UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2021 with Answer Key – General Studies Paper 1

The UPSC Prelims Question Paper for General Studies Paper 1 in 2021 presented a comprehensive and challenging examination of candidates’ knowledge across various subjects. Covering topics such as history, geography, economics, polity, science, and current affairs, the paper aimed to assess the aspirants’ understanding of diverse subjects. The questions were designed to evaluate not only factual knowledge but also the applicants’ analytical and conceptual grasp of the topics. The UPSC provided an Answer Key for the preliminary paper, offering clarity on the correct responses and enabling candidates to assess their performance. The Answer Key played a crucial role in helping aspirants gauge their strengths and weaknesses, facilitating a better understanding of the examination pattern and expectations. Overall, the UPSC Prelims Question Paper and Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1 in 2021 served as valuable tools for aspirants in their preparation for the highly competitive Civil Services Examination.

The following article will include the Previous year’s UPSC question paper for Prelims 2021. Try to attempt the paper and comment on your scored marks after reviewing it with the official answer key after each question.

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.

Which of the above statements is correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

2. With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:

1. All casual workers are entitled for employees Provident Fund Coverage
2. All casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment
3. The government can be a notification specifying that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements is correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?

a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate
b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects

4. Consider the following statements

Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

1. The price of its substitute increases
2. The price of its complement increases
3. The good is an inferior good and the income of the consumers increases
4. Its price falls

Which of the above statements is correct?

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3

5. With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Indian Government Bond yields are influenced by which of the following?

1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following:

1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions
3. Global depository receipts
4. Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4

8. Consider the following statements:

The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily

1. Improves the competitiveness of domestic exports in foreign markets
2. Increase the foreign value of domestic currency
3. Improves the trade balance

Which of the above statements is/are
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

9. Which one of the following effects of the creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewelry, gold, etc.
c) Large donations to political parties and the growth of regionalism
d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

10. Which one of the following is likely to be one of the most inflationary in its effects?

a) Repayment of public debt
b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

11. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks.
b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
c) Increase in the banking habits of the people
d) Increase in the population of the country

12. With reference to the Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?

1. Expansionary policies
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
4. Higher purchasing power
5. Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

13. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Retail investors through demat accounts can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market
2. The ‘’Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching’’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The ‘’Central Depository Services Ltd’’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

14. With reference to ‘’Water Credit”, consider the following statements:

1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

15. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘’lender of last resort’’ usually refers to which of the following?

1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

16. ‘’R2 Code of Practices’’ constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of

a) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry
b) Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention
c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources

17. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment
3. They may release sulfur dioxide as a pollutant

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

18. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:

1. It is a product of oil refineries
2. Some industries use it to generate power
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

19. What is blue carbon?

a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
d) Carbon present in the atmosphere

20. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?

1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4

21. Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?

a) Congress grass
b) Elephant grass
c) Lemon grass
d) Nutgrass

22. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

23. Consider the following animals

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3

24. With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements is correct?

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests
3. It is a legally binding international declaration
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies, and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 5
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 5

25. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

26. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

a) Catfish
b) Octopus
c) Oyster
d) Pelican

27. In the case of which of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?

a) Carbon cycle
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Phosphorus cycle
d) Sulphur cycle

28. Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Seahorse
4. Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2, and 4 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

29. The ‘’Common Carbon Metric’’ supported by UNEP, has been developed for

a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
d) Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time

30. Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms?

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

31. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:

1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

32. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channeling water into connected reservoirs?

a) Dholavira
b) Kalibangan
c) Rakhigarhi
d) Ropar

33. In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located?

1. Broach
2. Chicacole
3. Trichinopoly

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

34. From the decline of the Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India?

1. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabutis of Thanesar
4. The Yadavas of Devagiri
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 5
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 5 and 6

35. According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in the Vijayanagar Empire were experts in which of the following areas?

1. Wrestling
2. Astrology
3. Accounting
4. Soothsaying

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Pingali Venkaya designed the tricolor Indian National Flag here.
b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here.
c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.
d) Madam Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here.

37. Consider the following pairs:

Historical place: Well-known for

Burzahom: Rock-cut shrines

Chandra-ketugargh : Terracotta art

Ganeshwar: Copper artifacts
Which of the pairs given above is correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

38. Consider the following statements

1. It was during the reign of Iltumish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince.
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of the Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

39. Consider the following statements:

1. St.Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order
2. St.Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there
3. The Feast of St.Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

40. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim the right to the property during the lifetime of the father whereas, in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim the right to the property.
3. The Mitakshara system deals with matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

41. With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhutti, Hastimalla, and Kshemeshwara were famous

a) Jain monks
b) Playwrights
c) temple architects
d) philosophers

42. Consider the following statements:

i) The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21.
ii) The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

43. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian History, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by AICC
b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

44. Which among the following is associated with ‘’Songs from Prison’’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?

a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
d) Sarojini Naidu

45. With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?

a) Paragana-Sarkar-Suba
b) Sarkar-Paragana-Suba
c) Suba-Sarkar-Paragana
d) Paragana-Suba-Sarkar

46. Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?

a) Annie Besant
b) Debendranath Tagore
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
d) Sarojini Naidu

47. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillion are remembered as

a) Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
b) Members of the Interim Government in 1946
c) Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
d) Officers of the Indian National Army

48. With reference to Indian History, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of the Vijayanagara Empire
3. The Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

49. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river.
b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.
c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada River.
d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

50. Consider the following statements:

1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?

