UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz – 06th January 2023

Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!

Q 1. Fagradalsfjall volcano was recently erupted, it is located in which of the following countries: 

1. Indonesia 
2. USA 
3. Russia 
4. Iceland 

Answer: (d) 

Recently, the Government of Iceland has confirmed that the volcanic eruption near the capital Reykjanes poses no threat to human life. 

Iceland is located on the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, technically the longest mountain range in the world, but on the floor of the Atlantic Ocean. 

The eruption began between Sýlingarfell and Hagafell, just north of the fishing town of Grindavik which is located on the Reykjanes Peninsula. 

Q 2. Consider the following regions: 

1. Circum-Pacific Belt 
2. Mid-Continental Belt 
3. Mid Atlantic Ridge 

How many of the above are the volcano prone region in the world? 

1. Only 1 
2. Only 2 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer: (c) 

Volcano-Prone Regions in the World 

Volcanoes are distributed all around the world, mostly along the edges of Tectonic Plates, although there are intraplate volcanoes that form from mantle Hotspots. 

Circum-Pacific Belt: The Pacific “Ring of Fire” is a string of volcanoes and sites located on most of the Earth’s subduction zones having high seismic activity, around the edges of the Pacific Ocean. The Pacific Ring of Fire has a total of 452 volcanoes. Most of the active volcanoes are found on its western edge, from the Kamchatka Peninsula in Russia, through the islands of Japan and Southeast Asia, to New Zealand. 

Mid-Continental Belt: This volcanic belt extends along the Alpine Mountain system of Europe, North America, through Asia Minor, Caucasia, Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan to the Himalayan Mountain system, including Tibet, the pamir, Tien-Shan, Altai, and the mountains of China, Myanmar and eastern Siberia. This belt includes the volcanoes of Alps mountains, Mediterranean Sea (Stromboli, Vesuvius, Etna, etc.), volcanoes of Aegean Sea, Mt. Ararat (Turkey), Elburz, Hindu Kush and Himalayas. 

Mid Atlantic Ridge: The Mid-Atlantic Ridge separates the North and South American Plate from the Eurasian and African Plate. Magma rises through the cracks and leaks out onto the ocean floor like a long, thin, undersea volcano. As magma meets the water, it cools and solidifies, adding to the edges of the sideways-moving plates. This process along the divergent boundary has created the longest topographic feature in the form of Mid oceanic ridges under the Oceans of the world. 

Intraplate Volcanoes: The 5% of known volcanoes in the world that are not closely related to plate margins are generally regarded as intraplate, or “hot-spot,” volcanoes. A hot spot is believed to be related to the rising of a deep-mantle plume, which is caused by very slow convection of highly viscous material in Earth’s mantle. It can be represented by a single oceanic volcano or lines of volcanoes such as the Hawaiian-Emperor seamount chains. 

Q 3. Consider the following statements  

Statement-I: Speaker can direct a member to withdraw immediately from the House if he finds the member’s conduct disorderly. 

Statement-II: A member suspended under rule 374 of Lok Sabha shall forthwith withdraw from the precincts of the House. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.  

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer: (b) 

Rules Under Which the Presiding Officer Suspends MPs 

Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha: 

Rule 373: Rules The Speaker can direct a member to withdraw immediately from the House if he finds the member’s conduct disorderly. 

• Members so ordered to withdraw shall do so forthwith and shall remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting. 

Rule 374: The Speaker can name a member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House by persistently and wilfully obstructing the business thereof. 

• And the member so named will be suspended from the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session. 
• A member suspended under this rule shall forthwith withdraw from the precincts of the House.” 

Rule 374A: Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book in December 2001. 

• In case of gross violation or severe charges, on being named by the Speaker, the member stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less. 

Q 4. Consider the following statements: 

1. Speaker holds the office during the pleasure of the President. 
2. Speaker need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election. 
3. If speaker intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. 

How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All three  

(d) None 

Answer: (a) 

• The Speaker is elected by the members of Lok Sabha from amongst its members (as soon as may be, after its first sitting). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. However, he has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases: 
• If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha. if he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
• If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.  

Q 5. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals. 

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export. 
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country. 
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements. 

