, which live in colonies. They flourish in shallow, mud free and warm waters. They secrete calcium carbonate. The coral secretion and their skeletons from coral deposits, in the form of reefs, are mainly of three kinds: barrier reef, fringing reef and atolls. The Great Barrier Reef of Australia is a good example of the first kind of coral reefs.

5. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

1. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
2. The UNEP Secretariat
3. The UNFCCC Secretariat
4. The World Meteorological Organization

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:

“Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by the UNFCCC Secretariat.

The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world. Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and governments to measure their climate footprint, reduce their emissions as much as possible, and offset what they cannot reduce with UN certified emission reductions.

6. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

1. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
2. Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
3. Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
4. Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants. The effect varies depending on the plant species, the temperature, and the availability of water and nutrients.

From a quarter to half of Earth’s vegetated lands has shown significant greening over the last 35 years largely due to rising levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

7. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Conservation agriculture (CA) can be defined by a statement given by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations as “a concept for resource-saving agricultural crop production that strives to achieve acceptable profits together with high and sustained production levels while concurrently conserving the environment”

The 3 principles of CA are:

• Minimum tillage and soil disturbance
• Permanent soil cover with crop residues and live mulches
• Crop rotation and intercropping

Conservation agriculture is largely the product of the collective efforts of a number of previous agricultural movements, including no-till agriculture, agroforestry, green manures/cover crops, direct planting/seeding, integrated pest management, and conservation tillage among many others.

8. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: Structural adaptations are important to plant’s survival in the desert. Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss through evaporation, which in the hot desert can cause loss of water from both the surface and the inside of leaves.  

Statement 2 is correct: Leaves are also smaller on desert plants, further reducing the possibility for water loss.

Statement 3 is correct: They have hard, thick coatings and some are covered in prickly spines to prevent water loss and to protect them from animals who might try to chew through them to get to their moisture.

Additional Info:

Xerophytes are plants growing in extremely dry conditions throughout the year. For example, plants growing in deserts, on rock (lithophytes), or alpine plants growing above 14000 feet altitude.

9. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.  

Statement 2 is correct: The National Green Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters provides speedy environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, is to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution, and to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

10. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up the recent past due to human activities?

1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

Aral Sea: The Aral Sea is a saline lake located in Central Asia that was once the world’s fourth largest Salt Lake. In the 1960s the Aral Sea, which was the drainage basin for Kyrgyzstan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Kazakhstan, began to shrink as the Soviet Union began to divert water for agricultural purposes. The Aral Sea, which was once 26,300 square miles in size had decreased in size by 2007 to only 10% of its original area.

Black Sea:  Past 60 years, the oxygen-rich top layer of the Black Sea decreased from 140 meters to 90 meters deep, which amounts to an over 40 percent dip in habitable waters. Two existing causes behind the shrinkage: an abundance of nutrients, particularly algae that led to great consumption of oxygen and global warming. The Black Sea has lost more than a third of its habitable volume. The Habitable area in Black Sea is shrinking, but the actual volume is not shrinking immensely.

Lake Baikal: In 2015, Russia officially declared Lake Baikal an emergency zone because of a catastrophic drop in its water level. Baikal is the globe’s largest freshwater lake and is on the UNESCO World Heritage list. Lake Baikal hasn’t shrunk immensely yet.  Certainly, its water is shrinking. But, it’s not ‘immense’ like Aral Sea. If one has to go for two options, the intensity of shrinkage should be either equal or comparable. Case of Aral Sea is extreme and Lake Baikal’s present condition, which is better, is no comparison to Aral Sea’s fate.

2017

1. The term ‘M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna

(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System

(d) Security of National Highways

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct:

• M-STrIPES 
  • The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has improved the monitoring of tigers in the country’s tiger reserves (TRs) by introducing the Monitoring System for Tiger-Intensive Protection and Ecological Status (M-STrIPES). 
  • M-STrIPES, an android-based monitoring software, will be used in all of the country’s TRs.
  • Intensive Protection and Ecological Status is a software-based monitoring system launched across Indian tiger reserves by the Indian government.
  • This app was developed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority and the Wildlife Institute of India in 2010.
  • M-STrIPES allows patrol teams to keep a better tab on suspicious activity while also mapping the patrolling, location, routes and timings of forest officials.
  • The system’s objective is to strengthen patrolling and surveillance of the Endangered Bengal tiger.

2. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.

(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.

(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.

(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

• Several wild animal and bird species are listed in various schedules of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. 
• The Act protects wild animals, birds, and plants, as well as matters related to, ancillary to, or incidental to them. 
• It is divided into six schedules that provide varying degrees of protection. Animals listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Act have the highest level of protection in India. Tiger is covered in Schedule 1.

3. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?

(a) Corbett National Park

(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Sariska National Park

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct:

• Asiatic Lion Reintroduction Project
  • An expert committee from the environment ministry has approved the Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh as a second home for Asiatic lions. 
  • The Asiatic lion’s last wild population can be found in the Gir Forest National Park region of Gujarat.
  • Epidemics, natural disasters, and other anthropogenic factors all pose threats to a single population.
  • In the interest of the genetic stability of these species, the Supreme Court ruled in 2013 in favour of translocating Asiatic lions to Kuno Palpur wildlife sanctuary.
  • However, the Gujarat government will not share lions until 33 studies mandated by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) are completed.

4. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

• Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA)
  • The European Union (EU) established the Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, particularly least-developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing states (SIDS). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The GCCA also provides partner countries with technical and financial assistance in integrating climate change into their development policies and budgets, as well as in implementing projects that address climate change on the ground, promoting climate-resilient, low-emission development. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • By fostering effective climate change dialogue and cooperation, the Alliance helps to ensure that poor developing countries most vulnerable to climate change increase their capacity to adapt to the effects of climate change, thereby supporting the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals.
  • There is no mention of WRI and WBCSD on the official partner’s page of GCCA, even though a lot of other institutions are mentioned like FAO, UNDP etc. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

5. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in Blood

(b) Computing- oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic biological organisms to break down organic material present in a given water sample at a specific temperature over a specific period. BOD is commonly used in wastewater treatment plants as an indicator of the level of organic pollution in water.

6. Consider the following statements:

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

Climatic and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC)

• In 2012, the governments of Bangladesh, Mexico, Sweden, Ghana, Canada, and the United States joined forces with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to launch efforts to treat short-lived climate pollutants as a collective and urgent challenge.
• They formed the Climate & Clean Air Coalition to advocate for immediate action on climate change, food security, public health, and energy efficiency. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Following carbon dioxide, the most significant contributors to the man-made global greenhouse effect are short-lived climate pollutants such as methane, tropospheric ozone, black carbon, and hydrofluorocarbons. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• They contribute up to 45% of current global warming.
• If no action is taken to reduce emissions of these pollutants, they are expected to cause half of the warming by human activity.

7. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Chambal River

(c) Pulicat Lake

(d) Deepor Bed

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct:

• A gharial (freshwater crocodile) sanctuary was established along the Chambal River, with over 5,000 gharials (Gavialis gangeticus) born during the most recent hatching season (June-July) at the National Chambal Sanctuary on the border of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. 
• In addition to gharials, 400 mugger crocodiles (Crocodylus palustris) hatched from eggs at the sanctuary and will be released into the river soon.
• Scientists believe that the Red-crowned turtle and birds such as the Indian skimmer are more endangered than gharials along this stretch of the Chambal.

8.  From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

(b) Nallamala Forest

(c) Nagarhole National Park

(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct:

• Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve:
  • It is a part of both the Western and Eastern Ghats and is situated in Tamil Nadu’s Erode district. 
  • An essential wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is the Sathyamangalam forest range.
  • It is a genetic link between the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park, and Bandipur National Park, four additional protected places that it borders.
  • It is a component of “Project Tiger,” which aims to protect tiger populations and lessen tiger trafficking and poaching.
  • The Indian government started Project Tiger in 1973.

• Nallamala Forest:
  • It is situated in Andhra Pradesh’s Kurnool district.
  • Situated in the Eastern Ghats, the Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve includes Nallamala Forest.
  • The Telangana Nallamala Hills also contain the Amrabad Tiger Reserve.
  • Tigers, wild dogs, and jungle cats are well-known in this forest.
• Nagarhole National Park:
  • It is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park and is situated in the Karnataka districts of Kodagu and Mysore.
  • It is a portion of the Bandipur National Park, Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, and Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
  • It protects the habitat of tigers and elephants.
• Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve:
  • It is situated in the Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh’s southern region.
  • Famous red sander and slender lories species can be found at the Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve.

9.  Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

• Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
  • TRAFFIC is a well-known non-governmental organisation that promotes sustainable development and biodiversity conservation through worldwide trade in wild animals and plants. Hence, Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is not correct.
  • It was founded in 1976 and has offices in Cambridge, UK.
  • It is a cooperative project of the World Wildlife Fund and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) (WWF).
  • The main goal of TRAFFIC is to make sure that traffic in wild plants and animals doesn’t jeopardise efforts to preserve the environment.
• United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP):
  • The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) was founded on June 5, 1972, with its headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya, Hence the Stockholm Environment Conference.
  • The goal of UNEP is to protect the environment by promoting international cooperation and encouraging governments to take up conservation activities.

10. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

• Bioremediation technique 
  • Bioremediation is a treatment that involves the use of naturally occurring organisms to convert hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances. 
  • It degrades organic contaminants in soil, groundwater, sludge, and solids using microorganisms.
  • The bioremediation technique is a method of cleaning up pollution by enhancing the natural biodegradation process. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Not all contaminants are easily treated by microorganism-based bioremediation. Heavy metals, for example, cadmium and lead, are not easily absorbed or captured by microorganisms.
  • Bioremediation is only applicable to biodegradable compounds. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Bioremediation is the process of degrading environmental contaminants using microorganisms, primarily bacteria and fungi.
  • Using genetic engineering, microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation can be created. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

11. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

• Algae-based biofuels can be produced on land, in saline water, or wastewater. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• Algal biofuel production is possible in both seas and on land. 
• They can grow in marginal or non-cropland environments, as well as brackish or polluted water. 
• Land-based systems have advanced more than sea-based systems. Because producing biofuels from algae is still in the pre-commercial stage of technology development, and capital investments are a significant barrier, setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production requires a high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Economically viable production necessitates the establishment of large-scale facilities, which may raise ecological and social concerns because it reduces the amount of food available for humans and increases the cost of food and fuel due to supply shortages. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

12. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• Butterflies (also known as bees) 
• It plays an important role in plant pollination and crop production.
• Butterflies move pollen grains from one location to another.
• Hence, if the population of certain butterfly species declines dramatically, pollination of some plants may suffer. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Because there are no reasons (that have been proven) for a significant increase in fungal infections in some cultivated plants. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• It may cause a decrease in the population of some wasps, spiders, and birds because these species are the predators of butterflies, and if the population decreases, these predators will lose their main food source. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

13. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

• Carbon sequestration
  • Carbon sequestration is the process of storing (or capturing) atmospheric carbon dioxide.
  • It is used to reduce the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere.
  • Because CO2 molecules attach to the surface of coal, abandoned and uneconomic coal seams can be used to store CO2. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • CO2 is also used as a recovery tool, such as injecting CO2 into depleted oil fields to boost oil recovery. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Forests serve as carbon sinks because trees are natural carbon sequesters.
  • Wetland restoration, as wetlands conserve 14.5% of the world’s soil carbon; is also used for Subterranean deep saline formations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

14. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

• All of the animals mentioned are scheduled protected animals under the Wildlife Act of 1972.
• The gharial is critically endangered, and the water buffalo is endangered. Hence, they are classified as Schedule I.
• Indian wild ass is classified as Endangered and is listed on Schedule I. 
• There are six schedules provided in the Wildlife Protection Act based on the degree of protection.
  • Schedules 1 and 2 provide absolute protection, and offences under these are punishable by the harshest penalties.
  • Schedule 1 deals with endangered species.
  • Schedules 3 and 4: These include protected species, but the penalties for violations are lower than in the first two schedules. This list only includes species that are not endangered.
  • Schedule 5: This schedule contains huntable animals.
  • Schedule 6 lists the plants that are not allowed to be cultivated or planted.

2016

1. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

(a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East

(b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change

(c) capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

(d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

• Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC):
  • It embodies efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
  • It is a term used under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • It is for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions that all countries that signed the UNFCCC were asked to publish in the lead up to the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris, France in December 2015.
  • This is the post-2020 climate action commitments by parties to increase the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions.  

2. What is/are the importance/importance of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’?

1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):
  • The UNCCD was founded in 1994.
  • This is the first international agreement that links environmental protection, economic development, and sustainable land use.
  • It is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  •  The 195 parties to the convention cooperate to raise the standard of life for those who live in arid areas, preserve and increase soil and land productivity, and lessen the impact of drought.
  • It aims to promote effective action through innovative local programmes and supportive international partnerships. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Convention focuses primarily on the drylands, which are composed of arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid regions and are home to some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and populations.
  • The UNCCD is implemented through five regional annexes: Central and Eastern Europe, Latin America and the Caribbean, Northern Mediterranean, and Africa (which is given precedence because it is there where desertification is most severe).
  • There is no such provision that the secretariat facilitates the allocation of the major portion of financial resources to the South Asia and North Africa regions. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

3. Consider the following pairs

Terms sometimes                              Their origin seen in the news

1. Annex-I Countries                     :    Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions   :    Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanism  :    Kyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• Kyoto Protocol:
  • It is an international agreement with the goal of controlling and lowering greenhouse gas emissions.
  • It was ratified in December 1997, is a pact made under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
  • The agreement to minimise greenhouse gas emissions is a binding legal document.
  • Annex 1 countries include developed and transitional economies. Therefore, Annex 1 is related to the Kyoto Protocol. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • Annex 2 countries: These are industrialised nations that aid developing nations and economies in transition by giving them financial and technical support so they can lower their greenhouse gas emissions.
  • The Clean Development Mechanism allows emission-reduction projects in developing countries to earn certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO₂. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched and Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Industrialized nations can trade, sell, and employ these CERs to help them reach their Kyoto Protocol emission reduction goals.

4. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

(a) Sand deserts of northwest India

(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir

(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat

(d) Western Ghats

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct:

• Great Indian hornbills is found in the forests of Nepal, India, Mainland Southeast Asia, and Sumatra.
• It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
• It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of India.
• Great Hornbills are found in three separate areas in South Asia; The Western Ghats, The Himalayan foothills in Uttaranchal to south Nepal and Bhutan and northeast India.
• They are also found in Myanmar, the Mergui archipelago, southern China, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Thailand, peninsular Malaysia, and Sumatra, Indonesia. 
• They are found in primary evergreen and moist deciduous forests, primarily in lowland forests, but can be found up to 2,000 metres in some regions. 
• It is the state bird of Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh. 
• The Great Indian Hornbill is a revered bird in Nagaland and is mentioned in the tribe’s folklore. 
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has listed the Great Indian Hornbill as vulnerable in the Red List of Threatened Species.
• Nagaland also celebrates the Hornbill Festival every year between the first and tenth of December.

5.  Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?

1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

• Green India Mission was released in 2014.
• It falls under one of the National Action Plan on Climate Change’s eight missions (NAPCC).
• Its goal is to combat climate change by utilising both adaptation and mitigation strategies.
• It aims to preserve, improve, and expand India’s dwindling forest cover. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• One of its primary goals is to increase yearly CO2 sequestration by 50-60 million tonnes by 2020.
• Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are irrelevant to the Green India mission.

6. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’ a breed found in India?

1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

• The Kharai camels
  • It is a unique breed of the camel found only in Kutch of Gujarat and feed on mangroves on the island offshore. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • It can swim up to three kilometres into the sea in search of mangroves, its primary food. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • People consume their milk, while male calves are sold for economic returns. Hence it can be domesticated. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Due to the breed’s capacity to thrive both on land and at sea, the Kharai camel is one of the most popular choices among graziers in the arid coastal region of Kutch.

7. Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?

(a) Andaman Islands

(b) Anaimalai Forests

(c) Maikala Hills

(d) Tropical rain forests of northeast

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

• A new species of banana has been found by researchers from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in the Little Andaman islands’ remote tropical Krishna Nalah rain forest. 
• The typical banana species is just three to four metres high, whereas the new variety stands over 11 metres tall. 
• Orange fruit pulp stands out from the white and yellow tint of typical bananas.
• Musa indandamanensis, a new and distinct sweet species of banana with orange pulp, has been discovered in the Andaman islands.
• The species was found by a team of scientists from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI).
• The newly discovered species is also thrice in the size of a regular banana species. 

