Prepare for the UPSC Prelims with focused practice on “Indian Polity and Governance – State Government” through topic-wise questions. This resource offers a structured approach to mastering key concepts related to state government functions in India.
Covering topics such as state legislature, executive, and judiciary, these questions help aspirants assess their understanding and identify areas for improvement.
With detailed explanations and answers, this resource serves as a valuable tool for reinforcing knowledge and building confidence to tackle UPSC Prelims questions effectively.
Enhance your preparation by engaging with targeted practice questions, ensuring thorough coverage of state government operations and boosting your readiness for the UPSC Prelims examination.
Q1. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (7th Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it? (1995)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (d)
The 7th Amendment Act of 1956 proposed the establishment of a Legislative Council in Madhya Pradesh. However, no presidential notification has been issued, so Madhya Pradesh remains with only one house. Currently, as of May 2022, only six states possess bicameral legislatures: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka. Article 169 of the Constitution outlines the provisions for the creation and abolition of legislative councils.
Q2. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this? (1995)
1. No Governor can be removed from his office till the completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
None of the statements provided are accurate. According to Article 156, the Governor serves at the pleasure of the President and can resign or be removed by the President at any time. Even after the expiration of their term, the Governor continues in office until a successor assumes the role. While the Governor is the chief executive of the state, akin to the President at the national level, they primarily serve as a nominal or constitutional head. Additionally, the Governor acts as an agent of the central government, thus fulfilling a dual role in office.
Q3. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that? (1995)
(a) the polling was very poor for
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
Ans. (d)
A candidate forfeits their deposit only if they receive less than one-sixth of the total votes, typically occurring in elections with a large number of contestants. According to Section 34(1) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, general candidates must deposit ₹10,000 as security to contest an Assembly election, while SC/ST candidates deposit ₹5,000. Below is a table detailing some results from the December 1994 election to the Karnataka State Legislative Assembly.
Q4. Consider the table given below providing some details of the results of the election to the Karnataka State Legislative Assembly held in December, 1994. (1995)
| Political Party | Percentage of popular votes obtained | Number of seats secured |
| Janata Dal | 36 | 116 |
| Congress | 31 | 35 |
| BJP | 20.4 | 40 |
In the terms of electoral analysis, the voter-seat distortion is to be explained as the result of the adoption of the
(a) Hare system
(b) Cumulative vote system
(c) First-past-the-post system
(d) Plural vote system
Ans. (c)
Under the First-past-the-post system, a candidate is declared the winner based on plurality of votes rather than majority. In the election for the Governor of Punjab, the candidate with the highest number of votes is elected, leading to potential voter-seat distortion in the state assembly.
Q5. Which one or the following States of India has passed a legislation (in 1996) making the maintenance of one’s parent mandatory? (1997)
(a) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (d)
In 1996, Himachal Pradesh enacted legislation requiring adult children to care for their elderly parents. The Himachal Pradesh Maintenance of Parents and Dependents Bill, 1996 aims to swiftly assist elderly parents who are financially unable to support themselves by mandating support from their children.
Q6. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the states? (2003)
(a) 6th and 22nd
(b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st
(d) 11th and 42nd
Ans. (c)
The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act modified Article 81 of the Constitution, stipulating that the House of People could have a maximum of 500 members elected from states and up to 25 members from Union Territories. However, the subsequent 31st Constitution Amendment Act revised this to allow for a maximum of 525 members from states and 20 members from Union Territories in the Lok Sabha.
Q7. Consider the following statements. The Constitution of India provides that (2008)
1. the Legislative Assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a state if he/she is less than 25 years of age.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Statement (2) is accurate as per the Constitution of India, which specifies that each State Legislative Assembly shall comprise a maximum of 500 members elected directly from territorial constituencies within the state.
However, Statement (1) is incorrect. The State Legislative assembly comprises the Governor and one or more houses of the state. The Legislative Assembly is the democratically elected house of the State Legislature. Its size can range from a minimum of 60 to a maximum of 500 members, though some Legislative Assemblies, such as those of Sikkim and Mizoram, have fewer than 60 members.
Q8. Consider the following statements. (2009)
1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.
2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Only statement (1) is accurate as the Governor of Punjab concurrently holds the position of Administrator of Chandigarh. According to Article 239 of the Constitution, even Union Territories are administered by the President through an Administrator appointed by him, with a designated title.
However, statement (2) is incorrect. Administrators in various Union Territories hold different designations such as Lieutenant Governor in Puducherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and Administrator in Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, and Lakshadweep. Additionally, the President may appoint a Governor of a State as the Administrator of an adjacent Union Territory.
Q8. Consider the following statements. (2009)
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the state level.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
None of the provided statements are accurate. In each state, there exists an Advocate-General, a position akin to the Attorney General of India, with similar responsibilities for the state. As per Article 165, the Advocate-General is appointed by the Governor and serves at the Governor’s pleasure. Only an individual qualified to be a High Court judge can be appointed to this role, with their remuneration determined by the Governor. Article 177 grants the Advocate-General the authority to speak and participate in state Legislature proceedings, though they lack the right to vote. Additionally, as outlined in the Civil Procedure Code, High Courts do not possess original, appellate, or advisory jurisdiction at the state level.
