Here are 25 Questions, a part of our series on UPSC Prelims Mock Test.
Q1. The term ‘Ecology’ is defined as:
(a) It is the scientific study of the relationship of living organisms with each other and with their environment.
(b) It is everything that surrounds or affects an organism during its life.
(c) It is a collection of plants and animals that have common characteristics for the environment they exist in.
(d) It is a description of all the biological, physical, and chemical factors that a species needs to survive, stay healthy and reproduce
Answer – A
- Option (a) is correct: Ecology: It is a subject that scientifically studies the interactions among organisms and between the organism and its physical (abiotic) environment. It deals with the ways in which organisms are molded by their environment, and how they make use of environmental resources including energy flow and mineral cycling.
Q2. Consider the following statements about the Flagship species:
- These species are Omnivores.
- Extinction of Flagship species may lead to significant ecosystem change or dysfunction which may have knock-on effects on a broader scale.
- The Bengal Tiger is a Flagship species from India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer – B
- Any species that is selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, the issue, campaign, or environmental cause is known as Flagship species. Many other species that share its habitat with the Flagship Species or are vulnerable to the same threats can be protected by achieving the conservation of Flagship species.
- Statement 1 is not correct: An Omnivore is a kind of animal that eats either other animals or plants. It is not necessary that the Flagship species are omnivores but some of them are Omnivores, for example, Giant Panda. Examples of some flagship species are the Bengal Tiger, Asian Elephant, African Elephant, Polar bear, and the Giant Panda.
- Statement 2 is correct: Flagship species may or may not be Keystone species and may or may not be good indicators of biological processes. It means that the extinction of flagship species may lead to significant ecosystem change or dysfunction which may have knock-on effects on a broader scale.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Bengal Tiger is a flagship species from India and Bangladesh
Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Desert ecosystem?
- Deserts are formed in regions with less than 75 cm of annual rainfall.
- Desert plants show the phenomenon of Allelopathy.
- Desert plants possess waxy leaves to arrest Transpiration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer – C
- Statement 1 is not correct: Deserts are regions with less than 25 cm of annual rainfall, or the hot regions where there is an uneven distribution of annual precipitation.
- Statement 2 is correct: Allelopathy is a common biological phenomenon by which one organism produces biochemicals that influence the growth, survival, development, and reproduction of other organisms. These biochemicals are known as
Allelochemicals and have positive or negative effects on target organisms. Desert plants show the phenomenon of Allelopathy i.e., they secrete some chemical substance that hinders the growth of plants growing in their near vicinity. - Statement 3 is correct: Desert plants are grown under hot and dry conditions. So, to conserve water, these plants have adopted the following properties:
- Leaves are either absent or small in size.
- Leaves and stems are Succulent and water storing.
Q4. “A species with large area requirements for which protection of the species offers protection to other species that share the same habitat. These species can be used to help select the locations of potential reserves.”
Select the correct species as mentioned above:
(a) Keystone species
(b) Indicator species
(c) Umbrella species
(d) Edge species
Answer – C
- Option (c) is correct: The species that are selected for making conservation-related decisions are termed as Umbrella species. These species are considered as their protection indirectly protects many other species which forms the ecological community of its habitat. The conservation of species is subjective as the determination of the status of many species is difficult.
Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the functioning of an Ecosystem?
- The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
- The flow of nutrients in an ecosystem is cyclic.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – C
- Statement 1 is correct: In the ecosystem, the flow of energy is unidirectional. During the making of food, the energy comes in the plants (from the Sun) through photosynthesis. Then, from one trophic level to another, this energy is passed in a food chain.
- Statement 2 is correct: The nutrients from the soil are taken up by the plants and the plants make food during photosynthesis. So, these nutrients now move into the food chain, and eventually, with the death and decomposition of organisms, the nutrients come back to the soil. So, the flow of nutrients is cyclic in nature.
Q6. With reference to the ecological Succession, consider the following statements:
- Xerarch succession takes place in dry areas, whereas Hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas.
- Both Hydrarch and Xerarch succession lead to mesic water conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – C
- Succession: Ecological succession is the steady and reasonably predictable shift in a specific area’s species mix. During succession, certain species colonize an area and expand their population, while other species’ populations drop or even perish. The complete sequence of communities that shift in a specific location is referred to as a Sere (s). Seral stages or serial communities are the names given to the individual transitional communities. There is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, an increase in the number of species and organisms, and an increase in total biomass as the seral stages progress. The following sections describe plant succession based on the nature of the habitat (dry or wet area):
- Statement 1 is correct: In moist locations, hydrarch succession occurs, with the successional series progressing from hydric to mesic environments. Xerarch succession, on the other hand, occurs in dry places and progresses from xeric to mesic circumstances.
- Statement 2 is correct: Hydrarch and Xerarch succession both result in mesic water conditions, which are neither excessively dry (xeric) nor too wet (mesic) (hydric).
