The UPSC Prelims 2024 examination for the Environment and Ecology subject demands a comprehensive understanding of environmental issues and ecological concepts. Candidates should focus on the following key points to excel in this section:
- Biodiversity Conservation: Gain knowledge about India’s rich biodiversity, conservation strategies, and the importance of protected areas.
- Climate Change: Understand the causes and effects of climate change, international agreements, and India’s initiatives to combat climate-related challenges.
- Environmental Laws and Policies: Familiarize yourself with key environmental legislations in India, such as the Environmental Protection Act, Wildlife Protection Act, and Forest Conservation Act.
- Renewable Energy: Stay updated on the latest developments in renewable energy sources, government policies, and initiatives promoting sustainable energy practices.
- Pollution Control: Grasp the different types of pollution, their sources, and measures for pollution control. Understand the role of statutory bodies like the Central Pollution Control Board.
- Ecosystems and Habitats: Study various ecosystems present in India, their significance, and the threats they face. Focus on biodiversity hotspots and the importance of preserving natural habitats.
- Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): Understand the process of EIA, its significance in project clearance, and recent amendments or changes in EIA norms.
- Wildlife Conservation: Gain insights into wildlife conservation efforts, endangered species, and initiatives like Project Tiger and Project Elephant.
- Natural Disasters: Be aware of different types of natural disasters, their causes, and the preventive measures and disaster management strategies in place.
- International Conventions: Stay informed about international environmental agreements and conventions, such as the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the Ramsar Convention.
A holistic preparation covering these bullet points will provide candidates with a strong foundation to tackle the Environment and Ecology section in the UPSC Prelims 2024, ensuring a comprehensive grasp of the subject matter.
Ecology and Ecosystem
- The term environment encompasses all external forces and conditions influencing the life, nature, growth, and maturity of living organisms. Nature, along with its factors (biotic, climatic, edaphic, etc.), collectively sustains the environment, and these factors act holocoenotically, where the action of one is influenced by the others. Any imbalance can trigger a chain reaction.
- An ecosystem, as described by the UPSC in 2015, is a community of organisms interacting with their environment. Environmental factors are broadly categorized as biotic (living organisms, food, behavior, and interactions) and abiotic (non-living elements like soil, water, climate, pollution).
- The term “ecology” was coined by German Scientist Ernst Haeckel in 1866. An ecosystem is a region with a specific landscape form, such as a forest, grassland, desert, wetland, or coastal area.
- Ecosystems are open systems, with material losses from one becoming gains for another in the biosphere.
- Microorganisms exhibit remarkable adaptability, thriving in environments with extreme temperatures, including those above the boiling and below the freezing points of water.
- Some can even flourish in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3, as noted by
UPSC in 2023.
Q. Consider the following statements :
1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : All three
- Certain microorganisms, termed extremophiles, exhibit the remarkable ability to flourish in environments where temperatures surpass the boiling point of water.
- These resilient organisms are specially equipped to endure extreme conditions, demonstrating a high tolerance for elevated temperatures. Therefore, Statement 1 holds true.
- A prime example of extremophiles is represented by thermophiles, microorganisms that thrive in hot surroundings.
- Additionally, there are microorganisms capable of thriving in environments where temperatures dip below the freezing point of water.
- Referred to as psychrophiles or cryophiles, these organisms exemplify adaptability to cold conditions. Consequently, Statement 2 is accurate.
- Moreover, some microorganisms showcase the capacity to flourish in highly acidic environments, featuring a pH below 3.
- These resilient organisms are known as acidophiles. Thus, Statement 3 stands correct.
- These acidophiles have evolved to navigate acidic terrains such as acid mine drainage, volcanic regions, and acidic soils.
- They possess specialized mechanisms enabling them to not only tolerate but also thrive in environments characterized by high concentrations of protons, resulting in low pH levels.
- Every ecosystem operates based on six principles: speciation, diversity, habitat, adaptation interdependence, and evolution.
- The four fundamental functions of an ecosystem are productivity, decomposition, energy flow, and nutrient cycling.
- Aerial metagenomics involves collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat, providing insights into the genetic makeup of airborne microorganisms.