8. With reference to an initiative called “The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)” which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

• The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)
  • It is an international initiative which draws attention to the global economic benefits of biodiversity. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • The TEEB study was initiated by Germany and the European Commission in response to a suggestion made by the G8+5 Environment Ministers in Potsdam, Germany, in 2007.
  • The project’s goal was to provide global research on the economics of biodiversity loss.
  • The UNEP, IMF, and World Economic Forum do not host it. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • It tries to achieve this goal by using a structured approach to valuation that assists decision-makers in recognising the wide range of benefits offered by ecosystems and biodiversity, demonstrating their economic values, and suggesting ways to capture those values in decision-making where appropriate. Hence statement 3 is correct. 

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Proper design and effective implementation of UN REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to

1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest ecosystems
3. poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct:

In 2005, the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held its first round of negotiations on the REDD+, or Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation, and the Role of Conservation, Sustainable Management of Forests, and Enhancement of Forest Carbon Stocks in Developing Countries.

• The primary goal was to reduce climate change by lowering net emissions of greenhouse gases by improving forest management in developing nations.
• The majority of the important REDD+ decisions were made by 2013; the rulebook’s final components were completed in 2015.
• It is predicated on the idea that without REDD+, forests in developing nations would have been cleared, hastening climate change.
• Proper implementation of the REDD+ strategies can help in tackling:
  • Forest degradation and biodiversity loss.
  • Improving Social standards reducing poverty.
  • Resilience of forest ecosystem.

10. What is Greenhouse Gas Protocol?

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies

(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct:

• Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHG Protocol)
  • It is a tool for global accounting that helps leaders in industry and government comprehend, measure, and control greenhouse gas emissions. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • The World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development have been working together for ten years (WBCSD).
  • It creates a comprehensive, global, standardised framework for measuring and managing emissions from operations, value chains, products, cities, and policies in the public and private sectors. 
  • It collaborates with businesses, governments, and environmental organisations from all over the world to create a new generation of credible and successful programmes for combating climate change.
  • In addition, the GHG Protocol offers training on its standards and instruments via webinar, e-learning, in-person sessions, and capacity-building assistance.
  • In addition, GHG Protocol offers companies and organizations the opportunity to apply for our “Built on GHG Protocol” mark that recognizes sector guidance, product rules, or tools that are in conformance with GHG Protocol Standards.

11. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

• Agenda 21  is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by organizations of the United Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in every area in which human impacts on the environment.
• It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

12. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangam Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to

(a) constitutional reforms

(b) Ganga Action Plan

(c) linking of rivers

(d) protection of Western Ghats

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct: The Gadgil Committee Report and the Kasturirangan Committee Report are both concerned with the conservation of the Western Ghats. 

• The Gadgil Committee 
  • It is also known as the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP).
  • Madhav Gadgil served as the Gadgil Committee’s chairman.
  • The Gadgil Committee was an environmental study committee that the Indian Ministry of Environment and Forests created. 
  • On August 31, 2011, the group’s report was sent to the Indian government.
  • The Ministry of Environment and Forests should establish the Western Ghats Ecology Authority (WGEA) as a statutory body having authority under section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• The Kasturirangan Committee
  • It was established in August 2012 and was led by Kasturirangan, succeeded the Gadgil Committee.
  • The Kasturirangan committee recommended a ban on mining, quarrying, and mining, as well as new polluting industries. 
  • It was a High-Level Working Group on the Western Ghats to examine the Gadgil Committee report in a holistic and multidisciplinary manner in light of the responses received from Central Ministries, State, and others.

13. On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?

1. Ceiling fans
2. Electric geysers
3. Tubular fluorescent lamps

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct:

• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) was established on March 1, 2002, under the terms of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency developed the Star Labelling Program.
• The BEE establishes all the rules and guidelines that must be adhered to when grading an appliance.
• Frost-free refrigerators, tubular fluorescent lights, room air conditioners, distribution transformers, colour televisions, CST air conditioners, direct-cool refrigerators, and electric geysers are among the appliances that must have an energy rating label. 
• These labels come in two sizes, a large label and a small label:
  • Refrigerators, air conditioners, geysers, and washing machines are examples of products having a large label.
  • Ceiling fans, tube lights, computers, laptops, and televisions are examples of products having a small label.

14. Consider the following statements:

1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

• The International Solar Alliance (ISA)
  • France and India jointly launched the International Solar Alliance (ISA). 
  • It was introduced on November 30, 2015, at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris with the intention of promoting solar energy in developing nations. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The International Solar Alliance is made up of a collection of countries that are located between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn and enjoy more than 300 days of sunshine annually.
  • The International Solar Alliance Framework Agreement was just signed by Nicaragua.
  • Approximately 121 nations support the “Declaration on the occasion of the founding of the international solar alliance of countries dedicated to the promotion of solar energy,” which is the basis for the alliance. Not all of the United Nations’ member states. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

15. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC):

• It embodies efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
• It is a term used under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• It is for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions that all countries that signed the UNFCCC were asked to publish in the lead up to the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris, France in December 2015.
• This is the post-2020 climate action commitments by parties to increase the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions.  Hence, Option 2 is correct.

