UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Solved PYQs – Geography

The Geography section in the UPSC Prelims examination from 2013 to 2022 has been a crucial component, reflecting the diverse and comprehensive nature of the subject. The questions posed during this period span a wide range of topics, encompassing physical, human, and economic geography. The examination has consistently tested candidates on their understanding of global phenomena, environmental issues, and geographical indicators. Notable areas of focus have included climate change, resource distribution, and geopolitical developments. Moreover, the UPSC has demonstrated a keen interest in assessing candidates’ knowledge of regional geography, particularly with regard to India’s diverse landscapes, rivers, and climate patterns. Aspirants have been required to draw upon their knowledge of map reading and interpretation, further emphasizing the practical application of geographical concepts. The UPSC Prelims Geography questions thus serve as a barometer for candidates’ holistic grasp of geographical principles and their ability to connect these principles to real-world scenarios, reinforcing the multidimensional nature of the discipline in the context of the civil services examination.

2023

1. Consider the following statements: 

1.  Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 
2.  Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 
3.  Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. 

How many of the statements given above are correct?  

1.  Only one 
2.  Only two 
3.  All three 
4.  None

Answer:  (a) 

• Wular Lake is the 2nd largest fresh-water lake of Asia. Main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Kolleru, one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, is situated between the Krishna and West Godavari districts of the state. The Krishna River does not directly feed the Kolleru Lake. The Kolleru Lake is fed by two seasonal rivers, Budameru and Tammileru, which are tributaries of the Krishna River. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct. 
• Kanwar Lake, which is a freshwater oxbow lake located in Begusarai district of Bihar, India, was formed by a cut-off meander of an old channel of Burhi Gandak River. The Burhi Gandak River flows parallel to the eastern side of the Gandak River through an old channel. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct. 

2. Consider the following pairs:

Port –                              Well known as
      1. Kamarajar Port:             First major port in India registered as a company
      2. Mundra Port:                 Largest privately owned port in India
      3. Visakhapatnam:             Largest container port in Port India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

1. Only one pair 
2. Only two pairs 
3. All three pairs 
4. None of the pairs 

Answer: (b) 

• Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The port was declared as a major port under the Indian Ports Act, 1908 in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched. 
• Mundra Port is India’s first private port and largest privately-owned port, located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. It is owned and operated by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ), which is a part of Adani Group. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• Visakhapatnam Port is India’s third largest state-owned port by volume of cargo handled and the largest on the Eastern Coast. It is located midway between the Chennai and Kolkata Ports on the Bay of Bengal. Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Seva), Maharashtra, is the largest container port in India. Hence, Pair 3 is NOT correctly matched. 

3. Consider the following trees: 

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus Heterophyllus) 
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 
3. Teak (Tectona grandis) 

How many of the above are deciduous trees? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer: (b) 

• Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, which means they retain their leaves throughout the year and do not shed them seasonally. It is grown majorly in Tropical areas, hence it is a tropical fruit.

• Mahua (Madhuca indica) is found in the dry deciduous type of forests like the Forests of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.  
• Teak (Tectona grandis) is a moist deciduous tree. Teak wood forests are mainly found in North East India.  

       Hence, Option (b) is correct. 

4. Consider the following statements  

1. India has more arable areas than China. 
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. 

How many of the above statements are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer:  (b) 

• Arable land is land ploughed or tilled regularly. India has the most arable land in the world followed by the United States, Russia, China and Brazil. India has the largest arable land of any country at 1,656,780 km square (50.4% of total land) compared with 1,084,461 km square (11.3% of total land) of China. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• India has more proportion of irrigated land than China. China’s irrigation cover is 41% of the cultivated area, and India’s is 48%. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is 2.4 tonnes for rice and 3 tonnes for wheat, while in China it is 6.7 tonnes for rice and 5 tonnes for wheat. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct. 

5. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

1. Bhitarkanika Mangroves 
2. Marakkanam Salt Pans 
3. Naupada Swamp 
4. Rann of Kutch 

Answer: (d) 

The Rann of Kutch is a vast salt marsh located in the Thar Desert of Gujarat, India. It is known for its unique ecosystem and is characterised by extensive marshy areas. The present-day Kutch’s shoreline and the sand dune deposition is the result of hundreds of years of rainless years around 5,000 years ago. Due to these severe climate conditions, the sea levels fell, leading to the formation of dunes along the coastline. Hence, Option (d) is correct. 

6. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following? 

1. Aluminium  
2. Copper 
3. Iron 
4. Titanium 

Answer: (d) 

India is endowed with large resources of heavy minerals which occur mainly along coastal stretches of the country and also in inland places. Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite. Ilmenite (FeO. TiO2) and rutile (TiO2) are the two chief minerals of titanium. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

Q7. Consider the following statements: 

1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.  

How many of the statements given above are correct?  

1. Only one  
2. Only two  
3. All three  
4. None 

Answer: (d) 

• The Amarkantak Hill is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhya and the Satpura Range. Hence, Statement 1 is NOT correct. 
• Biligirirangan Hills is situated in south-eastern Karnataka while the Satpura Range rises in eastern Gujarat running east through the border of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh and ends in Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct. 
• Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh while Western Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.

8. Consider the following statements 

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. 
Statement-II : Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer: (c) 

• In India, power is generated from conventional (Thermal, Nuclear & Hydro) and renewable sources (Wind, Solar, Biomass etc). Major production of Electricity is achieved through coal, a thermal power plant which is around 75% of the total power generation. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• However, uranium enriched to the extent of at least 60% is not required for the production of electricity. For civilian nuclear power plants, uranium is typically enriched to about 3-5% of uranium-235, which is sufficient for light water reactors that are commonly used for electricity generation. Hence, statement II is not correct.

9. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? 

1. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles. 
2. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. 
3. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. 
4. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. 

Answer: (c) 

The Earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short wavelengths. The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation, which in short, is termed insolation. The atmosphere is largely transparent to shortwave solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the near infrared radiation. Hence, option (c) is correct. 

10. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: The soil in tropical rainforests is rich in nutrients. 

Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. 

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement? 

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 
3. Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
4. Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer: (d) 

The soils of the tropical rainforest are typically nutrient-poor. The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. In tropical rainforests, the plants grow so fast that they quickly consume the nutrients from the soil, and the leftover nutrients are then leached away by abundant rainfall, which leaves the soil infertile. Hence, statement I is not correct and statement II is correct. 

11. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. 

Statement-II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. 

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I 
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.  
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer: (b) 

• The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. This is because of more heat and stronger sea breeze in the summer than in winter. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• The specific heat capacity of water is much greater than the land because the relative density of water is much lower than that of the land surface. However, this is true throughout the year and not related to any particular season. Hence, statement II is correct but it is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

12. Consider the following statements: 

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (c) 

• P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves. The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The P-waves are longitudinal waves, so P-wave particles vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. But S-waves are transverse waves, so S-wave particles vibrate perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, Statement 2 is correct,

13. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: 

1. None of them uses seawater. 
2. None of them are set up in water-stressed districts. 
3. None of them is privately owned.  

How many of the above statements are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None  

Answer: (d) 

• In India, several coal-fired thermal power plants employ seawater for a variety of functions, including cooling the condenser system. Seawater is a frequent supply of cooling water for power plants near the coast. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• According to a report, 40 percent of the country’s thermal power plants are located in areas facing high water stress, a problem since these plants use water for cooling. Scarce water is already hampering electricity generation in this region. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• There are both privately and publicly owned coal-fired thermal power stations in India. The country’s power generating is a collaboration of corporate and public companies. For example, Adani Power Limited is the country’s largest thermal power producer company. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.  

2022

Q1. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?  

1.  Lake Victoria  
2.  Lake Faguibine  
3.  Lake Oguta  
4.  Lake Volta  

Answer: (b)  

Option (b) is correct: 

• Lake Faguibine in northern Mali is dry and has been since the 1970s.  The lake was once one of the largest in West Africa used to be fed by annual flooding from the Niger River. 
• The Lake Faguibine System, four interlinked lakes 80 km west of Timbuktu, was historically one of Mali’s most fertile areas. But over seven years, droughts in the 1970s dried up the lakes. Then sand filled the channels connecting the lakes to the river Niger, with the result that when rain finally returned, the water could no longer reach the lakes. The region’s prosperity evaporated along with the water.  

 Q2. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?  

1. Cauvery  
2. Manjira  
3. Pennar  
4. Tungabhadra  

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:  Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The village is majorly known for housing the spectacular gorge, famously known as the Grand Canyon of India.   Gorges are formed when rivers erode through gigantic rock formations over thousands of years.
The stunning gorge has been created by the waters of the famous river Pennar that streams from the Erramala hills in southern India. Penna (also known as Pinakini, Pennar, Penner, Penneru, Pennai).  The swift flowing waters of River Pennar cut through the granite rocks near the village of Gandikota, naturally eroding the rock and forming a deep valley. Gandikota got its name from ‘gandi’ the Telugu word for ‘gorge’. Pennar River streams from the Erramala hills. The spectacular gorge is famously adjudged as the Grand Canyon of India. 

Q3. Consider the following pairs Peak Mountains  

1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya  
2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya  
3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya  

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?  

1.  1 and 2  
2.  2 only  
3.  1 and 3  
4.  3 only  

Answer: (b) 

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched- Namcha Barwa Himal, also known as Namjagbarwa syntaxis or Namjagbarwa Group Complex, is the easternmost section of the Himalaya in southeastern Tibet and northeastern India. Namcha Barwa is considered as the Eastern point of the Himalayas. It is located on the extreme east of the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. The height of Namcha Barwa is around 7782 m. Brahmaputra River takes a U-turn on reaching Namcha Barwa.   
• Pair 2 is correctly matched- Nanda Devi is the second highest mountain in India (Highest- Kanchenjunga) and the highest entirely within the country (Kangchenjunga being on the border of India and Nepal). It is part of the Kumaon Himalayas, and is located in the state of Uttarakhand between the Rishi Ganga valley on the west and the Goriganga valley on the east. The peak, whose name means “Bliss-Giving Goddess”, is regarded as the patron goddess of the Garhwal and Kumaon Himalayas.  
• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Nokrek is not situated in Sikkim Himalaya. Nokrek is the highest peak in West Garo Hills of Meghalaya.  

Q4. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions ?  

1. Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores  
2. Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco  
3. Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa  
4. The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sean  

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Levant, (from the French lever, “to rise,” as in sunrise, meaning the east), historically, the region along the eastern Mediterranean shores, roughly corresponding to modern-day Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and certain adjacent areas. Levant, originally meant ‘the East’ or ‘Mediterranean lands east of Italy’. It is borrowed from the French levant ‘rising’, referring to the rising of the sun in the east, or the point where the sun rises.

Q5. Consider the following countries :  

1. Azerbaijan  
2. Kyrgyzstan  
3. Tajikistan  
4. Turkmenistan  
5. Uzbekistan  

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?  

1.  1, 2 and 5 only  
2.  1, 2, 3 and 4 only  
3.  3, 4 and 5 only  
4.  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5  

Answer: (C)

Option (c)  is correct: Afghanistan, officially the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, is a landlocked country in southern Central Asia. It borders Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north, Iran to the west, Pakistan to the east and south. Afghanistan is completely landlocked—the nearest coast lies along the Arabian Sea, about 300 miles (480 km) to the south—and because of both its isolation and its volatile political history, it remains one of the most poorly surveyed areas of the world. It is bounded to the east and south by Pakistan (including those areas of Kashmir administered by Pakistan but claimed by India), to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan. It also has a short border with Xinjiang, China, at the end of the long, narrow Vākhān (Wakhan Corridor), in the extreme northeast. Its overall area is roughly twice that of Norway. 

Q6. With reference to India, consider the following statements :  

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.  
2. Monazite contains thorium.  
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.  
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

1.  1, 2 and 3 only  
2.  1, 2 and 4 only  
3.  3 and 4 only  
4.  1, 2, 3 and 4  

Answer: (b)  

• Statement 1 is correct: Monazite is a primarily reddish-brown phosphate mineral that contains rare-earth elements. Due to variability in composition, monazite is considered a group of minerals. Monazite usually occurs in small, isolated crystals or grains that are resistant to weathering and become concentrated in soils. 
• Statement 2 is correct: In addition to the rare-earth elements, thorium (Th) can be extracted from monazite ore. Thorium is a slightly radioactive metal, identical to uranium. Monazite is a major source of rare earths and thorium. It yields a number of rare-earth elements, such as neodymium and praseodymium. Both of these are in demand internationally for making high-performance rare-earth magnets (components of power wind turbines, electric vehicles and robotics) 
• Statement 3 is not correct: Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constituent unit of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has estimated the presence of 11.93 million tonnes of monazite resources in the beach sand mineral placer deposits along the coastal tracts of India. Though monazite is found in most coastal areas of India. It is questionable to be found along the entire coast.The main mines are found along the coasts of southern India in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and in Orissa. 
• Statement 4 is correct: Monazite is a mineral mainly containing rare earths and thorium-a prescribed substance to be handled by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). Accordingly, Indian Rare Earths Ltd. (IREL) wholly owned by the Govt. of India, under the administrative control of the Dept. of Atomic Energy (DAE) utilises monazite mainly for production of rare earth compounds, and thorium, as needed in the Department of Atomic Energy. 

