As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2013 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2013 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1.
Q: Consider the following statements –The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts.
- Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
- Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
- Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya sabha). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The major functions of the Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts are
- To scrutinize appropriation and finance accounts of the Government and to examine the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
- Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct.
Q: Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
- Dadu Dayal
- Guru Nanak
- Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer: Option (b)
Time Period of Bhakti Saints:
- Guru Nanak (1469 – 1539)
- Dadu Dayal (1544–1603)
- Kakarla Tyagabrahmam (1767 – 1847)
- Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over: 1526
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decompose organism/organisms?
- Virus
- Fungi
- Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Most viruses need a living host organism-they are more like a parasite. Viruses reproduce by sticking their DNA into living cells and their DNA “takes over” the living cell and uses the living cells’ tools to replicate the virus’ DNA and make more viruses. Bacteria that are used in decomposition need the dead animals’ flesh for food. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
b) Rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet
d) Continental shelf is undulating
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where warm and cold oceanic currents meet because Planktons are abundant where warm and cold currents meet. That make these areas important fishing grounds of the world. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
- Foreign Loans
- Foreign Direct Investment
- Private Remittances
- Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Foreign Loans, Foreign Direct Investment and Portfolio Investment are part of Capital Account. But the Private Remittances is a part of current account not the Capital Account. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Consider the following historical places
- Ajanta Caves
- Lepakshi Temple
- Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The Ajanta Caves have the mural paintings of all three religions Buddhism, Jainism, and Hinduism. The Lepakshi temple has the finest specimens of mural paintings of the Vijayanagar kings. Sanchi Stupa is known for Stupa Architecture. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:
- Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
- Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Samkhya is an Orthodox Indian philosophical system. Orthodox Indian philosophical system believes in soul and karma theory. For Karma theory to hold, soul has to undergo rebirth or transmigration. Therefore, without liberation no soul can be free from the cycle of rebirth or transmigration.
- Samkhya school philosophy- after you have ‘died’ in this life you will go through a process of rebirth where depending on your actions in your former life your status will be decided.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are, implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
- Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
- Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
- Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The Cabinet is formed among the ministers who are the Members of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- In the Parliamentary system of government as in India, the ministers are responsible to the Parliament. So, they hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Cabinet is headed by the Head of Government (i.e., the Prime Minister) and not by the Head of State (i.e., the President). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q: The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
- Thermal difference between land and water
- Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
- Presence of strong winds in the interior
- Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Land heats up and cool down very fast as compared to the water. Areas in the interior of India are far away from the moderating influence of the sea. Such areas have extremes of climate.
- Statement 2 is wrong as there may or may not be much difference between the altitudes of land and ocean.
- Statement 3 is wrong as winds do not contribute enough to the variations in temperature.
- Statement 4 is wrong as coastal region receive more rainfall.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
- High ash content
- Low sulphur content
- Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The most significant characteristic of Indian coal is its high ash content, which varies from 35 to 45 per cent, compared with that of coal in other parts of the world, which is around 15 per cent.
- Besides high ash content, another reason for entrained gasifiers (that operate at higher temperatures than fluidised bed gasifiers), commonly used in IGCC plants abroad, being not suitable for Indian coal is its high ash fusion temperature of about 1,500. However, Indian coal’s sulphur content is low, about 0.5 per cent.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
- They are generally red in colour.
- They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
- They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
- Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Statement 2 is wrong as these soils are poor in nitrogen and phosphate.
- Statement 3 is wrong as laterite is not found in UP or in Rajasthan. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashew nut.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Consider the following statements:
- Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
- Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
- Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Natural gas is obtained along with oil in all the oil fields but exclusive reserves have been located along the eastern coast as well as (Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh), Tripura, Rajasthan and off-shore wells in Gujarat and Maharashtra. Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period. Kodarma (Jharkhand) is well known for Mica reserve. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Consider the following crops:
- Cotton
- Groundnut
- Rice
- Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Major Kharif crops in India are rice, sorghum, maize, tea, rubber, coffee, guar, Sesame, groundnut, cereals such as Arhar Dhal, pearl millet, soybeans, cotton, oilseeds, etc.