- The transfer of energy in an ecosystem occurs through a food chain, which generally follows the 10% mobilization rule, through a series of organisms broadly classified as producers / autotrops, consumers / heterotrops and decomposers.
- A series of organisms are broadly classified into producers/autotrophs, consumers/heterotrophs, and decomposers.
- Producers, often green plants or other simple organisms, synthesize complex organic compounds from basic abiotic components, serving as nutrients and energy for the next trophic level, consumers/heterotrophs. These compounds are eventually decomposed by decomposers like bacteria and fungi, completing the nutrient cycle and returning to the physical environment.
- The structure and functioning of an ecosystem are illustrated by ecological pyramids. These pyramids depict the biomass, organisms, or energy content of each trophic level in a food web.
- Ecological pyramids come in three types: pyramid of number, pyramid of biomass, and pyramid of energy.
- Pyramid of energy is consistently upright, while pyramid of biomass and pyramid of number may be inverted or irregular in certain cases, such as in open ocean ecosystems. Organisms within an ecosystem evolve to fulfill specific roles, known as ecological niches, as highlighted by
UPSC in 2013.
Q. Consider the following statements.
1. The energy pyramid of an ecosystem is always upright and narrows to the top.
2. The biomass in the lower trophic levels is generally very high as compared to the higher trophic levels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 or 2
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Both 1 and 2
- Depicting the biomass or bio productivity at each trophic level within an ecosystem, an ecological pyramid, or energy pyramid, is a visual representation designed for this purpose.
- The narrowing structure at the top of the energy pyramid signifies that each successive trophic level receives only a fraction of the energy from the lower trophic levels.
- Commencing with producers at the base, such as plants, ecological pyramids progress through various trophic levels, including herbivores consuming plants, carnivores feasting on flesh, omnivores indulging in both, and so forth.
- At the pinnacle lies the highest level, representing the top of the food chain.
- The perpetual upward orientation of an energy pyramid is a result of energy loss as heat at each trophic level transition. Consequently, the total energy available for utilization at higher levels is consistently less than the energy present in the lower levels. Thus, both Statements 1 and 2 are accurate.
- Tropical evergreen forests and coral reef ecosystems stand out as the most productive and diverse ecosystems on Earth.
- Biomes represent the world’s major communities, classified based on predominant vegetation and characterized by organism adaptation to specific environments. The five major biomes are aquatic, deserts, forests, grasslands, and tundra biomes.
- Desert animals cope with the hottest and driest seasons through inactivity, known as aestivation, and similarly, in cold regions, this is referred to as hibernation.
Environmental Pollution
- Pollution involves the introduction of contaminants into the natural environment, resulting in adverse changes. These contaminants are commonly referred to as pollutants.
- Ozone is situated in the lower stratospheric zone of the atmosphere, contributing to the temperature rise and acting as a shield against the harmful impact of high-frequency radiations like UV rays.
- However, ozone in the lower tropospheric zone is considered a pollutant and has adverse effects on life on Earth.
- Montreal Protocol: This protocol aims to reduce the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances to protect the Earth’s fragile ozone layer. It also targets the phase-out of HCFCs by 2030. Enforced in 1989, it has been ratified by 197 United Nations parties.
- A recent concern is atmospheric pollution, evident from the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute’s observation that 50% of Kolkata residents suffer from respiratory diseases.
- Nitrogen oxide is produced during the formation of photochemical smog.
UPSC 2003
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into Environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : 1, 2 and 3
- The primary component of PM 2.5, a category of pollutants strongly associated with cardiovascular and respiratory ailments, is identified as nitrogen particles, as outlined in the inaugural quantitative assessment of nitrogen pollution in India, known as the Indian Nitrogen Assessment.
- Additionally, the Indian Nitrogen Assessment presents various data points on nitrogen, including:
- Agricultural soils contributing to over 70% of N20 emissions in India in 2010, followed by wastewater (12%) and residential/commercial activities (6%). Consequently, Statement 1 holds true.
- Cattle, constituting 80% of ammonia production, maintain a stable population with an annual growth rate of 1%. Thus, Statement 2 is accurate.
- In contrast, the poultry industry, experiencing a 6% annual growth rate, recorded the excretion of 0.415 tonnes of reactive nitrogen compounds in 2016. Therefore, Statement 3 is deemed correct.