Q7. Which of the following correctly describes the term Biotic Potential?
(a) It is the upper limit to biotic life sustenance in the absence of mortality.
(b) It is the maximum energy mass that an organism can produce under ideal environmental conditions
(c) It is the maximum reproductive capacity of a living species under ideal environmental conditions.
(d) It is the sum total of non-living chemical and physical components of the environment that affect living organisms and the functioning of ecosystems.
Answer – C
- Option (c) is correct: Under ideal environmental conditions, the ability of a population of living species to increase is called the Biotic potential. The ideal conditions are a sufficient food supply, no predators, and a lack of disease. The primary deciding factors for biotic potential are the rate of reproduction of the organisms and the size of each litter
Q8. Consider the following statements about Sulphur cycle:
- The sulfur cycle is a Sedimentary Cycle.
- Sulfur is found in organic deposits of the earth’s crust only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – A
- Statement 1 is correct: Unlike the gaseous cycle, the sedimentary cycle follows a basic pattern of flow through erosion, sedimentation, mountain building, volcanic activity and biological transport through the excreta of marine birds. Some Important Sedimentary cycles are the Sulphur cycle, Phosphorus cycle etc.
- Statement 2 is not correct: The reservoir of sulfur is in the soil and sediments. It is found in both inorganic (pyrite rock and sulfur rock) and organic deposits (coal, oil, and peat) of the earth’s crust in the form of sulfates, sulfides, and organic sulfur.
Q9. Which of the following criteria is required for a pollutant act as a Biomagnification Agent?
- It should have a long life.
- It should be mobile.
- It should be insoluble in fats.
- It should be biologically active.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer – D
Option (d) is correct: Biomagnification refers to the accumulation of pollutants as they move from one trophic level to the next. The toxic chemicals that are released into the environment are absorbed by the lower organisms such as plants, earthworms, etc., and enter the food chain. The properties of a pollutant required for biomagnification to occur – it must be long-lived, mobile, soluble in fats, and biologically active because:
- If a pollutant has a short lifetime, it will be degraded before it becomes dangerous.
- If it is not mobile, it will remain in one location and is unlikely to be consumed by organisms.
- If the pollutant is water-soluble, it will be excreted by the organism. Pollutants that dissolve in fats, on the other hand, may be retained for an extended period of time
Q10. Consider the following pairs: Biotic interaction Beneficial species
- Mutualism: Both species benefit
- Amensalism: One species is harmed while the other is unaffected.
- Competition: Dominant species gain
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer – B
- Biotic interaction/Biological interaction: In ecology, a biological interaction is the effect that a pair of organisms living together in a community have on each other. They can be of the same species (intraspecific interactions) or of different species (interspecific interactions). The interaction of organisms is critical for their survival and the overall functioning of the ecosystem.
- Following are the various types of Biological interaction:
- Mutualism: In such an interaction, the interactive species drive mutual benefit. For example, Nitrogen fixation by Bacteria in root nodules of a legume plant. (Pair 1 is correctly matched)
- Amensalism: In such an interaction, one species is harmed, while the other remains unaffected. For example, A large tree casts shade on a small plant, slowing the growth of the small plant. The small plant has no effect on the large tree. (Pair 2 is correctly matched)
- Competition: There is Competition in species for the same resources that are living together in a community particularly when the resources are not sufficient to fill the needs of all the organisms. Here, both the competing species are harmed by such an interaction. For example, if two species compete for the same food resources and if there is not enough food for both, then both may have access to less food than they would if alone. So, they both suffer a shortage of food. (Pair 3 is not correctly matched)
- Commensalism: One species is benefitted while the other has no impact. For example, Cow dung provides food and shelter to dung beetles. The Beatles have no impact on the cows.
- Predation and Parasitism: In such an interaction, one species benefits while the other is harmed. For example, in predation, one fish kills and eats the other; in parasitism, ticks get benefits by sucking blood and the host is harmed by losing blood.
Q11. Consider the following statements about Ecotone:
- It is a transition zone between the diverse biomes.
- The Himalayas have multiple ecotones.
- An Ecotone has no unique species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer – B
- Statement 1 is correct: An Ecotone is defined as a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems/biomes. For example, the mangrove forests can be said as an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystems.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Himalayas have a variety of climates, ranging from tropical at the mountain’s base to perennial snow and ice at the highest elevations. As a result of its diverse climate regions, it has multiple ecotones.
- Statement 3 is not correct: The following are the various characteristics of an Ecotone:
It can vary from very narrow or quite wide. - It has conditions that are intermediate between the adjacent ecosystems. Hence, it is also called a zone of tension.
- It is linear because it shows a progressive increase in the species composition of one incoming community and a simultaneous decrease in species of the other outgoing adjoining community.
- These regions are home to multiple species. In this zone, the number of species and population density of some species can be much higher than in either community. This is known as the Edge Effect.
- A well-developed ecotone contains some organisms that are entirely different or unique from that of the adjoining communities.
