UPSC Prelims Mock Test – Environment 3

Here are 25 Questions, a part of our series on UPSC Prelims Mock Test.

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtle are herbivores
2. Some species of fish are herbivores
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – D

• Cobras, pythons, the keelbacks don’t lay eggs so they’re called ‘viviparous’ as bring out live young. So, 4 is right. The answer could be B, C, or D, in all these options, 2 is common so we’ve to accept that ‘Some species of fish are herbivores’ is true without verification. – Depending on the species, sea turtles may be carnivorous (meat-eating), herbivorous (plant-eating), or omnivorous (eating both meat and plants)

Q2. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife: Naturally found in

1. Blue finned mahseer: Cauvery river
2. Irrawaddy dolphin: Chambal river
3. Rusty-spotted cats: Eastern ghats

Which one of the pairs given above is correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – C

• The Gangetic river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is found in the Chambal River, according to the Times of India. – Irrawaddy Dolphin (Orcaella brevirostris) is a different species. It’s found in Chilika lagoon and salt-water estuaries of Odisha, says IndiaToday. So, 2 is wrong, by elimination, we are left with Answer C

Q3. Why is there a great concern about the microbeads that are released into the environment?

(a) They are considered harmful to the marine ecosystem
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants

Answer – A

• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has classified microbeads as “unsafe” for use in cosmetic products. NGT had earlier directed the Centre to test cosmetic products containing microbeads after a plea seeking a ban on their use on the grounds they are extremely dangerous for aquatic life and the environment. So, A is the closest answer

Q4. Recently, there has been a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for the paper industry
(d) textile fiber

Answer – D

• There is a community in Khar, a hamlet in Darchula district in far-western Nepal, which produces fabrics from Himalayan nettle. The fabric and the things made from it are sold in local as well as national and international markets as high-end products so D: textile is most suitable.

Q5. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• China’s HY-1C marine satellite is expected to improve China’s ocean remote sensing capability. It can detect chlorophyll and suspended sediment concentrations and dissolved organic matter, which can affect ocean color, as well as temperatures on the sea surface. So that means Remote Sensing can help in both statement 1 and statement 3. there is only one such option D.

Q6. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulfur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3, and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

Answer – D

• As per Google Scholar research papers, Biomass burning is a source of greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide. In addition, biomass burning is a source of chemically active gases, including carbon monoxide, nonmethane hydrocarbons, and nitric oxide. These gases, along with methane, lead to the chemical production of tropospheric ozone. So, the answer should be D: 1,2,3 and 4.

Q7. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion phorate, and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics

Answer – A

• The Ministry of Agriculture has issued a notification inviting objections and suggestions from the stakeholders on completely banning pesticides/ insecticides including Benomyl, Carbaryl, Diazinon, Fenarimol, Fenthion, Linuron, MEMC, Methyl Parathion, Sodium Cyanide, Thiometon, Tridemorph, Trifluralin, Alachlor, Dichlorvos, Phorate, Phosphamidon, Triazophos and Trichlorfon. So, A is the right answer.

Q8. Consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government on India in protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• To implement the objectives of The Ramsar Convention, a regulatory mechanism was put in place through Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules in December 2010 and Central Wetland Regulatory Authority (CWRA) has been constituted under the Wetlands Rules So, 2 is right. – Upon reading the original rules, 3 is also correct. So, we are 50:50 between B and D. – As per the text of the Original Convention: Article 2: The Contracting Party should select wetlands on the List on account and preserve them. So, it’s not mandatory for India to add all the sites to the list and conserve them. So, 1 is wrong and the answer is B: 2 and 3 only.

Q9. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010 – Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production – The poultry industry recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016. So D: all 3 statements are correct.

Q10. Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, empowers the Government of India to:

1. State the requirement for public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.
2. Lay down the standards for emissions or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Section 3-2(iv) Central The government may lay down standards for the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever.

Q11. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into 5 categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns, and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Answer – C

• Every waste generator shall segregate and store the waste generated by them in three separate streams namely biodegradable, non-biodegradable and domestic hazardous wastes in suitable bins. Rules are now applicable beyond Municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbases, Port and harbor, defense establishments, special economic zones, etc. So, B is wrong. – The rules specify criteria for site selection and development.