- Carbon monoxide (CO) is generated as a pollutant when hydrocarbon fuels burn incompletely. The amount of CO produced depends on combustion efficiency. Although carbon monoxide supports combustion and burns with a pale blue flame, it is a highly poisonous gas.
- Sulphur and nitrogen oxides contribute to acid rain. This phenomenon occurs when these gases react with water and other chemicals in the atmosphere, forming various acidic compounds.
- Fly ash, a fine powder-like residue produced during combustion, poses water and air pollution risks and respiratory problems in humans. However, its efficient utilization in bricks, cement, and construction can help address these issues.
UPSC 2020
Q. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : 1 and 2
- The finely divided residue known as fly ash is a byproduct of coal combustion, transported away from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases.
- Produced by coal-fired electric and steam generating plants, fly ash serves a multitude of engineering purposes annually.
- These applications range from portland cement concrete (PCC), soil and road base stabilization, flowable fills, grouts, structural fill, to asphalt filler, and encompass diverse uses such as Portland cement, Embankment, Soil stabilization, Flowable fill, Asphalt concrete, Geopolymers, Roller compacted concrete, Bricks, Metal matrix composites, Waste treatment and stabilization, Catalyst.
- The environmental advantages of fly ash usage include:
- Enhancing the durability of concrete roads and structures, thereby extending their lifespan.
- Contributing to a net reduction in energy consumption and greenhouse gas emissions when fly ash replaces or displaces manufactured cement.
- Diminishing the volume of coal combustion byproducts requiring landfill disposal.
- Conserving other natural resources and materials.
- Bio magnification occurs when toxic elements transfer from one trophic level to another.
- Arsenic pollution in drinking water has become a significant global issue. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the permitted level of arsenic in drinking water is 0.05 mg/L.
- Eutrophication is one effect of biosphere simplification, where nutrients from fertilizers leach into lakes and rivers. This leads to increased nitrogen levels, fostering the rapid growth of plants, algae, and other phytoplankton, ultimately depleting oxygen in the ecosystem.
- Excessive nutrient runoff from human activities can lead to increased algal growth, deplete oxygen levels in water, and reduce the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD), rendering aquatic ecosystems unsustainable. Over time, some water bodies, such as the Noel River in TN and the Ganga at Kanpur, become biologically dead.
- Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures organic pollution and water cleanliness by assessing the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms feeding on organic matter in standing or running water over five days at 20°C. The permissible limit is 3 mg/L (maximum).
- Dissolved Oxygen (DO), the amount of oxygen in mg per liter of river water sustaining aquatic life, has a minimum limit of 5 mg/L. Rivers above this value are considered polluted.
- Ocean acidification refers to the ongoing pH decrease in Earth’s oceans due to anthropogenic carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere.
- Some parts of India face contamination of drinking water with pollutants like arsenic, fluoride, and uranium
UPSC 2013
Q. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : 1, 3 and 5 only
- ARSENIC: Seeping into groundwater through industrial and mining discharges as well as thermal power plant fly ash ponds, arsenic poses a significant threat. This highly toxic pollutant, when chronically exposed, can lead to the development of black foot disease.
- Water contaminated with arsenic may also contribute to various other health issues, including diarrhea, lung cancer, and skin cancer.
- FLUORIDE: Elevated levels of fluoride in drinking water can give rise to severe health complications, such as Knock-knee syndrome, fluorosis, neuromuscular disorders, gastrointestinal problems, and teeth deformities, among others.
- URANIUM: According to a report from Duke University, USA, in collaboration with the Central Ground Water Board and State Ground Water departments, localized occurrences of uranium concentration are reported in Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, and Jammu & Kashmir.
- Plasma gasification, a technique for treating Municipal Solid Waste (MSW), biomass, and industrial waste, uses extremely high-temperature plasma to convert waste into syngas.
- The Environment Action Programme (EAP), established in January 1994, aims to enhance Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) for various projects through organized natural resources accounting and environmental statistics.
- Carbon Credits, a result of the Kyoto Protocol, are awarded to developed countries that successfully reduce greenhouse gas emissions. The carbon footprint measures the environmental impact of human activities, calculated in proportion to greenhouse gases produced and expressed in carbon dioxide units.
