UPSC Prelims Mock Test – Environment 6

Here are 25 Questions, a part of our series on UPSC Prelims Mock Test.

Q1. Consider the following statements about ‘Chief Wildlife Warden’ in India:

1. It is a statutory position created under the Biological Diversity Act, of 2002.
2. His permission is required for declaring an animal as ‘Vermin’ under Schedule V of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Chief Wildlife Warden is a statutory authority, under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 who heads the Wildlife Wing of the department and exercises complete administrative control over Protected Areas (PAs) within a State. He is the member-secretary of the State Board for Wildlife.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Union Environment Ministry declares/permits an Animal as Vermin on the request of the State. As per the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, Section 62, the States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them ‘Vermin’ for selective slaughter. Vermins are categorized under Schedule V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Biological Diversity Act 2002?

1. The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates the implementation of the provisions of the Act through a centralized system.
2. It primarily addresses issues of conservation and sustainable use of biological resources in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates the implementation of the provisions of the Act through a decentralized system with the National The Biodiversity Authority (NBA) focuses on advising the Union Government on matters relating to the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of biological resources; and advising the State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a Statutory Body established in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). Its headquarters is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Biological Diversity Act (2002) primarily addresses issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources in the country, issues related to access to genetic resources and associated knowledge and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of biological resources to the country and its people

Q3. What does it imply if an animal is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972?

1. It enjoys the same level of protection as the Blackbuck.
2. It becomes mandatory on the part of the States to declare its habitat as a Wildlife sanctuary.
3. It is endemic to a particular region of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

• wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972 consists of Six Schedule lists, which give varying degrees of Protection. Smuggling, Poaching and illegal trade of animals listed in Schedule I to Schedule IV are prohibited.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Animals listed in Schedule I have absolute protection and offenses under these are prescribed the highest penalties. Black Buck is listed as a Schedule I animal in WPA, 1972, and if an animal is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, it will enjoy the same level of protection like Black buck.
• Statements 2 and 3 are not correct: It is nowhere mentioned in the Act that the State government is bound to declare the habitat of the species listed in Schedule I of WPA 1972 as a Wildlife Sanctuary. Secondly, it is not necessary that the Species get Schedule I status if it is endemic to a particular region of India. For e.g., the Great Indian Bustard is listed in Schedule I of WPA,1972 but it is also found in Pakistan

Q4. Consider the following statements about the Environment Protection Act, of 1986.

1. It is an umbrella legislation designed to provide a framework for the coordination of Central and State authorities established under the Water Act, 1974 and the Air Act, 1981.
2. The term “Environment” under the Act includes water, air, and land.
3. Under this Act, the Central Government is empowered to take measures necessary to improve the quality of the environment by setting standards for emissions and discharges of pollution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is correct: The Environment Protection Act of 1986 (the “Environmental Act”) ensures that the environment is protected and improved. The Environment Protection Act establishes a framework for investigating, planning, and executing long-term environmental safety regulations, as well as a system for quick and adequate response to environmental threats. It is a piece of legislation that establishes a framework for the coordination of federal and state bodies established under the 1974 Water Act and the 1981 Air Act.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 2(a) of the Environment Protection Act of 1986, the term “environment” has a fairly broad definition. It encompasses water, air, and land, as well as the interconnections between these elements and humans, other living animals, plants, microorganisms, and property.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Central government is empowered under the Environment Protection Act of 1986 to take measures to protect and improve the environment by establishing standards for emissions an discharges of pollution into the atmosphere by any person carrying on an industry or activity.

Q5. Consider the following statements about the Biological Diversity Act 2002:

1. It completely prohibits the transfer of Indian genetic material outside the country.
2. It establishes Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) at the local village level, State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) at the State level, and a National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• The Biological Diversity Act 2002 and the Biological Diversity Rules provide for the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and knowledge associated with it. The key provisions of the Act aimed at achieving the above are:
• Prohibition on transfer of Indian genetic material outside the country, without specific approval of the Indian Government. (Statement 1 is not correct)
• Prohibition on anyone claiming Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), such as a patent, over biodiversity or related knowledge, without permission of the Indian Government.
• Regulation of collection and use of biodiversity by Indian nationals while exempting local communities from such restrictions.
• Measures for sharing of benefits from the use of biodiversity, including the transfer of technology, monetary returns, joint Research & Development, joint Intellectual Property Rights ownership, etc.