Q: “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.” The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
a) African Savannah
b) Central Asian Steppe
c) North American Prairie
d) Siberian Tundr
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Steppe’s climate is continantal with extremes of temp. Nomadic tribes like Kirghiz are found. Rainfall is expected to be light. African Savannah gets moderate raifall. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Consider the following statements:
- Inlation benefits the debtors.
- Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- For debtors, “real” interest rate goes down with inflation. Thus, it benefits them. On the other hand, with inflation the yield of bonds goes down, thus a negative effect for bond-holders. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Disguised unemployment generally means
a) Large number of people remain unemployed
b) Alternative employment is not available
c) Marginal productivity of labour is zero
d) Productivity of workers is low
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Disguised unemployment, means that more people are engaged in a job which can be done with less people, normally seen in agriculture where whole family is involved. It means extra people can be removed without affecting the productivity, i.e. their marginal productivity is zero. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Consider the following statements:
- The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
- The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
- The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- According to the Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers in the Centre will be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- According to the Article 75(2) of the Indian Constitution, the Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- According to the Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q: Consider the following statements:
- National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
- The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- NDC is listed as an advisory body to Planning commission. Moreover, the plans made by Planning commission are placed before NDC for its acceptance. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- In the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent list. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- According to the Indian Constitution, the Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q: Consider the following statements:
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The Vice President of Indian acts as an ex officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha but the Deputy Chairman is elected among the members of the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The Collegium in the election of President does not consist the nominated members of the Parliament but in the election of the Vice President they are the part of the Collegium. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q: With reference to National Legal Services Authority consider the following statements:
- Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The objective of the National Legal Service Authority is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- One of the major functions of the National Legal Service Authority is to issue guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct
Q: With reference to National Legal Services Authority consider the following statements:
- Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The objective of the National Legal Service Authority is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- One of the major functions of the National Legal Service Authority is to issue guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Q: During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.
Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
Violent upward movement of air and water particles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None of the above produces the thunder
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Thunder is the sound caused by lightning. The sudden increase in pressure and temperature from lightning produces rapid expansion of the air surrounding and within a bolt of lightning. In turn, this expansion of air creates a sonic shock wave, similar to a sonic boom, which produces the sound of thunder. The cause of thunder has been the subject of centuries of speculation and scientific inquiry. The first recorded theory is attributed to the Greek philosopher Aristotle in the third century BC, and an early speculation was that it was caused by the collision of clouds. Subsequently, numerous other theories were proposed. By the mid-19th century, the accepted theory was that lightning produced a vacuum. In the 20th century a consensus evolved that thunder must begin with a shock wave in the air due to the sudden thermal expansion of the plasma in the lightning channel. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: Consider the following pairs:
Tribe State
Limboo (Limbu) Sikkim
Karbi Himachal Pradesh
Dongaria Kondh Odisha
Bonda Tamil Nadu
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The tribes and their belonging states:
- Limboo (Limbu) – Sikkim
- Karbi – Assam
- Dongaria Kondh – Odisha
- Bonda – Odisha
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Consider the following liquid assets:
- Demand deposits with the banks
- Time deposits with the banks
- Savings deposits with the banks
- Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
a) 1–4–3–2
b) 4–3–2–1
c) 2–3–1–4
d) 4–1–3–2
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Liquidity of currency is highest. Next will come demand liabilities, as they have to be cleared when demanded. Next savings and least liquidity will be of time deposits. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to
a) Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
b) Lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
c) Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The repo and reverse repo rates are used when RBI purchase or sale the government securities. This route is known as Open Market Operations. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Priority Sector Lending by banks in Indian constitutes the lending to
a) Agriculture
b) Micro and small enterprises
c) Weaker sections
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Under the provisions of Priority Sector Lending, Banks have to lend minimum of 40% to priority sector which includes agriculture, MSMEs, and weaker sections. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
a) Engineers
b) Paper and pulp
c) Textiles
d) Thermal power
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Of the total water use by the industry, thermal power plants are the biggest users of water and account for 88% of the total industrial water use. They are followed by engineering (5.05%) pulp & paper (2.26%) and textiles (2.07%) industries. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
a) Promoting skill development
b) Introducing more social security schemes
c) Reducing infant mortality rate
d) Privatization of higher education
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Promoting skill development will create a workforce of skilled labour which could boost the economy and lift up their livelihood.
