UPSC Prelims 2024 Answer Key with Detailed Explanation

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As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2024 approaches, candidates are eagerly preparing to showcase their knowledge and skills. In this blog, we are pleased to present the UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1.

UPSC Prelims 2024 Exam

The UPSC Prelims exam is one of the most challenging stages in the Civil Services Examination, acting as a gateway to the coveted positions in the Indian Administrative Services (IAS), Indian Police Services (IPS), and other central civil services. The exam is scheduled to take place on June 16, 2024, and will consist of two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam will be conducted from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM.’

UPSC Prelims 2024 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement–I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation:
Statement-I is correct :
The Sahel region, which spans across several countries in Africa including Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Chad, and Mauritania, has been experiencing significant instability and security challenges. These challenges include armed conflict involving extremist groups, intercommunal violence, and struggles over resources like land and water. The United Nations and other international organisations have been actively involved in efforts to stabilise the region.

Statement-II correct:
The Sahel region has witnessed a number of military takeovers or coups d’état in recent years. For example, Mali experienced military coups in 2012, 2020, and 2021, resulting in political instability and complicating efforts to address security challenges. Niger has also faced military coups in its history, with the most recent one occurring in 2021. These coups have contributed to the overall instability in the region.

Q2. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explain Stateme-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Statement 1 is incorrect:
After India lifted retaliatory import duties on US apples in September, imports from the US surged dramatically, increasing 40-fold in just three months. This policy reversal has reignited optimism among traders, aiming to recapture lost market share. Previously, US apple imports had reached a peak of over 7 million boxes in the 2017-18 season but sharply declined to 50,000 boxes by the 2022–23 season due to tariff disputes. The removal of duties signifies a significant recovery for US apple exporters, highlighting the impact of trade policies on agricultural imports and market dynamics between the two countries.

Statement 2 is correct:
In India, the import of Genetically Modified (GM) food is regulated under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. According to the law, any GM food or genetically engineered product intended for import must receive approval from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), which is the competent authority mandated to assess the safety of such products for human consumption and the environment. Without approval from the GEAC, the import of GM food into India is prohibited to ensure compliance with food safety standards and to safeguard public health and environmental concerns.

Q3. With reference for the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Statement 1 is correct:
When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside over the proceedings. This rule ensures impartiality and fairness in the process of considering such a significant resolution. According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, Rule 14 specifically states that during such proceedings, the Deputy Speaker or another member elected by the House shall preside. This measure prevents any conflict of interest and maintains the integrity of parliamentary proceedings during deliberations on the Speaker’s removal.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
During the consideration of a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker does have the right to speak. According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, Rule 14(3) specifies that while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker may participate in the debate and speak on the matter. However, the Speaker does not have the right to preside over the proceedings during this time. This ensures that the Speaker can present their views and defend themselves before the House decides on the resolution.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration, the Speaker shall be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. This rule is in line with parliamentary conventions where the Speaker, who presides over the proceedings impartially, does participate in voting except in the case of a tie. The rationale behind this practice is to uphold the Speaker’s neutrality and ensure fairness in the process of deciding their removal, allowing all Members of Parliament (MPs) to freely express their views and make a decision without the Speaker’s vote influencing the outcome.

Q4. With reference to the Indian Parliament consider the following statements:

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
A hill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 nd 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: B

Statement 1 is correct:
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha does indeed lapse upon its dissolution. When the Lok Sabha (the House of the People) is dissolved, all pending bills that were introduced but not yet passed by both Houses of Parliament cease to exist. They need to be reintroduced in the newly constituted Lok Sabha if the government wishes to pursue them further. This process ensures that legislative matters start afresh with each new Lok Sabha term.

Statement 2 is correct:
According to the rules governing the Indian Parliament, a bill that has been passed by the Lok Sabha (House of the People) but is pending in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This means that if the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the bill is passed by the Rajya Sabha and receives the President’s assent, the bill ceases to exist in its current form. After the dissolution, the bill would need to be reintroduced in the newly constituted Lok Sabha if the government wishes to pursue its passage.

Constitution of India

Statement 3 is incorrect:

A bill in regard to which the President of India has notified his/her intention to summon the Houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) to a joint sitting does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. According to Article 108 of the Constitution of India, if after a bill has been passed by one House (either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and transmitted to the other House, it is rejected or not passed within six months, the President may summon both Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill.
Therefore, the intention of the President to summon a joint sitting persists even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved. The bill would be considered in the joint sitting convened by the President, comprising members of both Houses, regardless of the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Constitution of India, Article 108

Q5. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: C

Statement 1 is incorrect:
Prorogation of a House of Parliament in India is indeed a function that requires the advice of the Council of Ministers. Prorogation refers to the formal ending of a session of Parliament by the President of India on the advice of the Council of Ministers. It marks the end of a session without dissolving the House itself, allowing for the resumption of the session at a later date with a new agenda. This process is crucial for managing the legislative calendar and conducting parliamentary business in an organised manner.

Constitution of India, Article 85

Statement 2 is correct:
Prorogation of a House of Parliament in India is typically done after the House has been adjourned sine die (which means adjourned indefinitely). However, there is no strict requirement that prorogation can only occur after such adjournment. The President of India, on the advice of the Council of Ministers, can prorogue a House even when it is in session. Prorogation ends the current session of Parliament, while adjournment sine dies ends a sitting without specifying a date for the next meeting.

Constitution of India, Article 85

Statement 3 is correct:
The dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament in India, is indeed done by the President of India. However, this action is typically done on the advice of the Council of Ministers (the Cabinet) headed by the Prime Minister. It is a standard practice in parliamentary democracies for the President to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matters of dissolution of the lower house, except in exceptional circumstances where the President may exercise discretion.

Constitution of India

Q6. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Statement 1 is correct:
The European Parliament has approved the Net-Zero Industry Act to bolster net-zero technology production within the European Union. This legislation aims for Europe to fulfil 40% of its net-zero technology requirements by 2030 and secure a 15% share of the global market for such technologies. This ambitious goal underscores the EU’s commitment to leading in sustainable technology development and adoption, aligning with broader climate goals and economic strategies to advance clean energy and reduce carbon emissions. The law mandates sustainability and resilience criteria for national support schemes promoting technologies like solar panels and heat pumps. Funding will be sourced from national Emission Trading System revenues and through the Strategic Technologies for Europe Platform (STEP), contributing to the development of a European Sovereignty fund.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The European Union (EU) has set a target to become the first climate-neutral continent by 2050, not by 2040. The EU’s Climate Law establishes milestones, including reducing net greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55% by 2030. While the EU is committed to developing its clean technology sector significantly, including renewable energy, industrial decarbonization, and energy storage, the specific goal of achieving carbon neutrality by 2040 is not officially stated. The EU’s current trajectory aligns with reaching carbon neutrality by 2050, with interim targets and policy measures aimed at achieving this long-term objective.