Q6. Consider the following statements about the Montreal Protocol:

1. Under this treaty, many countries of the world has agreed to phase out Ozone Depleting Substances.
2. It is the first International treaty to have achieved Universal ratification in the history of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: In 1987 after the Vienna Convention, an international treaty called the Montreal Protocol was signed. In 1989, this convention came into force. As per the treaty, many world countries have agreed to phase out Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS).
• Statement 2 is correct: In the history of the United Nations, the Montreal Protocol is the first international treaty to have achieved Universal ratification. This Convention is one of the highly triumphant international arrangements because more than 95% of the ODS have been phased out till now according to its main mandate (CFCs) in less than 30 years of its formation.

Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS)’?

1. It is the only convention under UNEP that provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats.
2. India is a member of the convention.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• some important information about the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS) or ‘Bonn Convention’ are:
• Under UNEP, it is the only convention that provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats (and their migration routes). (Statement 1 is correct)
• India is one of the members of the convention. Since 1983, India has been a party to the CMS. (Statement 2 is correct)
• Appendix I of the Convention: Migratory species threatened with extinction are included in it.
• Appendix II of the Convention: Migratory species that need or would significantly benefit from international cooperation are included in it.

Q8. Consider the following statements about the Rotterdam Convention:

1. It promotes a shared responsibility between importing and exporting parties in the international trade of all hazardous chemicals.
2. It gives importing countries the power to decide which chemicals they want to
   receive and exclude those who cannot manage safely.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• The Rotterdam Convention was adopted in 1998 by a Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Rotterdam, the Netherlands. The Convention entered into force on 24 February 2004. it creates legally binding obligations for the implementation of the Prior Informed Consent PIC) procedure. It was built on the voluntary PIC procedure, initiated by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in 1989 and ceased on 24 February 2006.
• Statement 1 is not correct: It promotes a shared responsibility between importing and exporting parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals.
• Statement 2 is correct: It gives importing countries have the power to decide which chemicals they want to receive and to exclude those they cannot manage safely. The Convention includes provisions for developing countries and countries with economies in transition that are experiencing problems with severely hazardous pesticide formulations under conditions of use to identify the formulations as candidates for inclusion in the Convention.

Q9. With reference to the Bonn Convention, consider the following statements:

1. It is formally known as the Convention on Conservation of Migratory Species of
   Wild Animals (CMS).
2. India has never hosted the Conference of Parties on Bonn convention.
3. It aims to conserve terrestrial migratory species only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer – c

• Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is not correct: The objective of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (also known as CMS or Bonn Convention) is to conserve terrestrial, aquatic, and avian migratory species throughout their range. It is an exclusive intergovernmental treaty which is concluded under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme, concerned with the conservation of wildlife and habitats on a global scale. The membership of the convention is 117. Countries of Africa, Central and South America, Asia, Europe, and Oceania are its members.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The CMS Conference of Parties (COP) 13 in February 2020 was hosted by India at Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The theme of the 13th session of COP to Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals were “Migratory species that connect the planet, and together we welcome them home”. The mascot of the CMS COP 13 is the Great Indian Bustard.

Q10. With reference to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), consider the following statements:

1. Sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way is one of the objectives of the CBD.
2. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (CPB) is an agreement under the aegis of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
3. In India, the Biological Diversity Act, of 2002 was enacted to give effect to the provisions of the convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is the international legal instrument for “the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources” that has been ratified by 196 nations. It was an outcome of the Earth summit held in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) has three main objectives:
• the conservation of biological diversity.
• the sustainable use of the components of biological diversity.
• the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (CPB) is an additional agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. It was under the aegis of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The CPB regulates the export and import of living-modified organisms (LMOs) from one country to another. It also ensures safe packaging, handling and transportation of LMOs by Parties when transported across countries. The shipments should have documents that clearly identify the LMOs specify any requirements for the safe handling, storage, transport and use and provide contact details for further information.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Convention on Conservation for Biodiversity is a key document with respect to Sustainable Development, to which India is also a party. India ratified it in 1994. To give effect to the convention, India has enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, and to implement the provisions of the Act, the government established the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) in 2003.