How many of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All three  

(d) None 

Answer: (b) 

Statement 1 is correct: Recently, China has banned the export of technology to extract and separate the Rare Earth Metals, as it overhauled a list of technologies deemed key to national security. China’s Rare Earths deposits account for 80% of identified global reserves. 

• It also banned the export of production technology for rare earth metals and alloy materials as well as technology to prepare some rare earth magnets. 
• The move comes as Europe and the US scramble to wean themselves off rare earths from China, which accounts for 90% of global refined output. 

Rare Earth Metals 

• They are a set of seventeen metallic elements. These include the fifteen lanthanides on the periodic table in addition to scandium and yttrium which show similar physical and chemical properties to the lanthanides. 
• The 17 Rare Earths are cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), europium (Eu), gadolinium (Gd), holmium (Ho), lanthanum (La), lutetium (Lu), neodymium (Nd), praseodymium (Pr), promethium (Pm), samarium (Sm), scandium (Sc), terbium (Tb), thulium (Tm), ytterbium (Yb), and yttrium (Y). 

Statement 3 is correct: These minerals have unique magnetic, luminescent, and electrochemical properties and thus are used in many modern technologies, including consumer electronics, computers and networks, communications, health care, national defense, clean energy technologies etc. 

Statement 2 is not correct: 10 countries that mined the rarest earth metals in 2019, as per the latest data from US Geological Survey.  China The US Myanmar Australia India Russia Madagascar Thailand Brazil Vietnam.  

Q 6. Petaurista petaurista was recently mentioned in the news, it is related to: 

1. A recently discovered plant species in Arunachal Pradesh 
2. A species of Squirrel 
3. A new variety of Ginger 
4. A purple-coloured mushroom 

Answer: (b) 

Namdapha Flying Squirrel 

• About:  
  • It is a rare nocturnal flying squirrel species found in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh, India. 
  • It is distinct from the red giant flying squirrel (Petaurista petaurista), another species in the same ecosystem, primarily due to the prominent tuft of hair on its ears. 
  • The difficulty in locating this species led to concerns that it might have been mistaken for the red giant flying squirrel or, worse, faced extinction. 
• Threats: 
  • The Namdapha flying squirrel is presently threatened by habitat loss and degradation, caused by clear-felling for human settlements, shifting agriculture, and the extraction of non-timber forest products, particularly the leaves of a rattan palm, Zalacca secunda, for use as a roofing material. 
• Protection Status: 
  • IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered 
• Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022: Schedule I 

Q 7. Consider the following: 

1. Agricultural fields 
2. Palaeo channels 
3. Manufactured Sand 

How many of the above are the source of Sand in India? 

1. Only 1 
2. Only 2 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer: (c) 

Recently, Bihar police arrested sand smugglers in a major crackdown against illegal sand mining. This operation, near the Sone River, signifies a significant step in the ongoing battle against powerful criminal syndicates involved in illicit sand mining activities. 

Source of Sand in India: 

• Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines (SSMMG) 2016 suggest that the source of sand in India are through 
• River (riverbed and flood plain), 
• Lakes and reservoirs, 
• Agricultural fields, 
• Coastal / marine sand, 
• Palaeo-channels, 
• Manufactured Sand (M-Sand). 

Q 8. Consider the following statements: 

1. Sone River is a perennial river in central India, is the Ganges’ 2nd-largest southern tributary. 
2. Sone river only flows through Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. 
3. Rihand Dam in Uttar Pradesh is built on Sone River. 

How many of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All three  

(d) None 

Answer: (b) 

Sone River 

• The Sone River, a perennial river in central India, is the Ganges‘ 2^nd-largest southern tributary. (Statement 1 is correct) 
• Originating near Amarkantak Hill in Chhattisgarh, it flows through Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar, forming waterfalls at the Amarkantak plateau. (Statement 2 is not correct) 
• It merges with the Ganges near Patna, Bihar. 
• Tributaries include Ghaghar, Johilla, Chhoti Mahanadi, Banas, Gopad, Rihand, Kanhar, and North Koel River. 
• Prominent dams include the Bansagar Dam in Madhya Pradesh and the Rihand Dam near Pipri in Uttar Pradesh. (Statement 3 is correct) 

Q 9. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:  

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 
3. Odisha has the highest PVTGs in India. 
4. Jenu and Kathodi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. 