Q7. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Statement 1 is incorrect:
Venezuela has not achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis, nor has it succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. The country continues to face severe economic challenges, including hyperinflation, a collapsed economy, shortages of basic goods, and significant political instability under President Nicolás Maduro’s government. These conditions have led millions of Venezuelans to emigrate, seeking better living conditions and opportunities abroad. The economic situation remains dire, exacerbated by international sanctions and internal mismanagement, making any substantial recovery unlikely in the immediate future. Therefore, the statement suggesting a rapid recovery and prevention of emigration is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct:
Venezuela is currently the country with the largest proven oil reserves in the world, with an estimated 300 billion barrels of oil. According to the 2022 BP Statistical Review of World Energy, Venezuela has more proven oil reserves than any other country in the world. Venezuela’s 304 billion barrels of proved reserves just edges out Saudi Arabia’s 298 billion barrels. Both are far ahead of U.S. proved reserves of 69 billion barrels. But the Top 3 oil producers in 2021 were the U.S. at 11.1 million barrels per day (BPD), Russia at 10.5 million BPD, and Saudi Arabia at 9.4 million BPD. Venezuela was way down the list, at #25 with 605,000 BPD.

Q8: With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Statement 1 is correct:
The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is a a Central Sector Scheme where the Central Government provides 100% funding. This funding covers various components of the programme such as computerization of land records, digitization of cadastral maps, integration of registration processes, and implementation of new technologies like Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) or Bhu-Aadhar. The objective is to develop a modern, comprehensive, and transparent land record management system across the country to enhance efficiency, reduce disputes, and facilitate better governance related to land resources.

Statement 2 is correct:
The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) aims to modernise land records management across India. One of the key components of this program is the digitization of cadastral maps. Cadastral maps are essential in land administration as they delineate and provide detailed information about land parcels, boundaries, and ownership. By digitising cadastral maps, the program enhances accessibility, accuracy, and transparency in land record management. This digitization effort helps in reducing land disputes, optimising land use, and facilitating efficient governance related to land administration.
Therefore, the statement accurately reflects one of the objectives and achievements under the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme.

Statement 3 is correct:
The DILRMP includes an initiative aimed at addressing the linguistic barriers in land governance. Specifically, the program has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local languages to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. The linguistic barriers pose serious challenges for access of information and usage in understandable form. In order to address the problem of linguistic barriers in land governance, the Government with the technical support of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution. Pilot test is underway in 8 States – Bihar, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Puducherry, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nādu, Tripura and UT of Jammu & Kashmir.

Q9. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.

2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The PMSMA guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women during their second and third trimesters of pregnancy. This includes free antenatal check-ups, diagnostics, and medications provided on the 9th of every month at designated government health facilities. The aim is to ensure that pregnant women receive essential healthcare services to monitor their health and the health of their unborn child.
Post-Delivery Health Care Services: However, the statement incorrectly mentions that the scheme guarantees six months of post-delivery health care services in any government health facility. This is not a part of the PMSMA’s objectives or provisions. The focus of PMSMA is primarily on antenatal care, ensuring that pregnant women receive necessary medical attention during pregnancy to reduce maternal and infant mortality rates.

Statement 2 is correct:
Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA), private sector healthcare providers, including specialists like OBGYNs, radiologists, and physicians, are encouraged to volunteer their services at nearby government health facilities. This collaboration aims to supplement the efforts of the government sector in providing antenatal care services to pregnant women.
The PMSMA seeks to engage private sector practitioners to ensure that pregnant women receive comprehensive antenatal check-ups, diagnostics, and appropriate management of conditions like anaemia, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and gestational diabetes. This collaboration helps in reaching more pregnant women, especially in areas where government healthcare infrastructure may be limited or inadequate.
Thus, the participation of private sector healthcare providers is a key feature of the PMSMA, contributing to its goal of improving maternal and child health outcomes through enhanced antenatal care services.

Q10. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme in 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 уeагs.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1,3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 4

Answer: B

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The correct entry age group for enrolment in the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana is 18 to 40 years. This scheme is designed to provide social security benefits to unorganised sector workers in India. It ensures a minimum assured pension to eligible beneficiaries after the age of 60, with contributions shared equally between the subscriber and the central government.

Statement 2 is correct :
Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, beneficiaries must make contributions based on their age at the time of joining. The contribution amount varies with age; younger beneficiaries contribute less per month compared to older ones, ensuring affordability and sustainability of the pension scheme.

Statement 3 is correct:
Under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana is assured a minimum pension of 3,000 per month upon reaching the age of 60 years. This pension is guaranteed irrespective of the amount contributed by the subscriber during their working years. The scheme aims to provide financial security to unorganised sector workers during their retirement years.

Statement 4 is incorrect:
If any Unorganised worker subscribes to the scheme and has paid regular contribution up to the age of 60 years, he will get a minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000/-. After his/ her death, the spouse will receive a monthly family pension which is 50 % of the pension. This means that if the subscriber passes away during the period of receiving the pension, their spouse, not unmarried daughters, will be eligible to receive a family pension as per the scheme’s provisions.

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

Statement 1 is not correct: Provision did not come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct: This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. (Correct Statement)
Statement 3 is correct: There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Q12: Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 are-correct?

1. This was a joint military Exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terroriam operations was a goal of this operation. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

The ninth edition of Joint Military exercise “Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023” commenced today in Aundh (Pune). The exercise is being conducted from 16th to 29th November 2023. The Indian contingent, of 120 personnel, is being represented mainly by troops from the MARATHA LIGHT INFANTRY Regiment. The Sri Lankan side is being represented by personnel from 53 Infantry Division. 15 personnel from Indian Air Force and five personnel from Sri Lankan Air Force are also participating in the exercise.

The aim of the exercise is to jointly rehearse conduct of Sub Conventional operations under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter. The Scope of the exercise includes synergising joint responses during counter-terrorist operations. Both sides will practice tactical actions such as raid, search and destroy missions, heliborne operations, etc. In addition, Army Martial Arts Routine (AMAR), combat reflex shooting and Yoga will also form part of the exercise curriculum.

Q13. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Answer: C

A Writ of Prohibition is a legal order issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to law. Let’s analyze the options provided:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action: This is incorrect because a Writ of Prohibition is not typically directed at individual government officers but at courts or tribunals.

(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition: This is incorrect because a Writ of Prohibition does not pertain to legislative actions but rather to judicial or quasi-judicial proceedings.

(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case: This is correct. A Writ of Prohibition can be issued by a higher court to a lower court to prohibit it from continuing proceedings in a particular case, typically because the lower court is acting beyond its jurisdiction or contrary to legal principles.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy: This describes a different legal action known as a Writ of Mandamus, which is used to compel a public authority to perform its duty in accordance with the law. It is not the purpose of a Writ of Prohibition.

Therefore, based on the options provided, the correct answer is:

(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case

Q14. Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

“Statement 1 is not correct: It is the PRESIDENT who recognizes and declares the community of the state as a scheduled tribe.
Statement 2 is correct- A community declared as a scheduled tribe in a state need not to be so in another state.