Q12. Consider the following statements:

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programs carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, of 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – A

• This act establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the National and State Funds. But, in the bare act, there is no mention of mandatory People’s participation so, 2 is wrong. Thus answer A: only 1 correct.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is mandated to establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
2. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a non-statutory body that performs facilitative, regulatory, and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation and
   sustainable use of biological resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. The Bureau has its headquarters in New Delhi.
Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated to:

• It collects and collates intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and disseminates the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action.
• Establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
• Assist foreign authorities and international organizations concerned to facilitate coordination and universal action for wildlife crime control.
• Advise the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications, relevant policies, and laws.

Statement 2 is not correct: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established by the Central Government to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). The NBA is a statutory Body and it performs facilitative, regulatory, and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of ass) biological resources.

Q14. Consider the following statements

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia, and the Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Coral reefs are found in tropical and subtropical regions. Most of them are located between the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer, so yes 1 is indeed right. · According to UNEP,% of the world area covered by each region: Indonesia 18%, Australia: 17%, and the Philippines: 9% so collectively that’ll be more than 33%. Hence 2 is right. · Coral reefs include a wide range of diversity with 32 of the 34 animal phyla present, in contrast to only 9 phyla represented in tropical rainforests. So, 3 is also right. Thus, the answer is D: 1, 2 and 3.

Q15. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(d)Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Answer – A

• Studies have shown that increased concentrations of carbon dioxide increase photosynthesis, spurring plant growth. Results showed that carbon dioxide fertilization explains 70 percent of the greening effect.

Q16. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
(c) Large-scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food
biodiversity.
(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution, and global climate change

Answer – D

• Scientists are suggesting that the sixth mass extinction is underway as there is a species loss of 100-1000 every year. The normal background extinction rate is about 10-25 species per year. Habitat loss, overpopulation of humans, pollution, over-harvesting, and invasive species invasion are cited as the main reasons.

Q17. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering the water-table

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer – B

• Sand Mining wrecks the intertidal area and creates the imminent danger of saline water ingress into fresh water.” Meaning salinity will increase, so statement 1 is wrong, by elimination we’ve answered “B” 2 and 3 only. In this question, the first statement is wrong, and you’ve to identify the right statements. So in real exam stress, some students may have made the error of reading/ticking, and they’d have ticked the wrong option A: only Q1. (you’re right that it’s the wrong statement, but you’re not asked to tick the wrong one.) So, be mindful of ticking in OMR.

Q18. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), is a statutory organization, that was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. · Principal functions of the CPCB, as spelled out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas. So the last part of sentence 2 is right. · Environment: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was set up in 2010 under the NGT Act, 2010, for the purpose of effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. The Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing. So the first part of sentence 2 is right.

Q19. Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, of 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

• Baigas are considered a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) in the Indian Constitution and rely mostly on shifting cultivation, forest produce and fishing for sustenance, spread over forested areas of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. In 2016, they became India’s first community to get habitat rights. Ref: Downtoearth 2016 So, 2 is right. · Under FRA Act, district-level Committees have to adjudicate the rights, whereas the Tribal ministry only issues guidelines. That makes 3 wrong/irrelevant. By elimination, we are left with answer A: only 1 and 2.

Q20 In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland

Answer – A

• “Pakhui / Pakke Tiger Reserve” is in Arunachal Pradesh, so if there is a wildlife sanctuary in Pakhui, it should be in “A” for Arunachal Pradesh.

Q21. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries in transitioning towards greener and more inclusive economies emerged at

(a) The Earth Summit on Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Answer – B

• In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories

Q22. Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organisation

Answer – C

• UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of a larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world(d) (Ref: “Organization’s About US Page”)

Q23. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACS(A)

Select the correct answer using the code given

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary, and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate- Smart Agriculture (CSA). “Voluntary” means don’t create any binding obligation. 2 is right. · India is neither in member nor in the observer list of this entity

Q24. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following falls under Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover the soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/ crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer – C

• Kurukshetra February 2018 Issue on Agriculture, page 43 has given three key features of conservation agriculture viz: I. minimum soil disturbance by adopting no-tillage or minimum tillage and reduced traffic for agricultural operations. So, 2 is right. This eliminates Option-(A) ii. maximum soil cover by leaving crop residues on the soil surface. So, 4 is right. This eliminates Option (D) iii. adopt spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotation. So, 5 is verbatim, right? Hence final answer (C)

Q25. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1. The high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water-holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the Sulfur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• The process of decay, added by bacterial action, transforms organic matter into humus. Humus enhances the water retention capacity of the soil. So, 1 is wrong. By elimination, we are left with Answer B: 3 only.

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