Q7.  In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:  

1. First half of the month of June  
2. Second half of the month of June  
3. First half of the month of July  
4.  Second half of the month of July  

Answer- (b)    

Option (b) is correct: In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year is called the Summer solstice. In technical terms, this day is referred to as the Summer solstice, the longest day of the summer season. The maximum amount of sunlight received by the Northern Hemisphere during this time is usually on June 20, 21 or 22. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer or more specifically right over 23.5-degree North Latitude. 

  

Q8. Consider the following pairs : 

             Wetland                  Lake Location  

1. Hokera Wetland –      Punjab  
2. Renuka Wetland –      Himachal Pradesh  
3. Rudrasagar Lake —     Tripura  
4. Sasthamkotta Lake –  Tamil Nadu  

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?  

1.  Only one pair  
2.  Only two pairs  
3.  Only three pairs  
4.  All four pairs  

Answer: (b)    

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched-  Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab.  Hokera wetland is about 10 km from Srinagar. It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin. 
• Pair 2 is correctly matched- Renuka Wetland is the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh. It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations. 
• Pair 3 is correctly matched- Rudrasagar Lake, also known as Twijilikma, is a lake located in Melaghar, Tripura, India. The Government of India’s Ministry of Environment and Forest has identified Rudrasagar as one of the wetlands of National Importance for conservation and sustainable use based on its bio-diversity and socio-economic importance. The lake is designated as a Ramsar site. A lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti. 
• Pair 4 is incorrectly matched- Sasthamkotta is located in the Kollam district of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala and has always been a center of tourist activity. 

2021

Q1. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions? 

1. Burrowing animals and termites 
2. Fire 
3. Grazing herbivores 
4. Seasonal rainfall 
5. Soil properties 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

1. 1 and 2 
2. 4 and 5 
3. 2, 3 and 4 
4. 1, 3 and 5 

Answer : (c)  

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The savanna landscape is typified by tall grass and short trees.  Here, it depends on grazing intensity and not the burrowing animals or termites. The savanna is the home of wild animals. Usually, there are two main groups of animals in the savanna – the grass-eating herbivorous animals (giraffe, deer, elephant) and the flesh-eating carnivorous animals (lion, tiger, leopard, Panther). There are hardly any burrowing animals or termites. 
• Statement 2 is correct: Bush fires are common in Savannah because of the alternate wet and dry seasons which can modify the forest.  
• Statement 3 is correct: Due to the presence of a large number of grass-eating herbivorous animals, grazing intensity is a major reason for the type of Savanna; so grazing herbivores do contribute to keeping a check on forests. 
• Statement 4 is correct: Sudan type of climate is characterised by alternate hot rainy season and cool dry season. Hence, drought due to the seasonal nature of rainfall does contribute to keeping the forests in check. 
• Statement 5 is incorrect: Soil properties influence the type of Savannah and its vegetation but don’t contribute to checking once it is formed.

Q2. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements: 

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater. 
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2  

Answer: (b)  

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Of the total freshwater, 69% resides in glaciers, 30% underground, and less than 1% is located in lakes, rivers, and swamps. Thus, the amount of water in rivers and lakes is less than the amount of groundwater.   
• Statement 2 is correct. Of the total freshwater, 69% resides in glaciers and 30% underground. Polar ice caps and glaciers have more water than groundwater.    
• Additional Info: 
  • Ocean water: 97.2 percent 
  • Glaciers and other ice: 2.15 percent 
  • Groundwater,: 0.61 percent 
  • Freshwater lakes: 0.009 percent 
  • Inland seas: 0.008 percent 
  • Soil Moisture: 0.005 percent 
  • Atmosphere: 0.001 percent 
  • Rivers: 0.0001 percent. 

Q3. Consider the following statements: 

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. 
2. The Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia. 
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. 
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. 
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 Only
2. 3, 4 and 5 Only 
3. 1, 3 and 4 Only 
4. 1, 2, 3 and 5  Only 

Answer: (b) 

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Moringa Oleifera is a medium-sized evergreen tree that is native to Africa and Asia. Also known as The Moringa Tree, the Drumstick Tree or The Miracle Tree. This is a non-leguminous tree.  
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Tamarind, (Tamarindus indica), an evergreen tree of the pea family (Fabaceae), native to Tropical Africa. 
• Statement 3 is correct. Tamarind is collected mostly as the minor forest produce in India.  
• Statement 4 is correct. India exports tamarind and moringa seeds to the US, Germany, China, Canada, South Korea, and other European countries.   
• Statement 5 is correct. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used for biofuel. The oil from the Moringa tree is considered to be a more sustainable biodiesel feedstock than jatropha oil.   

Q4. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of 

1. brown forest soil 
2. fissure volcanic rock 
3. granite and schist 
4. shale and limestone 

Answer: (b)  

Option (b) is correct:

• Black soils are derivatives of Deccan trap lava and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock. 
• Black soil in India is formed by the weathering of fissure volcanic rock.    
• The Deccan trap, which is the source of the black soils, is a basaltic province formed during the hot spot volcanism when the Indian plate was above the Reunion island about 66 million years ago. 
• Climatic conditions along with the parent rock material are the important factors for the formation of black soil. Black soils are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.   
• These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’. 

Q5. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements: 

1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia. 
2. Palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes. 
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (b)  

• Statement 1 is incorrect. More than 80 percent of palm oil is grown in Southeast Asia, with Indonesia and Malaysia leading the world in production of the commodity. Oil palms were introduced to Malaysia and Indonesia in the mid-20th century from Africa, and large scale production followed. The growth has been rapid and widespread, and the natural forest and all that live in it face a dire future. Palm oil is derived from the oil palm tree – A native to West Africa (and not Southeast Asia). It grows best in tropical climates with abundant water.   
• Statement 2 is correct. Palm oil and its derivatives are present in at least 70% of cosmetic products, according to Croda, a global specialty ingredients supplier to the beauty and personal care industry. This goes to show that palm-derived ingredients are preferred by the manufacturers for their functional benefits. 
• Statement 3 is correct. Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. It can be used in compression ignition engines, i.e., diesel engines without any modifications. Generally, RBD palm oil is used to produce biodiesel due to the low FFA content (0.1-0.5%) and thus minimise the impact of saponification reaction. Darnoko and Cheryan (2000) studied the transesterification of RBD palm oil with methanol catalysed by KOH. 

Q6. With reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus directly. Among the following, which one is such a river that joins the Indus directly? 

1. Chenab 
2. Jhelum 
3. Ravi 
4. Sutlej 

Answer: (d)

• Option a is incorrect: Chenab river moves into the lands of Punjab in the vicinity of Akhnoor and is subsequently connected with the Jhelum. It creates the border between the Rechna and the Jech Doabs. Chenab joins Satluj in Pakistan.    
• Option b is incorrect: The Jhelum joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.   
• Option c is incorrect: The Ravi River runs as a portion of the boundary between India and Pakistan for a particular distance prior to moving into Pakistan and meeting the Chenab River. The Ravi joins the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu.   
• Option d is correct: Satluj is joined by the Chenab in Pakistan. Thus, Satluj receives the collective drainage of the Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum rivers. It joins the Indus directly a few kilometres above Mithankot. 

Q7. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of which of the following ?

1. Glaciers 
2. Mangrove areas 
3. Ramsar sites 
4. Saline lakes  

Answer: (d) 

• Didwana is a town in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan. It has a famous Didwana salt-water lake of Rajasthan.   
• Kuchaman lake is located in Nagaur district of Rajasthan. 
• Hence, it can be considered that all four – Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are saline lakes.

Q8. Consider the following rivers: 

1. Brahmani 
2. Nagavali 
3. Subarnarekha 
4. Vamsadhara 

Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? 

1. 1 and 2 Only 
2. 2 and 4  Only 
3. 3 and 4 Only 
4. 1 and 3  Only

Answer: (b) 

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Brahmani, known as South Koel in its upper reaches, rises in Ranchi district of Jharkhand at an elevation of about 600 m.   
• Statement 2 is correct: Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats include Baitarani River, Budhabalanga River, Rushikulya River, Vamsadhara River, Palar River, Nagavali River, and Champavathi River, etc.  The Nagavali river originates in the Eastern Ghats near Lakhbahal, located at an altitude of 1,300 metres in the Kalahandi district of the Indian state Odisha. Languriya is another name for Nagavali River.  
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Subarnarekha River rises near Nagri village in the Ranchi District of Jharkhand at an elevation of 600 m. It flows for a length of 395 km before outfalling into the Bay of Bengal.   
• Statement 4 is correct:  Vamsadhara river rises in the Eastern Ghats of Orissa State and enters Srikakulam District in Bhamini Mandal and finally falls into the Bay of Bengal near Kalingapatnam. 

Q9. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? 

1. Sugarcane 
2. Sunflower 
3. Pearl millet 
4. Red gram 

Answer: (a)  

• Option (a) is correct: Sugarcane is the least water efficient crop. Among the given options, its water requirement is 1800-2200 mm/season which is the highest.   
• Option (b) is incorrect: Sunflower’s water requirement was estimated at 672.4 mm/season.  
• Option (c) is incorrect: Pearl millet is a drought tolerant crop. Water requirement: 350 mm/season.  
• Option (d) is incorrect:  Red gram uses about 250-400 mm/season of water.   

Additional Information: 

• Sugarcane is cultivated as a Kharif crop in India. Regions with lower rainfall levels require irrigation. Deep rich loamy soil is best for sugarcane. The soil must be rich in phosphorus, calcium and nitrogen but not acidic or alkaline. Crop water requirements are 1500–2500 millimetres per complete growing season, and drought sensitivity is quite high. Therefore, sugarcane is the right response. 
• Sugarcane belongs to the Poaceae family (Poaceae). 
• In India, Sugarcane is grown as a caliphate crop. 
• It requires a hot and humid climate with an average temperature of 21°C to 27°C. 
• A rainfall of 75 to 150 cm is suitable for growing sugar cane. 
• Irrigation is required in areas with low precipitation. 

Q10. Consider the following statements: 

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. 
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:  (c)

• Statement 1 is correct: Warmer water is transported westward in the ocean by the Northeast trade winds in the Northern hemisphere of the tropical zone. So, in Tropical Zones, the western section of ocean is warmer than eastern sections due to trade winds.   
• Statement 2 is correct. Similarly, the Westerlies play an important role in carrying the warm, equatorial waters and winds to the western coasts of continents (that is the eastern section of the Oceans in temperate zone). Thus, in temperate zones, westerlies make the eastern section of the ocean warmer than the western sections.   

Q11. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees”. This is the most likely description of 

1. Coniferous forest 
2. Dry deciduous forest 
3. Mangrove forest 
4. Tropical rainforest 

Answer: (d) 

• Option (d) is correct: Tropical rainforests are perfect habitats for bacteria and other microorganisms due to their hot and humid climate. These creatures break down debris on the forest floor swiftly because they are active all year round. Other biomes, like the deciduous forest, benefit from the addition of nutrients to the soil caused by leaf litter decomposition.  

Additional Information: 

• The tropical rainforest is a hot, moist biome where it rains all year long. It is known for its dense canopies of vegetation that form three different layers. 
• The top layer or canopy contains giant trees that grow to heights of 75 m or more. This layer of vegetation prevents much of the sunlight from reaching the ground. Thick, woody vines are also found in the canopy. They climb trees in the canopy to reach for sunlight. 
• The middle layer, or understory, is made up of vines, smaller trees, ferns, and palms. A large number of plants from this level are used as common houseplants. Because of the small amount of sunlight and rainfall these plants receive, they adapt easily to home environments. 
• The bottom layer or floor of the rainforest is covered with wet leaves and leaf litter. This material decomposes rapidly in the wet, warm conditions (like a compost pile) sending nutrients back into the soil. Few plants are found on the floor of the forest due to the lack of sunlight. 

2020

Q1. Consider the following minerals: 

1. Bentonite 
2. Chromite 
3. Kyanite 
4. Sillimanite 

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 4 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 2, 3 and 4 only 

Answer: (d) 

• Option (1) is Incorrect: Bentonite is essentially a highly plastic clay containing not less than 85% clay mineral, montmorillonite. It gets its name from Fort Benton, America, the place where its presence and usages were first discovered. The Government of India declared Bentonite as ‘Minor Mineral’. 
• Option (2) is Correct: Chromite (Cr) is the single commercially viable ore of chromium which is chemically known as iron chromium oxide (Fe Cr2O4). 
• Option (3 and 4) are Correct: Kyanite, Sillimanite and andalusite are anhydrous aluminosilicate minerals that have the same chemical formula Al2O3 but differ in crystal structure and physical properties. Chromite, Kyanite, and Sillimanite are major minerals. 

Q2. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 metres in the south-western Indian Ocean during January – March. 
2. OMT collected during January – March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (b) 

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) is measured up to a depth of 26 degree C isotherm, is more stable and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less. The 26 degree C isotherm is seen at depths varying from 50 –100 metres. During January –March, the mean 26 degree C isotherm depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres. 
• Statement 2 is correct: With OMT, in addition to better predictive success, the information on whether the amount of monsoon rainfall will be more or less than the long-term mean will be available by the beginning of April, two months before the southwest monsoon can set in. This is because OMT is analysed by measuring the ocean thermal energy during the period from January to March. 