Q11. Consider the following statements:

1. Polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and DDT is the most common Persistent
   Organic Pollutants.
2. Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D

• Statement 1 is correct: Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are chemicals of global concern due to their potential for long-range transport, persistence in the environment, ability to biomagnify and bioaccumulate in ecosystems, as well as their significant negative effects on human health and the environment. The most often found POPs are organochlorine pesticides, such as DDT, industrial chemicals, and polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB) as well as undesired products of multiple industrial processes, especially polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins (PCDD) and dibenzofurans (PCDF), commonly known as dioxins.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from Persistent Organic pollutants (POPs). The main aim of the Stockholm Convention is to either eliminate or reduce the release of POPs. It sets up a system for tackling additional chemicals identified as unacceptably hazardous. Eventually, the convention figures out the way to a future that is free of dangerous POPs. It also seeks to reduce the dependency of our economy on toxic chemicals.

Q12. With reference to the Waste Minimization Circles (WMC) initiative, consider the following statements:

1. It helps small and medium industrial clusters in waste minimization in their industrial plants.
2. It is financed by the World Bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – A

• The Waste Minimization method mainly focuses on reducing the amount and toxicity of hazardous waste generated. Waste minimization approaches focus on preventing waste from ever being created at source point, also known as source reduction. These techniques can be implemented at various stages in waste-generating processes. They require careful planning, changes in attitude, creative problems etc.
• Statement 1 is correct: Waste Minimization Circles (WMC) helps Small and Medium Industrial Clusters in waste minimization in their industrial plants.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Waste Minimisation Circle (WMC) is an initiative sponsored by the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change, Government of India under the policy the framework of promoting waste minimization in India.

Q13. Consider the following statements about Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016:

1. These rules are applicable only to municipal areas and urban agglomerations.
2. The responsibilities of generators have been fixed for the segregation of waste into two streams – wet and dry wastes.
3. The Rules mandate local bodies to frame their bye-laws to impose a ‘User Fee’, to be paid by the generator to waste collectors and for ‘Spot Fine’ for littering and non-segregation.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change revised the rules for the solid waste management in municipal areas. It would replace the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000 after 16 years. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 are now applicable beyond municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations notified industrial townships, census towns, areas under the control of Indian Railways, port, airports, airbase and harbor, defense establishments, state and central government organizations, special economic zones, places of religious, pilgrimage, and historical importance.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The segregation of waste at the source has been mandated under the rules. The responsibilities of generators have been fixed for the segregation of waste into three streams, wet (biodegradable), dry (paper, plastic, wood, metal, etc.), and domestic hazardous wastes (napkins, diapers, mosquito repellents, empty containers of cleaning agents, etc.).

Q14. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about Construction & Demolition Waste Management, 2016?

1. Prior to the introduction of these rules, ‘construction and demolition waste’ was regulated under the Municipal Solid Waste Management Rules, 2000.
2. Under the rules, every waste generator has been made responsible for the collection, and segregation of concrete and soil.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, for the the first time, notified the separate rules for the management of construction and demolition waste in the country as Construction and Demolition Management Rules, 2016. Earlier to these Rules, management of ‘construction and demolition waste’ was regulated under the Municipal Solid Waste Management Rules, 2000 and was left at the desecration of the urban local bodies.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Construction & Demolition Waste Management, 2016 is applied to everybody who generates construction and demolition waste-building materials, debris, and rubble waste from construction, remodeling, repair and demolition of any civil structure of individual or authority or organization.

Q15. With reference to the Oil-zapper Technology, consider the following statements:

1. It is developed by The Energy and Resources India (TERI).
2. It is a bioremediation technology that reduces or eliminates toxic pollutants from sludge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: The Energy and Resources India (TERI- a non-profit organization) created the oil-zapper after seven years of study, with funding from the DBT (Department of Biotechnology), Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India. The oil zapper is a mixture of five different bacterial strains that have been immobilized and combined with a carrier substance (powdered corncob).
• Statement 2 is correct: The Oil-zapper transforms hydrocarbon molecules found in crude oil and oily sludge (a hazardous hydrocarbon waste produced by oil refineries) into harmless CO2 and water. Bioremediation is the term for the process described above.

Q16. Consider the following pairs:

1. Bio-methanation: It is a scientific process whereby anaerobic microorganisms in an
   anaerobic environment decomposes biodegradable matter producing methane-rich biogas and effluent.
2. Incineration: Waste is directly burned in the presence of excess air (oxygen) at normal temperature (usually 80-90 °C), liberating heat energy, inert gases, and ash.
3. Pyrolysis: The organic material is heated only in anaerobic conditions until the molecules thermally break down to become a gas comprising smaller molecules (known collectively as syngas).