Q15. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

“Statement 1 is not correct: Art. 112- ((1) The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the “annual financial statement”.
Statement 2 is correct: At the union level no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Q16. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav
(b) Nalin Mehta
(c) Shashi Tharoor
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Answer: D

“Why Bharat Matters” is Jaishankar’s second book, following “The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World,” where he analysed India’s geopolitical strategy since independence, along with its historical statecraft and the impact of colonisation.
In “Why Bharat Matters,” Jaishankar delves deeper into India’s foreign policy landscape, emphasising the country’s cultural values and global ambitions. He explores the significance of India’s historical heritage, particularly drawing insights from the epic Ramayana. The book discusses India’s evolving role in the global arena, highlighting the importance of transparent digital realms, resilient supply chains, and strategic economic decisions.
Jaishankar also addresses key initiatives implemented by the Indian government, such as ‘SAGAR’ (Security and Growth for All in the Region) and ‘Neighbourhood First,’ showcasing India’s emergence as a positive force on the global stage. Through a blend of tradition, heritage, and modernity, Jaishankar portrays India as a confident and committed nation poised to play a significant role in international affairs.

Q17. Consider the following pairs:

Country : Reason for being in the news

1. Argentina : Worst economic crisis
2. Sudan : War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
3. Turkey : Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

Answer: B

Statement 1 is correct:
Argentina is in the news due to experiencing its worst economic crisis in two decades. Key indicators of this crisis include an annual inflation rate of 287% as of March 2024, one of the highest globally, leading to severe poverty, widespread strikes, and protests. The government has implemented drastic austerity measures, including slashing public sector wages and devaluing the peso by over 50%, causing basic goods prices to skyrocket. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has endorsed these measures, despite their harsh impact on the population, to restore macroeconomic stability and secure the release of critical bailout funds.

Statement 2 is correct:
Sudan has been in the news due to intense conflict between the country’s army and paramilitary forces, specifically the Rapid Support Forces (RSF). This violent clash, which erupted in the capital, Khartoum, stems from heightened tensions between the military, led by Lt. Gen. Abdel Fattah al-Burhan, and the RSF, commanded by Mohamed Hamdan Dagalo, known as Hemedti. The disagreement centres on the transition to civilian rule and the integration of the RSF into the regular army. This power struggle has resulted in significant casualties and exacerbated Sudan’s political and economic instability, drawing international concern and calls for an immediate ceasefire.

Statement 3 is incorrect :
Turkey has not rescinded its membership in NATO. However, Turkey has been in the news for various reasons, including its complex relationships within the NATO alliance, its geopolitical manoeuvres, and its internal political dynamics. As a key NATO member, Turkey’s actions and policies often draw international attention, especially regarding its dealings with other member countries, its stance on regional conflicts, and its domestic political changes. Misunderstandings or miscommunications about Turkey’s position in NATO might arise, but as of now, Turkey remains an active member of the alliance.

Q18. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Statement 1 is correct:
The Suez-Mediterranean (SUMED) Pipeline is indeed a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil shipments to Europe. It provides an alternative transportation route for oil from the Persian Gulf countries to Europe, bypassing the Suez Canal. This pipeline plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and reliability of oil supplies to Europe, especially during times of geopolitical tensions or disruptions in maritime shipping routes through the Suez Canal.
The SUMED Pipeline has a capacity of 2.5 million barrels per day (bpd) and is a vital component of the global oil transportation infrastructure, facilitating the movement of crude oil from the Red Sea coast to the Mediterranean coast of Egypt. It helps in diversifying oil export routes and reducing shipping risks associated with the narrow and sometimes congested Suez Canal.

Statement 2 is Correct:
The Suez Canal and SUMED pipeline are located in Egypt and connect the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. The SUMED pipeline transports crude oil north through Egypt and has a capacity of 2.5 million barrels per day. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is between the Horn of Africa and the Middle East, connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea. Most exports of petroleum and natural gas from the Persian Gulf to Europe and North America pass through multiple chokepoints, including the Suez Canal or the SUMED pipeline and both the Bab el-Mandeb and the Strait of Hormuz.

Q19. Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Statement 1 is correct:
The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form due to its unique geographical and meteorological characteristics. The surrounding arid and semi-arid regions, such as the Arabian Peninsula and northeastern Africa, contribute to the low precipitation levels in the Red Sea area. Additionally, the prevailing wind patterns over the region do not bring significant moisture from the surrounding landmasses or oceans, further limiting precipitation. As a result, the Red Sea remains one of the driest regions globally, with precipitation occurrences being extremely rare and minimal.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Water does enter the Red Sea from rivers, albeit in limited quantities. Several small rivers and seasonal streams in the surrounding regions, such as in Saudi Arabia and Sudan, drain into the Red Sea.
Here are some of the major rivers that drain into the Red Sea:
Nile River: Although primarily associated with the Mediterranean, the Nile River also has some tributaries that flow into the Red Sea through Sudan.
Barka River: Also known as the Baraka River, it flows through the Barka Valley in Eritrea and drains into the Red Sea.
Hadas River: Located in northern Eritrea, the Hadas River is another watercourse that eventually reaches the Red Sea.
Anseba River: This river flows through central Eritrea, and its waters also reach the Red Sea.
Wadi Gasus: A wadi (seasonal river) in Eritrea that flows into the Red Sea during the rainy season.
Aqiq River: Located in western Saudi Arabia, the Aqiq River flows into the Red Sea near the city of Yanbu.
Wadi Arar: A seasonal river in Saudi Arabia that drains into the Red Sea near the city of Duba.
Wadi Sha’ib: Another seasonal river in Saudi Arabia that empties into the Red Sea

Q20. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Answer: D

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) in the United States, the largest source of sulfur dioxide (SO2) emissions is from fossil fuel combustion at electric power plants. These plants burn coal or oil containing sulfur compounds, which are released into the atmosphere as sulfur dioxide during combustion. This contributes significantly to air pollution and acid rain formation.
Other sources of sulfur dioxide emissions include industrial processes (e.g., metal processing and paper manufacturing), residential heating with fossil fuels, and transportation (especially marine vessels using high-sulfur fuels)

Q21. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023.

(a)One
(b)Two
(c)Three
(d) Four

Answer: D

“Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past — 1953, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — under Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

The delimitation of constituencies for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies is to be carried out on the basis of the first Census after 2026. The 2021 Census was originally postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic and subsequently due to delays on the part of the Central government.”

Q22. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 2 and 3
(b)1, 2 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d)2,3 and 4

Answer: A

The Seventy-First Amendment to the Indian Constitution included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the Eighth Schedule.
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 which came into force in 2004.

