The UPSC Prelims Question Paper for the General Studies Paper 1 in 2019 was a comprehensive examination that tested the candidates’ knowledge across a wide range of subjects. The paper consisted of multiple-choice questions covering areas such as history, geography, polity, economics, environment, and current affairs. The questions were designed to assess not only the candidates’ factual knowledge but also their analytical and problem-solving skills. The answer key for the UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1 was eagerly awaited by aspirants, as it provided a crucial tool for self-assessment and gauging performance. The key helped candidates identify correct answers and understand the areas where improvement was needed. Overall, the 2019 UPSC Prelims Question Paper served as a challenging yet fair assessment of candidates’ preparedness for the Civil Services Examination, setting the stage for the subsequent stages of the selection process.
In conclusion, solving previous year’s question papers is a highly recommended strategy for all UPSC aspirants. It not only familiarizes you with the exam pattern but also gives you an idea of the type of questions that could be asked in the actual exam. So, go ahead and attempt the paper provided in this article and evaluate your performance using the official answer key. Good luck with your preparation!
1. With reference to Mughal India what is/are the difference /differences between Jagirdar and zamindar?
- Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
- Land assignments to jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindar were not hereditary
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. With reference to land reforms in independent India which one of the following statements is correct?
a) The celling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holding.
b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless
c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant from of cultivation
d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the celling limits
3. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
a) International Monetary Fund
b) World Nations conference on trade and development
c) World economic forum
d) World bank
4. Consider the following statement about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’ :
- It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the company
- The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
5. With reference to Swadeshi Movement Consider the following statements:
- It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
- The national Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following pairs:
Movement /Organization Leader
- All India anti Untochability Mahatma ghandhi
League: - All india Kisan Sabha: Swami sahajanand
Saraswati - Self-respect movement: E V ramaswami
Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
7. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
a) Chanhudaro
b) Kot Diji
c) Sohgaura
d) Desalpur
8. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
a) Kanganahalli
b) Sanchi
c) Shahbazgarhi
d) Sohgaura
9. Consider the following:
- Deification of the Buddha
- Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
- Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
10. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of Gupta Empire.
c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
d) The eldest son of the labourers was sent as the forced labourer.
11. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
a) Chalukya
b) Chandela
c) Rashtrakuta
d) Vijayanagara
12. Consider the following statements:
- In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
- The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
- The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statements:
- Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
- Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
- Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
- In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
- Consequent upon the breaking of Salt law by Indian people, the Indian National congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
15. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person Position held
- Sir Tej Bahadur : President, All India
Sapru Liberal Federation - K. C. Neogy : Member, the
Constituent Assembly - P. C. Joshi : General Secretary,
Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
16. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
17. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
a) Humayun
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan
18. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperatealpine zone?
a) Manas National Park
b) Namdapha National Park
c) Neora Valley National Park
d) Valley of Flowers National Park
19. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
a) Department of Science and Technology
b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
c) NITI Aayog
d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
20. On 21st June, the Sun
a) Does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
b) Does not set below the Horizon at Antarctic Circle
c) Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
d) Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
21. Which of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World?
a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
22. Consider the following statements:
- Asiatic lion in naturally found in India only.
- Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
- One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Consider the following pairs:
Famous Place River
- Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
- Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
- Hampi : Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
24. In a given year in India, Official poverty lines are higher in some states than in others because
a) Poverty rates vary from State to State
b) Price levels vary from State to State
c) Gross State product varies from State of to State
d) Quality of public distribution varies from State to State
25. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of Cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of Sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
d) Reducing the global warming
26. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
a) Extraction of rare earth elements
b) Natural gas extraction technologies
c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d) Waste-to-energy technologies
27. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
28. Consider the following statement:
- Some species of turtles are herbivores.
- Some species of fish are herbivores.
- Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
- Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. Consider the following pairs:
wildlife Naturally found in
- Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
- Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
- Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
30. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?
a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
31. Recently, there was growing awareness, in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Giradinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
a) Anti-malarial drug
b) Biodiesel
c) Pulp for paper industry
d) Textile fibre
32. For the measurement/ estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
- Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
- Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
- Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
33. Consider the following State:
- Chhattisgarh
- Madhya Pradesh
- Maharashtra
- Odisha
With reference to the State mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending of order?
a) 2-3-1-4
b) 2-3-4-1
c) 3-2-4-1
d) 3-2-1-4
34. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
- Global warming might trigger the release methane gas from these deposits.
- Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
- Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
35. Consider the following
- Carbon monoxide
- Methane
- Ozone
- Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
36. Consider the following pairs:
Sea Bordering country
- Andriatic Sea : Albania
- Black Sea : Croatia
- Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
- Mediterranean Sea : Morocco
- Red Sea : Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
37. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
a) China
b) India
c) Myanmar
d) Vietnam
38. Consider the following pairs:
Glacier River
- Bandarpuch : Yamuna
- Bara Shigri : Chenab
- Milam : Mandakini
- Siachen : Nubra
- Zemu : Manao
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 5
d) 3 and 5
39. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
a) Pesticides in agriculture
b) Preservatives in processed foods
c) fruit-ripening agents
d) Moisturising agents in cosmetics
40. Consider the following statements:
- Under Ramasar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetland in the territory of India.
- The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramasar Convention.
- The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
41. Consider the following statements:
- Agriculture soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
- Cattle release ammonia into environment.
- Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
42. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangasabati?
a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
b) Tropical rain forests
c) Underground cave systems
d) Water reservoirs
43. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
- The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
- H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
- Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
- H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
45. Consider the following statements:
- The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statement:
- The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
- The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
- If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4
47. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the Prime minister ship of
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
c) Indira Gandhi
d) Morarji Desai
48. Consider the following statements:
- Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
- Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
- Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
49. Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- The term ‘Office of Profit’.