Q3. With reference to chemical fertilisers in India, consider the following statements: 

1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilisers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. 
2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. 
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertiliser, is a by-product of oil refineries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 2 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (b)  

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Government of India subsidies fertilisers to ensure that fertilisers are easily available to farmers and the country remains self-sufficient in agriculture production. The same has been achieved largely by controlling the price of fertiliser and the amount of production.   
• Statement 2 is correct: Fertiliser production uses 1.2% of the world’s total energy out of which 90% is used for ammonia production, which is a key ingredient in the production of nitrogen fertilisers. Ammonia can be produced from natural gas. This synthetic ammonia is used as fertiliser, either directly as ammonia or indirectly after synthesis as urea, ammonium nitrate, and monoammonium or diammonium phosphates. 
• Statement 3 is correct: Sulphur is a major by-product of oil refining and gas processing. Most crude oil grades contain some sulphur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulphur content limits in refined products. Industries, for instance, the Mathura oil refinery, have been responsible for producing pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide. Also, Sulphur is used in phosphoric acid fertiliser.  

Q4. Siachen Glacier is situated to the 

1. East of Aksai Chin 
2. East of Leh 
3. North of Gilgit 
4. North of Nubra Valley 

Answer: (d)  

Option (d) id correct: 

• The Siachen Glacier is in the Eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas. It is situated to the North of Nubra Valley. It is the Second-Longest glacier in the World’s Non-Polar areas. It is part of Ladakh which has now been converted into a Union Territory. Siachen Glacier is the world’s highest battlefield. 
• The Nubra Valley acts as the gateway to the strategically important Siachen Glacier and Karakoram Pass. The Karakoram Pass in the northwest side connects the valley with Xinjiang, China. The area was once part of the ancient Himalayan trade path, the Silk Route that connected China to the Middle East. The Nubra River is a river in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh in India. It is a tributary of the Shyok River (a part of the Indus River system) and originates from the Siachen Glacier. 

Q5. Consider the following statements: 

1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. 
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. 
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 2 only 
4. 1 and 3 only 

Answer: (c)

• Statement 1 is not correct: Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind blowing horizontally through the upper layers of the troposphere, generally from west to east, at an altitude of 20,000 – 50,000 feet. Jet Streams develop where air masses of different temperatures meet. So, usually surface temperatures determine where the Jet Stream will form. Greater the difference in temperature, the faster is the wind velocity inside the jet stream. Jet Streams extend from 20° latitude to the poles in both hemispheres. 
• Statement 2 is correct: The cyclone’s centre is a relatively calm and clear area of sinking air and light winds that usually do not exceed 15 mph (24 km/h) and is typically 20-40 miles (32-64 km) across. An eye will usually develop when the maximum sustained wind speeds go above 74 mph (119 km/h) and is the calmest part of the storm.  
• Statement 3 is not correct: The warmest temperatures are found in the eye itself, not in the eyewall clouds where the latent heat occurs. The air is saturated only where convective vertical motions pass through flight level. Inside the eye, the temperature is greater than 28°C and the dewpoint is less than 0°C. These warm and dry conditions are typical of the eyes of extremely intense tropical cyclones.   

Q6. What is/are the advantage of zero tillage in agriculture? 

1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop. 
2. Without the need for a nursery of rice seedlings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. 
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (d)  

• Statement 1 is correct: Under zero tillage, the direct seeding of wheat into unploughed soil and with rice residues left behind has proved very beneficial. It saved on water, labour and use of agro-chemicals, reduced greenhouse gas emissions, and improved soil health and crop yield and thus benefitted both farmers and the society at large.   
• Statement 2 is correct: Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) is a viable option to reduce the unproductive water flows. DSR refers to the process of establishing a rice crop from seeds sown in the field rather than by transplanting seedlings from the nursery. Conventional rice establishment system requires a substantial amount of water.  However, with increasing shortage of water, dry-DSR with minimum or zero tillage further enhances the benefits of this technology by saving labour. 
• Statement 3 is correct: No tilled soils tend to be cooler than others, partly because a surface layer of plant residues is present. Carbon is sequestered in the soil enhancing its quality, reducing the threat of global warming. 

Q7. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? 

1. Cassava 
2. Damaged wheat grains 
3. Groundnut seeds 
4. Horse grams 
5. Rotten potatoes 
6. Sugar beet 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

1. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only 
2. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only 
3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct:

• Biofuels are fuels produced from renewable resources and used in place of or blended with, diesel, petrol or other fossil fuels for transport, stationary, portable and other applications. 
• Biofuels can be produced from biomass such as sugar containing materials, like sugar cane, sugar beet, sweet sorghum etc.; starch containing materials such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes, algae etc.; and cellulosic materials such as bagasse, wood waste, agricultural and forestry residues, or other renewable resources like industrial waste; rice & wheat straw/corn cobs (Damaged wheat grains). The Policy also allows conversion of surplus quantities of food grains to ethanol, based on the approval of the National Biofuel Coordination Committee.

Q8. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements: 

1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops. 
2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production. 
3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased the production of rabi pulses has decreased. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 2 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (a) 

• Statement 1 is correct: Black gram is a warm weather crop and comes up in areas receiving an annual rainfall ranging from 600 to 1000 mm. It is mainly cultivated in a cereal-pulse cropping system primarily to conserve soil nutrients and utilise the left-over soil moisture particularly, after rice cultivation. Hence, although it can be grown in all the seasons, the majority of black gram cultivation falls in either Rabi or late Rabi seasons particularly in Peninsular India.   
• Statement 2 is not correct: Green gram grown in nearly 8 percent of the total pulse area of the country. India’s pulses production is driven by chickpea and pigeon pea. The contribution of chickpea in total production is around 48 per cent, followed by pigeon pea at 17 per cent. Other pulses include moong (nine per cent), urad (11 per cent) and others. 
• Statement 3 is not correct: In the last three decades, both, the production of kharif pulses and the production of rabi pulses have increased. 

Q9. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost – free days and 50 to 100 centimetres of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop? 

1. Cotton 
2. Jute 
3. Sugarcane 
4. Tea 

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau. It is subtropical in nature. It requires high temperature, rainfall of 50-100 centimetres, or irrigation, 210 frost-free days and bright sun-shines for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is desirable for its growth. It is a kharif crop and requires six to eight months to mature. Major cotton-producing states are– Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh. 

Additional Information: 

 Jute: 

• Temperature: Between 15-34°C 
• Rainfall: Around 100-250 cm. 
• Soil Type: Jute can be raised on all kinds of soils from clay to sandy loam, but loamy alluvials are best suited.  

Sugarcane: 

• Temperature: Between 28-32°C 
• Rainfall: Around 75-120 cm. 
• Soil Type: Black cotton soils, loams, brown or reddish loans, clayey loams and laterites.  

Tea:  

• Temperature: Between 20-30°C. 
• Rainfall: Around 150-300 cm. 
• Soil Type: Deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. 

Q10. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements: 

1. A substantial saving in seed material is when ‘bud chip settings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field. 
2. When direct planting of seeds is done, the germination percentage is better with single- budded setts as compared to sets with many buds. 
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when seeds are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large sets. 
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settings prepared from tissue culture. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 3 only 
3. 1 and 4 only 
4. 2, 3 and 4 only 

Answer: (c) 

• Conventional method of sugarcane planting requires 7 to 8 tonnes of seed cane per hectare, and this is the main reason for slow rate of seed and varietal replacement. Sugarcane being a long duration crop and heavy biomass producer requires about 1500 to 2500 mm water. 
• Statement 1 is correct: Bud chip technology reduces the mass and enables quick multiplication of seeds. This method has proved to be more economical and convenient than the traditional method of planting two to three bud setts. The returns are relatively better, with substantial savings on the seed material used for planting. 
• Statement 2 is not correct: When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with setts with many buds as compared to single-budded setts. 
• Statement 3 is not correct: If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, large setts have better survival as compared to single-budded setts. 
• Statement 4 is correct: Tissue culture or vegetative propagation can be used to germinate and grow these settings which can be transplanted in the field later. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settings prepared from tissue culture. 

Q11. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? 

1. Crop diversification 
2. Legume intensification 
3. Tensiometer use 
4. Vertical farming 

 Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

1. 1, 2 and 3 only 
2. 3 only 
3. 4 only 
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Answer: (a) 

• Statement 1 is correct: Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm considering the different returns from value- added crops with complementary marketing opportunities. It is an eco-friendly practice. 
• Statement 2 is correct: A leguminous plant (legume) is a group of plants that have vegetables or foods grown from the ground knobs that enhances the ability of nitrogen-rich material. Examples include acacia, peas, clover, beans etc. 
• Statement 3 is correct: A tensiometer is a device for measuring soil water tension. Tensiometers have five applications: They are used to determine rooting depth, thus giving indication of the soil moisture at the depth in which it was placed. Tensiometer helps farmers and other irrigation managers to determine when to water the soil. 
• Statement 4 is incorrect: It is the practice of growing crops in a vertically stacked manner. It, at times, is not considered eco-friendly.

Q12. Consider the following pairs:  

              Rivers           Flows into  

1. Mekong     :    Andaman Sea 
2. Thames     :    Irish Sea 
3. Volga     :    Caspian Sea 
4. Zambezi     :   Indian Ocean 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 3 only 
3. 3 and 4 only 
4. 1, 2 and 4 only 

Answer: (c)

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Mekong River, originating in the icy headwaters of the Tibetan highlands, flows through the steep canyons of China, known as the upper basin, through lower basin countries Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, and Cambodia, before fanning an expansive delta in Vietnam and emptying into the South China Sea. 
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: River Thames, the longest river in England, travels over 210 miles through the heart of some of England’s most picturesque towns, including London, right into the Centre of London and eventually, out into the North Sea. 
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Volga River is the longest river in Europe. Its basin lies entirely within the Russian federation. It is often called Mother Volga by the Russians. It is thought of as the life blood of Russia. Volga rises or starts northwest of Moscow in the Valdai Hills. From there it flows north above Moscow, and then south and southeast to the Caspian Sea. At the Caspian Sea, the Volga is an important source of water for the sea and its famous sturgeon fishery. 
• Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Zambezi is the fourth-largest river after the Congo/Zaire, Nile and Niger in Africa. It rises in the Kalene hills in north-western Zambia and flows eastwards for about 3000 km to the Indian Ocean. 

Q13. Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? 

1. Construction of base road 
2. Improvement of agricultural soil 
3. Production of cement 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (d)  

• Steel slag is a by-product of the steel making process. It is produced during the separation of the molten steel from impurities in steel-making furnaces. The slag occurs as a molten liquid and is a complex solution of silicates and oxides that solidifies upon cooling. 
• Statement 1 is correct: Steel slags can be used in construction of base roads in order to replace natural aggregates which reduces the environmental impact. 
• Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag can be used in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity as it contains some nutrients for the plants and also as silicate fertiliser that is capable of providing silicon to the plants.   
• Statement 3 is correct: Steel slag used in cement and concrete production as aggregate or as additional cementing materials have a significant positive impact on the environment due to its long- term strength and durability. 

2019

Q1. On 21st June, the Sun: 

1. Does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle. 
2. Does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle. 
3. Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator. 
4. Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn. 

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: 

• 21st June is the longest day of the year as countries lying to the north of the equator, including India, witness ‘Summer Solstice’. The ‘summer solstice’ occurs exactly when the earth’s axial tilt is most inclined towards the sun at its maximum of 23 degrees. During ‘summer solstice’, the Northern Hemisphere witnesses its longest day of the year while the Southern Hemisphere sees its shortest day. 
• On the June solstice, the Earth’s North Pole is at its maximum tilt toward the Sun. At this time, the Sun appears directly overhead at 23.5 degrees North latitude, along the Tropic of Cancer. 
• Around the Arctic Circle, the location of sunrise and sunset start to converge in the northern sky, until eventually the sun never sinks below the horizon. Hence, the appearance of the midnight sun. 

Q2. Consider the following pairs:  

             Famous place                     River 

1. Pandharpur     —           Chandrabhaga 
2. Tiruchirappalli     —           Cauvery 
3. Hampi                   —           Malaprabha 

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (a) 

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Pandharpur Wari is an annual pilgrimage (yatra) to Pandharpur, which is the seat of the Hindu god Vithal. The journey involves Palakhis (palanquin processions) carrying the paduka (footprints) of various saints and upon reaching Pandharpur on Ashadi Ekadashi, these devotees take a holy dip in the sacred Chandrabhaga River/Bhima River before proceeding to visit the Vitthal temple. 
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Tiruchirapalli District is located along the Kaveri (Cauvery) River in Tamil Nadu, India. 
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The site of Hampi comprises mainly the remains of the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire (14th-16th century CE), the last great Hindu Kingdom. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in India. Hampi’s spectacular setting is dominated by river Tungabhadra, rugged hill ranges and open plains with widespread physical remains. 

Q3. Consider the following states: 

1. Chhattisgarh 
2. Madhya Pradesh 
3. Maharashtra 
4. Odisha 

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order? 