Q23. Consider the following pairs:

Party – Its Leader

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh – Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party – C. Rajagopalachari
3 Congress for Democracy – Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party – Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: B

First match was correct : After consultation with Shri GolwalkarGuruji of RSS Shri Mukherjee founded Bharatiya Jana Sangh on 21st Oct. 1951 at Delhi.
Second match was incorrect : Socialist Party has been the name of several political parties in India, all of which have their roots in the Congress Socialist Party during the freedom struggle.
Third match was correct : The Congress for Democracy (CFD) was an Indian political party founded in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram. It was formed after Jagjivan Ram, Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna, and Nandini Satpathy left the Indian National Congress of Indira Gandhi and denounced her rule during the Indian Emergency.
Fourth match was incorrect : The Swatantra Party was an Indian classical liberal political party that existed from 1959 to 1974. It was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in reaction to what he felt was the Jawaharlal Nehru-dominated Indian National Congress’s increasingly socialist and statist outlook.

Q24. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Statement 1 is correct : Part IXA of the Constitution was inserted by the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992. It contains provisions for local self government at the urban level.

Statement 2 is correct :
Part XVIII of the Indian constitution envisages the following three emergencies: General Emergency (also called national emergency) Break-down of constitutional machinery in the states -(also called state emergency) Financial Emergency.

Statement 3 is correct : Part XX of the Constitution of India, Article 368, outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution. It gives Parliament the power to add to, change, or repeal any provision of the Constitution, but only in accordance with the procedure outlined in the article. The procedure is designed to protect the Constitution’s sanctity and limit Parliament’s arbitrary power.

25. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
c)Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
d)Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Answer: C

Interstate trade and commerce, Establishment of standards of weight and measure, etc
Interstate migration comes under the seventh schedule of the Constitution, List I (Union List),
Domestic as well as foreign companies are liable to pay corporate tax under the Income-tax Act. and comes in Union list.

Q26. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of Indis, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy.

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d)Article 21

Answer: D

In India, the right to privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. The most recent affirmation of this right came in a historic 2017 decision of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs. Union of India

Q27. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 3 only

Answer: D

Statement 1 is correct : As the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee, they oversee military affairs and head the Department of Military Affairs.

Statement 2 is incorrect : The CDS holds the power to issue directives to the three chiefs of staff.
Notably, he does not possess command authority over any specific armed force.

Statement 3 is correct : The Chief of Defence Staff is a four-star officer who serves as the chief advisor to the Ministry of Defence in all services

Q28. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called

(a) Operation Sankalp
(b) Operation Maitri
(c)Operation Sadbhavana
(d)Operation Madad

Answer: C

Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill) is an initiative by the Indian Army in Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh to address the needs of people affected by terrorism, primarily sponsored by Pakistan.The operation includes running Army Goodwill Schools, infrastructure development projects, and educational tours for children in remote areas.

Q29. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a)Canada and the United States of America
(b) Chile and Argentina
(c) China and India
(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Answer: A

The longest international land border between two countries is the border between Canada and the United States, which stretches 8,893 kilometers (5,525 miles). This border includes the boundary between Canada and the continental U.S. as well as the border between Alaska and northern Canada.

Q30. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1.Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2.Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which ia sub-judice.

Select the anewer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Statement 1 is correct : The Committee of Privileges finally recommended the constitution of an Ethics Committee during the 13th Lok Sabha. The late Speaker, G M C Balayogi, constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in 2000, which became a permanent part of the House only in 2015.

Statement 2 is incorrect : Any person may make a complaint to the Committee regarding alleged unethical behaviour or breach of the Code of Conduct by a member or alleged incorrect information of a member’s interests. (2) The Committee may also take up matters suo motu. (3) Members may also refer cases to the Committee.

Statement 3 is correct : The Committee shall not take up any matter which is sub judice and the decision of the Committee as to whether such matter is or is not sub judice shall for the purposes of this rule be treated as final.

Q31. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer: D

Dr. Sachidanand Sinha was the first president of the Constituent Assembly. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected its president.

Q32. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Statement 1 is correct : It provided for the establishment of an all-Indian Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. The act divided the powers between centre and units in terms of three lists: federal list, the provincial list and the concurrent list.

Statement 2 is NOT correct : Dyarchy was introduced at the central level, key subjects like defence and foreign affairs were under the direct control of the Governor General.

Q33. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara
(b) Natyashastra
(c) Madhyama-vyayoga
(d) Mahabhashya

Answer: C

Bhasa ( c. 7th century) was a Sanskrit poetician believed to be contemporaneous with Daṇḍin. He is noted for writing a work called the Kavyalankara

Q34. Sanghabhuti an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
(b) Visuddhimagga
(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
(d) Lalitavistara

Answer: C

Sarvastivada Vinaya refers to one of the schools of philosophy in Buddhism. Sanghabhuti was an author of commnetary written on it

Q35. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4.Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: B

Shantinektan and Sacred Ensembles of Hoysals in 2023

Rani Ki vav in year 2014 in Gujarat, Mahabodhi temple complex in year 2002 in Bihar.

Q36. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament pay amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Not with standing anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.

Q37. Consider the following countries:

1. Italy
2. Japan
3. Nigeria
4. South Korea
5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1,3 and 5
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 5 only

Answer: A

Population above 65%

Italy ( 22.8 % ) , Japan ( 28.2 % ) and South Korea ( 15.1 %)

Q38. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1,3 and 4

Answer: C

Statement 1 is correct : Article 109 of the Indian Constitution outlines a special procedure for passing money bills:

Statement 2 is correct : Money bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President

Statement 3 is correct : Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend such Bill but can only recommend changes in the Bill.

Statement 4 is incorrect : Lok Sabha doesn’t have to accept amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes to a Money Bill, but can’t reject or amend it

39. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

Army/ Airforce/ Navy
1.Brigadier Air Commodore Commander
2. Major General Air Vice Marshal Vice Admiral
3. Major Squadron Leader Lieutenant Commander
4. Lieutenant Colonel Group captain captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only

Answer: B

1. In the Indian Armed Forces, the rank of air commodore is equivalent to a brigadier in the Indian Army, and a commodore in the Indian Navy:

2. In the Indian Armed Forces, the ranks of major general, air vice marshal, and rear admiral are equivalent:

3. In the Indian Armed Forces, the ranks of Lieutenant Colonel, Group Captain, and Captain are equivalent across the Army, Navy, and Air Force:

Q40. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, Act in 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC ACT in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was constituted as a statutory advisory body by an Act of Parliament under the NEC Act, 1971

Members include :

Comprises governors and chief ministers of constituent states and three members nominated by the President. Union home minister is the ex-officio chairman and the minister of state, ministry of development of north eastern region (DoNER) is the ex-officio vice-chairman of the NEC

Q41. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Statement I is correct: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement II is correct: The US government debt is not backed by any hard assets but only by the faith of the government. This statement is correct. US Treasury Bonds are considered safe investments because investors have faith in the US government’s ability to repay its debt. However, unlike some other countries, the US does not back its debt with specific assets (such as gold reserves).

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Q42 Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

A syndicated loan is a form of financing that is offered by a group of lenders. Syndicated loans arise when a project requires too large a loan for a single lender or when a project needs a specialized lender with expertise in a specific asset class.