- Introducing more social security schemes will not provide any benefit of demographic dividend. Social security schemes can be used for providing security to nonworking population like old-age pension etc.
- Reducing Infant Mortality Rate is one of the Millennium Development Goal, but it does not provide any benefit of demographic dividend.
- Privatization of higher education can in fact have negative effect as it will make education costlier thus making it out of reach of a large section of eligible population.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today.
Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Tribhanga, literally meaning three parts break, consists of three bends in the body; at the neck, waist and knee, hence the body is oppositely curved at waist and neck which gives it a gentle “S” shape. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Annie Besant was
- Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
- The founder of the Theosophical Society
- Once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Annie Besant was the 1st women President of INC in 1917 Calcutta Session. Madam Blavatsky and Henry Steel Olcott founded Theosophical Society. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
a) Imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
b) Imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
c) Removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
d) Removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- In AD 1883, Lord Ripon’s law member, Sir Ilbert, introduced a bill which came to be called the Ilbert Bill. It allowed Indian judges to try the cases involving the Europeans. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
- An increase in the money supply
- A decrease in the aggregate level of output
- An increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- An increase in the money supply increases the general level of price and cause inflation. A decrease in the aggregate level of output increase the price of commodity due to the demand in the market and an increase in the demand will also increase the price. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?
a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI, and loans from the World Bank
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCA), gold, special drawing rights (SDRs) and reserve tranche position (RTP) in the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?
a) Repayment of public debt
b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
c) Borrowings from banks to finance a budget deficit
d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Borrowing from the public or from the banks to finance a budget deficit will lead to decrease the money supply in the market. Repayment of public debt and creating new money both are inflationary in nature but creating new money to finance a budget deficit is the most inflationary in its effect. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
a) a fall in the level of prices
b) an increase in the rate of interest
c) a decrease in the rate of interest
d) an increase in the level of income and employment
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- If the demand increases when the supply is same, it will lead to an increase in prices or in this case rate of interest to be charged. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
a) exposure to sunlight is prevented
b) concentration of carbon diodixe in the environment in increased
c) rate of respiration in decreased
d) there is an increase in humidity
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Respiration can be controlled by refrigerated storage. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Consider the following fauna and India:
- Gharial
- Leatherback turtle
- Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- All three are endangered in India and as there is no specific list (IUCN, etc.) is given. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because
a) the actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
b) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
c) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced
d) None of the above statements is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The roundness of the bearings creates less contact between the bearing that is trying to move objects and the object being moved. A reduction in contact area means less friction. Hence, option (c) is correct
Q: Consider the following statements:
- Size of the sun at dusk
- Colour of the sun at dawn
- Moon being visible at dawn
- Twinkle of stars in the sky
- Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 5
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Size of the sun at dusk is an optical illusion. When the sun (or moon) is high in the sky there are no objects of known size to compare the sun (or moon) to. But when the sun is low in the sky, we can see far off objects near the horizon that we know are big and we imagine that the sun is even bigger. The apparent change in size is an optical illusion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Colour of the sun at dawn is an optical illusion. Light is made up of lots of colours. And out of all those colours, red is the one that travels the farthest. It means is that red is the last colour seen, when the sun sets. When the sun is setting, all of those colours are slower-moving, and it is no longer bright outside, because the colours are all moving at a separate pace. The other colours start disappearing, and red (being the fastest), is what is last seen. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Moon being visible at dawn is NOT an optical illusion. The moon is visible somewhere in the sky at dawn during the entire half of the cycle of phases from Full Moon to just before New Moon. It is not an optical illusion. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