1. 2-3-1-4 
2. 2-3-4-1 
3. 3-2-4-1 
4. 3-2-1-4 

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct: 

• According to ‘The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019’, the total forest cover is 21.67% of the total geographical area of the country. In terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, the correct ascending order as follows: 
• Maharashtra (16.50%) 
• Madhya Pradesh (25.14%) 
• Odisha (33.15%) 
• Chhattisgarh (41.13%) 

Additional Information: 

• Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. 
• In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%). 

Q4. Consider the following pairs: 

       Sea                     Bordering country 

1. Adriatic Sea Albania 
2. Black Sea Croatia 
3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan 
4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco 
5. Red Sea Syria 

 Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

1. 1, 2 and 4 only 
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 5 only 
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 

Answer: (b)

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Adriatic Sea is a part of the Mediterranean Sea positioned between the eastern coastline of Italy, and countries of the Balkan Peninsula, from Slovenia, South through Croatia, Montenegro, and to Albania. 
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Black Sea is located between Europe and Asia. Six countries border the Black Sea, Ukraine to the North, Russia and Georgia to the East, Turkey to the South, and Bulgaria and Romania to the West. 
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Caspian Sea is an enclosed body of water between Asia and Europe. It is bordered by Iran, Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan, Azerbaijan, Russia. 
• Pair 4 is correctly matched: Morocco’s Mediterranean coast represents the westernmost edge of the Northern African coast. The coastline features the Strait of Gibraltar that marks the link between the Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. 
• Pair 5 is not correctly matched: Red Sea is located between North-east Africa and Western Asia. The six countries bordering it are Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti. 

Q5. Consider the following pairs: 

              Glacier                   River 

1. Bandarpunch Yamuna 
2. Bara Shigri Chenab 
3. Milam Mandakini 
4. Siachen Nubra 
5. Zemu Manas 

 Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

1. 1, 2 and 4 only 
2. 1, 3 and 4 only 
3. 2 and 5 only 
4. 3 and 5 only 

Answer: (a) 

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: An important glacier of Yamuna River basin is Bandarpunch Glacier in the Garhwal division of the Himalayas. It is 12 km long situated on the Northern slopes of Bandarpunch West, Khatling peak and Bandarpunch peak the glacier is formed by three cirque glaciers and then joins the river of Yamuna. 
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Bara Shigri glacier is located in Lahaul and Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh. The Bara Shigri glacier attracted much attention for many years because of the valuable antimony deposits found there. It feeds the Chandra River and after the junction at Tandi with the Bhaga River, it is known as the Chenab river. 
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Milam Glacier in Munsiyari, Pithoragarh district, Uttarakhand is the source of Gori Ganga River and not of Mandakini River. Gori Ganga is also an important tributary of Kali River. 
• Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Siachen Glacier is situated to the North of Nubra Valley in the Northern Ladakh in the eastern Karakoram Range of the Himalayas. It is the source of the Nubra River, a tributary of the Indus River flowing into Pakistan and the Arabian Sea. The water of the Nubra drains into the Shyok River and then into the Indus. The Siachen Glacier is the highest battleground on Earth. 
• Pair 5 is not correctly matched: The Zemu glacier is the largest in the Eastern Himalayas in Sikkim. It is at the base of the Kanchendzonga and is one of the sources for the Teesta, not Manas River. Teesta is a tributary of the Brahmaputra. 

Q6. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati? 

1. Recently discovered uranium deposits 
2. Tropical rain forests 
3. Underground cave systems 
4. Water reservoirs 

Answer: (d)  

• Aliyar (Tamil Nadu) , Isapur (Maharashtra) and Kangsabati (West Bengal) are water reservoirs, where water level reached much below the normal capacity. 

Additional Info: 

• The Kangsabati Reservoir Project is a project started in the state of West Bengal in 1956 as part of the Second Five-year Plan to provide water to 3,484.77 km² of land in the districts of Paschim Medinipur, Purba Medinipur, Bankura, and Hooghly. 
• Aliyar Reservoir is a reservoir located in Aliyar village near Pollachi town in Coimbatore District, Tamil Nadu, South India. The dam is located in the foothills of Valparai, in the Anamalai Hills of the Western Ghats. 
• Isapur reservoir is an earth fill dam on Penganga River near Kalamnuri in the state of Maharashtra in India. It is one of the biggest dams in Maharashtra. This dam is ranked at 4th position having around 3.5 km long earth wall. 

Q7. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night? 

1. Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface. 
2. Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation. 
3. The Earth’s surface would have low temperatures on cloudy nights. 
4. Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level. 

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct:

• Dew is a type of precipitation where water droplets form on the ground or on objects near the ground in a process called condensation of moisture. The favourable weather elements for dew include clear skies, light wind, decent soil moisture, and low night-time dew point depressions. 
• Dew forms when the temperature becomes equal to the dew point. This often happens first at ground level for two reasons. Dewdrops are not formed on a cloudy night because clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.  

Q8. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: 

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country. 
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. 
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 and 3 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (a) 

• Statement 1 is correct: Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act). 
• Statement 2 is not correct: Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments. Under the power granted to them by section 15 of the MMDR Act, State Governments have framed their own minor minerals concession rules.   
• Statement 3 is correct: As opposed to major minerals, the regulatory and administrative jurisdiction of minor minerals falls under the purview of State governments. These include the powers to frame rules, prescribe rates of royalty, contribution to District Mineral Foundation, the procedure for grant of mineral concessions, regulation of their mining, control of illegal mining etc. 

Q9. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in the last five years, consider the following statements: 

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest. 
2. Area under cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds. 
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane. 
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 and 3 only 
2. 2, 3 and 4 only 
3. 2 and 4 only 
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Answer: (a) 

As per the annual report of Ministry of Agriculture, area, production and yield of major crops are as follow:

• Statement 1 is correct: With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in the last five years, the area under rice cultivation is the highest. 
• Statement 2 is not correct: Area under Coarse cereals is less than area under oilseeds. Jowar is a coarse cereal. 
• Statement 3 is correct: Area of cotton cultivation (108.45 lakh hectare in 2016-17) is more than that of sugarcane (43.89 lakh hectare in 2016-17). 
• Statement 4 is not correct. In 2013-14 to 2014-15, area under sugarcane cultivation increased while it decreased for the next two years. But during the last five years, it has not decreased steadily. 

2018

Q1. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: 

1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. 
2. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. 
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (b) 

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001. 
• Statement 2 is correct: The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) shall function as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP. APEDA was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December 1985. APEDA is a statutory body under administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce.
• Statement 3 is correct: Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state by implementing organic practices on around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land. 

Additional Info: 

The objectives of NPOP are as under: 

• To provide the means of evaluation of certification programmes for organic agriculture and products (including wild harvest, aquaculture, livestock products) as per the approved criteria. 
• To accredit certification programmes of Certification Bodies seeking accreditation. 
• To facilitate certification of organic products in conformity with the prescribed standards. 
• To facilitate certification of organic products in conformity with the importing countries organic standards as per equivalence agreement between the two countries or as per importing country requirements. 
• To encourage the development of organic farming and organic processing. 

Q2. Consider the following pairs: 

 Regions sometimes mentioned in news – Country 

1. Catalonia – Spain 
2. Crimea – Hungary 
3. Mindanao – Philippines 
4. Oromia – Nigeria 

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

1. 1, 2 and 3 
2. 3 and 4 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 2 and 4 only 

Answer: (c)

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Catalonia is an autonomous community in the north-eastern corner of Spain. It is one of Spain’s wealthiest regions. It consists of four provinces, such as Barcelona, Girona, Lleida, and Tarragona. 
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Republic of Crimea, officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula stretching out from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. It is separated from Russia to the east by the narrow Kerch Strait. 
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Mindanao island, the second largest (after Luzon) in the Philippines, in the southern part of the archipelago, surrounded by the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas. 
• Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The Oromo people are the native inhabitants of Ethiopia, Eastern Africa. Their population is estimated to be 55 million, which makes it the largest ethnic group in Eastern Africa. 

Q3. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements: 

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (b) 

• Statement 1 is not correct: Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. Soil texture and organic matter are the key components that determine soil water holding capacity. Organic matter influences the physical conditions of a soil in several ways. Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, thereby enhancing rainwater infiltration and reducing runoff. Each 1 percent increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre. 
• Statement 2 is not correct: Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The Sulphur cycle describes the movement of Sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things. Although Sulphur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important to living things because it is a component of many proteins. Hence, soil plays a role in the Sulphur cycle. 
• Statement 3 is correct: Salinization is a major problem associated with irrigation, because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops.   

Q4. With reference to Solar Power production in India, consider the following statements: 

1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units. 
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is not correct: Not a single silicon chip for solar energy is manufactured in India. Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes from China, Europe and some other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters. China is the world’s largest silicon producer, with a production volume estimated at 5.4 million metric tons in 2020. The second largest producer of this metalloid in the world is Russia, Norway being third followed by the United States and Brazil. 
• Statement 2 is not correct: Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) determines power tariffs including solar power tariffs in India and regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government. Solar Energy Corporation of India has a power-trading licence, but it does not set solar power tariffs. 

Additional Information: 

• Silicon is a chemical element and a semiconductor that is economically important worldwide due to its industrial uses in steel refining, aluminium-casting, chemical processes, and perhaps as it is most widely known, in semiconductor electronics. Silicon wafers are thin slices of semiconductor that are used for the fabrication of integrated circuits, and to manufacture solar cells. 

Q5. As per the NSSO 70^th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements: 

1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households. 
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs. 
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 2 and 3 only 
2. 2 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (c)

• The situation assessment survey of agricultural households is conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). It is a detailed socio-economic survey of farmer households and is the only large-scale survey that focuses specifically on estimating household crop income in India. 
• Statement 1 is correct: As per the survey, Rajasthan had the highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households and the least percentage stood for Kerala (27.3 percent). 
• Statement 2 is not correct: Out of the total estimated agricultural households in the country, about 45 percent belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBCs). 
• Statement 3 is correct: Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for the majority of the agricultural households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. 

Additional Information: 

• Recently, the government has cleared the formation of an overarching body- National Statistical Office (NSO) through the merger of the NSSO and Central Statics Office (CSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). 

Q6. Consider the following statements: 

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines. 
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines. 
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. 

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 2 only 
3. 1 and 3 Only
4. 3 only 

Answer: (d) 

• Statement 1 is not correct: As per the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015 the non-coal mines have to be auctioned by the respective State governments. 
• Statement 2 is not correct: Jharkhand has both alluvial and native gold. Alluvial gold is obtained from the sands of the Subarnarekha River, Sona Nadi in Singhbhum district and the streams draining the Sonapat valley. Native gold is found near Lowa in Singhbhum district. In Andhra Pradesh gold deposits are found in Ramagiri in Anantapur district. 
• Statement 3 is correct: About 2621 million tons of resources of Iron–Ore (both Hematite & Magnetite) are estimated in Rajasthan. The Iron-Ore deposits are located in the district of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara. 

Q7. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi? 

1. Bengaluru 
2. Hyderabad 
3. Nagpur 
4. Pune 

Answer: (a)  

• The longitude of Delhi is 77.1025° E. Bengaluru with longitude 77.5946° E lies on the longitude closest to that of Delhi. 

Longitude of hyderabad: 78.4867°E

Longitude of Nagpur: 79.0882°E

Longitude of Pune: 73.8567°E

Q8. Which one of the following is an artificial lake? 

1. Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu) 
2. Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh) 
3. Nainital (Uttarakhand) 
4. Renuka (Himachal Pradesh) 

Answer: (a) 

• Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Kodaikanal Lake is in the Palni Hills. It is starfish-shaped but with four points, centrally located in the town of Kodaikanal and is surrounded by lush green hills of the Northwestern Palani Hills. 
• Kolleru lake, one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, (it was designated a sanctuary in October 1999) is situated between the Krishna and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. Kolleru is one of the most important wetlands of India. It is a Ramsar site. 
• Naini Lake is the sole source of drinking water for Nainital town, an important tourist destination in Uttarakhand state. It is a natural lake. 
• Renuka lake is situated in the Sirmour district of Himachal Pradesh in India. One of the popular temples of Himachal Pradesh, Renukaji is situated on the bank of this lake. It is a Ramsar site. 

Q9. Consider the following statements: 

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in Indian territory. 
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. 
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1.  1 Only 
2. 2 and 3 Only
3. 3 Only 
4. 1 and 3 Only

Answer: (a) 

• Statement 1 is correct:  Barren Island, the only active volcano in India is situated in the Nicobar Islands. 
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Barren Island lies about 140 Km from Port Blair. 
• Statement 3 is not correct: The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 2018. It was a stratovolcano composed of lava, rock fragments, and volcanic ash. On the west side of the island is a caldera formed by an explosive eruption in the Pleistocene era. 

Q10. Consider the following statements: 

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. 
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. 
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (c) 

• Statement 1 is correct: A change in the Earth’s magnetic field resulting in the magnetic north being aligned with the geographic south, and the magnetic south being aligned with the geographic north is called a geomagnetic reversal. Complete magnetic reversals have happened every 200,000 to 300,000 years over the past 20 million years. But that regularity hasn’t continued as the last known reversal occurred roughly 780,000 years ago.   
• Statement 2 is not correct: Between 4.5 and 2.5 billion years (the Archaean and Proterozoic time), the earliest atmosphere contained carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), water vapour (H2O), carbon monoxide (CO), a little nitrogen (N), and hydrogen (H). 
• Statement 3 is correct: There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere. The first stage is marked by the loss of primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis. 