Statement I is correct:
Loan syndication occurs when a single borrower requires a large loan ($1 million or more) that a single lender may be unable to provide, or when the loan is outside the scope of the lender’s risk exposure.

Lenders then form a syndicate that allows them to spread the risk and share in the financial opportunity.

Statement II is not correct:
Lenders are referred to as a syndicate, which works together to provide funds for a single borrower. The borrower can be a corporation, a large project, or a sovereign government. The loan can involve a fixed amount of funds, a credit line, or a combination of the two.

Q43. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: D

“Reserve Bank defines CBDC as the legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form. It is the same as a sovereign currency and is exchangeable one-to-one at par (1:1) with the fiat currency9. While money in digital form is predominant in India—for example in bank accounts recorded as book entries on commercial bank ledgers—a CBDC would differ from existing digital money available to the public because a CBDC would be a liability of the Reserve Bank, and not of a commercial bank.
The features of CBDC include:
CBDC is sovereign currency issued by Central Banks in alignment with their monetary policy (Statement 1 is correct)
It appears as a liability on the central bank’s balance sheet (Statement 2 is correct)
Must be accepted as a medium of payment, legal tender, and a safe store of value by all citizens, enterprises, and government agencies.
Freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash (Statement 4 is correct)
Fungible legal tender for which holders need not have a bank account
Expected to lower the cost of issuance of money and transactions
The digital rupee’s design does not inherently provide insurance against inflation. (Statement 4 is not correct)”

Q44. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Answer: B

Gautama Buddha was known by various epithets in ancient India. The ones listed in the question are:

Nayaputta: This term is more commonly associated with Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, rather than Gautama Buddha.
Shakyamuni: This means “Sage of the Shakyas” and is a well-known epithet of Gautama Buddha, reflecting his lineage from the Shakya clan.
Tathagata: This is another common epithet used by Gautama Buddha to refer to himself, meaning “Thus-Gone” or “Thus-Come.”

Q45. Consider the following information:

Archaeological Site – State Description
1.Chandraketugarh Odisha – trading Port Town
2.Inamgaon Maharashtra – Chalcolithic site
3. Mangadu Kerala – Megalithic site
4. Salihundam Andhra Pradesh – Rock-cut cave Shrines

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Answer: B

Chandraketugarh, located in the Ganges Delta, is actually consists of a cluster of villages in the 24 Parganas district of West Bengal, about 35 kilometres north-east of Kolkata.

Salihundam, is a village and panchayat in Gara Mandal of Srikakulam district in Andhra Pradesh. It is a historically important Buddhist monument of ancient Kalinga and a major tourist attraction It is a village lying on top of the hill on the south bank of the Vamsadhara River.

Not Rock-Cut: Unlike other famous Buddhist sites like Ajanta and Ellora in Maharashtra, which are renowned for their rock-cut caves and intricate carvings directly into the rock face, Salihundam features structural remains that are built rather than carved from the rock.
Surface Structures: The stupas, viharas, and chaityas at Salihundam are constructed from bricks and stone, indicating different architectural methods compared to rock-cut techniques.

Q46. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal? 18th Century

(a) Krishnadevaraya
(b) Narasimha Saluva
(c) Muhammad Shah III
(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Answer: A

Sri Krishnadevaraya in 1510 signed a treaty with the Portuguese. It permitted Albuquerque to construct forts in Bhatkal.

Q47. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Ryotwari Settlement:

The Ryotwari system was introduced later, primarily in Madras (now Tamil Nadu) and Bombay (now Maharashtra) presidencies by Thomas Munro and Alexander Read, not by Cornwallis.
In the Ryotwari system, the revenue was directly collected from the peasants (ryots) by the government.
However, under this system, peasants were not explicitly exempted from revenue payments in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. They were still liable to pay the revenue, and this often led to severe hardships during poor agricultural years.
Permanent Settlement:

The Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.
Under this system, the Zamindars were made the permanent owners of the land in exchange for a fixed revenue to be paid to the state.
If a Zamindar failed to pay the fixed revenue by the due date, his Zamindari could be auctioned off to recover the dues, effectively removing him from his Zamindari.
Given these explanations:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Ryotwari system did not exempt peasants from paying revenue in cases of bad harvests or natural calamities.
Statement 2 is correct because under the Permanent Settlement, Zamindars could be removed from their land if they failed to pay the revenue on time.

Q48. Consider the following statements:

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Statement 1 is not correct: The Upanishads, especially some like the Chandogya Upanishad and the Katha Upanishad, contain allegorical stories or parables to convey philosophical teachings.

Statement 2 is correct: Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas: This statement implies that the Upanishads are older than the Puranas.
In general chronological terms:

The Upanishads are considered to have been composed between 800 BCE to 200 BCE, though some may be slightly later.
The Puranas, on the other hand, were composed much later, starting from around the 3rd century CE and continuing into the medieval period.

Q49. Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the International Grains Council.
– True: India is indeed a member of the International Grains Council (IGC). The IGC is an intergovernmental organization that aims to further international cooperation in grains trade and to improve market transparency. India, being a significant player in the global grains market, is a member of this council.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is not mandatory for a country to be a member of the International Grain Council (IGC) for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Q50. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance
(b) Durga puja
(c) Garba dance
(d) Kumbh mela

Answer: C

Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage inscribed ‘Garba of Gujarat’ on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity during its 18th session, taking place in Kasane, Botswana from 5 to 9 December 2023.

The inclusion of Garba now makes it India’s 15th inscription on the List.

Q51. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

1. the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
2. the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
3. the birth rate minus death rate.
4. the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Ans: d

“Option (d) is correct: Total fertility is the mean number of children a woman would have by age 50 if she survived to age 50 and were subject, throughout her life, to the age-specific fertility rates observed in a given year. The total fertility is expressed as the number of children per woman.

Q52. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans: D

“Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. E.g. Primary dealers. The standalone primary dealers are either subsidiaries of scheduled commercial banks Indian subsidiaries of entities incorporated abroad or companies incorporated under companies act 1956 and are registered as Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).

Statement 2 is correct: In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).

Statement 3 is correct: In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Q53. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities? 

1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

In India, the entities that can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Let’s evaluate each option:

Insurance Companies:

Insurance companies in India are allowed to invest in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities as part of their investment portfolio. Therefore, they can trade in these securities.

Pension Funds:

Pension funds, such as the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) and other pension funds regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), are permitted to invest in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities. Hence, they can trade in these securities.

Retail Investors:

Retail investors, which include individual investors, are also allowed to invest and trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities through various platforms, including stock exchanges and electronic platforms like NSE and BSE.

Based on the above analysis:

Insurance Companies (1) and Pension Funds (2) are eligible to trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities.

Retail Investors (3) are also eligible to trade in these securities.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

All three entities—Insurance Companies, Pension Funds, and Retail Investors—can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities in India.