- A Carbon Sink is a reservoir, natural or artificial, that accumulates and stores carbon-containing compounds for an indefinite period, such as the absorption of CO₂ by oceans and plants in photosynthesis, and fills carbon capture and storage proposals.
Biodiversity
- Biodiversity encompasses the variety and distinctions among living organisms in terrestrial, marine, and other aquatic ecosystems, along with the associated ecological complexes.
- It involves genetic diversity within and between species and ecosystems, typically comprising diversity at three levels: genetic diversity, species diversity, and ecosystem diversity.
- Genetic Biodiversity refers to the variation in genetic characteristics among individual plants, animals, and microorganisms, representing the genetic variability within species. Species Biodiversity denotes the variation in species within a community of plants and animals, measured by species richness, species evenness, and species dominance.
- Ecosystem Biodiversity pertains to the broad differences between ecosystem types, encompassing the diversity of habitats and ecological processes within each ecosystem type. The humid tropics exhibit the highest biodiversity, diminishing towards the North and South with decreasing temperatures.
- The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is an international initiative highlighting the global economic benefits of biodiversity
UPSC 2016
Q.With reference to an initiative called The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : 2 and 3 only
- The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity, as an international initiative, highlights the global economic advantages stemming from biodiversity, affirming the accuracy of Statement 2.
- Launched by Germany and the European Commission in response to a proposal by the G8+5 Environment Ministers in Potsdam, Germany in 2007, the TEEB study seeks to conduct a comprehensive global analysis on the economics of biodiversity loss.
- Not affiliated with UNEP, IMF, and the World Economic Forum, TEEB pursues its objective through a structured valuation approach. This approach aids decision-makers in recognizing the diverse benefits provided by ecosystems and biodiversity, articulates these values in economic terms, and, where applicable, recommends methods to incorporate these values into decision-making processes, confirming the accuracy of Statement 3.
- The Nagoya Protocol focuses on access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from their utilization within the Convention on Biological Diversity. Adopted in October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan, it came into force on October 12, 2014, ratified by 97 parties, including 96 UN member states and the European Union.
- Biodiversity hotspots are areas rich in biodiversity with endemic plants and animals severely threatened by human activities. India, one of the mega biodiversity centers globally, hosts three biodiversity hotspots: Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, and Indo-Burma.
- India, as a member of the Like-Minded Mega Diverse Countries (LMMC’s), accounts for 7% to 8% of the world’s recorded species, emphasizing its significant biodiversity contribution.
- Biodiversity Committees play a crucial role in realizing the objectives outlined in the Nagoya Protocol. These committees, vital for effective management, have significant responsibilities, including determining access and benefit-sharing mechanisms. They are empowered to impose collection fees on the access to biological resources within their jurisdiction, showcasing their pivotal role in biodiversity governance (UPSC 2023).
- The Gene Pool, defined as the collection of genes in a breeding population, finds its most diversified centers on Earth known as Gene Pool Centers. These centers are areas where gene pools exhibit maximum diversity, leading to the evolution of many crop plants and domestic animals.
- Agrobiodiversity, a subset of biodiversity, is intricately linked to agriculture. It refers to the diversity of agricultural systems, encompassing all species related to agriculture and individuals within those species.
- The Himalayan Nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) thrives abundantly in open forest lands, riverbanks, and moist habitats in Nepal. Additionally, it is found in the Himalayan regions of India, including Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Jammu and Kashmir.
- The Ramsar Convention, established in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar, is an intergovernmental treaty providing a framework for national and international efforts to conserve wetlands. World Wetland Day is celebrated on February 2nd annually to commemorate the convention.
UPSC 2019
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based in the recommendation of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : 3 only
- Established in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar, the Ramsar Convention stands as one of the earliest inter-governmental agreements dedicated to preserving the ecological character of wetlands.
- Contrary to Statement 1, Article 4 of the Ramsar Convention does not mandate the Government of India to protect and conserve all wetlands within its territory. Instead, it encourages contracting parties to promote wetland and waterfowl conservation by establishing nature reserves, whether listed or not.
- Wetlands, serving as transitional zones between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems, are defined by the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, notified by the Ministry of Environment and Forest. However, these rules were not framed based on Ramsar Convention recommendations, rendering Statement 2 incorrect.