2017

Q1. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of:

1. Observation and understanding of the Universe
2. Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
3. Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
4. Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

Answer: (a)   

Option (a) is correct:

• The standard model of particle physics is a mathematical model that describes electromagnetism, nuclear forces (both strong and weak), and the Higgs mechanism. 
• String theory is used to understand quantum phenomena in the context of quantum physics. 
• The basic structure of a black hole consists of a singularity hidden by an event horizon.  
• Within the event horizon, the escape velocity exceeds the velocity of light, and an object is trapped indefinitely. 

Q2. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?

1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field

Select the correct answer using the code given

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)  

Methods for Minimising Water Stress and Improving Water Resources: 

• Using impermeable and permeable contour barriers at discrete intervals downslope in conjunction with reduced, preferably zero tillage, as in conservation agriculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The incorporation of lime, either alone or in combination with gypsum, will reduce toxic concentrations of aluminium and/or manganese to non-toxic levels, allowing the crop to access more soil moisture, increase productivity, and aid in water conservation. However, according to the UPSC official answer key, 1 and 3 are correct. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• Using surface residue covers increases infiltration and reduces runoff. 
• A residue cover absorbs most of the energy of raindrops that fall on it, and by the time this rainwater reaches the soil below, its ability to disintegrate soil aggregates and detach fine particles is greatly reduced. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Q3. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

1. Sumatra
2. Borneo
3. Java
4. Sri Lanka

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct:

Great Nicobar:  

• Nicobar is located to the south of India’s Nicobar Islands.  
• It is the Nicobar Islands’ largest island. Sumatra is located to the south of Great Nicobar.  
• Sumatra is the closest island to Great Nicobar.  
• The distance between the two locations is 1,192 kilometres. Hence, option 1 is correct.  
• The distance between Great Nicobar and Borneo is 2,398 kilometres. The distance between Great Nicobar and Java is 1,817 kilometres. The distance between Great Nicobar and Sri Lanka is 1437 kilometres. 

Q4. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct: If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, you must pass through Nagaland (origin), Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh, and then either Tamil Nadu to Kerala (Kottayam-destination) or AP to Karnataka to Kerala (Kottayam-destination). So the minimum number of states through which you can travel within India, including the origin and destination, is seven. 

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.  1 and 2 only
2.  3 only
3.  2 and 3 only
4.  1 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 

• The Indian Himalayan Region spans 12 Indian states (namely Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, two districts of Assam namely Dima Hasao and Karbi Anglong and Darjeeling and Kalimpong in West Bengal). Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• The Western Ghats are found in six different states: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Pulicat Lake is India’s second-largest brackish water lake, spanning two states: Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Q6. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an EI Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1.  1 only
2.  2 only
3.  Both 1 and 2
4.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• The difference in sea surface temperature between two poles or areas (hence a dipole) in the Indian Ocean, namely an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia and a western pole in the Arabian Sea (Western Indian Ocean). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• The IOD influences the climate of countries surrounding the Indian Ocean Basin, such as India and Australia, and is a significant contributor to rainfall variability in this region. 
• The IOD is a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon, similar to El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO), but occurring in the equatorial Indian Ocean. 
• The IOD is thought to be linked to ENSO events via an extension of the Walker Circulation to the west and associated Indonesian throughflow (the flow of warm tropical ocean water from the Pacific into the Indian Ocean).  
• Hence, negative IOD events are frequently associated with La Nina, while positive events are associated with El Nino. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Q7. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the seafloor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

1. Bhavnagar
2. Bheemunipatnam
3. Chandipur
4. Nagapattinam

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct:

• If you stand on a seashore in India and watch the sea, you will notice that the seawater recedes from the shoreline a few kilometres and returns to the shore twice a day, and you can walk on the seafloor when the water recedes. This one-of-a-kind phenomenon can be seen in Chandipur. This is because at the sea water retreats by 2-5 km during ebb tide, the duration between the high tide and low tide, and comes back to the shore at the time of high tide. 

Additional information:   

• Odisha is home to Chandipur Beach. 
• Chandipur Beach is also known as the ‘hide-and-seek’ beach, and it is home to the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organization) Integrated Research Range, where ballistic missiles are tested. 
• Fresh seafood is also available at Chandipur Beach. 

Q 8. The Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1.  1, 2 and 3 only
2.  2 and 3 only
3.  3 and 4 only
4.  1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: The Mediterranean Sea is surrounded by 21 different countries. Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey are the countries involved. The Mediterranean Sea is linked to the Atlantic Ocean by the Strait of Gibraltar, a narrow passageway. 

Q9. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahamputra but it flows through Sikkim
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

• The Teesta River flows from the Pahunri glacier (not from the same source as the Brahmaputra). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• The Brahmaputra flows from the Angsi glacier near Mount Kailash. Teesta is a right tributary of the Brahmaputra. 
• River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and is the state’s largest river as well as a tributary of the Teesta. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Before reaching the Bay of Bengal via Bangladesh, the Teesta flows through West Bengal and Sikkim. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. 

Tributaries of Brahmaputra: 

Left	Right
Dibang River  Lohit River  Dhansiri River  Kolong River	Kameng River  Manas River  Beki River  Raidak River  Jaldhaka River  Teesta River  Subansiri River

2016

Q1. Why does the Government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?

1. Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms
2. Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil
3. Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields
4. It is a combination of a 1,weedicide and a fertiliser for particular crops

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct:

Urea 

• It is essential for plant growth and a significant source of nitrogen, but only 30–40% of the available nitrogen in the area is used by crops, with the remainder degrading at various stages. 
• Ordinary urea is transformed into ammonium carbamate when it is applied, and some of this ammonium carbamate is turned to ammonia gas through a process known as ammonia volatilization. 
• When nitrogen is volatilized, 8–10% of it is lost. 
• Neem possesses qualities that monitor nitrogen loss at every stage. 
• Neem coating slows down the rate of urea dissolution in the soil because it slows down the process of nitrate production, which prevents excess nitrate from being accessible for denitrification. 

Q2. Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?

1. Reduction in weed
2. Reduction in soil salinity
3. Reduction in soil erosion

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1.  1 and 2 only
2.  3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4.  None of the above 

Answer:(c)

• It is a kind of micro-irrigation technology that evenly distributes small amounts of fertiliser and water across a certain area. 
• It may be used in any landscape. It can minimise water losses. It can minimise soil erosion. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
• High fertiliser and nutrient utilisation. Minimised fertiliser/nutrient loss due to reduced water leaching. Reduced weed development due to restricted nutrient and water supply to the cultivated plant. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Negative aspects of drip irrigation : There is a large upfront expense. If the water is not properly filtered, it could lead to blockage and moisture distribution issues. It also makes the soil more saline. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 

Q3. In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?

1. Cambay Basin
2. Cauvery Basin
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

• Shale gas is trapped under low permeable rocks, which are typically found next to rocks providing usable/drinking water known as “aquifers.”  
• Shale rocks are fine-grained sedimentary rocks that can be rich resources of petroleum and natural gas.
• Six basins have been recognised by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) as having shale gas potential.  
• These are the Indo-Gangetic plain, Krishna-Godavari, Gondwana, Assam-Arakan, and Cambay. 

Q4. Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?

1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct:

River Brahmaputra: 

• In the region of Tibet, it is referred to as the Yarlung Tsangpo. 
• It rises in the Himalayas’ Chemayungdung Glacier and empties into the Bay of Bengal. Its length is around 2,900 km. 
• After passing through Tibet, the river enters India through the state of Arunachal Pradesh, then travels through Assam and Bangladesh before joining the Bay of Bengal. 
• The river travels through Assam before entering Bangladesh, where it takes the name Jamuna before joining the Ganga and eventually emptying into the Bay of Bengal. 
• The principal tributaries of the River Brahmaputra include the Dibang River, Lohit River, Dhansiri River, Kameng River, Manas River, Teesta River, and Subansiri River. 

Q5. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.  1 only
2.  2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Pterocarpus santalinus: 

• It is also known by Red Sanders, Red Saunders, Red Sandalwood, Rakt Chandan, and Saunders wood. 
• It is a species of Pterocarpus endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats Mountain range of South India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• It is mostly found in Andhra Pradesh, where it thrives in dry, hot weather and does not grow in tropical rainforests. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• It thrives on lateritic and gravelly soil and is typically found between 150 and 900 metres above sea level.  
• It prefers dry, steep, and frequently rocky terrain and hill sides. It cannot stand water logging. 

Q6. Consider the following pairs:

Famous Place     Region

1. Bodh Gaya Baghelkhand
2. Khajuraho Bundelkhand
3. Shirdi Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik) Malwa
5. Tirupati Rayalaseema

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1.  1, 2 and 4
2.  2, 3, 4 and 5
3.  2 and 5 only
4.  1, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)

Bodh Gaya 

• It is a Buddhist pilgrimage site in Gaya District of Bihar, famous for Mahabodhi Temple. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 

Khajuraho 

• It is famous for a group of monuments, built between 950-1050 CE by the Chandela dynasty. 
• It is a town located in the Bundelkhand region of the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 

Shirdi  

• It is in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra and is far from the Vidarbha region and is famous for the religious personality of Sai Baba. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct. 

Nashik  

• It is in the northwest region of Maharashtra in India and is famous for Kumbh Mela. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct. 

Tirupati 

• It is a city in the Rayalaseema region of the Chittoor district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh and is famous for Hindu Sri Venkateswara Temple. Hence, Statement 5 is correct. 

2015

Q1. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

1. Syria
2. Jordan
3. Lebanon
4. Israel

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The Mediterranean Sea is the intercontinental sea that separates Europe from Africa. The countries bordered the Mediterranean sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey. Jordan does not open out to the Mediterranean sea, as it is bounded by Syria and Israel towards the side of the Mediterranean sea.

Q2. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over”. Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

1. Savannah
2. Equatorial
3. Monsoon
4. Mediterranean

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

Equatorial climate 

• The Rainforests are located in the equatorial climate region. It is hot and wet all year round with a humid climate. The temperatures are constant throughout the year with little variation. The annual rainfall is high as it rains almost every day. 
• It is found in the Amazon basin in South America, the Congo basin in Africa, the Guinea coast in Africa, and much of the Indo-Malaysian region, eastern Central America, some islands in the Caribbean Sea, western Colombia, and eastern Madagascar. This type of climate is located from 5 degrees to 10 degrees on either side of the equator. 

Additional Points 

Warm Temperate Western Margin Climate: 

• This is also known as a Mediterranean type of climate because most of the areas falling under this climate are situated around the Mediterranean Sea. 
• It developed between 300C and 450C latitudes in both the hemispheres in the western part of the continents. 
• The climate of Central Chile is of temperate Mediterranean-type of climate. 
• Summers are warm and bright and winters are mild and cool. 

Monsoon type of climate: 

• This is best developed in the Indian subcontinent, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts of Vietnam, south china and northern Australia. 
• It is characterised by the onshore wet monsoon in summer and offshore dry monsoon in winter. 
• The basic cause of monsoon climates is the difference in the rate of heating and cooling of land and sea. 

Sudan or Savanna Climate: 

• This is a transitional type of climate found between the equatorial forests and the trade wind hot deserts. 
• This is confined within the tropics and is best developed in Sudan in the Africa Continent. 
• Sudan’s Climate includes West Africa Sudan, East Africa, and southern Africa north of the Tropic of Capricorn. 

Q3. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason?

1.  Sea surface temperatures are low
2.  Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
3.  Coriolis force is too weak
4.  Absence of land in those regions

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct::

• Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITZC)  shifts toward the north in the northern summer and toward the south in the southern summer, usually staying at or north of the equator. 
• There is often no inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) above the ocean and there is excessive tropospheric vertical wind shear. 
• It becomes exceedingly challenging to produce tropical cyclones without an ITCZ to supply synoptic vorticity and convergence resulting in large-scale spin and thunderstorm activity as well as having severe wind shear. 
• It does not move southward over the South Atlantic or South Pacific region, remaining at or close to the equator. As a result, these areas do not have the ITCZ over them, which is one of the main reasons why there aren’t any cyclones. 

Q4. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?

1. The Earth’s rotation on its axis
2. Convergence of the two equatorial currents
3. Difference in salinity of water
4. Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

The equatorial counter currents 

• Two equatorial currents are flowing from the East to West direction around the Equator-North Equatorial and South Equatorial Current.  
• A counter-equatorial current flows in the opposite direction (i.e., from West to East).  
• The convergence of the two equatorial currents explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current. 

Additional information:   

• There is a high piling of waters taking place due to the convergence of this to West moving currents near the Eastern Brazil Coast.  
• This leads to the rise of the equatorial counter-current in the direction of low levels of water (i.e., in the Eastern part).  
• Our Earth rotates from West to East hence, the piled-up water comes down on its Eastern side and flows in the Eastern direction. 
• It is driven by a distinct surface wind pattern in the tropics. 
• Strong westward trade winds result in westward surface flow in most of the tropical Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. 
• However, several hundred mi. (km.) north of the equator, the winds are much weaker in comparison.
• The stronger winds to the south pile up water where the winds are weak. 
• As a result, the surface of the ocean can be up to 6 in. (15 cm.) higher and the thermocline as much as 328 ft. (100 m.) deeper than it is directly to the north. 
• The intensity of the equatorial counter-current varies from season to season and from month to month. 
• The strongest seasonal changes occur in the Atlantic Ocean. 