16. Consider the following statements:

1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

• The Club of Rome’s inaugural report, The Limits to Growth, was published in 1972 by an MIT research team led by Dennis and Donella Meadows.
• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were approved by all United Nations Member States in 2015 to eradicate poverty, decrease inequality, and build more peaceful, affluent society by 2030. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The SDG project aimed to create a set of global objectives that addressed the pressing environmental, political, and economic issues facing our planet.
• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were established at the 2012 Rio de Janeiro United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

17. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b)

• The Air Quality Index 
  • It assesses the quality of the air.
  • When the air quality index (AQI) is under 50, it means that the air is clean and fresh.
  • Under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, the National Air Quality Index (AQI) was introduced in New Delhi in September 2014.
  • The eight pollutants that make up the air quality index are PM10, PM2.5, Ozone, Sulphur Dioxide, Nitrogen Dioxide, Carbon Monoxide, Lead, and Ammonia (NH3)
  • Carbon dioxide and methane are excluded from the Air Quality Index. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

2015

1. With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
3. It identifies the sites known/ referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations (NGOs) that strives to conserve birds, their habitats, and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Norman Myers created the idea of biodiversity hotspots in 1988. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• For the conservation of the world’s birds and other wildlife, BirdLife International’s IBA Programme strives to discover, monitor, and safeguard a global network of IBAs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The BirdLife Partnership works cooperatively to identify, document, and conserve the locations of the greatest significance for the protection of Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas. 
• As of 2009, almost 11,000 sites in roughly 200 nations and territories have been classified as Important Bird Areas (IBAs).

2. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

• The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) 
  • It has been awarded Mini Ratan (Category-I) status in 2015 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
  • It is a Non-Banking Financial Institution under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • It was established on 11th March 1987 as a Public Limited Government Company under the Companies Act, of 1956. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • IREDA promotes, develops, and extends financial assistance for Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency/Conservation Projects.

3. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

(a) Bhitarkanika National Park

(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park

(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park

(d) Sultanpur National Park

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct:

• Keibul Lamjao National Park  is the only floating park in the world located in the Bishnupur district of the North Eastern state of Manipur. 
• It is a crucial component of Loktak Lake.
• It is the largest naturally occurring freshwater lake in the northeast with the Phumdi environment.
• The lake is a wetland of international importance under the RAMSAR Convention and was listed in the Montreux Record in 1993, which is a list of Ramsar sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur. As a result, it is also governed by the Environment (Protection) Act, of 1986. o The lake is rich in biodiversity and has been designated as a wetland of international importance under the RAMSAR Convention in 1990.

Additional Information

• Bhitarkanika National Park
  • It is a sizable national park that spans 145 km2 (56 sq mi) and is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha, in eastern India.
  • It was designated on September 16th, 1998, and was given Ramsar site status on August 19th, 2002.
  • After Chilika Lake, the area has been named the second Ramsar site in the State.
  • The national park is home to many different types of flora and animals, including the saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), Indian python, king cobra, black ibis, and darters.
• Keoladeo Ghana National Park
  • Formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, it is a well-known avifauna sanctuary in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, India, where hundreds of birds live, especially during the winter. There are known residents of more than 230 bird species.
  • It is also a significant tourist destination, attracting a large number of ornithologists during the hibernation season.
  • In 1971, it was designated as a protected refuge.
  • It is a World Heritage Site as well. The park is the only location with rich foliage and trees in a region with low vegetation.
• Sultanpur National Park
  • It is located on the Gurgaon-Farrukh Nagar route in the Haryana district of Gurgaon. The park is roughly 50 km from Delhi and 15 km from Gurgaon away.
  • Birds have been drawn to Sultanpur Jheel for more than a century. But the potential of this wetland wasn’t brought up in official circles until 1969, at the Conference of the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) in New Delhi.

4. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)

• It is a network of environmental organizations founded as the International Union for the Protection of Nature in October 1948 in Fontainebleau, France. 
• It is the only international observer organization in the UN General Assembly with expertise in issues concerning the environment, specifically biodiversity, nature conservation and sustainable natural resource use. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct
• It promotes nature conservation and the ecologically sustainable use of natural resources.
• It changed its name to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) in 1956.
• It is composed of both government and civil society organizations which harness the experience, and resources.
• Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland.
• It maintains the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which was established in 1964.
• It also played a fundamental role in the creation of key international conventions, including the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), the World Heritage Convention (1972), the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species, (1974), and the Convention on Biological Diversity (1992), UNFCCC, etc.
• The IUCN’s activities are organized into several theme-based programs ranging from business and biodiversity to forest preservation to water and wetlands conservation, climate change, conservation, poverty reduction, etc. 
• The IUCN’s funding comes from several governments, agencies, foundations, member organizations, and corporations. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)

• It is an international agreement between governments, that entered into force in 1975. 
• Currently, 176 countries are parties to CITES. 
• CITES is administered through the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The CITES programme ensures compliance with and implementation and enforcement of the convention. 
• Although CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention but does not take the place of national laws, rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level to implement its goals. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

5. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act; 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 

• Dugong
  • It is also called ‘Sea Cow’ and is one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia.
  • It is the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea including in India. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • It is protected in India and occurs in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 
  • The skin of ‘dugong’ is thick and covered everywhere with fine hair which gives a prickly appearance in certain lights. 
  • They live in shallow, sheltered coastal waters where they feed upon sea-grasses and algae (herbivorous). 
  • At present, three areas of the Indian coast have a population of dugongs -the Gulf of Kutch, the Gulf of Mannar, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 
  • It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Vulnerable in IUCN Red List. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • As in the Andaman Islands, the dugong has almost disappeared. They were hunted by mainland settlers for their meats and oil, and have also suffered from a loss of natural habitat (sea- grass beds). Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

6. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?