How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Answer: (d) 

• The Centre has initiated a comprehensive survey and registration process to identify eligible beneficiaries of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) among 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) across 18 states and Union Territories. 
• What are the PVTGs of India: Of the 75 PVTGs, the maximum 13 are in Odisha, followed by 12 in Andhra Pradesh. 
• A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 

Q 10. Which of the following matters can comes under the adjudication of Tribunals? 

1. Industrial and labour 
2. Land reforms 
3. Ceiling on urban property 
4. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures 

How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Answer: (d) 

Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) in case Union of India (UoI) & Ors. v. AIR Commodore NK Sharma (2023), has clarified that Tribunals functioning under the strict parameters of their governing legislations cannot direct the government to make policy. 

The SC was dealing with a question on whether the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) could have directed the government to make a policy to fill up the post of the Judge Advocate General (Air). 

Constitutional Provisions: 

• Tribunals were not part of the original constitution, it was incorporated in the Indian Constitution by 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976. 
  • Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals. 
  • Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters. 
• Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state legislatures are authorized to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters: 
  • Taxation 
  • Foreign exchange, import and export 
  • Industrial and labour 
  • Land reforms 
  • Ceiling on urban property 
  • Elections to Parliament and state legislatures 
  • Food stuff 
  • Rent and tenancy rights 

Q 11. Nematocysts are present in which of the following organisms? 

1. Jellyfish 
2. Corals 
3. Sea Anemone 
4. Starfish 

How many of the organisms given above are correct?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Answer: (c) 

Nematocysts 

Evolution has equipped certain aquatic animals with a potent defence mechanism known as the nematocyst.  

• Nematocysts are specialized cells found in Cnidarians which include jellyfish, corals, sea anemones, and hydras that serve as potent weapons for hunting prey and defending against predators.  
• Each nematocyst contains a capsule with a coiled, thread-like tubule and toxins capable of rapid ejection with an acceleration surpassing that of a bullet.
• Cnidarians contain cnidocytes which release nematocysts when triggered by potential prey. Nematocysts pierce prey’s outer layer or inject toxins into its body. 
• Toxins in nematocysts have paralytic (paralysis) or cytolytic(destroying cells) effects on the prey. 
• Cnidarians use a combination of toxins for predatory or defensive purposes. 

Starfish is not having Nematocytes. 

Q 12. ‘State of the Economy’ report has been recently released by? 

1. NITI Aayog 
2. Reserve Bank of India 
3. Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister of India (PMEAC) 
4. None 

Answer: (b) 

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently released its ‘State of the Economy’ Bulletin, providing crucial insights into the economic landscape. 
• RBI anticipates a potential global reduction in interest rates in 2024, influenced by disinflation trends worldwide. 
• Despite global headwinds, the Indian economy maintained its position as the fastest-growing major economy in 2023. 
• RBI’s Economic Activity Index (EAI) projects Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth of 6.7% for Q3 2023-24. 
• EAI is a “nowcast” that uses 27 high-frequency indicators to gauge growth and output. It tracks GDP dynamics. 
• Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation rose to 5.6% in November 2023, driven by food price spikes. 

Q 13. Consider the following pairs: 

1. Censorship under Lord Wellesley                –         1829 
2. Licensing Regulations by John Adams        –          1799 
3. Newspaper (Incitement to Offences) Act   –          1908 

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All three 

(d) None 

Answer: (a) 

Recently, the Lok Sabha passed the Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023, repealing the colonial era law of the Press and Registration of Books Act, of 1867. 

Pre-Independence Legislations Related to Press Regulation 

• Censorship under Lord Wellesley (1799): Enacted due to French invasion fears, imposing strict wartime press controls, including pre-censorship. 

Relaxed later by Lord Hastings in 1818, removing pre-censorship. 

• Licensing Regulations by John Adams (1823): Instituted penalties for starting or operating a press without a license, later extended to cover various publications. 

Primarily targeted Indian language newspapers or those led by Indians, leading to the cessation of Rammohan Roy’s Mirat-ul-Akbar. 