- The objectives of the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, include the conservation, protection, and management of wetlands to prevent further degradation in India.
- According to these rules, a “wetland” encompasses various natural and artificial areas with static or flowing water, regardless of freshness, brackishness, or saltiness. This definition covers marine areas, lakes, reservoirs, tanks, backwaters, lagoons, creeks, estuaries, manmade wetlands, and the zone of direct influence determined by the authority. Therefore, Statement 3 holds true.
- CITES (1975) represents a significant step in protecting endangered flora and fauna globally by regulating trade in living specimens and products derived from listed species. The UN Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro (1992) marked a landmark moment in environmental conservation history, witnessing the signing of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
- The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety, adopted in January 2000 and in force since September 2003, aims to ensure an adequate level of protection in the transfer and handling of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology. This protocol considers potential risks to health and emphasizes the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity.
- The Wildlife Protection Act, enacted in 1972, primarily focuses on the establishment of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, along with their proper notification. It explicitly prohibits the hunting of animals listed in Schedules I to IV of the Act. The 2002 Amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act further strengthens regulations, particularly by preventing the commercial exploitation of resources by local communities.
UPSC 2015
Q. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or Killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : 1 and 2
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
- The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 is organized into 6 Schedules, addressing topics such as the prevention of hunting and plant cutting, the declaration of protected areas, recognition of zoos, and implementation of protective measures.
- The primary goal of the act is to safeguard and enhance the environment.
- While providing the central government with comprehensive authority to enforce stringent environmental protection measures, the law empowers the federal government to designate specific areas, such as sanctuaries or national parks, institute wildlife hunting bans, and impose penalties for violations.
- The Bombay High Court has affirmed that wild animals, including tigers, should be considered “government property for all purposes,” and any harm caused by them should be compensated by the Government, validating the accuracy of Statement 1.
- Despite the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, treating all wild animals equally, regardless of their location in protected areas or outside, this fact is marked as incorrect in the official UPSC answer key.
- Statement 3 is inaccurately labeled as incorrect in the official UPSC answer key. The provision allowing the capture or killing of wild animals, listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State is limited to situations where the animal poses a danger to human life, is diseased, or is beyond recovery. Mere apprehension or fear of endangerment is not considered a valid reason for capture or killing.
- The Indian Board of Wildlife, presided over by the Prime Minister, serves as the apex advisory body responsible for overseeing and guiding the implementation of various wildlife conservation schemes.
- In 2003, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established to execute India’s Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
- Functioning as an autonomous body, the NBA plays facilitative, regulatory, and advisory roles for the Government of India concerning the conservation, sustainable use of biological resources, and equitable benefit sharing.
- UNESCO’s World Heritage Convention is accountable for the designation of world heritage sites, encompassing both cultural and natural locations.
- The wildlife department of the Ministry of Environment and Forest in India plays a crucial role in conserving natural world heritage sites.
- A conservation project will be initiated in four world heritage sites in India: Kaziranga National Park, Manas National Park, Nanda Devi National Park, and Keoladeo National Park.
- Project Tiger, inaugurated by the Government of India on April 1, 1973, at Corbett National Park, represents an international effort to raise awareness and funds for tiger conservation. Tiger reserves were established under this project.
- The Indian Rhino Vision (IRV) 2020 is an ambitious initiative by the Government of Assam, in collaboration with the World Wildlife Foundation and supported by the International Rhino Foundation and the US Fish and Wildlife Service. The goal is to increase the rhino population to 3000 by the year 2020.
Biomes and Forest
- To simplify the study, the biosphere is categorized into different biomes that share similar climate and vegetation types. Moving from the equator to the pole, terrestrial biomes are arranged sequentially, including evergreen forests, wet deciduous forests (referred to as Selvas), dry deciduous areas, and tropical grasslands, also known as Savannas.
- Temperate grasslands, also known as Steppes, transition to Alpine forests. Evergreen forests exhibit a three-tier vegetation structure, while Selvas boast strong and tall grasses. Savannas feature few large trees and extensive grasslands.
- Steppes are characterized by vast grasslands, and Alpine forests showcase tall, straight mono-species. Aquatic biomes are categorized into marine, estuaries, and freshwater biomes.