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer – A

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Anaerobic Digestion/Bio-methanation (Methanogenesis) is a scientific process under which biodegradable matter is decomposed by anaerobic microorganisms in an anaerobic condition. This process results in the production of methane-rich biogas and effluent. Biogas mainly includes methane (around 60- 75%), carbon dioxide (around 25-40%), and small quantities of NH3 and H2S. It has a Calorific Value of about 5000 kcal /m3. Depending upon the composition of the waste, the biogas production can be around 50-150m3/tonne of waste.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Combustion/ Incineration is the process, where waste is directly burned in the presence of excess air (oxygen) at high temperatures (about 800°C), liberating heat energy, inert gases, and ash. As a result of Combustion, the heat content of the organic matter (around 65% to 80%) is transferred to hot air, steam, and hot water.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Pyrolysis/ Gasification is a process of chemical decomposition of organic matter by the application of heat. In this process, the organic material is heated anaerobically (absence of air) and due to this the molecules thermally break down and convert into a gas comprising smaller molecules (collectively known as syngas)

Q17. Consider the following pairs:

1. Bio-methanation: It is a scientific process whereby anaerobic microorganisms in an anaerobic environment decompose biodegradable matter producing methane-rich biogas and effluent.
2. Incineration: Waste is directly burned in the presence of excess air (oxygen) at normal temperature (usually 80-90 °C), liberating heat energy, inert gases, and ash.
3. Pyrolysis: The organic material is heated only in anaerobic conditions until the molecules thermally break down to become a gas comprising smaller molecules (known collectively as syngas).

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer – A

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Anaerobic Digestion/Bio-methanation (Methanogenesis) is a scientific process under which biodegradable matter is decomposed by anaerobic microorganisms in an anaerobic condition. This process results in the production of methane-rich biogas and effluent. Biogas mainly includes methane (around 60- 75%), carbon dioxide (around 25-40%), and small quantities of NH3 and H2S. It has a Calorific Value of about 5000 kcal /m3. Depending upon the composition of the waste, the biogas production can be around 50-150m3/tonne of waste.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Combustion/ Incineration is the process, where waste is directly burned in the presence of excess air (oxygen) at high temperatures (about 800°C), liberating heat energy, inert gases, and ash. As a result of Combustion, the heat content of the organic matter (around 65% to 80%) is transferred to hot air, steam, and hot water.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Pyrolysis/ Gasification is a process of chemical decomposition of organic matter by the application of heat. In this process, the organic material is heated anaerobically (absence of air) and due to this the molecules thermally break down and convert into a gas comprising smaller molecules (collectively known as syngas)

Q18. Consider the following pairs:

1. Phytoremediation: In this technique, Sunlight is used to remove the contaminants from soil and water.
2. Landfarming: In this technique, the contaminated soil is excavated and spread over a prepared bed and periodically tilled until pollutants are degraded.
3. Rhizofiltration: It is a bioremediation technique that involves the uptake of contaminants by plant roots.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – b

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Phytoremediation is a type of bioremediation process that uses many types of plants to remove, stabilize, destroy or transfer the contaminants in the soil and groundwater.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Landfarming is a type of ex-situ bioremediation technique. Here, the excavated contaminated soil is spread over a prepared bed and periodically tilled until aerobic degradation of pollutants with the help of stimulated indigenous microorganisms takes place.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Rhizofiltration is a type of phytoremediation technique that involves the uptake of contaminants from the water body by plant roots. It is mainly used to reduce the contamination in wetlands sites and estuary sites.