• Press Act of 1835 (Metcalfe Act): Repealed the restrictive 1823 ordinance, earning Metcalfe the title “Liberator of the Indian press.” 

Mandated precise declarations by printers/publishers about their premises and allowed cessation as required. 

• Licensing Act during the 1857 Revolt: Imposed further licensing restrictions due to the 1857 emergency. 

Augmented existing registration procedures, granting the government power to halt the circulation of any printed material. 

• Vernacular Press Act, 1878: Designed to regulate the vernacular press, suppress seditious writing, and prevent discord among different communities. 

Required printers and publishers of vernacular newspapers to sign a bond refraining from disseminating anti-government or divisive content. 

• Decisions made by the magistrate were final without any avenue for appeal in court. 
• Newspaper (Incitement to Offences) Act, 1908: Empowered magistrates to seize press properties publishing objectionable content inciting violence or murder. 

Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a militant nationalist leader, faced sedition charges and was transported to Mandalay, sparking widespread protests and strikes. 

• Indian Press Act, 1910: Local governments could demand security at registration, penalize offending newspapers, and require free copies for scrutiny. 

Impeded press freedom by imposing stringent regulations similar to those in the Vernacular Press Act. 

Q 14. Consider the following statements: 

1. Magnetars are neutron stars having an ultrahigh magnetic field that are much stronger than the terrestrial magnetic field. 
2. High-energy electromagnetic radiation emitted by magnetars results from the decay of their powerful magnetic fields. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (d) 

AstroSat, India’s first multi-wavelength space-based observatory, has detected bright sub-second X-ray bursts from a new and unique neutron star with an ultrahigh magnetic field (magnetar). 

• Scientists performed the timing and spectral analysis of this magnetar using two instruments onboard AstroSat: the Large Area X-Ray Proportional Counter (LAXPC) and Soft X-Ray telescope (SXT). 

What are Magnetars? 

• Magnetars are neutron stars having an ultrahigh magnetic field that are much stronger than the terrestrial magnetic field (over one quadrillion times stronger than the magnetic field of Earth). 
• High-energy electromagnetic radiation emitted by magnetars results from the decay of their powerful magnetic fields. 
• They display strong temporal variability, typically including a slow rotation, a rapid spin-down, bright but short bursts going on up to months-long outbursts. 
• One such magnetar, called SGR J1830-0645, was discovered in October 2020 by NASA’s Swift spacecraft. 
• It is relatively young (about 24,000 years) and an isolated neutron star. 

Q 15. Consider the following protected areas: 

1. Pakke 
2. Bhitarkanika 
3. Nagzira 
4. Melghat 

How many of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? 

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Answer: (c)

 

• Recently, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) officially announced the increase in tiger population in Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR). The Indian government informed the Rajya Sabha that there are 10 black tigers (melanistic tigers) in India, all of which are exclusively found in Odisha’s Similipal tiger reserve. 
• Tiger Reserves: Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in the year 1973 to save the endangered species of tiger in the country.  
• Starting from nine (9) reserves in 1973-2023 the number is grown up to fifty (54).  A total area of 71027.10 km.  is covered by these Project Tiger areas. 
• Bhittarkanika is not included in the Tiger Reserve List. 

Q 16. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?  

(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households 

(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households 

(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities 

(d) Adult members of any household 

Answer: (d) 

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) has witnessed a significant surge in women’s participation, marking a historic high in the current financial year of 2023-24. 

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee (MGNREGA), which is the largest work guarantee programme in the world, was enacted in 2005 with the primary objective of guaranteeing 100 days of wage employment per year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. 

It aims at addressing the causes of chronic poverty through the ‘works’ (projects) that are undertaken, and thus ensuring sustainable development. There is also an emphasis on strengthening the process of decentralisation by giving a significant role to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in planning and implementing these works. 

Q 17. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidence for the continued expansion of the universe?  

1. Detection of microwaves in space 
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space 
3. Movement of asteroids in space 
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1, 3 and 4 
(d) None 

Answer: (a) 

The universe’s energy makeup involves a delicate balance between different forms of matter and radiation. Dark energy, constituting a significant 68%, plays a dominant role in dictating the universe’s expansion. 