- Twinkle of stars in the sky is an optical illusion. Stars continuously emit light. These light travels through various layers of earth atmosphere before they reach our eyes. Now refractive index decreases as we move from down through atmosphere. So, light keeps on getting bent towards normal at each point of incidence. Practically there are infinite points of incidence as refractive index keeps changing as we move down. This happens in accordance and finally light reaches our eye. So, we see the star at B but actual position of star is at A. Further atmospheric conditions keeps on changing. Hence light flux reaching our eyes keeps varying and so star appears bright at some time and it appears fade at other. So, starts apparently twinkles but practically they don’t. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Polestar being visible in the sky is NOT an optical illusion. The sky appears to rotate around points called the celestial poles (one north pole and one south pole). These points represent the directions where the Earth’s rotation axis points. Thus, for a fixed observer on Earth, a celestial pole would always be in the same direction (due north or due south, depending where we are), and its altitude over the horizon would be equal to our latitude. Polaris is not exactly at the celestial pole; it is less than one degree from it (so that it is hard to tell the difference without measuring) making it a good indicator for the pole — that is why it is called the Pole Star. Hence, statement 5 is correct.
Q: Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
- Dispersion
- Refraction
- Internal reflection
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- When the sunlight falls on the drops of rain, each individual droplet of water acts as a tiny prism that both disperses the light and reflects it back to our eye. Since water is denser than air, light is refracted as it enters the drop. Some of the light will reflect off the back of the drop if the angle is larger than the critical angle (48° for water). Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
a) the new soil does not contain favourable minerals
b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
c) most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation
d) leaves get damaged during transplantation
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Newly transplanted trees or shrubs experience some degree of transplant shock. This is simply the plant reacting to having been moved. It is generally caused by damage to the roots of the plant during the transplant. These tiny roots are covered by even tinier hairs which absorb most of the water that is eventually carried to the top-growth of the plant. As a result of the loss of these feeder roots, the plant is not able to draw the amount of moisture it requires to thrive and grow. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur it
a) there is technical progress in the world economy
b) there is population growth in X
c) there is capital formation in X
d) the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- If there is population growth without any avenues for the economy to absorb them, it will have a deteriorating effect. But when there is capital formation in country it will lead to growth. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy
- Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
- Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Viruses do not have the chemical machinery needed to survive on their own. They need enzymes for their growth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Viruses seek out host cells in which they can multiply. Viruses can’t be grown on synthetic media (e.g. agar [a type of gelatine]) but they can be grown on cultures of bacteria. Bacteria reproduce and live like any other living organism would, it takes in nutrients and reproduces using binary fission (like mitosis). Viruses on the other hand are like little aliens. They really aren’t “living” since they don’t absorb nutrients or produce waste. Rather they hook onto another cell (e.g. a bacterium) and inject the cell with its own viral genetic code. This code then causes the cell to produce the multiple copies of the virus, essentially doing the reproduction for the virus at the cost of its own resources. The virus can’t reproduce itself without another cell to “build” its copies. Therefore, we can’t grow a virus on a synthetic media. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Viruses enter the body from the environment or other individuals from soil to water to air via nose, mouth, or any breaks in the skin and seek a cell to infect. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q: Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
- Hard and waxy leaves
- Tiny leaves or no leaves
- Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- In Desert Areas, Plants have few or no leave and foliage is either waxy hairy or needle shaped to prevent water loss. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
b) Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Gravity, the weakest of the four forces, is about 10^-36 times the strength of the strong force. This weakness is easily demonstrable – on a dry day, when we rub a comb across shirt to give it static electricity and when we hold it over a piece of paper on a desk the piece of paper lifts off the desk. It takes an entire planet to keep the paper on the desk, but this force is easily overcome with everyday materials employing the electromagnetic force. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importances of discovering this particle?