Q5. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?

1. Gravitational force of the Sun.
2. Gravitational force of the Moon.
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct:

Tide 

• It is the periodical rise and fall of the sea level. 
• The Moon’s gravitational pull is the major cause of a tide. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• Sun’s gravitational pull and centrifugal force due to the gravitational pull of the earth to a lesser extent so causes types. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct. 
• Surges – The movement of water is caused by Meteorological effects like winds and atmospheric pressure changes and is known as surges.  
• The tide-generating force is the difference between the gravitational attraction of the Moon and the centrifugal force.   
• Tides vary in frequency, direction, and movement from place to place and from time to time. 
• Based on frequency, they are classified into semi-diurnal, diurnal, and mixed tide.   

Springtide 

• When the sun, moon, and earth are in a straight line, the height of the tide is higher and this occurs during a full moon period. 

Neap tide 

• When the moon and the sun are at right angles to each other the forces of the sun and the moon tend to counteract each other.  It occurs twice a month. 

Q6. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants?

1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1.  1 Only
2.  2, 3 and 4 Only  
3.  1 and 3 Only 
4.  1, 2 and 5 Only 

Answer:  (C)

Option (c) is correct: Mekong Ganga cooperation is a regional organisation comprising India and 5 ASEAN countries Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam. Therefore, Bangladesh and China are not members of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation. 

Additional information:   

• It was launched in Vientiane (Laos) in 2000. 
• It aims to facilitate closer contacts inhabiting these two major river basins. 
• It also enhances cooperation in tourism, culture, transport, communication, and education. 
• It is an integral part of India’s ‘Act East Policy’  
• It also aims in narrowing the development gap through digital connectivity and capacity building.   

Q7. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

1.  Assam and Rajasthan
2.  Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
3.  Assam and Gujarat
4. Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

• The mainland of India, a vast nation entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, extends between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N and longitudes 68°7’E and 97°25’E. 
• Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state in India located at the easternmost longitude, 97°25’E. 
• Gujarat is the most western state in India, with the country’s westernmost longitude (68°7’E). 

Q8. Consider the following pairs:

Place of Pilgrimage   Location

1. Srisailam Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar Mahadeo Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1.  1 only
2.  2 and 3 only
3.  1 and 3 only
4.  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

Srisailam: 

• In Andhra Pradesh, on the flat summit of the Nallamala Hills, is the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna known as Srisailam. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Temple, also known as Srisailam Temple, is a Hindu shrine to the goddesses Parvati and Shiva. 
• This temple is one of the eighteen Shakti Peethas of goddess Parvati and one of the twelve Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva. 
• The lingam is a representation of Shiva, who is worshipped as Mallikarjuna. 
• Bhramaramba is a representation of Parvati. 

Omkareshwar: 

• It is situated on the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh (ancient name: Shivpuri). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Its name, Omkareshwar, comes from the way the River Narmada flows here as it circles the Mandhata hill in the shape of an Om. 
• Omkareshwar is a Hindu temple where the god Shiva is worshipped. 
• It is one of Shiva’s 12 cherished Jyotirlinga shrines. 

Pushkar: 

• The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. 
• It lies in Ajmer, Rajasthan.  
• It is famous for the red-spired Brahma Temple.
• It is located on the shore of Pushkar Lake. 

Q9.  Consider the following rivers:

1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

1.  1, 2 and 3
2.  2, 3 and 4
3.  1, 2 and 4
4.  2 and 3 only

Answer:  (d) 

Option (b) is correct: Indravati and Pranahita are the left-bank tributaries of the Godavari river. 

Godavari​ 

• It is the largest river in Peninsular India.  This is also called Dakshin Ganga. 
• Godavari covers the state of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and parts of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and the Union Territory of Puducherry (Yanam) having a total area of ~ 3 lakh Sq.km. 
• It rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.
• Left Bank Tributaries are: Dharna, Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Pranahita, Pench, Kanhan, Sabari, Indravati etc. 
• Right Bank Tributaries are:  Pravara, Mula, Manjra, Peddavagu, Maner etc. 

Additional Points 

Vamshadhara 

• It is an important east-flowing river between Rushikulya and Godavari, in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. 

• It originates on the border of Thuamul Rampur in the Kalahandi district and Kalyansinghpur in the Rayagada district of Odisha 
• This runs for a distance of about 254 kilometres, where it joins the Bay of Bengal at Kalingapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. 

Pennar 

• It rises in the Chennakesava hill of the Nandidurga range, in the Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka and flows towards the east eventually draining into the Bay of Bengal. 
• The total length of the river from its origin to its outfall in the Bay of Bengal is 597 km. 
• This river basin extends over the states of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka having an area of ~55 thousand Sq.km. 

Q10. Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

1. North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
2. South-West Bengal
3. Southern Saurashtra
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer:  (d)

Option (d) is correct: Andaman and Nicobar Islands are rich in biodiversity. Different types of forests such as Tropical Evergreen forests, Moist Deciduous forests, Mangrove forests, Littoral forests, etc are found here. 

Additional information:   

• The South Andaman forests are home to epiphytic vegetation, primarily ferns and orchids. 
• The Middle Andamans have moist deciduous woods, while the North Andamans have wet evergreen forests with many woody climbers. 
• The North Nicobar Islands (including Car Nicobar and Batti Malv) are devoid of evergreen woods, but similar forests dominate the vegetation of the Nicobar group’s middle and southern islands. 
• Grasslands are only found in the Nicobars, but deciduous woods are prevalent in the Andamans. 
• Forests cover 86.2% of the total land area. 

Q11. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate, and arctic?

1. Khangchendzonga National Park
2. Nanda Devi National Park
3. Neora Valley National Park
4. Namdapha National Park

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

• Namdapha National Park  is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot. This national park is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. 
• This area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rainforests. 
• As you go up in altitude, the ecosystem changes from tropical moist woods to montane forests, temperate forests, and finally, at the highest altitudes, Alpine meadows with year-round snow. 

Additional Information 

Khangchendzonga National Park 

• Neither Khangchendzonga nor Nanda Devi National Park includes tropical plants. 
• It is also known as Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a National Park and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim. 
• This park was inscribed to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list in July 2016.

Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve 

• It is situated in three districts of Uttarakhand (Chamoli in Garhwal, Pithoragarh in Kumaon and Bageshwar). 
• The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve includes the Valley of Flowers and Nanda Devi National Park.  
• Since 2004, this reserve has belonged to the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.

Neora Valley National Park 

• It is situated in the Kalimpong district, West Bengal, India and was established in 1986. 
• One of the richest biological zones in all of Eastern India, it covers an area of 88 km2.  
• The clean, unspoiled natural habitat of the graceful red panda, along with the park’s difficult-to-access steep terrain and abundantly varied flora and fauna, make this area a significant wilderness zone. 

Q12. Consider the following States:

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram

In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  (c)

Tropical Wet Evergreen forest: 

Option (c) is correct: In India, evergreen forests are found on the eastern and western slopes of the Western Ghats in such states as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra. And also found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.  

Additional information:  

• This type of forest is found in hot and humid areas.  
  • Precipitation: >250 cm  
  • Mean annual temperature <25 degrees Celsius  
  • Humidity >80% 
• This type of forest is stratified, with layers closer to the ground covered with shrubs and creepers, followed by short structured trees and a tall variety of trees. 
• Trees have a height limit of 60 metres or more, and they are abundant in biodiversity (Rich in flora and fauna). 
• These forests yield durable, fine-grained wood.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. The winds which blow between 30°N and 60°S latitude throughout the year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• Westerlies  are permanent winds. These are prevailing winds that flow from the west towards the East. Westerlies flow between 30°N-60°N and 30°S-60°S degrees latitude. Hence, Statement 1 is NOT correct. 
• This is also known as anti-trade winds as it originates from the high-pressure area of Horse latitude and flows towards the subpolar low-pressure area.  It blows from SouthWest to NorthEast in the Northern hemisphere and from Northwest to southeast in the southern hemisphere. These are stronger in the Southern hemisphere due to the vast ocean and comparatively less land.   
• It is best observed between 40 to 60-degree latitude and these latitudes are also known as the Roaring forties, Furious fifties, and Shrieking sixties.   
• There are fluctuations in the subpolar region. Thus, they produce wet spells due to variations in weather.   
• The moist air masses that cause winter rains in the North-Western region of India are part of Western disturbances that originate from the Mediterranean Sea. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Q14. In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?

1. Tropical moist deciduous forest
2. Tropical rainforest
3. Tropical thorn scrub forest
4. Temperate forest with grasslands

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Tropical moist deciduous forests is distributed in the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Western Odisha and on the eastern slopes of Western Ghats. Teak is the most dominant species of this forest while Bamboo, Sal, Shisham, Sandalwood, Kusum, Arjun, and Mulberry are other commercially important species.. 

Characteristics of tropical deciduous forests:

• They are also called Monsoon Forests. 
• Rainfall is in the range of 100-200 cm. 
• The trees shed their leaves during the spring season. 

Additional information: 

Teak: 

• It is one of the most important timber trees in India and Southeast Asia. 
• The most important teak forests in India are in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh. 

Q15. Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

1.  North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
2.  South-West Bengal
3.  Southern Saurashtra
4.  Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands are rich in biodiversity. Different types of forests as Tropical Evergreen forests Moist Deciduous forests Mangrove forests Littoral forests are found here. t. 

Additional information:  

• The South Andaman forests are home to epiphytic vegetation, primarily ferns and orchids. 
• The Middle Andamans have moist deciduous woods, while the North Andamans have wet evergreen forests with many woody climbers. 
• The North Nicobar Islands (including Car Nicobar and Batti Malv) are devoid of evergreen woods, but similar forests dominate the vegetation of the Nicobar group’s middle and southern islands. 
• Grasslands are only found in the Nicobars, but deciduous woods are prevalent in the Andamans. Forests cover 86.2% of the total land area. 

Q16. In India, the Steel production industry requires the import of

1. Saltpetre
2. Rock phosphate
3. Coking coal
4. All of the above

Answer: (c)  

Option (c) is correct:

• Potassium nitrate, sometimes known as Saltpetre, is not utilised in the manufacture of steel. 
• It is used to make fertiliser, clear tree stumps, rocket propellant, and fireworks. 
• It has been used as a food preservative since the Middle Ages and is one of the main components of gunpowder (often known as “black powder”). 
• Unlike steel production, the production of fertiliser uses rock phosphate. One tonne of steel requires the production of 0.8 tonnes of coking coal. India imports coking coal. 

Q17. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain is soon over.” Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

1.  Savannah
2.  Equatorial
3.  Monsoon
4.  Mediterranean

Answer:  (b)

Option (b) is correct:

Equatorial climate 

• The Rainforests are located in the equatorial climate region. It is hot and wet all year round with a humid climate. The temperatures are constant throughout the year with little variation.The annual rainfall is high as it rains almost every day. It is found in the Amazon basin in South America, the Congo basin in Africa, the Guinea coast in Africa, and much of the Indo-Malaysian region, eastern Central America, some islands in the Caribbean Sea, western Colombia, and eastern Madagascar. 
• This type of climate is located from 5 degrees to 10 degrees on either side of the equator. 

Additional Points 

• Warm Temperate Western Margin Climate: 
  • This is also known as a Mediterranean type of climate because most of the areas falling under this climate are situated around the Mediterranean Sea. 
  • It developed between 300C and 450C latitudes in both the hemispheres in the western part of the continents. 
  • The climate of Central Chile is of temperate Mediterranean-type of climate. 
  • Summers are warm and bright and winters are mild and cool. 
• Monsoon type of climate: 
  • This is best developed in the Indian subcontinent, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts of Vietnam, south china and northern Australia. 
  • It is characterised by the onshore wet monsoon in summer and offshore dry monsoon in winter. 
  • The basic cause of monsoon climates is the difference in the rate of heating and cooling of land and sea. 
• Sudan or Savanna Climate: 
  • This is a transitional type of climate found between the equatorial forests and the trade wind hot deserts. 
  • This is confined within the tropics and is best developed in Sudan in the Africa Continent. 
  • Sudan’s Climate includes West Africa Sudan, East Africa, and southern Africa north of the Tropic of Capricorn. 

Q18. Which one of the following is the National Aquatic animal of India?

1. Saltwater crocodile
2. Olive ridley turtle
3. Gangetic dolphin
4. Gharial

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:

• Gangetic Dolphin 
• It is the National Aquatic Animal of India. Hence, Option c is correct. 
• It represents the purity of the river Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water. 
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests notified the Ganges River Dolphin as the National Aquatic Animal on 18th May, 2010. 
• The Scientific name of the Gangetic Dolphin is Platanista gangetica.  
• This is one of the five river dolphins found in the world. 
• It is locally known as Susu, because of the noise they make while breathing. 
• It inhabits parts of the Ganges, Meghna, and Brahmaputra rivers in India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh, and the Karnaphuli River in Bangladesh. 
• This is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972.  
• It is listed as Endangered on IUCN red list. The species is listed under Appendix I of CITES. 
• To conserve these endangered dolphins by the Wildlife Institute of India. (“Development of conservation action plan for Dolphins” in 2016 

Q19. In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across streams. As the time passes these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘Living Root Bridges’ are found in

1. Meghalaya
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Jharkhand
4. Tamil Nadu

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct: The entwined roots of Indian rubber trees form bridges by training tree roots to knit together. The Khasi and Jaintia people of Rewai village in Meghalaya make the living tree root bridges. 