1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 4 only
d) 2 and 3

52. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements:

1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

53. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of the which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?

a) Chenab
b) Jhelum
c) Ravi
d) Sutlej

54. With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and khatu are the names of

a) Glaciers
b) Mangrove areas
c) Ramsar sites
d) Saline lakes

55. Consider the following Rivers:

1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara

Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3

56. Consider the following statements:

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licenses for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licenses for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?

a) Sugarcane
b) Sunflower
c) Pearl millet
d) Red gram

58. Consider the following statements:

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2

59. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements :

1. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

60. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This is the most likely descriptions of

a) Coniferous forest
b) Dry deciduous forest
c) Mangrove forest
d) Tropical rain forest

61. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions.

Which of the following are such conditions?

1. Burrowing animals and termites.
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and2
b) 4 and 5
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 5

62. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water I n polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Consider the following statements:

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1,2, 3 and 5

64. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of

a) Brown forest soil
b) Fissure volcanic rock
c) Granite and schist
d) Shale and limestone

65. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:

1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:

1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is’/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of

a) Clonal propagation of crop plants
b) Developing genetically modified crop plants
c) Production of plant growth substances
d) Production of biofertilizers

68. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?

1. Area of the hole in the lid
2. Temperature of the flame
3. Weight of the lid

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

69. Consider the following:

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

70. Consider the following statements:

1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because.

a) It is dipolar in nature.
b) It is a good conductor of heat
c) It has high value of specific heat
d) It is an oxide of hydrogen

72. With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?

1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps.
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

73. The term ‘ACE2” is talked about in the context of

a) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants
b) development of India’s own satellite navigation system
c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
d) spread of viral diseases

74. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics?

a) Low-density polyethylene
b) Polycarbonate
c) Polyethylene terephthalate
d) Polyvinyl Chloride.

75. ‘Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?

a) Food preservatives
b) Fruit ripening substances
c) reused plastic containers
d) Toiletries.

76. Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distance are measured in light-years?

a) Distance among stellar bodies do not change.
b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change.
c) Light always travels in straight line.
d) Speed of light is always same.

77. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

79. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India?

a) Article 15
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 29

80. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

81. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorised colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

82. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

84. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.
b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

85. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

a) Article 14
b) Article 28
c) Article 32
d) Article 44

86. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded
b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c) the Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

87. Which one of the following best defines the term “State”?

a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.
c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.
d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

88. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements.

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

90. Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

a) A committed judiciary
b) Centralization of powers
c) Elected government
d) Separation of powers.

91. Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates

a) The right to equality
b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
c) The Right to freedom
d) the Concept of Welfare

92. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

a) Legal right available to citizens only
b) Legal right available to any person
c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right.

93. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

a) A democratic Republic
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

94. Constitutional government means.

a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
c) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

95. With reference to India, the terms ‘halbi, Ho and Kui” pertain to

a) dance forms of Northwest India
b) musical Instruments
c) pre-historic cave paintings
d) tribal languages

96. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards.

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.

98. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One ‘Players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:

1. The official motto for the Olympics is ‘A New World’
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

100. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:

1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Q1: What is the format of the UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2021 – General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2021 – General Studies Paper 1 followed a multiple-choice format. It consisted of 100 questions, each carrying 2 marks, making the total marks for the paper 200.

Q2: How was the difficulty level of the UPSC Prelims General Studies Paper 1 in 2021?

Answer: The difficulty level of the UPSC Prelims General Studies Paper 1 in 2021 was considered moderate. It covered a wide range of topics, including current affairs, history, geography, economics, and science, ensuring a comprehensive assessment of the candidates’ knowledge.

Q3: Were there any significant changes in the pattern of questions in the UPSC Prelims 2021 compared to previous years?

Answer: No significant changes were observed in the pattern of questions in the UPSC Prelims 2021 compared to previous years. The paper continued to assess candidates on a diverse set of subjects, maintaining the traditional structure of the UPSC Preliminary Examination.

Q4: Can I get the UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2021 with an Answer Key?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2021, along with its official answer key, is usually released by the Union Public Service Commission on its official website. Candidates can download the question paper and answer key to evaluate their performance and identify the correct answers.

Q5: How can candidates use the UPSC Prelims General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key for preparation?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key serves as a valuable tool for self-assessment. Candidates can compare their answers with the official key to identify strengths and weaknesses. Analyzing the solutions helps in understanding the expected response format and enhances overall preparation for future examinations.

For UPSC Prelims Resources, Click here

For Daily Updates and Study Material:

Join our Telegram Channel – Edukemy for IAS

• 1. Learn through Videos – here
• 2. Be Exam Ready by Practicing Daily MCQs – here
• 3. Daily Newsletter – Get all your Current Affairs Covered – here
• 4. Mains Answer Writing Practice – here

Visit our YouTube Channel – here