- It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
- It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
- It will enable us to crease better fuels for nuclear mission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The Higgs boson has long been thought the key to resolving the mystery of the origin of mass. The Higgs boson is associated with a field, called the Higgs field, theorized to pervade the universe. As other particles travel though this field, they acquire mass much as swimmers moving through a pool get wet, the thinking goes.
- Scientist are not sure about these discoveries yet so should be considered as Wrong/Doubtful. How many new discoveries will Higgs Boson help to make for the world? Higgs Boson is not a main item that will open the way for teleportation but it will help to understand about mass, item and travel in time and space. In the close or far future, Higgs Boson may help us to create an unbelievable energy source. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
- Resist drought and increase absorptive area
- Tolerate extremes of pH
- Resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Re-introduction of Arbuscular Mycorrhizal Fungi into agricultural soils has been shown to increase crop yields in nutrient poor soils, increase yields for agricultural plants that have large requirement for nutrients and water, and restore structure and fertility to degraded soils. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Anthropogenic deposition increases the possibility of phosphorus (P) limiting productivity in forest ecosystems. Moreover, inorganic P availability is largely controlled by soil pH and biogeochemical theory suggests that forests with acidic soils (i.e., <pH 5) are particularly vulnerable to P limitation. Shifts in mycorrhizal colonization and community structure help temperate forest ecosystems overcome an underlying P limitation by accessing mineral and organic P sources that are otherwise unavailable for direct plant uptake. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhizae (VAM) enhance plant growth through increased nutrient uptake, stress tolerance and disease resistance. Roots support a multitude of microorganisms that, in concert, can have profound influence on growth and survival of the plant. VAM fungi can alter the root exudation pattern, enhance chitinolytic activity and alter photosynthetic/respiratory deficiencies. VAM-positive plants are known to exhibit varied resistance towards soil-borne and foliar pathogens. The known interactions include a number of mechanisms, such as exclusion of the pathogen, lignification of plant cell walls, changed phosphate nutrition resulting in altered exudation by roots, and formation of inhibitory low molecular weight compounds. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q: Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
- The Prime Minister
- The Chairman, Finance Commission
- Ministers of the Union Cabinet
- Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The National Development Council consists of the Prime Minister, Ministers of the Union Cabinet, and the Chief Ministers of the States. It does not consist the Chairman, Finance Commission. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
a) total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
b) sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
c) sum of personal income of all individuals
d) money value of final goods and service produced
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- NNP at factor cost ≡ National Income (NI) and no other option mentions Nationals. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
- Regional Rural Banks
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
- Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The Regional Rural Banks and the Land Development Banks grant direct credit assistance to rural households. NABARD do not provide direct assistance. It “refinance” the assistance by other institutions. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Although Rajya Sabha can’t amend or reject the money bill, but it can make recommendations, which Lok Sabha may or may not accept. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.
b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.
d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- In India, same person can be appointed as Governor of two or more states at the same time. Judges of HC are also appointed by President. In case of UTs, CM is appointed by President. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Geographical Feature Region
Abyssinian Plateau Arabia
Atlas Mountains North-Western Africa
Guiana Highlands South-Western Africa
Okavango Basin Patagonia
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The correct regions for all options are:
- Abyssinian Plateau – Ethiopia (Africa)
- Atlas Mountains – North-Western Africa
- Guiana Highlands – Venezuela (South America)
- Okavango Basin – North-Western Botswana
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:
- The cases at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
- The Barabar rock-cut cases were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
- At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India. These rock-cut chambers date back to the 3rd century BC, Maurya period, of Ashoka (r. 273 BC to 232 BC.) and his son, Dasaratha. These caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect, founded by Makkhali Gosala.
- Ellora is a World Heritage Site The 12 Buddhist (caves 1–12), 17 Hindu (caves 13–29) and 5 Jain (caves 30–34) caves, built in proximity, demonstrate the religious harmony prevalent during this period of Indian history.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Recombination DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
- across different species of plants
- from animals to plants
- from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Recombinant DNA is the general name for taking a piece of one DNA and combining it with another strand of DNA. All three options in the question are correct. Examples of these methods are: –
- 1) The gene ‘Chitinase’ has source organism ‘Rice’ and characteristic conferred on transformed plants is Fungal resistance.