Q54. Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3 only

Ans: d

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs): These are financial instruments. ETFs represent a basket of securities (such as stocks, bonds, or commodities) and are traded on stock exchanges. (Option 1 is correct)

Motor vehicles: Motor vehicles are not considered financial instruments. They are tangible assets used for transportation and not part of the financial markets. (Option 2 is not correct)

Currency swap: A currency swap is indeed a financial instrument. It involves exchanging cash flows denominated in different currencies. (Option 3 is correct)

Q55. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Economic activity	Sector
1.	Storage of agricultural produce	Secondary
2.	Dairy farm	Primary
3.	Mineral exploration	Tertiary
4.	Weaving cloth	Secondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Ans: b

Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Storage of agricultural produce: This activity falls under the tertiary sector, which involves services related to storage, transportation, and distribution.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Dairy farming is a part of the primary sector, which includes agriculture and allied activities.

Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Mineral exploration is a part of the primary sector as well, as it involves extracting natural resources.

Pair 4 is correctly matched: Weaving cloth is an industrial activity related to manufacturing, which falls under the secondary sector.

Q56. Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans: C

The agricultural residues, corn grain, wastewater treatment sludge and wood mill waste are feedstock for producing sustainable aviation fuel. Sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) can be made from renewable materials that aren’t based on petroleum. This includes things like food scraps, yard waste, wood, and fats/oils/greases, among other sources.

Q57. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Items	Category
1.	Farmer’s plough	Working capital
2.	Computer	Fixed capital
3.	Yarn used by the weaver	Fixed capital
4.	Petrol	Working capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Ans: b

Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Farmer’s plough- this falls under fixed capital. A plough is a durable asset used in agricultural production.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Computers are considered fixed capital. They are essential for various economic activities.

Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Yarn is part of the working capital. It is a short-term input used directly in the production process.

Pair 4 is correctly matched: Petrol is a working capital item. It is consumed during the production process.

Q58. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”?

1. Big data analytics
2. Cryptography
3. Metaverse
4. Virtual matrix

Ans: c

The concept described—”an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”—aligns closely with the definition of the “Metaverse.” Here’s a detailed explanation for each option:

(a) Big Data Analytics

Big data analytics involves the complex process of examining large and varied data sets (big data) to uncover hidden patterns, correlations, and insights. While it is crucial in processing and analyzing massive amounts of data, it does not pertain specifically to 3D virtual worlds or user interactions within them.

(b) Cryptography

Cryptography is the practice of securing information by transforming it into a secure format. This field is essential for maintaining privacy and security in digital communications and transactions but does not directly relate to creating or managing 3D virtual worlds.

(c) Metaverse

The Metaverse is a collective virtual shared space, created by the convergence of virtually enhanced physical reality and physically persistent virtual spaces, including the sum of all virtual worlds, augmented reality, and the Internet. This concept involves a fully immersive digital universe where millions of users can interact with each other and the environment in real-time. Users can own virtual property, engage in economic activities, and experience an interconnected virtual ecosystem. The idea of interoperability and user-owned virtual assets is central to the Metaverse.

(d) Virtual Matrix

The term “virtual matrix” is less commonly used and is more ambiguous. While it could theoretically refer to a network of virtual spaces, it lacks the specific connotations of interoperability, large-scale user interaction, and property rights that are essential to the concept described.

Given these definitions, the term “Metaverse” most appropriately fits the description provided, as it encapsulates the idea of a large-scale, interconnected virtual environment where users can interact, create, and own virtual items.

Q59. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: D

Statement 1 is not correct: Minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India is 5 billion rupees.

Statement 2 is not correct: Not less than 50 percent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals resident in India.

Q60. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

Statement 1 is correct: CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.

Statement 2 is not correct: Every company to which the provisions of Section 135 apply shall spend at least 2% of average net profits made during the three immediately preceding financial years.

Q61. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Statement 1 is Incorrect: RTGs are not miniature fission reactors. Fission reactors use a controlled nuclear chain reaction to generate heat, while RTGs rely on the natural radioactive decay of a material to produce heat through thermoelectric processes.

Statement 2 is Correct: RTGs are indeed used for powering the onboard systems of spacecraft, especially in situations where solar panels are impractical due to distance from the sun or unsuitable angles for sunlight collection. They provide a reliable and long-lasting power source for missions venturing far out into space.

Statement 3 is correct: Plutonium-238 is a common radioisotope used in RTGs due to its long half-life (the time it takes for half of the material to decay) and efficient heat generation.

Q62. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans:  d

Statement 1 is incorrect: Giant stars, despite their larger size and higher luminosity compared to dwarf stars, actually have shorter lifespans than dwarf stars. This is because giant stars burn through their nuclear fuel at a much faster rate due to their higher mass and temperature, leading to shorter lifespans.

Statement 2 is correct: Giant stars have greater rates of nuclear reactions compared to dwarf stars. This is because giant stars are more massive and have higher core temperatures, which results in faster nuclear fusion reactions. These reactions produce the energy that powers the star’s luminosity and determines its evolutionary path.

Q63. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

1. Nitric oxide
2. Nitrous oxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Nitrogen pentoxide

Ans: a

“Dilates blood vessels” refers to the process of widening or increasing the diameter of blood vessels.

Nitric oxide (NO) is a signaling molecule synthesized by endothelial cells lining blood vessels. It plays a crucial role in vasodilation, which is the widening of blood vessels, leading to increased blood flow to tissues and organs. This process helps regulate blood pressure and is important for cardiovascular health.

Q64. Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Ans: b

Statement 1 is incorrect: Radars are generally not used for identifying narcotics on passengers. This activity typically involves security screening equipment like X-ray machines, body scanners, and sniffer dogs trained to detect drugs.

Statement 2 is correct: Weather radars are commonly used for monitoring precipitation. These radars detect and track precipitation, such as rain, snow, and hail, by emitting radio waves and analyzing the reflected signals from precipitation particles.

Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the movement of animals, especially large birds and insects, during migration. Wildlife researchers and conservationists use radar systems to study migratory patterns and behaviors of various species.

Q65.Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Ans: d

Rafael: The Dassault Rafale is a fourth-generation multi-role fighter aircraft developed by France. It does not meet the criteria for fifth-generation status.

MiG-29: The Mikoyan MiG-29 is a fourth-generation air superiority fighter developed by Russia. While it has seen various upgrades over the years, it is not classified as a fifth-generation fighter.

Tejas MK-1: The HAL Tejas MK-1 is a fourth-generation lightweight multi-role fighter developed by India. It is not classified as a fifth-generation fighter.

Q66. In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

Hydrogels are versatile materials with a wide range of applications due to their ability to absorb and retain water.

Statement 1 is correct: Controlled drug delivery in patients: Hydrogels are commonly used in biomedical applications, including drug delivery systems. They can encapsulate drugs and release them gradually over time, making them suitable for controlled drug delivery.

Statement 2 and 3 are correct:

Hydrogels are generally not used in mobile air-conditioning systems. These systems rely on refrigeration principles and traditional components such as compressors and refrigerants, not hydrogel-based technologies.