Q9. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2013)
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more states at the same time.
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of the Union Territory having a legislative set-up, the Chief Minister is appointed by the U Governor on the basis of majority support
Ans. (a)
Statement (a) is accurate because Article 153 of the Constitution allows for the appointment of the same individual as Governor of two or more states.
Q10. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014)
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.
2. Appointing the Ministers.
3. Reserving Certain Bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of these
Ans. (b)
Statements (1) and (3) are accurate. Under normal circumstances, the Governor follows the advice of the Council of Ministers. However, the Constitution grants the Governor certain discretionary powers, particularly in situations where no single party or group commands an absolute majority after general elections, allowing the Governor to exercise discretion in appointing the Chief Minister.
Statements (2) and (4) are incorrect. Ministers hold office at the pleasure of the Governor, and the Governor can dismiss the ministry if it loses majority support in the house. However, the Governor cannot dismiss the ministry until it has lost majority support.
The Governor advises the President to proclaim emergency under Article 356 when convinced that the government cannot function according to the Constitution’s provisions. Additionally, the Governor summons, prorogues, and dissolves the Legislative Assembly as per Article 174. If the ministry loses majority support and the Governor is satisfied, he may dissolve the house.
Q11. Consider the following statements. (2015)
1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
2. The Governor of a state nominates the chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
None of the provided statements are correct. According to Article 171(1) of the Indian Constitution, the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state cannot exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that state. Furthermore, the Legislative Council must have a minimum of 40 members.
Additionally, Article 171(3)(e) specifies that one-sixth of the total number of members of a Legislative Council are nominated by the Governor from individuals with expertise in Literature, Science, Art, Cooperative Movement, and Social Service.
Moreover, the Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the Council itself from amongst its members.
Q12. Consider the following statements. (2016)
1. The Chief Secretary in a state is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Neither statement (1) nor statement (2) is accurate. The Chief Secretary serves as the administrative head of state administration in India and is comparable to the Cabinet Secretary at the state level. As the chief coordinator of the state secretariat and other administrative departments, as well as the head of the civil service, the Chief Secretary plays a pivotal role in state governance. The appointment of the Chief Secretary is made by the Chief Minister of the State. However, there is no fixed tenure for the Chief Secretary, despite recommendations by the Administrative Reforms Commission in 1969 for a minimum tenure of three to four years, which have not been implemented.
Q13. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? (2017)
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Statements (1) and (3) are inaccurate explanations for the proclamation of President’s rule in a State. The dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly and local bodies is not always a consequence of the proclamation of President’s rule. Instead, the proclamation may result in the suspension of the assembly or Council of Ministers, pending approval by Parliament and judicial review. During this emergency, the President assumes the functions of the state government and the powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state. Additionally, the President may declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by Parliament.
Q14. Consider the following statements. (2018)
1. No criminal proceeding shall be instituted against the Governor of a state in any court during his terms of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his terms of office.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Both provided statements are correct. According to Article 361(2) of the Constitution, no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor of a State in any court during their term of office. Similarly, Article 158(4) states that the emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during their term of office. The Governor also enjoys various privileges and immunities, including personal immunity from legal liability for official acts. They are immune from criminal proceedings during their term of office, even regarding personal acts, and cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, civil proceedings can be initiated against the Governor after providing two months’ notice regarding personal acts during their term of office.
Q15. Consider the following statements. (2018)
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Only statement (1) is correct. According to Article 179, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. However, the Speaker does not vacate office immediately upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. Although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, he/she does not vacate his/her office.
Q16. If President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then (2018)
(a) the assembly of the state is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that state.
Ans. (b)
If President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then the powers of the Legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Q17. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (2019)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000).
Ans. (c)
Sarkaria Commission (1983) suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state. It emphasized that the Governor should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past.
Q18. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements. (2019)
- The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Only statement (1) is correct. The Governor can address the State Legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year given in Article 176 (1) of Constitution.
Q19. With reference to India, consider the following statements. (2021)
- When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
- State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Statement (2) is accurate because prisons and related regulations fall under the state subject listed in List II of Schedule 7th of the Constitution. Hence, each state has its own set of prison rules governing matters such as parole, furlough, etc.
However, Statement (1) is incorrect. Parole is indeed a system where a prisoner is temporarily released from prison, with the suspension of their prison term, typically based on good behavior. However, parole is not an automatic right for prisoners; it is granted based on various factors and is subject to the discretion of prison authorities or parole boards.
Q20. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’? (2021)
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organised government
(b) A politically organised people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary
Ans. (a)
The term ‘State’ refers to a community of individuals permanently residing in a specific geographical area, with an organized government system independent of external control. It comprises people, government, territory, and sovereignty. According to Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, the term ‘State’ encompasses various governmental entities within India’s territory, including the union and state governments, legislative bodies, and local authorities.
Q21. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Ans. (a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Prisons in India are managed by State Governments as per their own regulations. The Prisons Act, 1894, explicitly places the subject of prisons under the control of Provincial Governments (now State Governments), as stated in List II of Schedule VII of the Indian Constitution.
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