Q19. The term ‘Agenda 21’ is sometimes seen in the news. It was an outcome of the:

(a) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(b) Paris Agreement
(c) Bonn Convention
(d) Vienna Convention

Answer – A

• Option (a) is correct: Agenda 21 was the result of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. It is an action plan of the United Nations (UN) that is related to sustainable development. It is an all-inclusive blueprint, for the initiatives to be taken globally, nationally, and locally, including UN agencies, Governments, and major groups in each area where humans affect the environment. The number 21 refers to an agenda for the 21st century

Q20 Consider the following statements about the Global Environment Facility:

1. Its funds are available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to meet the objectives of the International Environmental Conventions and Agreements.
2. It has a large network of civil society organizations that work closely with the private sector around the world.
3. It prioritizes integrated projects and programs that address only one global
   environmental problem at a time.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is correct: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems. GEF funds are available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to meet the objectives of the International Environmental Conventions and Agreements. The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, administering the GEF Trust Fund.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) is a unique partnership of 18 including United Nations agencies, multilateral development banks, national entities and international Non-Governmental Organizations – working with 183 countries to address the world’s most challenging environmental issues. The GEF has a large network of civil society organizations that work closely with the private sector around the world and receives continuous inputs from an independent evaluation office and a world-class scientific panel

Q21. Concerning the Forest Carbon Partnership Facility, consider the following statements:

1. It is focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries.
2. It has no separate funding mechanism of its own, and it is dependent on Global Environment Facility (GEF).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is correct: The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a worldwide collaboration of governments, businesses, civil society, and indigenous peoples. Its objective is to reduce emission from the degradation of forest and deforestation and the enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility has two separate but complementary funding mechanisms, the Readiness Fund, and the Carbon Fund, to achieve its strategic objectives. Both funds are underpinned by a multi-donor fund of Governments and Non-Governmental entities, including private companies that make a minimum financial contribution of $5 million.

Q22. The Adaptation for Smallholder Agriculture Program (ASAP) was launched by:

(a) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(b) World Bank
(c) Global Environment Facility
(d) Nordic Investment Bank

Answer – A

• option (a) is correct: The Adaptation for Smallholder Agriculture Programme (ASAP) was launched by the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) in 2012 to make arrangements for climate and environmental finance work for smallholder farmers. ASAP, a multi-year and multi-donor window of finance provides a newer source of co-financing to scale up and integrate climate change adaptations for a budget of approx US$1 billion of IFAD. The program is joined with IFAD’s regular investment processes and benefits from rigorous quality control and supervision systems.

Q23. With reference to the TRAFFIC (Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network), consider the following statements

1. It is a leading organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC), working on wildlife trade in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
2. Its aim is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is not correct: TRAFFIC (Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network) is a leading nongovernmental organization. Its working mandate is global. It oversees the trade of wild animals and plants in the context of both Biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. As a part of the strategic alliance of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), it was founded in 1976.
• Statement 2 is correct: The organization’s aim is to “ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature”. It promotes and encourages wildlife trade that is sustainable (the green stream work) and checks wildlife crime and trafficking (the red stream work).

Q24. With reference to the International Whaling Commission (IWC), consider the following statements:

1. The IWC is the global body charged with the conservation of whales and other top aquatic predators.
2. Its membership is open to only those countries which have a coastline.
3. India joined the IWC in 2017.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• The International Whaling Convention (IWC) was set up under the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling which was signed in Washington DC on 2 December 1946. According to the preamble of the convention, its motive is to provide for the proper conservation of whale stocks and orderly development of the whaling industry.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The IWC is the global body charged with the conservation of whales and the management of whaling. In addition to the regulation of whaling, today’s IWC works to address a wide range of conservation issues, including bycatch and entanglement, ocean noise, pollution and debris, a collision between whales and ships, and sustainable whale watching.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Membership of the IWC is open to any country in the world that formally adheres to the 1946 Convention. Each member country is known as a Contracting Government and is represented by a Commissioner, who is assisted by experts and advisers.
• Statement 3 is not correct: India joined the Commission on 9 March 1981.

Q25. With reference to the Nitrous oxide (N2O), consider the following statements:

1. It is naturally present in the atmosphere as part of the Earth’s nitrogen cycle and has a variety of natural sources.
2. Its lifetime in the atmosphere varies from 10 months to 2 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is correct: In the atmosphere, Nitrous oxide (N2O) is naturally present as part of the nitrogen cycle of Earth and has a range of natural sources. However, in the atmosphere, the amount of N2O is increasing due to human activities such as agriculture, fossil fuel combustion, wastewater management, and industrial processes.
• Statement 2 is not correct: For a 100-year timescale, the Global Warming Potential of Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is 310 times that of CO2. N2O emitted today remains in the atmosphere for an average of 120 years (lifetime). From the atmosphere, it is taken out as certain types of bacteria absorb it, or ultraviolet radiation or chemical reactions destroy it.

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