- 2)The gene ‘2’-5′ oligoadenylate synthetase’ has source organism ‘Rat’ and characteristic conferred on transformed plants is Virus resistance.
- 3)Human Proteins ‘Somatostatin’ has been synthesized from genes in bacteria and used in the treatment of Growth disorders.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Violent crime was rare, but the roads and river routes were exposed to brigands as Hiuen – tsang fell victim to them more than once. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The narrative of Hieun Tsang states the four ordeals used to determine an accused person’s innocence or guilt. These are accomplished through the use of water, fire, weighing, and poison. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Hiuen Tsang mentioned that under the revenue and taxation system, tradesman travelled to and fro bartering their wares after paying light duties at ferries and barrier stations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q: Consider the following:
- Star tortoise
- Monitor lizard
- Pygmy hog
- Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Spider Monkeys live in tropical climates, specifically the evergreen forests of Central and South America. They can also be found as far north as Mexico but not in India.
Q: Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
- Arsenic
- Sorbitol
- Fluoride
- Formaldehyde
- Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Arsenic and fluoride are the two most common pollutants found in drinking water in India. Other pollutants such as sorbitol, formaldehyde, and uranium are also found in some parts of India.
Q: With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Correct Answer: Option (c)
Q: Consider the following animals:
- Sea cow
- Sea horse
- Sea lion
Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Mammals are the class of vertebrate animals characterized by the presence of sweat glands, including sweat glands modified for milk production, hair, three middle ear bones used in hearing, and a neocortex region in the brain. Sea Cow (Hydrodamalis gigas), also called Steller’s sea cow, very large aquatic mammal. Sea horse is a vertebrate fish. It is warm blooded, gives birth to live young, has hair, and the female produces milk. All these are characteristics of mammals. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Consider the following statements:
- An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- An Amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated in any house of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by only not less than half states of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q: Consider the following statements:
- Attorney General of India can
- take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
- be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
- speak in the Lok Sabha
- vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The Attorney General of India can take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha, can be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha, can speak in the Lok Sabha but he doesn’t have the right to vote. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
- Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
- Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- When burned by a sugar mill, bagasse, the fibrous material leftover after juice is extracted from sugarcane, usually produces enough electricity to power all of the mill’s operations and then some. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Molasses fertilizer is an organic fertilizer. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based fuel produced by the fermentation of sugarcane juice and molasses. Sugarcane ethanol has emerged as a leading renewable fuel for the transportation sector. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q: Variations in the length of daytime and night time from season to season are due to
a) the earth’s rotation on its axis
b) the earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner
c) latitudinal position of the place
d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- On its path around the sun, the earth’s axis always remains inclined to one side. Because of this constant inclination in one direction, the Northern Hemisphere remains inclined towards the sun or faces the sun during one half of the year. Therefore, a larger part of this hemisphere receives sunlight. Every point in this hemisphere takes a longer time to go out of the sunlight, with the result that the days are longer. In contrast, the Southern Hemisphere is away from the sun. It, therefore, has shorter days and longer nights. During the other half of the year, the Southern Hemisphere is inclined towards the sun. Hence, it has longer days and shorter nights. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
- It occupies a linear rift valley.
- It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
- The land slopes to the west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The Narmada and the Tapi flow through the rift valley. Statement 3 is not correct as land slopes to the east in the region. Statement 2 is factually correct however, is not the reason for the rivers to flow to the west. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
a) is bound in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
c) exists as groundwater
d) exists as soil moisture
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The most of the freshwater on the earth exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion exists as groundwater. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Consider the following pairs:
- Nokrek Biosphere Reserve Garo Hills
- Logtak (Loktak) Lake Barail Range
- Namdapha National Park Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Nokrek Biosphere Reserve – It is located in the Garo Hills district of Meghalaya.