(a) Bretton Woods Conference

(b) Montreal Protocol

(c) Kyoto Protocol

(d) Nagoya Protocol

Answer: (b) 

The Montreal Protocol

• The Montreal Protocol on Compounds that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a global agreement aimed at preserving the ozone layer by gradually banning the manufacture of a variety of substances that are the cause of ozone depletion.
• It is a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.
• It was agreed on 16th September 1987 and entered into force on 1st January 1989.

Additional Information

• Bretton Woods conference relates to the IMF and the World Bank.
• Kyoto Protocol is about cutting emissions of greenhouse gases.
• Nagoya protocol is about benefit-sharing from the gains of genetic resources.

7. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 

• Green Climate Fund (GCF)
  • The Global Climate Fund (GCF) was established as a mechanism to move funds from the developed to the developing world to support developing nations in their use of adaptation and mitigation strategies to combat climate change. Therefore, statement 1 is true.
  • Under Article 11 of the Convention, it was chosen as an operating entity of the UNFCCC financing system.
  • It is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that will receive guidance from the Conference of the Parties (COP), according to arrangements to be reached between the COP and the Fund to ensure that it is accountable to and operates under the guidance of the COP.
  • It is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the COP. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • It is headquartered in Incheon, South Korea’s new Songdo area.

8. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Programme

(d) World Bank

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct:

• BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL)
• It is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.
• It promotes more intelligent land-use planning, regulations, and practises, as well as decreased greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing nations (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture.

9. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999

(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee 
• It was constituted under the Environment Protection Act 1986. 
• Ministry of Environment and Forest is the nodal ministry.  
• It is responsible for approving proposals regarding the release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, as well as activities involving the large-scale use of hazardous and recombinants in industrial production. 
• Before releasing any genetically engineered organism into the environment, it conducts experimental field trials.

Important Points

• A GM crop is a transgenic crop.
• It is a plant that has a novel combination of genetic material obtained through biotechnology that adds a new quality to the parent crop like herbicide-tolerance. 
• Bt cotton is the only non-food GM crop cultivated in India.

10. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management.
3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.

Select the correct answer using the code” given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• Forest carbon partnership facility
  • It is a collaboration of governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous people. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • It is focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon stock, and conservation of the sustainable management of forest and forest carbon stocks in developing countries. 
  • It came into force in June 2008. 
  • It complements REDD+ by creating awareness of its readiness and future systems. 
  • Objectives of the forest carbon partnership facilities are:
    • To assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing them with essential financial and technical assistance resulting in capacity building. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
    • To pilot a performance-based payment system ensuring equitable benefit sharing. 
    • Ways to sustain or enhance the livelihood of local communities and to conserve biodiversity. 
    • To disseminate knowledge gained in the development of the facility and the implementation of readiness preparation proposals.
    • It does not provide financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

2014

1. Consider the following international agreements

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
  • This was adopted by the 31st session of the Conference of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations on 3rd November 2001.
  • This is also known as the Seed Treaty.
  • India is a signatory to the treaty.  (Statement 1 is correct)
• The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification–
  •  This is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
  • It was drafted and opened for signing in 1994. It became effective in 1996 after receiving 50 ratifications.
  • Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to implement the Convention and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals. (Statement 2 is correct)
• The World Heritage Convention-
  •  It was created in 1972, the primary mission of the Convention is to identify and protect the world’s natural and cultural heritage considered to be of outstanding universal value.
  • This is a Convention under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). (Statement 3 is correct)

Therefore, the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture, the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification, and the World Heritage Convention have a bearing on biodiversity. 

2. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’:

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• Earth Hour is Organized by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• It was started as a light out event in Sydney, Australia in 2007.
• It is held every year on the last Saturday of March.
• The idea is to refrain from the use of non-essential lighting to save energy in a symbolic call for environmental protection.
• The event is held worldwide annually encouraging individual’s community’s households and businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet. Hence, Statement 2 and 3 are correct.

3. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference

(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland

(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed

(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct:

• Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance.
• It registers the changes that occurred or occurring or may occur in ecological character because of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. 
• It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
• It aims is to provide assistance to developed and developing countries alike in solving the problems or threats that make inclusion in the Montreux Record necessary.
• In 1993, Chilika Lake was also listed in Montreux Record due to problem of siltation. Later in 2002, it was removed from the list as the problem of siltation was tackled by Govt. of India.

4. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education, and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS)

• It is one of the largest non-governmental organizations in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research. Hence, Statement 1 is Not Correct.
• BNHS Mission
  • Conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity through action based on research, education, and public awareness. Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
• BNHS Vision
  • Premier independent scientific organization with a broad-based constituency, excelling in the conservation of threatened species and habitats.
• It also organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Hence Statement 3 is Correct.

5. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’

(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level

(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

• The Global Environment Facility (GEF) unites 183 countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues. 
• It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’ It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at a global level. 
• It is not an agency under OECD. 
• It was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle environmental problems.
• It is a private equity fund focused on seeking long term financial returns by investments in clean energy under climate change. 
• It does not directly undertake any scientific research on environmental issues. Hence Option 2 is NOT Correct. 
• It is a program under the World Bank. Hence Option 3 is NOT Correct. 