Hydrogels are not typically used in the preparation of industrial lubricants. Lubricants usually require specific properties like viscosity, thermal stability, and lubrication effectiveness that are different from those provided by hydrogels.

Research is ongoing to use Hydrogels in air-conditioning system.

Q67. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

1. Hydrogen peroxide 
2. Hydronium 
3. Oxygen 
4. Water vapour

Ans: d

Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles use hydrogen as a fuel source, which undergoes a reaction within the fuel cell to produce electricity, water, and heat. The chemical reaction inside the fuel cell combines hydrogen (H₂) and oxygen (O₂) to produce electricity and water vapor (H₂O) as the main by-product emitted from the vehicle’s exhaust pipe.

Q68. Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

1. Irrigation of terraced crop fields 
2. Lift irrigation of cereal crops 
3. Long duration energy storage
4. Rainwater harvesting system

Ans: c

The term “pumped-storage hydropower” refers to a method of energy storage, which involves pumping water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir during times when electricity demand is low (typically during off-peak hours). Then, during times of high electricity demand, the stored water is released downhill through turbines to generate electricity.

Q69. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of:

1. Assisted reproductive technologies
2. Drug delivery nanotechnologies
3. Vaccine production technologies 
4. Wastewater treatment technologies

Ans: d

Membrane bioreactors combine biological treatment processes with membrane filtration to treat wastewater. They are used to separate solids and microorganisms from wastewater effluent, producing high-quality treated water that can be reused or discharged into the environment.

Q70. With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending

Obligations” are the instruments of: 

1. Bond market
2. Forex market
3. Money market
4. Stock market

Ans: c

CBLOs are short-term money market instruments that facilitate borrowing and lending of funds between participants against collateral, typically government securities. They are traded on electronic trading platforms and provide liquidity to market participants while ensuring security through collateralization.

Q71. The organisms Cicada, Froghopper and Pond kater are:

1. Birds
2. Fish 
3. Insects
4. Reptiles

Ans: c

Cicada: Cicadas are large, flying insects known for their distinctive buzzing or clicking sounds. They are known for their long life cycles and periodic emergences in large numbers (often referred to as “cicada broods”).

Froghopper: Froghoppers, also known as spittlebugs, are small insects that are often found in gardens and grassy areas. They are named for their ability to jump similar to frogs.

Pond skater: Pond skaters, also known as water striders, are insects that glide on the surface of water. They have long legs that allow them to move effortlessly on the water’s surface tension.

Q72. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans: a

Statement 1 is correct: Chewing gums often contain synthetic polymers such as polyethylene and polyvinyl acetate as gum bases. When discarded improperly, these gums do not biodegrade easily and can contribute to environmental pollution, especially in urban areas.

Statement 2 is correct: Traditional chewing gums are made using synthetic polymers like plastic as their gum base. This plastic content makes them resistant to degradation and contributes to their persistence in the environment.

Because Chewing gum contains plastic as gum, they are not biodegradable and is a source of environmental pollution.

Q73. Consider the following pairs:

Serial No.	Country	Animal found in its natural habitat
1.	Brazil	Indri
2.	Indonesia	Elk
3.	Madagascar	Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Ans: d

Pair 1 incorrect: The Indri (Indri indri) is actually native to Madagascar, not Brazil. Therefore, this pair is incorrect.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Elk (Cervus canadensis) are not native to Indonesia. They are primarily found in North America. Therefore, this pair is also incorrect.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Bonobos (Pan paniscus) are native to the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar. Therefore, this pair is incorrect.

Q74. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

Ans: a

Statement 1 is incorrect: The World Toilet Organization is an independent global non-profit organization. It collaborates with the United Nations on sanitation issues but is not a formal UN agency.

Statement 2 is correct: The World Toilet Organization organizes the World Toilet Summit and promotes World Toilet Day (observed on November 19 each year) to raise awareness about sanitation issues globally. The World Toilet College is also an initiative to provide training and education related to sanitation.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While the WTO works towards ending open defecation, its primary focus isn’t mainly granting funds. It emphasizes advocacy, capacity building, and promoting sustainable sanitation practices through education and training programs.

Q75. Consider the following statements:

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

Statement 1 is correct: Lions are known for their ability to breed throughout the year, unlike many other big cats that have specific breeding seasons.

Statement 2 is correct: Cheetahs communicate primarily through vocalizations that include purring, growling, and chirping sounds. They do not roar like lions, tigers, or leopards.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Male leopards do use scent marking, including spraying urine and rubbing scent glands on trees, rocks, and other objects, to establish and maintain their territories.

Q76. Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”? 

(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience. 

(b) It is an International alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry. 

(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely. 

(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products. 

Ans: a

“100 Million Farmers” is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

Organic animal husbandry, fertilizer trade and global open market are not among the clearly stated objectives. 

Q77. Consider the following: 

1. Battery storage  

2. Biomass generators 

3 Fuel cells  

4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units 

How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Ans: d

A Distributed Energy Resource (DER) is a small-scale source of electricity generation or storage that is located near the point of electricity use. These resources can be connected to the local power grid or operate independently.

All the options listed—battery storage, biomass generators, fuel cells, and rooftop solar photovoltaic units—are considered Distributed Energy Resources (DERs).

Q78. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree? 

(a) Fig 

(b) Mahua 

(c) Sandalwood 

(d) Silk cotton 

Ans: a

Figs have a unique relationship with a specific species of fig wasp (family Agaonidae). This relationship is a classic example of mutualism and coevolution, where each species depends on the other for survival and reproduction. The fig wasp is the only insect capable of pollinating the fig flower, and in turn, the fig provides a habitat and food source for the wasp’s larvae.

79. Consider the following: 

1. Butterflies 

2. Fish 

3. Frogs 

How many of the above have poisonous species among them? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

e) All three 

(d) None 

Ans: c

Statement 1 is correct: Butterflies are generally not poisonous to humans. However, there are some species of butterflies (e.g., the Monarch butterfly) that are toxic or distasteful to predators due to chemicals obtained from their larval host plants. This toxicity serves as a defense mechanism rather than being directly harmful to humans.

Statement 2 is correct: Many species of fish, especially marine species like pufferfish (fugu), contain toxins that can be harmful or deadly to humans if consumed improperly. Pufferfish, for example, contain tetrodotoxin, a potent neurotoxin.

Statement 3 is correct: Some species of frogs, particularly dart frogs (e.g., poison dart frogs), have skin toxins that can be deadly. These toxins are used by indigenous peoples for hunting darts but can be lethal if ingested or if they come into contact with mucous membranes.

80. Consider the following: 

1. Cashew 

2. Papaya 

3. Red sanders 

How many of the above trees are actually native to India? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None 

Ans: a

Cashew (Anacardium occidentale) is not native to India. It is native to northeastern Brazil.

Papaya (Carica papaya) is not native to India. It is believed to have originated in southern Mexico and neighboring Central America.

Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), also known as red sandalwood, is native to southern India and is primarily found in the regions of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

81. Consider the following airports: 

1. Donyi Polo Airport 

2. Kushinagar International Airport 

3. Vijayawada International Airport 

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: a

Donyi Polo Airport also known as Hollongi Airport (Itanagr, Arunachal Pradesh) and Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh) have been constructed as Greenfield Projects. It refers to investment in a manufacturing, office, or other physical company-related structure or group of structures in an area where no previous facilities exist.

82. With reference to water vapour, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 

2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. 

Select the answer using the code given below: 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: a

Statement 1 is correct: Amount of water vapour decreases with altitude due to decreasing temperatures. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: Sun Rays are stronger at equator and hence higher concentration of water vapour at Equator than Poles.

83. Consider the following description : 

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 

2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 

3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm-250 cm. 

What is this type of climate? 

(a) Equatorial climate 

(b) China type climate 

(c) Humid subtropical climate 

(d) Marine West coast climate  

Ans: d

Equatorial Climate is characterized by High Temperature and High rainfall (Throughout the year). Annual and daily range of Temperature is low in Equatorial type of Climate.

84. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 

2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. 

Select the answer using the code given below : 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: c

Both the statements are Correct. The magnitude of Coriolis force is determined by wind speed. The higher the wind speed, the greater the deflection. Coriolis effect is maximum at the poles and zero at the equator. Coriolis force always acts in a direction that is perpendicular to the moving object’s axis.

85. On June 21 every year, which of the following Ma latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours? 

1. Equator  

2. Tropic of Cancer 

3. Tropic of Capricorn  

4. Arctic Circle 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 and 4 

(d) 2 and 4 

Ans: d

On 21st June, the tropic of cancer is tilted towards the sun i.e the sun is always above the horizon and does not set below the horizon at the Arctic circle. Therefore, latitudes north of Tropic of Cancer will experience more than 12 hours of daylight. (Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle)

86. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region? 

(a) Amazon Basin 

(b) Congo Basin 

(c) Kikori Basin 

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin 

Ans: b

The Congo Basin’s peatlands, an essential bulwark in the fight against climate change because they contain the largest stock of carbon held in tropical peat in the world, are 15% bigger than previously thought, according to research published in Nature Geoscience.

87. With reference polyfluoroalkyl to perfluoroalkyl and substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements: 

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 

2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 

3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Ans: d

All the Statements are Correct. PFAs are known as ‘forever chemicals’ as they are extremely persistent in our environment and bodies. They can lead to health problems such as liver damage, thyroid disease, obesity, fertility issues and cancer by process of Bioaccumulation.

88. Consider the following: 

1. Carabid beetles 

2. Centipedes 

3. Flies 

4. Termites 

5. Wasps 

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms? 

(a) Only two 

(b) Only three 

(c) Only four 

(d) All five 

Ans: c

A parasitoid is an organism that has young that develop on or within another organism (the host), eventually killing it. Parasitoids have characteristics of both predators and parasites. In general, parasitoids share the following features: Parasitoids are usually smaller than their selected host. Except Termites, Parasitoid Species are found in all mentioned organisms. 

89. Consider the following plants: 

1. Groundnut 

2. Horse-gram 

3. Soybean  

How many of the above belong to the pea family? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None 

Ans: c

All the options are Correct. All are legumes and belong to the pea family. The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants. It includes trees, shrubs, and perennial or annual herbaceous plants, which are easily recognized by their fruit and their compound, stipulate leaves. Example: Peanut (Groundnut, Horse Gram, Soyabean).

90. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: 

The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. 

Statement-II:  

The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans: c

Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is Incorrect. Indian flying foxes considered as vermin under WPA,1972 cause extensive damage to fruit orchards, and are therefore considered pests in many regions. They may also be responsible for spreading disease, particularly the Nipah virus, which causes illness and death in humans.

91. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: 

The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. 

Statement-II: 

Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: d

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Atmosphere is heated more by Terrestrial radiation than Insolation Statement 2 is correct: Greenhouse gases like Carbon Dioxide are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

92. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-1:  

Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. 

Statement-II: 

At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct 

Ans: a

Statement 1 is correct: The troposphere is thicker at the equator than at the poles because the equator is warmer. Statement 2 is correct: The convection currents of air expand the thickness of the troposphere (atmosphere) at poles. Thus the simple reason is thermal expansion of the atmosphere at the equator and thermal contraction near the poles.

93. Consider the following: 

1. Nitrogen compounds 

2. Pyroclastic debris  

3. Ash and dust 

4. Sulphur compounds 

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Ans: d

The principal products of volcanic eruptions include ash, falls, pyroclastics flows, lava flow and gas emissions (Sulphur and Nitrogen).

94. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 

2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. 

Select the answer using the code given below: 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: a

During January, which is winter in the Northern Hemisphere, continents cool down much more than oceans. Water has a higher specific heat capacity than land, meaning it retains heat longer and does not cool as quickly. This causes a temperature contrast between the ocean and the land.

Isotherm Deviations: Isotherms (lines of equal temperature) over the ocean are pushed to the north because the ocean is relatively warmer than the adjacent landmasses. Conversely, over the continents, isotherms are pushed to the south due to the cooler temperatures.

1st Statement is correct, 2nd is incorrect as Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are Warm Ocean Currents

95 Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world? 

(a) Algeria and Morocco 

(b) Botswana and Namibia 

(c) Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana 

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique 

Ans: c

Option C is correct – The Ivory Coast produces around 38%, and Ghana 19% of the world’s cocoa beans. That’s almost 60% combined of the World’s total Cocoa Production.

96. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct? 

(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi 

(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi 

(c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak  

(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak 

Ans: b

97. Consider the following statements:

Statement- I:

Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II

Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III

Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III ars correct and both of them explain Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(c) Only one of the Statement II and III is correct and that explain Statement- I

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement – III is correct

Ans: a

Statement 1 is correct as rainfall plays an important role in weathering of rocks washing away important minerals. Statement 2 is correct as Rain Water contains certain amount of Carbon Dioxide which dissolves limestone and play important role in weathering of rocks. Statement 3 is correct as rain water contains atmospheric oxygen which oxidises minerals present in rocks and cause weathering.

98. Consider the following countries:

1. Finland

2. German

3. Norway

4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans: b

North Sea bordering countries are Norway, Belgium,Germany, France,England,Netherlands, Denmark,Scotland

99.  Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b)Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans: a

Option 1 is Incorrect: Dhuandhar Falls are located on Narmada River in Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh. Option 2 is correct: The Hundru Falls,Ranchi is created on the course of the Subarnarekha River at the Chota Nagpur Plateau. Option 3 is Incorrect: Gersoppa Falls is created by Sharavathi River in Karnataka

100.  Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(C) Only three

(D) All four

Ans: b

Option 1 is Incorrect: Vosges is a Block Mountain located in Europe. Option 2 is Incorrect: Alps are Fold Mountains located in Central Europe. Option 3 is correct: Appalachians are Fold Mountains located in North America. Option 4 is correct: Andes are Fold Mountains located along the West Coast of South America.

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