- Logtak Lake – It is a freshwater lake located in Manipur and is famous for Phumdis floating over it.
- Namdapha National Park – It is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh and is between Dapha bum range and the Patkai range
Q: Consider the following:
- lectromagnetic radiation
- Geothermal energy
- Gravitational force
- Plate movements
- Rotation of the earth
- Revolution of the earth
Q: Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Electro-magnetic radiation causes temperature change which induces metamorphism of rocks. Gravity besides being a directional force activating all downslope movements of matter also causes stresses on the earth’s materials. Plate movement results into continent building. The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
- National Development Council
- Planning Commission
- Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- NDC and Planning Commission are non-constitutional and non-statutory bodies while Zonal councils were set up vide Part-III of ‘States Re-organisation Act, 1956.
Q: The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to onethird
b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land.
c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
d) writing off all peasant debts
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The Tebhaga movement was a militant campaign initiated in Bengal by the Kisan Sabha (peasants front of Communist Party of India) in 1946. At that time share-cropping peasants (essentially, tenants) had to give half of their harvest to the owners of the land.
Q: The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International treat
a) with the consent of all the States
b) with the consent of the majority of States
c) with the consent of the States concerned
d) without the consent of any State
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Article 253 of the Indian Constitution gives the Parliament the power to make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties without the consent of any State.
Q: In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
a) insects and fungi
b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
c) water limits and fire
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Ecological succession typically begins when the existing biological community has been cleared away by human activity or natural disturbance such as a fire or severe storm. The population of trees that once lived in this area can’t grow back because the fire has changed the ground composition. Without tree roots to act as anchors, rain washes away the soil and the ground becomes rocky and barren. This rocky ground, however, proves ideal to lichens, the pioneer population. Mosses and herbs are well suited to living in the shallow soil environment created by the lichen, and they replace the lichen as the dominant population. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The productivity of various ecosystems is:
- Mangroves-2500
- Grassland-500
- Lakes-500
- Open Ocean-125
Q: Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
a) desert margins, liable to strong wind action
b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Contour bunding (or contour bundling), involves the placement of lines of stones along the natural rises of a landscape. It helps to capture and hold rainfall before it can become runoff, which reduces soil erosion and retards overall water loss. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: The Government enacted, the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
a) To provided self-governance
b) To recognize traditional rights
c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Since the laws do not automatically cover the scheduled areas, the PESA Act was enacted to enable the law in these areas. The Act extended the provisions of Panchayats to the tribal areas of nine states that have Fifth Schedule Areas. Most of the North eastern states under Sixth Schedule Areas (where autonomous councils exist) are not covered by PESA, as these states have their own Autonomous councils for governance. Hence, option (c) is correct
Q: Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
a) State Forest Department
b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
d) Gram Sabha
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha shall be the authority to initiate the process.
Q: Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by
a) bacteria
b) protozoa
c) moulds
d) viruses
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Aflatoxins are naturally occurring mycotoxins that are produced by many species of Aspergillus, a fungus. The term “mould” is a common name having no taxonomic significance. It is applied to a variety of fungi which grow as semi-microscopic organisms, and whose mycelium tends to form a loose meshwork rather than a dense tissue. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitutional has been provided in
a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Directive Principles strive for the ‘economic democracy/justice’ while Fundamental rights strive for ‘Political democracy/justice’. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of hold and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
- Beryllium
- Cadmium
- Chromium
- Heptachlor
- Mercury
- Lead
- Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Beryllium is used in circuit board, Hard disk drive, Motherboard, Wiring board and Connectors. So, Option C is wrong.
- Mercury is a key part of some modern technologies, including LCD screens, Laptop and computers so Option A is also wrong.