Which of the statements given above is /are Correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
50. Under which Schedule of the constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
a) Third Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Twelfth Schedule
51. Consider the following statements about particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
- PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
- A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
- There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
- Trular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
52. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
53. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a state in India, consider the following statements:
- The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- When a state Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
54. Consider the following statements:
- The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
- The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
- A highly of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
- The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
55. Consider the following statements:
- As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
- As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
- The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forrest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Which of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
a) Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 25
d) Article 29
57. Consider the following statements:
- According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
- In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
- Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
58. Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
- State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.
- lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Waste generator has to segregate waste in to five categories.
b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only
c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of the sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
60. Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
- if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers.
- no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
b) Lead Bank Scheme
c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
d) National Skill Development Mission
62. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
- Sand is a ‘Minor Mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country
- State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of m minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
- State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
63. Consider the following statements:
- Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
- All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
a) Advances
b) Deposits
c) Investments
d) Money at call and short notice
65. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
- The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
- Increasing the government expenditure
- Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
66. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
67. Which of the following issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
a) Certificate of Deposit
b) Commercial paper
c) Promissory Note
d) Participatory Note
68. Consider the following statements:
- As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
- People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation Programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. In India which of the following the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunication, insurance electricity, etc.?
- Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
- Parliament Department Relate Standing Committees
- Financial Commission
- Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
- NITI Aayog.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 3, 4 and 5
d) 2 and 5
70. With reference to India’s Five – Year Plan, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
- From the Second Five- Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
- The Fourth Five- Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
- In the Fifth Five- Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
71. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), Consider the Following Statements:
- AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
- India Is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
- AIIB does not have any Members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
72. What was the purpose of Inter Creditor Agreement signed by Indian Banks and Financial institution recently?
a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of Fiscal deficit and current account deficit.
b) To support the infrastructure projects of central and state governments.
c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of ₹ 50 crore or more.
d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending.
73. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
a) Banks Board Bureau.
b) Reserve Bank of India.
c) Union Ministry of Finance.
d) Management of concerned bank.
74. Consider the following Statements:
- Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory Board set up by the Govt. of India.
- One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
- Appeals against the decisions PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the Statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
75. With Reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VOLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
- LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VOLTE is Commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
- LTE is Data-only Technology and VOLTE is voice-only technology.
Selected the Corrected answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
76. Which of the following statements is/are correct rewarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
- Pregnant women are entitled for three months per-delivery and three months per-delivery paid leave.
- Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
- Women whit two children get reduced entitlements.
Selected the Corrected answer using the code given below.
a) 1and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
77. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index?
a) Maintenance of law and order
b) Paying taxes
c) Registering property
d) Dealing with construction permits
78. In India ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules,1998
b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing an Usage) Rules, 1999
c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
d) The Food Safety and standard Regulations ,2011
79. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (If any) paid to the farmer’s plus
a) Transportation cost only
b) Interest cost only
c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
80. In the Context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capitals?
a) The proportion of literates in the population
b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
c) The size of population in the working age group
d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
81. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :
- No High court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
- An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. Consider the following statements:
- Purchasing power exchange rates are calculated by comparing the price of the same basket of goods and services I different countries.
- In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five Year, consider the following statements :
- Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
- Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
- Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane
- Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
84. Among the agriculture commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years.
a) Spices
b) Fresh fruits
c) Pulses
d) Vegetables oils
85. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
b) Absence of restraint
c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
86. Which of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/ RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
b) Encouraging India borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
87. Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
- They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
- They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by pubic sectore enterprises
- They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statement given above is are correct
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
a) Australia
b) Canada
c) The European Union
d) The United States of America
89. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
a) Japan
b) Russia
c) The United Kingdom
d) The United States of America
90. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
d) Increase in the population of the country
91. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
- In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
- In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
- AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
- VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 4 only
92. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
a) Fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
b) An early human species
c) A cave systems found in North-East India
d) A geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent.
93. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
b. Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
c. A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
d. Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
94. Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
- An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
- Used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
- An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original contenet is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
95. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
- Location identification of a person
- Sleep monitoring of a person
- Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
96. ‘RNA Interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. why?
- It is used in developing gene silencing therapies
- It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer
- It can be used to developer hormone replacement therapies
- It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4 only
97. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giants ‘blackholes’ billions of lightyear away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through wormhole was confirmed
d) It enabled the scientist to understand singularity.
98. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
- Genetic predisposition of some people.
- Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
- Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
- Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
99. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
100. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
b) Hepatitis b unlike hepatitis C does not have a vaccine.
c) Globally the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several time more than those infected with HIV.
d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
1. Question: What was the total number of questions in the UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1?
Answer: The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2019 consisted of 100 questions.
2. Question: Can I get the UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key?
Answer: Yes, the answer key for UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1 is available online. You can find it on the official UPSC website or various coaching institutes’ websites.
3. Question: What were the major subjects covered in the General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2019?
Answer: The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2019 covered subjects like History, Geography, Polity, Economy, Science and Technology, Environment, and Current Affairs.
4. Question: How many marks were allotted to the General Studies Paper 1 in UPSC Prelims 2019?
Answer: The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2019 was of 200 marks in total.
5. Question: Were there any changes in the exam pattern for UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1 compared to the previous year?
Answer: The exam pattern for General Studies Paper 1 in UPSC Prelims 2019 was consistent with previous years, consisting of multiple-choice questions with four options. The subjects covered were also similar to the previous year’s pattern.
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