- Shelter wood harvesting involves removing mature trees in multiple cuts, encouraging the regeneration of wind and sun-sensitive species like spruce and fir.
- Agro-forestry is a land-use system where woody perennials are intentionally incorporated into the same management units as annual agricultural crops and/or animals. Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) identifies agri-silvicultural, agro-pastoral, and agri-silvipastoral systems as components of agro-forestry.
- REDD, a UN program, aims to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries, encompassing conservation, sustainable forest management, and enhancement of forest carbon stock.
- Article 48(A) and Article 51(A) of the Indian Constitution address the protection, conservation, and improvement of the environment, along with forest and wildlife.
- India has had a comprehensive forest policy since 1894, regularly revised in 1952, 1988, and 2006, with provisions to increase total forest cover to 33% in an integrated manner.
- Jammu and Kashmir is the largest producer of timber wood in India, followed by Punjab, and Madhya Pradesh. Karnataka is the largest producer of fuel wood, followed by West Bengal and Maharashtra.
- Madhya Pradesh has the highest forest area in India, and Mizoram boasts the maximum forest coverage at 90.38%. The majority of forest cover in India is tropical dry deciduous forest.
- Mangroves cover various forest ecosystems, known for tolerating high water quality and periodic flooding. In many coastal areas, including the Gulf of Kutch, mangroves serve as a substitute for fodder.
- The Forest Conservation Act, enacted in 1980, conferred upon the government and the forest department the authority to establish reserved forests and exclusive rights to utilize these reserved forests solely for government purposes.
Climate Change
- Global Warming is now a concern as it is responsible for the rise in sea levels due to both the expansion of ocean water and the melting of ice.
- Many urban areas and mega-cities are located in coastal regions, and any increase in sea levels would partially or fully submerge them, as well as tiny islands in the oceans. This could also lead to the clogging of river mouths, resulting in widespread flooding and devastation for humanity.
- Kigali Amendment: It amends the 1987 Montreal Protocol and aims to phase out HFCs, a family of potent greenhouse gases, by the late 2040s.
- Methane Hydrate is a solid compound containing large amounts of methane or natural gas. Methane hydrates are sensitive to warming, and an increase in temperature can cause the release of significant deposits of methane hydrate. This release can trigger global warming.
UPSC 2019
Q. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
2. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : 1, 2 and 3
- Substantial, yet not fully understood, quantities of methane are ensnared in the sediments beneath the sea floor, frozen in a water ice form known as methane hydrate.
- Methane hydrate, existing naturally in subsurface deposits, only takes shape under specific temperature and pressure conditions conducive to its formation.
- Four distinct earth environments meet the requisite temperature and pressure criteria for methane hydrate formation and stability, namely:
- Sediment and sedimentary rock units below Arctic permafrost.
- Sedimentary deposits along continental margins.
- Deep-water sediments of inland lakes and seas.
- Areas beneath Antarctic ice, validating the accuracy of Statement 2.
- Methane hydrates on the sea floor remain stable at low temperatures; however, warming conditions can cause their breakdown. Microorganisms in the vicinity oxidize the resulting methane gas, converting it into the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide (CO2).
- The potential release of methane gas due to ice melting, triggered by global warming, could significantly impact climate change, supporting the accuracy of Statement 1.
- Methane has a relatively short atmospheric lifespan, as a molecule is oxidized into water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, primarily through reactions with other trace gases, confirming the accuracy of Statement 3.
- Consequently, there is a collective effort to diminish methane emissions, aiming to mitigate the greenhouse effect.
- A natural greenhouse gas effect is responsible and necessary for sustaining life on Earth, providing the required constant warmth. However, the recent anthropogenic greenhouse gas effect is a concern for rapid climate change.
- Carbon fertilization best describes increased plant growth due to the elevated concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The higher carbon dioxide levels enhance the rate of photosynthesis in plants.
UPSC 2018
Q. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon Fertilization”?
1. Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
2. Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
3. Increased acidity of occans asa result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
4. Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Carbon Fertilization:
- This process involves artificially enhancing the greenhouse atmosphere with carbon dioxide
- It refers to the phenomenon where an elevation in atmospheric carbon dioxide boosts the rate of photosynthesis in plants.