6. With reference to a conservation organization called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

• Wetlands International 
  • The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 in Iran but Wetlands international was formed in 1954. 
  • As it was formed way before the Ramsar Convention. Hence Statement 1 is not Correct. 
  • Wetland International is an NGO. It works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity. 
  • Wetlands International’s work is in research, advocacy, and engagement with government, corporate and international policy forums and conferences. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

7. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 

• The Gangetic dolphin
  • It is declared as the national aquatic animal of India.
  • The Ganga river dolphins are one of the four freshwater dolphins found in the world.
  • The increasing population of the crocodile in the river is nothing to do with the decline in the Ganges River Dolphins. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Threats to gangetic dolphin  
    • Due to the construction of dams on river Ganga for irrigation and electricity generation which slow down the flow of the river in the main river channel and destroys their habitat. 
    • Due to the increase of pollution in the Ganga river the favourable condition for dolphins to survive also destroy. 
    • The rainwater carries pollutants, agrochemicals, pesticides and discharges these in the river cause water pollution.
• Statement 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

8. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

1. Volcanic action
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

• Producers remove the carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and hydrosphere through the process of photosynthesis. They convert carbon dioxide to glucose. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• The process of respiration releases carbon dioxide back to air or water (aquatic ecosystem). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Decomposers release carbon stored in bodies of dead organisms back to the atmosphere. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• Volcanoes emit carbon dioxide in two ways: during eruptions and through underground magma. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

9. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct:

• Painted Stork
  • It is a fish eating bird. 
• Common Myna 
  • It is an opportunistic feeder on inspects, disturbed by grazing cattle.
• Black-necked crane
  • Found in Trans-himalayan region
  • Only found in Arunanchal Pradesh and Ladakh (WWF). therefore we are unlikely to find it while walking through  “country side” in all states and places .

10. With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) 

• Eco-sensitive zones  is ecologically Fragile Areas within 10 km around protected areas to act as a buffer.
• It is notified under section 3 of the Environment Protection Act 1986 by the Ministry of Environment and Forest. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• Certain activities are either banned or regulated to protect the environment.  
• Agriculture, Horticulture practices by local communities, organic farming, rainwater harvesting, scientific research, tourism, etc. are permitted in the Eco-sensitive zones. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• It act as a shock absorber for the protected areas and are a transition zone from high protection areas to lesser protection areas.  
• It help in In-situ conservation.
• It minimize forest depletion and man-animal conflict.
• It minimize the impact of urbanization and developmental activities in protected areas. 

11. Consider the following statements:

1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Animal Welfare Board of India

• This is a statutory body established under the prevention of cruelty to animals act 1960 in 1962.
• It is an advisory body of the Government of India on animal welfare laws. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• This consists of 28 members who serve for a term of 3 years. 
• Ministry of Environment and Forest is nodal ministry for Animal Welfare Board of India.
• Its headquarters is in Ballabgarh in the Faridabad district of Haryana.

National Tiger conservation authority

• It is a statutory body under the ministry of environment forest and climate change established in 2005. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• This was constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

National Ganga River Basin Authority 

• It was replaced by the National Ganga Council under River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management) Authorities Order, 2016.
• The National Ganga Council is chaired by the Prime Minister and the Union Minister for Jal Shakti is its vice-chairperson. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• This is responsible for the implementation of the national mission for Clean Ganga.

12. Consider the following pairs

          Wetlands                                               :          Confluence of rivers

1. Harike Wetlands                                :        Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej  
2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park       :        Confluence of Banas and Chambal 
3. Kolleru Lake                                        :        Confluence of Musi and Krishna 

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

• Harike Wetlands  was formed by constructing the headworks across the Sutlej River. 
• The headworks is located downstream of the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers.
• It is one of the largest man-made wetlands in northern India.
• This wetland shares its area with the Tarntaran, Ferozpur, and Kapurthala districts of Punjab.
• It came into existence after the construction of a barrage near the confluence of rivers Sutlej and Beas in 1952. Hence, Pair 1 is correct.
• It is also a Ramsar site.
• Keoladeo Ghana National Park
  • It is formed by confluence of Gambira and Banganga rivers. Hence, Pair 2 is not correct.
  • It is a man-made and man-managed wetland in Rajasthan. It is also declared a World Heritage site.
  • It is situated at the confluence of the Gambhir and Banganga rivers. 
  • It was designated as a Ramsar site under the Wetland Convention in October 1981.
  • Kolleru Lake is a freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh.
  • It was previously a lagoon.
  • It was designated a wetland of international importance in November 2002 under the international Ramsar Convention.
  • It lies between the Godavari and Krishna river deltas. Hence, Pair 3 is not correct.
  • Many birds migrate here in winters, such as Siberian cranes, ibis, and painted storks.

13. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

(a) biosphere reserves

(b) botanical gardens

(c) national parks

(d) wildlife sanctuaries

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

• Biosphere Reserves are established to protect larger areas of natural habitat than a typical national park or animal sanctuary.
• It is the most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life. 
• The sustainable development of reserves is based on local community initiatives. 
• The site must comprise a protected and minimally damaged core area of significance for nature protection.
• It encompasses inland, coastal, and marine environments.
• In India, there are 18 biosphere reserves.

Additional Points:

Botanical gardens

• It is a place where ferns, conifers and flowering plants are grown and displayed for the purposes of research and education.

National Park

• This is an area set aside by a national government to preserve the natural environment.
• This area is maintained for the purpose of protecting & propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment.
• There are 101 existing national parks in India covering an area of 1.23% of the geographical area of the country.

Wildlife sanctuaries

• This is an area where animal habitats and their surroundings are protected from any sort of disturbance. The capturing, killing and poaching of animals is strictly prohibited in these regions.
• There are 553 existing wildlife sanctuaries in India covering 3.64 % of the geographical area in India.

14. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2°C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 

• Terrestrial biosphere
  • It plays a significant role in regulating atmospheric composition and climate.
  • It can release or absorb the greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄) and nitrous oxide (N₂O).
  • It regulates fluxes of energy, water and aerosols between the earth surface and atmosphere.
  • Although a tiny amount of carbon leaves the terrestrial biosphere and enters the oceans as dissolved organic carbon, carbon is most quickly exchanged with the atmosphere. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Important Points:

• If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, the terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source. 
• Taiga and temperate forests act as an important carbon sink; these forests would turn into a carbon source.
• Corals
  • It is invertebrate animal belonging to a large group of colourful and fascinating animals called Cnidaria. 
  • It is extremely diverse marine ecosystems hosting over 4,000 species of fish, massive numbers of cnidarians, molluscs, crustaceans, and many other animals.
  • As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events occur. If the temperature keeps on rising, widespread coral mortality will occur. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The temperate regions can still survive if the temperature increases. The temperate zones are where the widest seasonal changes occur. The vegetation can survive there. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
  • The weather should be warm and moist during the early stage of growth of cereals. Therefore, the cultivation of cereals would still be possible if the temperature rises. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.

15. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India?

1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct:

• Air pollutants are released from steel industries in India, which includes gaseous substances such as oxides of sulphur, oxides of nitrogen (mainly NO2 and NO), oxides of carbon (CO2 and CO). 
• In steel furnace, coke reacts with iron ore, releasing iron along with the generation of oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon.

2013

1. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

(a) State Forest Department

(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer

(d) Gram Sabha

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both. 

2. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

(a) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen

(b) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

(c) Ozone and carbon dioxide

(d) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide both combine with water in the atmosphere to create acid rain. 

3. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism that are eaten by others

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: A food chain is the sequence of who eats whom in a biological community (an ecosystem) to obtain nutrition. In a food chain, each organism occupies a different trophic level, defined by how many energy transfers separate it from the basic input of the chain. 

4. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The lion- tailed macaque is one of the most endangered primates of India, confined in distribution to the rainforests of southern Western Ghats. Habitat specialists, they have adapted themselves to the evergreen environments available in the south Indian states of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. 

5. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

(a) Ecotone

(b) Ecological niche

(c) Habitat

(d) Home range

Answer: (b)

Option (d) is correct: The ecological niche is the ecological role and space that an organism fills in an ecosystem. The ecological niche involves both the place where an organism lives and the roles that an organism does in its habitat. 

6. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among

(a) NO₂, O₃ and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(b) CO, O₂ and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(c) CO, CO₂ and NO₂ at low temperature

(d) High concentration of NO₂, O₃ and CO in the evening

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

• Major Chemical Pollutants in Photochemical Smog:
  • Nitrogen Oxides (NO and NO₂)
  • Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
  • Ozone (O₃)
  • Peroxyacetyl Nitrates (PAN)

7. Consider the following:

1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Spider Monkeys live in tropical climates, specifically the evergreen forests of Central and South America. They can also be found as far north as Mexico but not in India. 

8. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?

1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Arsenic and fluoride are the two most common pollutants found in drinking water in India. Other pollutants such as sorbitol, formaldehyde, and uranium are also found in some parts of India. 

9. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of

(a) Insects and fungi

(b) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients

(c) Water limits and fire

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Ecological succession typically begins when the existing biological community has been cleared away by human activity or natural disturbance such as a fire or severe storm. The population of trees that once lived in this area can’t grow back because the fire has changed the ground composition. Without tree roots to act as anchors, rain washes away the soil and the ground becomes rocky and barren. This rocky ground, however, proves ideal to lichens, the pioneer population. Mosses and herbs are well suited to living in the shallow soil environment created by the lichen, and they replace the lichen as the dominant population. 

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Question: What is the significance of the Montreal Protocol in the context of environmental protection? (UPSC Prelims 2017)

Answer: The Montreal Protocol is a landmark international agreement aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances. It is significant for global environmental protection as it has successfully contributed to the recovery of the ozone layer, preventing harmful ultraviolet radiation from reaching the Earth’s surface.

Question: Discuss the concept of ‘Biodiversity Hotspots’ and their importance for conservation efforts. (UPSC Prelims 2015)

Answer: Biodiversity hotspots are regions with exceptionally high levels of biodiversity that face significant threats. These areas are crucial for conservation efforts because they contain a large number of endemic species. Protecting biodiversity hotspots helps preserve unique ecosystems and contributes to overall global biodiversity conservation.

Question: Explain the term ‘Eutrophication’ and its impact on aquatic ecosystems. (UPSC Prelims 2016)

Answer: Eutrophication is the excessive enrichment of water bodies with nutrients, often due to human activities such as agricultural runoff or wastewater discharge. This process can lead to an overgrowth of algae, disrupting the balance of aquatic ecosystems. The decay of these algae consumes oxygen, leading to the depletion of oxygen levels in water, harming fish and other aquatic organisms.

Question: What is the concept of ‘Cap and Trade’ in the context of climate change mitigation? (UPSC Prelims 2018)

Answer: Cap and Trade is an environmental policy approach that aims to control pollution by setting a limit (cap) on the total amount of certain pollutants that can be emitted. Companies are then issued permits for their emissions. If a company reduces its emissions below the allocated limit, it can sell or trade its excess permits to other companies. This market-based approach provides economic incentives for companies to reduce their emissions.

Question: Discuss the role of ‘Green Climate Fund’ in the global efforts to address climate change. (UPSC Prelims 2020)

Answer: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a financial mechanism under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It aims to support developing countries in their efforts to mitigate and adapt to climate change. The GCF provides financial assistance for projects and programs that promote sustainable development, reduce greenhouse gas emissions, and enhance climate resilience, particularly in vulnerable communities.

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