• Arno Penzias and Robert Wilson in 1963 found mysterious microwaves coming equally from all directions. The radiation called the Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation was the radiation predicted years earlier by Gamow, Herman, and Alpher. This convinced most astronomers that the Big Bang theory was correct and provided an evidential base for continued expansion of the universe. Hence, 1 is correct. 
• Edwin Hubble in 1929 measured the redshifts of a number of distant galaxies. On ploting redshift against relative distance, the redshift of distant galaxies increased as a linear function of their distance. Astronomers measure the movement of objects relative to us using Doppler shift. Light from distant objects in the universe is redshifted (shift in the frequency of light towards red colour), which tells us that the objects are all receding away from us. Hence, 2 is correct. 
• Movement of an asteroid in space may provide information regarding the type of material in early universe, but as such no evidence regarding expanding universe is provided. Hence, 3 is not correct. 
• The supernova explosion occurs when there is a change in the core, or centre, of a star. It happens in either binary star system or at the end of a single star’s lifetime. It helps in studying the distribution of elements throughout the universe. These elements travel on to form new stars, planets and everything else in the universe. However, it does not provide evidence for expanding universe. Hence, 4 is not correct. 

Q 18. Consider the following: 

1. Service providers 
2. Data centres 
3. Body corporate 

For how many of the above in India it is legally mandatory to report on cyber security incidents? 

1. Only 1  
2. Only 2 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer: (c) 

According to the Global Risk Survey 2023 by PwC, a global consultancy firm, Cyber risks are the biggest threat faced by Indian organizations. 

Cybersecurity incidents mean any real and suspected adverse event in relation to cybersecurity that violates an explicitly or implicitly applicable security policy resulting in unauthorized access, denial of services, unauthorised used of computer resources for processing or storage of data or changes in data without authorization. In India, section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the “IT Act”) gives the Central Government the power to appoint an agency of the government to be called the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to report such incidents. 

 Rule 12 of the CERT Rules gives every person, company or organisation have the option to report cybersecurity incidents to the CERT-In. Hence all of the statements are correct. 

It also places an obligation on them to mandatorily report the following kinds of incidents as early as possible: Targeted scanning/probing of critical networks/systems; Compromise of critical system/information; Unauthorized access to IT system/data; Defacement of website or intrusion into a website and unauthorized changes such as inserting malicious code, links to external websites, etc.; Malicious code attacks such as spreading of virus/worm/Trojan/botnets/spyware; Attacks on servers such as database, mail, and DNS and network devices such as routers; Identity theft, spoofing and phishing attacks; Denial of Service (DoS) and Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks; Attacks on critical infrastructure, SCADA systems and wireless networks; Attacks on applications such as e-governance, e-commerce, etc’s. 

Q 19. Consider the following statements  

Statement-I: Participatory Notes are financial instruments used by foreign investors to invest in Indian markets with directly registering with the market regulator. 

Statement-II: Participatory Notes are issued by registered foreign institutional investors (FIIs) or their sub-accounts against underlying Indian securities. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.  

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer: (d) 

In November 2023, there was an increase in participatory note investments, reaching a total of ₹1.31 lakh crore. 

Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are financial instruments used by foreign investors who wish to invest in Indian markets without directly registering with the market regulator, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). 

They are issued by registered foreign institutional investors (FIIs) or their sub-accounts against underlying Indian securities. 

While P-Notes offer flexibility and ease of investment, they have been a subject of regulatory scrutiny due to concerns about their potential use in money laundering, round-tripping, and lack of transparency. 

Q 20. Consider the following defence instruments: 

1. S-400 Triumf 
2. Kamov Ka-226 200  
3. T-90S Bhishma 
4. INS Vikramaditya aircraft carrier programme. 

How many of the above military hardware purchased/leased by India from Russia? 

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Answer: (d) 

Recently, the External Affairs minister of India has visited Russia for a Bilateral Meeting where both the countries signed agreements on Nuclear Power and in areas of medicines, pharmaceutical substances and medical devices. 

The military hardware purchased/leased by India from Russia includes: 

• S-400 Triumf 
• Kamov Ka-226 200 to be made in India under the Make in India initiative 
• T-90S Bhishma 
• INS Vikramaditya aircraft carrier programme. 

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