Additional information:  

• The aerial roots of the Indian rubber tree are strong and resemble ropes; they can be connected to bamboo stalks or built into a scaffold of hollowed-out betel nuts.  
• It takes years for them to spread horizontally across cliff faces and river banks. 
• The living footbridge may accommodate up to 50 people at once, last for about 500 to 600 years, and get stronger with age. 

2014

Q1. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1.  1 only
2.  2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4.  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

 Option (c) is correct:

• ​Continental drift theory theory was propounded by Alfred Wegner. 
• This theory deals with the distribution of the oceans and the continents.  
• According to this theory, all the continents formed a single continental mass- Pangea and mega ocean- Panthalassa surrounded it.  
• Pangaea started splitting and broke down into two large continental masses as Laurasia and Gondwanaland forming the northern and southern components respectively.  
• The Continental drift must have moved some animals from one continent to others and few getting stuck in the same place, which must have influenced the evolution. 

Glacial cycles  

• It would have affected evolution as many might not be able to tolerate extreme cold and would have gone extinct.  
• The rise in sea level due to glacial melt also might have affected the evolution of organisms. 

Therefore, both Continental drift theory and Glacial cycles phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms. 

Q2. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

• Soil erosion  is the removal of the topmost fertile layer of the soil through wind or water. 
• Anthropogenic activities are responsible for soil erosion to a great extent.  
• As the human population increases, the demand on the land also increases. 
• Improper use of land leads to soil erosion. 
• Forest and other natural vegetation are removed for human settlement, for cultivation, for grazing animals and for various other needs. 

Terrace farming, contour ploughing, etc are the measures to control soil erosion.

Q3. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

1.  Equatorial climate
2.  Mediterranean climate
3.  Monsoon climate
4.  All of the above climates

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:

Monsoon type of climate:  

• Seasonal reversal of wind is a feature of monsoonal climate. 
• This type of climate is best developed in the Indian subcontinent, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts of Vietnam, and south china and northern Australis.  
• It is characterised by the onshore wet monsoon in summer and offshore dry monsoon in winter. 
• The basic cause of monsoon climates is the difference in the rate of heating and cooling of land and sea. Monsoon refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year. 
• The monsoon type of climate is characterised by a distinct seasonal pattern.

Equatorial type of climate: 

• Equatorial climate is found in the Amazon basin in South America, Congo basin in Africa, Guinea coast in Africa, and much of the Indo-Malaysian region, eastern Central America, some islands in the Caribbean Sea, western Colombia, and eastern Madagascar. 
• This type of climate is located till 5 degrees to 10 degrees on either side of the equator. 

Additional Points: 

Warm Temperate Western Margin Climate: 

• It is also known as a Mediterranean type of climate because most of the areas falling under this climate are situated around the Mediterranean Sea. 
• This type of climate has developed between 30 degree  and 45 degree latitudes in both the hemispheres in the western part of the continents. 
• The climate of Central Chile is of temperate Mediterranean type of climate. 
• This type of climate region includes Southern Italy, Greece, Western Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Western Israel, North Coastal Africa, central and Southern California in the USA, Central Chile in South America, Cape Town area in South Africa, and the coastal zones of Southern and Southwest Australia. 

Q4 . Consider the following statements:

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.  1 only
2.  1 and 2 only
3.  2 and 3 only
4.  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

Maize starch  

• It is produced by the wet milling process, which involves the grinding of softened maize and separation of corn oil seeds (germs), gluten (proteins), fibres (husk), and finally pure starch. 
• ​Corn starch is made from maize kernels, which are high in starch. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Corn starch has a wide variety of applications. It is used as a thickening agent in soups. 
• Corn starch is also used in manufacturing bioplastics and the preparation of corn syrup. 
• The general way to Produce Biodiesel  fuels is transesterification of fat or oil triacylglycerols with short-chain alcohol such as methanol or ethanol in the presence of alkaline or acid catalysts. 
• Corn Biodiesel chemically is a mixture of long-chain fatty acid methyl esters (FAMEs). 
• Oil extracted from maize that can be converted into ethanol or biodiesel. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• The type of alcohol in the alcoholic drinks we drink is a chemical called ethanol. To make alcohol, you need to put grains, fruits, or vegetables through a process called fermentation. the common source of ethanol is maize and other grains. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Q5. What is the significance of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practised very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical inorganic fertilisers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1.  1 and 3 only
2.  1, 2 and 4 only
3.  2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 

Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative 

• It seeks to cultivate sugarcane primarily through altering the methods and inputs employed.  
• It majorly involves 
• Less use of seeds 
• less water consumption  
• optimal use of land and fertilisers  
• It seeks to lower input costs, Hence Statement 1 is Correct. 
• To get “more with less” in agriculture is its fundamental tenet. 
• It reduces the price by up to 75%. 
• It aids in improving cane length and weight while lowering plant mortality rates. 
• Intercropping is a possibility, and drip watering is another option. Hence, Statement 2 and 4 are correct.  
• However, because SSI is a farmer-driven strategy, its benefits depend more on the cultivator’s own efforts.  
• NPK (fertilisers) are applied as inorganic and organic fertilisers at rates of 112 kg, 25 kg, and 48 kg per acre, respectively. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.  

Q6. Consider the following pairs

Region Well-known for the production of
1. Kinnaur Areca nut
2. Mewat Mango
3. Coromandel Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1.  1 and 2 only
2.  3 only
3.  1, 2 and 3
4.  None

Answer: (d). 

• Kinnaur 
  • This is a district in Himachal Pradesh. 
  • According to the 2011 census, Kinnaur district has a population of 84,121. 
  • This is mostly famous for apples. 
  • The production of Areca nuts is mostly confined to Karnataka, Kerala and Assam. Therefore, pair 1 is not correctly matched. 
• Mewat 
  • This is a district in Haryana. 
  • The main occupation is agriculture along with allied and agro-based activities. 
  • This is not primarily famous for Mango. Therefore, pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
• Coromandel 
  • This is a coastal plain in the eastern Tamil Nadu state. 
  • Rice, pulses, sugarcane, cotton, and peanuts are primarily grown in this region. 
  • The production of soyabean in India is dominated by Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh which contribute 89 per cent of the total production. Therefore, pair 3 is not correctly matched. 

Q7. Consider the following pairs:

Programme/Project             Ministry

1. Drought-Prone  Area Programme MOAFW
2. Desert Development  Programme MOEFCC
3. National Watershed Development Project Development for Rainfed Area MoRD

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1.  1 and 2 only
2.  3 only
3.  1, 2 and 3
4.  None

Answer: (d) 

Drought-Prone Area Programme 

• It comes under the Ministry of Rural Development. Hence,  Pair 1 is not correct. 
• This programme aims to mitigate the impacts of droughts on crop production, livestock, land and water resources. 

Desert Development Programme 

• It comes under the Ministry of Rural Development. Hence, Pair 2 is not correct. 
• The basic objective of the Desert Development Programme is to minimise the adverse effect of drought and control desertification through rejuvenation of the natural resource base of the identified desert area. 

National Watershed Development Project Development for Rainfed Areas

• It is available for rainfed areas and implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture. 
• It is an umbrella scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana. Hence,  Pair 3 is not correct. 
• The initiative aims to enhance water availability in the watershed areas. 

Q8. Consider the following pairs:

       National Highway          Cities connected

1. NH4                   :        Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH 6                  :        Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH 15                :        Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1.  1 and 2 only
2.  3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4.  None

Answer: (d) 

National      Highway	Cities connected	Lengths (Km)
1. NH 4	Mayabunder-Port Blair-Chidiya Tapu (Andaman).	230
2. NH 6	Jorabat (Meghalaya) –Selling (Mizoram).	1873
3. NH 15	Baihat (Assam)- Wakro (Arunachal   Pradesh).	664

Important Points: 

• National Highways  
• It connects the state capitals, major cities, important ports, railway junctions, etc and  constitutes about 1% of total road length in India. 
• State Highways  
• It joins the state capitals with district headquarters and other important towns. It constitutes about 4% of total road length in India. 
• District roads  
• It is the connecting link between District Headquarters and the other important nodes in the district and constitutes about 14% of total road length in India. 
• Rural roads  
• It is vital for providing links in rural areas and constitutes about 80 percent of the total road length in India 

Q9. What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?

1. Prevention of soil runoff
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:  (c)

• Integrated Watershed Development Programme  
  • It is carried out by the Ministry of Rural Development’s Department of Land Resources. 
  • Utilising, protecting, and developing degraded natural resources like soil, vegetation, and water are the key goals of the Integrated Watershed Development Programme. 
  • Prevention of soil run-off, rainwater harvesting and recharging of the groundwater table. Hence, Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. 
  • Increasing crop yield; introducing multiple crops and a variety of agro-based activities; encouraging sustainable livelihoods; and raising household incomes. 
  • It does not aim to link the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 

Q10. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

1.  Andaman and Nicobar
2.  Nicobar and Sumatra
3.  Maldives and Lakshadweep
4.  Sumatra and Java

Answer: (a)

Ten Degree Channel 

• It  separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal and forms the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 

Additional information:  

• It is 150 km wide from north to south and 10 km long from east to west with a minimum depth of 7.3m. 
• It is so named as it lies on the 10-degree line of Latitude, north of the equator.  
• The Lakshadweep Islands and Maliku Atoll are separated by the Nine-degree channel. 
• The Grand Channel is between the Great Nicobar islands and the Sumatra islands of Indonesia. 
• Minicoy channel is a small eight-degree channel that separates Maldives and Lakshadweep. 
• Sumatra and Java are separated by Sunda Strait. 

Q11. Consider the following pairs:

1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
3. Saramati Park : Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1.  1 only
2.  2 and 3 only
3.  1 and 3 only
4.  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• The Dampa tiger reserve  
  • It is located in Mizoram. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched. 
  • It covers an area of about 500 km2 in the Lushai Hills at an altitude range of 800–1,100 m.  
  • It was declared a tiger reserve in 1994 and is part of Project Tiger. 
  • The tropical forests of Dampa Tiger Reserve are home to a diverse flora and fauna.  
  • It consists of forest interpolated with steep precipitous hills, deep valleys, jungle streams, ripping rivulets, natural salts licks.  
• The Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary 
  • This is located in Tripura. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
  • It covers an area of about 389.54 sq km.  
  • It is home to animals like elephants, sambar, buffalo, yapping deer, serow, wild goat, etc.  
• Saramati 
  • It is a peak located in Nagaland. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched. 
  • It is located near Thanamir Village in the Kiphire district of Nagaland. 

Q12. Which of the following have coral reefs?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1.  1, 2 and 3 only
2.  2 and 4 only
3.  1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 

Option (a) is correct:

Coral Reefs 

• Most of the world’s coral reefs are located within the tropical zone between 30º N and 30º S latitude. 
• The most favourable temperature for the growth of the coral reefs is between 23°C to 25°C.  
• The Coral reefs in India are mainly restricted to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Strait and the Lakshadweep islands. All of these reefs are Fringing reefs, except Lakshadweep which are Atolls. While Sundarbans do not have coral reefs. 
• Corals can survive only under saline conditions with an average salinity between 27% to 40%. 

Q13. Consider the following rivers:

1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows/flows through Arunachal Pradesh?

1.  1 only
2.  2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Barak River 

• It flows through the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam in India and into the Bay of Bengal. It does not flow through Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• It rises in the Manipur Hills in northern Manipur state, India, where it is called the Barak.  

Lohit river

• It is a river in Arunachal Pradesh and is a tributary of River Brahmaputra. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• It originates in eastern Tibet, in the Zayal Chu range, and surges through Arunachal Pradesh.

The Subansiri River

• It flows through the Indian states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 
• It is the largest tributary of the River Brahmaputra. 

Q14. Consider the following pairs:

                Hills                                  Region

1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills Central India
4. Mikir Hills North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1.  1 and 2 only 
2.  2 and 3 only 
3.  3 and 4  only 
4.  2 and 4  only 

Answer:  (c)

• Cardamom Hill 
  • It located in Kerala and south-west Tamil Nadu. So, it lies on the Malabar Coast. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched. 
  • This is located on the south-western side of India. 
  • This hill produces tea, coffee, teak, cardamom, and bamboo. 
  • The Anamudi is the highest peak with 2,695 metres (8,842 ft) 
• Kaimur Hill 
  • This is the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
  • This range is present in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. 
• Mahadeo Hill 
  • It is a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched. 
  • This is located in the northern part of the Satpura Range. 
• Mikir Hill 
  • This is located to the south of the Kaziranga National Park, Assam. 
  • This is in north-east India and part of Karbi-Plateau. Hence, Pair 4 is correctly matched. 
  • Dambuchko is the highest peak of Mikir Hills. 