Effects of carbon fertilization:
- Augmentation of the photosynthetic rate.
- Improvement in water use efficiency.
- Plants allocate a larger portion of photosynthate to their roots under elevated atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations.
- Elevated carbon dioxide levels typically result in increased growth of both reproductive and vegetative biomass.
- The Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) was established by the UN Framework Agreement (UNFA) in 1990 to draft a framework convention on climate change.
- The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted by INC in 1992 and entered into force in March 1994. Its aim is to stabilize greenhouse gas (GHG) concentrations in the atmosphere at levels that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate.
- India became a party to the climate change convention in November 1993. In 1997, the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) met at Kyoto, and 160 nations agreed on the Kyoto Protocol, which came into force in 2005.
- According to the Kyoto Protocol, industrialized nations pledged to reduce CO₂, methane, and nitrous oxide emissions to an average of 5.2% below 1990 levels by the year 2012.
- The Kyoto Protocol introduced three market-based mechanisms: emission trading or carbon trading, the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), and Joint Implementation (JI).
Sustainable Development
- The idea of sustainable development originated from the message conveyed in the book “The Limit to Growth,” commissioned by the Club of Rome in 1972.
- The term “Sustainable Development” was first introduced in the Brundtland Commission Report of the United Nations, published in 1987. It defined sustainable development as “development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.”
- The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. The conference adopted Agenda 21, a global plan of action for achieving sustainable development.
- Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) will build upon the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) and align with the post-2015 development agenda.
- The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, embraced by all United Nations Member States in 2015, serves as a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity. At its core are the 17 SDGs.
- Earth Hour, an initiative for energy conservation and sustainable use, originated in Sydney, Australia, in 2007, with approximately two million participants. This voluntary one-hour blackout has since evolved into an international event, symbolizing action against global warming.
UPSC 2014
Q. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 C above the pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3C above the pre- industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the World.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : 1 and 2 only
Terrestrial Biosphere:
- Plays a crucial role in regulating atmospheric composition and climate.
- Has the capacity to release or absorb greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O).
- Regulates energy, water, and aerosol fluxes between the Earth’s surface and atmosphere.
- While carbon is primarily exchanged with the atmosphere, small amounts also transition from the terrestrial biosphere to the oceans as dissolved organic carbon.
- In the scenario of a global temperature increase surpassing 3°C above the pre-industrial level, the terrestrial biosphere tends to become a net carbon source. Taiga and temperate forests, typically acting as significant carbon sinks, may transform into carbon sources.
Corals:
- Invertebrate animals belonging to the diverse group Cnidaria.
- Coral reefs, rich marine ecosystems, host over 4,000 fish species, numerous cnidarians, mollusks, crustaceans, and various other animals.
- Rising temperatures lead to mass coral bleaching events, and continuous warming may result in widespread coral mortality.
- While temperate regions can endure temperature increases due to their ability to withstand wide seasonal changes, the vegetation in these areas is resilient.
- The cultivation of cereals, dependent on warm and moist weather during the early growth stages, remains feasible even with rising temperatures.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Q: What are the key topics under Environment & Ecology for UPSC Prelims 2024?
- Biodiversity and Conservation
- Climate Change and Global Warming
- Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
- National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries
- Environmental Laws and Policies
Q: How can I prepare for questions related to Biodiversity and Conservation in the UPSC Prelims 2024?
- Study the endangered species and their conservation status.
- Understand the concepts of biodiversity hotspots.
- Know about international conventions related to biodiversity.
Q: What are the significant aspects of Climate Change and Global Warming that I should focus on for UPSC Prelims 2024?
- Greenhouse gases and their sources.
- Effects of climate change on ecosystems and human societies.
- International efforts to mitigate climate change.
- Government initiatives for climate change adaptation in India.
Q: Which Environmental Laws and Policies should I be familiar with for the UPSC Prelims 2024?
- The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
- The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
- The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- National Environment Policy, 2006.
Q: How can I effectively prepare for questions related to Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in UPSC Prelims 2024?
- Understand the purpose and significance of EIA.
- Know the stages involved in the EIA process.
- Learn about the role of public participation in EIA.
- Stay updated on recent projects and controversies related to EIA.
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