- Heptachlor is an organochlorine compound that was used as an insecticide. So, Option D is also wrong.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
c) ozone and carbon dioxide
d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide both combine with water in the atmosphere to create acid rain. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
- A food chains illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
- Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
- A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- A food chain is the sequence of who eats whom in a biological community (an ecosystem) to obtain nutrition. In a food chain, each organism occupies a different trophic level, defined by how many energy transfers separate it from the basic input of the chain. Hence, option (a) is correct
Q: Consider the following pairs:
National Park River flowing through the Park
- Corbett National Park Ganga
- Kaziranga National Park Manas
- Silent Valley National Park Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Ramganga, a tributary of Ganga passes through Corbett NP but Ganga does not. Kaveri and Manas also do not pass through Silent valley and Kaziranga NP respectively. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: Consider the following organisms:
- Agaricus
- Nostoc
- Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Agaricus is a genus of mushrooms containing both edible and poisonous species, with possibly over 300 members worldwide.
- Bioinoculants are the microbial preparations that enhance the uptake of nutrients by plants from the soil, increase the availability of the nutrients and stimulate plant growth.
- Spirogyra is a genus of filamentous green algae of the order Zygnematales, named for the helical or spiral arrangement of the chloroplasts that is diagnostic of the genus.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
- Excretion of urea by animals
- Burning of coal by man
- Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- When animals defecate, this waste material is broken down by worms and insects mostly beetles and ants. These small ‘soil animals’ break the waste material into smaller bits on which microscopic bacteria and fungi can act. This material is thus broken down further into nutrients that plants can absorb and use for their growth. Thus, nutrients are recycled back from animals to plants. Similarly, the bodies of dead animals are also broken down into nutrients that are used by the plants for their growth. Thus, the nitrogen cycle on which life is dependent is completed. Statement 2 is wrong as burning of coal does not produce Nitrogen of its compounds. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?
- Tamil Nadu
- Kerala
- Karnataka
- Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The lion- tailed macaque is one of the most endangered primates of India, confined in distribution to the rainforests of southern Western Ghats. Habitat specialists, they have adapted themselves to the evergreen environments available in the south Indian states of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it
d) There is no material difference between the two
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The Chaitya is a place of worship while the Vihara is the dwelling place of the Buddhist monks. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
a) The extinction of the flame of desire
b) The complete annihilation of self
c) A state of bliss and rest
d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Buddha did not define Nirvana, as a state possessing few characteristics. Buddhism defines Nirvana as being free from desire, pain, pleasure etc. It is like an extinction of flame of desire. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Fundamental Duties
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Article 37 says that Directive Principles are fundamental for the governance of country. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because
a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
c) There was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
d) The Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Correct Answer: Option (c)
The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because there was no any Indian member in the commission. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q: Quit India Movement was launched in response to
a) Cabinet Mission Plan
b) Cripps Proposals
c) Simon Commission Report
d) Wavell Plan
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The Cripps Mission Proposal, which included terms like establishment of Dominion, establishment of a Constituent Assembly and right of the Provinces to make separate constitutions, these would be, however, granted after the cessation of the Second World War, So fail to satisfy Indian Nationalists. According to the Congress this Declaration only offered India a promise that was to be fulfilled in the future.
- Commenting on this Gandhi said; “It is a post-dated cheque on a crashing bank and in CWC meeting at wardha in july 1942 accepted the idea of struggle. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q: The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of
a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
b) goods exported from a country during a year
c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another
d) capital movements from one country to another
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The balance of payments (BoP) record the transactions in goods, services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world for a specified time period typically a year. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q: The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
- liquidity of assets
- branch expansion
- merger of banks
- winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- RBI is regulator of Banks. It regulates the commercial banks in the matters of liquidity of assets, branch expansion, etc. One could think that merger might come under CCI only but it comes both under CCI and RBI. RBI issued order to windup few banks in recent past. (Sahara India Financial Corp (SIFCL), the para banking arm of Sahara India Pariwar, Siddharth Cooperative Bank, some Banks from Gujarat). Implied from deposit insurance and credit guarantee corporation (DICGC) scheme. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q: An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the
a) market rate of interest is likely to fall
b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy
d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- An increase in bank rate generally implies an increase in Return on Investment. In easy money policy, central bank provides money at a cheaper rate so that market supply can increase. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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