Additional Points 

• Coromandel Coast 
  • This is the coastal plain in eastern Tamil Nadu state. 
  • This is bounded by the Utkal Plains to the north, the Bay of Bengal to the east, and the Kaveri delta to the south and the Eastern Ghats to the west, extending over an area of about 22,800 square kilometres. 
• Konkan coast 
  • This is at the western coastline of India. 
  • It extends throughout the western coasts of Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka. 

Q15. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants are naturally growing there?

1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

• Oak and Rhododendron are characteristic plants of the Temperate forest. Temperate forests are mainly found in the middle altitudes of the Himalayas.  
• Sandalwoods are found in tropical deciduous forests or monsoon forests which are found in western ghats, Deccan plateau, northern plains, and along the foothills of the Himalayas but the presence is ‘negligible’ and/or confined only to Northeastern states.

Additional Information 

The three parallel ranges of the Himalayas longitudinal extent are:  

• Himadri (Great or Inner Himalayas): The northernmost range is called the Himadri and extends for about 2400 km. Mt. Everest and Mt. Kanchenjunga are a part of these ranges.
• Himachal (Lesser Himalayas): It lies to the south of Himadri.  Some famous ranges are the Pir Panjal range, Dhaula Dhar, and Mahabharat ranges.  It has some famous valleys like Kullu, Kangra, and Kashmir. 
• Shivalik (Outer Himalayas): This is the outermost range of the Himalayas.  Shivaliks are known by different names in different areas such as Dafla, Miri, Abor, and Mishmi Hills in Arunachal Pradesh.

Q16. In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraints/constraints in its wider/greater implementation?

1. There is no National Seed Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand ­supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1.  1 and 2 only
2.  3 only
3.  2 and 3 only 
4.  None

Answer: (b) 

• We have a National Seed Policy made in 2002. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• The private sector produces high-priced seeds but in lower volume. It supplies nearly the entire hybrid seeds required for vegetables. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• There is a demand-supply gap recording quality of seeds in case of low value and high volume crops such as wheat and rice.  Farmers prefer to use their own preserve seeds due to the high demand and supply gap. Hence statement 3 is correct. 

SEED REPLACEMENT RATE is a measure of how much of the total cropped area was sown with certified seeds in comparison to farm-saved seeds. 

• Replacement rate denotes better utilisation of certified quality seeds which results in better productivity.  

Q17. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South­East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 4– ­2– ­1– ­3
2. 3– ­2– ­4–-­1
3. 3– ­4– ­1– ­2
4. 4­– 3– ­2– ­1

Answer: (c)

The correct sequence of occurrences of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north is Jakarta-Singapore-Bangkok and Hanoi. Hence, Option c is correct. 

Additional Points: 

Country	Capital	Currency	National Animal
Thailand	Bangkok	Thai Baht	Elephant
Vietnam	Hanoi	Vietnamese dong	Water Buffalo
Indonesia	Jakarta	Indonesian rupiah	Komodo dragon
Singapore	Singapore	Singapore dollar	Lion

Q18. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statement:

1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  (b)  

The Changpa 

• They are a semi-nomadic Tibetan ethnic group found mainly in the Zanskar region of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes. In 1989, Changpas were declared as the Scheduled Tribes. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

2013

1. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to

(a) The earth’s rotation on its axis

(b) The earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner

(c) Latitudinal position of the place

(d) Revolution of the earth on a titled axis

Correct Answer: Option (d) 

• On its path around the sun, the earth’s axis always remains inclined to one side. Because of this constant inclination in one direction, the Northern Hemisphere remains inclined towards the sun or faces the sun during one half of the year. Therefore, a larger part of this hemisphere receives sunlight. Every point in this hemisphere takes a longer time to go out of the sunlight, with the result that the days are longer. In contrast, the Southern Hemisphere is away from the sun. It, therefore, has shorter days and longer nights. During the other half of the year, the Southern Hemisphere is inclined towards the sun. Hence, it has longer days and shorter nights. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

2. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion:

(a) Is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds

(b) Is found in freshwater lakes and rivers

(c) Exists as groundwater

(d) Exists as soil moisture

Correct Answer: Option (c) 

The most of the freshwater on the earth exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion exists as groundwater. Hence, option (c) is correct. 

3. Consider the following

1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Correct Answer: Option (d) 

Electro-magnetic radiation causes temperature change which induces metamorphism of rocks. Gravity besides being a directional force activating all downslope movements of matter also causes stresses on the earth’s materials. Plate movement results into continent building. The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

4. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in

(a) Desert margins, liable to strong wind action

(b) Low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding

(c) Scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: Option (d) 

Contour bunding (or contour bundling), involves the placement of lines of stones along the natural rises of a landscape. It helps to capture and hold rainfall before it can become runoff, which reduces soil erosion and retards overall water loss. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

5. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason(s)?

1. Thermal difference between land and water
2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: Option (a) 

• Land heats up and cool down very fast as compared to the water. Areas in the interior of India are far away from the moderating influence of the sea. Such areas have extremes of climate. 
• Statement 2 is wrong as there may or may not be much difference between the altitudes of land and ocean.  
• Statement 3 is wrong as winds do not contribute enough to the variations in temperature. 
• Statement 4 is wrong as coastal region receive more rainfall. 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

6. During the thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the

1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3. violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None of the above produces the thunder

Correct Answer: Option (d) 

Thunder is the sound caused by lightning. The sudden increase in pressure and temperature from lightning produces rapid expansion of the air surrounding and within a bolt of lightning. In turn, this expansion of air creates a sonic shock wave, similar to a sonic boom, which produces the sound of thunder. The cause of thunder has been the subject of centuries of speculation and scientific inquiry. The first recorded theory is attributed to the Greek philosopher Aristotle in the third century BC, and an early speculation was that it was caused by the collision of clouds. Subsequently, numerous other theories were proposed. By the mid-19th century, the accepted theory was that lightning produced a vacuum. In the 20th century a consensus evolved that thunder must begin with a shock wave in the air due to the sudden thermal expansion of the plasma in the lightning channel. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

7. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

1. They are generally red in colour,
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: Option (c) 

• Statement 2 is wrong as these soils are poor in nitrogen and phosphate.  
• Statement 3 is wrong as laterite is not found in UP or in Rajasthan. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashew nut. 

Hence, option (c) is correct. 

8. Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: Option (c) 

• Major Kharif crops in India are rice, sorghum, maize, tea, rubber, coffee, guar, Sesame, groundnut, cereals such as Arhar Dhal, pearl millet, soybeans, cotton, oilseeds, etc. Hence, option (c) is correct. 

9. With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option (c) 

• When burned by a sugar mill, bagasse, the fibrous material leftover after juice is extracted from sugarcane, usually produces enough electricity to power all of the mill’s operations and then some. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Molasses fertilizer is an organic fertilizer. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based fuel produced by the fermentation of sugarcane juice and molasses. Sugarcane ethanol has emerged as a leading renewable fuel for the transportation sector. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

10. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?

(a) Engineering

(b) Paper and pulp

(c) Textiles

(d) Thermal power

Correct Answer: Option (d) 

• Of the total water use by the industry, thermal power plants are the biggest users of water and account for 88% of the total industrial water use. They are followed by engineering (5.05%) pulp & paper (2.26%) and textiles (2.07%) industries. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

11. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?

1. High ash content
2. Low sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option (a) 

• The most significant characteristic of Indian coal is its high ash content, which varies from 35 to 45 per cent, compared with that of coal in other parts of the world, which is around 15 per cent. 
• Besides high ash content, another reason for entrained gasifiers (that operate at higher temperatures than fluidised bed gasifiers), commonly used in IGCC plants abroad, being not suitable for Indian coal is its high ash fusion temperature of about 1,500. However, Indian coal’s sulphur content is low, about 0.5 per cent. 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana belts.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) None

Correct Answer: Option (b) 

• Natural gas is obtained along with oil in all the oil fields but exclusive reserves have been located along the eastern coast as well as (Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh), Tripura, Rajasthan and off-shore wells in Gujarat and Maharashtra. Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period. Kodarma (Jharkhand) is well known for Mica reserve. Hence, option (b) is correct. 

13. Consider the following pairs:

National Park through the park          River Flowing

1. Corbett National Park               :     Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park            :    Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park        :    Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None

Correct Answer: Option (d) 

Ramganga, a tributary of Ganga passes through Corbett NP but Ganga does not. Kaveri and Manas also do not pass through Silent valley and Kaziranga NP respectively. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

14. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?

1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None

Correct Answer: Option (a) 

The Narmada and the Tapi flow through the rift valley. Statement 3 is not correct as land slopes to the east in the region. Statement 2 is factually correct however, is not the reason for the rivers to flow to the west. Hence, option (a) is correct. 

15. Consider the following pairs:

1. Nokrek Biosphere reserve     :     Garo Hills
2. (Loktak) Lake                          :     Barail Range
3. Namdapha National Park      :     Dafla Hill

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Correct Answer: Option (a) 

• Nokrek Biosphere Reserve – It is located in the Garo Hills district of Meghalaya. 
• Logtak Lake – It is a freshwater lake located in Manipur and is famous for Phumdis floating over it. 
• Namdapha National Park – It is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh and is between Dapha bum range and the Patkai range. 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

16. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Geographical Region            Feature

(a) Abyssinian Plateau    :   Arabia

(b) Atlas Mountains        :   North­Western Africa

(c) Guiana Highlands      :   South­Western Africa

(d) Okavango Basin        :   Patagonia

Correct Answer: Option (b) 

• The correct regions for all options are: 
  • Abyssinian Plateau – Ethiopia (Africa) 
  • Atlas Mountains – North-Western Africa 
  • Guiana Highlands – Venezuela (South America) 
  • Okavango Basin – North-Western Botswana 

Hence, option (b) is correct. 

17. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where

(a) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet

(b) rivers drain out large amounts of fresh water into the sea

(c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet

(d) continental shelf is undulating

Correct Answer: Option (c) 

The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where warm and cold oceanic currents meet because Planktons are abundant where warm and cold currents meet. That make these areas important fishing grounds of the world. Hence, option (c) is correct. 

18. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?

1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of species
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option (d) 

The equatorial forests consist tall and closely set trees forming canopy. There are a large number of species and a large variety of epiphytes present in these forests. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

19. “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.”

The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

(a) African Savannah

(b) Central Asian Steppe

(c) North American Prairie

(d) Siberian Tundra

Correct Answer: Option (b) 

Steppe’s climate is continantal with extremes of temp. Nomadic tribes like Kirghiz are found. Rainfall is expected to be light. African Savannah gets moderate raifall. Hence, option (b) is correct. 

20. Consider the following pairs:

Tribe                               State

1. Limboo (Limbu)  :    Sikkim
2. Karbi                    :    Himachal Pradesh
3. Dongaria              :    Odisha
4. Bonda                  :    Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: Option (a) 

• The tribes and their belonging states: 
  • Limboo (Limbu) – Sikkim 
  • Karbi – Assam 
  • Dongaria Kondh – Odisha 
  • Bonda – Odisha 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Question: What is the significance of the Himalayan mountain range in India’s geography?

Answer: The Himalayan mountain range plays a crucial role in India’s geography. It acts as a natural barrier to the cold winds from Central Asia, influencing the country’s climate. Additionally, it is the source of major rivers like the Ganges and the Indus, providing water for agriculture and other activities. The Himalayas also have cultural and religious importance, with several pilgrimage sites located in the region.

2. Question: How does the Western Ghats impact the climate of the Indian subcontinent?

Answer: The Western Ghats, running parallel to the western coast of India, significantly influence the climate of the subcontinent. They act as a barrier to the moisture-laden winds from the Arabian Sea, causing heavy rainfall on the windward side and creating a rain shadow on the leeward side. This phenomenon is crucial for the monsoon rains in the region and has a profound impact on agriculture and ecosystems.

3. Question: What role does the Thar Desert play in India’s geography?

Answer: The Thar Desert, located in the northwestern part of India, has a distinctive impact on the country’s geography. It acts as a natural border with Pakistan and influences the climate of the surrounding regions. Despite its arid nature, the desert has unique flora and fauna adapted to the harsh conditions. Additionally, it serves as a source of mineral resources, including gypsum and phosphates.

4. Question: Explain the importance of the Brahmaputra River in the context of India’s geography.

Answer: The Brahmaputra River, originating in Tibet and flowing through India and Bangladesh, is of great significance in the geography of the region. It supports agriculture in the fertile plains of Assam, where rice is a major crop. The river is also prone to flooding, impacting the lives of people living in its basin. Furthermore, the Brahmaputra has strategic importance, especially in terms of water sharing agreements and international relations with neighboring countries.

5. Question: How does the concept of ‘Urban Heat Island’ relate to geography in the context of Indian cities?

Answer: The ‘Urban Heat Island’ effect is a phenomenon where urban areas experience higher temperatures than their rural surroundings. In the context of Indian geography, this is notable in rapidly growing cities. The concentration of concrete structures, reduced green spaces, and increased industrial activities contribute to elevated temperatures. Understanding and mitigating this effect is crucial for sustainable urban planning and addressing the challenges posed by climate change in metropolitan areas.

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