Q12. Carrying Capacity of the Environment is best described by?
(a) It is the total amount of population size of a biological species that is being sustained by that specific environment.
(b) It is the minimum amount of population size of a biological species that can be sustained by that specific environment.
(c) It is the optimum amount of population size of a biological species that can be sustained by that specific environment.
(d) It is the maximum amount of population size of a biological species that can be sustained by that specific environment.
Answer – D
- Option (d) is correct: The carrying capacity of an environment is the maximum population size of a biological species that can be sustained by that environment with the available food, habitat, water, and other resources. If these needs are not met, the population will fall until the resources recover. For example, after wolves, the natural predator of North American deer, was widely eradicated, the deer reproduced until their need for food outstripped the environment’s ability to regenerate their food. In many areas, this resulted in large numbers of deer starving to death, causing the deer population to plummet.
Q13. With reference to coral, consider the following statements:
- A Coral ecosystem has more biodiversity than a Tropical deciduous forest.
- A Tropical rainforest ecosystem has less biodiversity than a Desert ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – A
- Statement 1 is correct: The Coral reefs have the highest biodiversity of any ecosystem on the planet even more than a Tropical deciduous forest. Inhabiting for less than one percent of the ocean floor, coral reefs are home to more than twenty-five percent of marine life.
- Statement 2 is not correct: A Tropical rainforest ecosystem has more biodiversity than a Desert ecosystem. Generally, Biodiversity enhances resilience and stability. A more biodiverse region protects ecosystems from the loss of specific species and reduces the likelihood that important ecosystem functions will be jeopardized
Q14. With the reference to the Food Chain, consider the following statements:
- In a Terrestrial ecosystem, a Grazing food chain starts with producers and ends with Top carnivores.
- Phytoplankton and Zooplankton are primary producers in an aquatic ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – A
- Statement 1 is correct: A food chain is a linear network of links in a food web. A food chain also shows how organisms are related to each other by the food they eat. A Grazing food chain starts from producer organisms (such as grass, trees, or phytoplankton) and ends at the apex predator species, like grizzly bears or killer whales, which are also the Top carnivores.
- Statement 2 is not correct: In an aquatic ecosystem, phytoplankton is primary producers, which are eaten by zooplankton (primary consumers) and zooplankton by fishes, and fishes are then eaten by pelicans. An Aquatic food chain can be represented as Phytoplankton———–> Zooplankton———-> Fishes————> Pelicans (Primary producers) (Primary consumers) (Secondary consumers)
Q15. Consider the following statements:
- Organic waste matter decomposes rapidly at low temperatures.
- The decomposition rate is high when the detritus has a large quantity of Nitrogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – B
- Decomposition is the process by which dead organic substances are broken down into simpler organic or inorganic matter such as carbon dioxide, water, simple sugars, etc. The rate of decomposition is regulated by climatic factors like temperature and moisture as well as the chemical quality of detritus. These factors limit the rate o decomposition through their regulatory effect on the activities of soil microbes.
- Statement 1 is not correct: Organic waste matter decomposes rapidly at high temperatures (>25 degrees Celsius) and in moist conditions of humid tropical regions. Within a few weeks, complete decomposition occurs. However, low temperatures (<10 degrees Celsius) sharply reduce the decomposition rate even if the moisture content of soil is high.
- Statement 2 is correct: The chemical of detritus is determined by the relative proportions of water-soluble substances like sugar, polyphenols, lignin , and nitrogen. Within the same climatic conditions, the decomposition rate is high when the detritus (dead particulate organic material) is rich in Nitrogen and low in lignin. High amounts of lignin and chitin reduce the rate of decomposition.
Q16. With reference to the Food Chain, consider the following Statements:
- Fungi and Bacteria are the primary producers in a detritus food chain.
- The Detritus and Grazing food chains work independently.
- A Food web represents all possible transfer of energy and nutrients among the organisms in an Ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer – D
- There are two types of Food chains namely the Grazing food chain (GFC) and Detritus food chain (DFC).
- Statement 1 is not correct: The basic difference between the two food chains is the source of energy for the first-level consumers. In the GFC, the primary source of energy is living plant biomass while in the DFC the source of energy is dead organic matter or detritus, which is consumed by microorganisms viz. fungi, bacteria, etc. In a DFC, these microorganisms are called Primary consumers.
- Statement 2 is not correct: The two food chains, DFC, and GFC are interlinked. The waste materials and dead organic matter from the grazing food chain provide the initial energy source for the detritus food chain. For example, A dead tree is a primary producer in the Detritus food chain, which is decomposed by the microorganisms (Primary consumer) and then the secondary consumer and so on.
- Statement 3 is correct: A Food web consists of several interrelated food chains. It illustrates all possible transfers of energy and nutrients among the organisms in an ecosystem, whereas a food chain traces only one pathway of the food
Q17. With reference to the Succession, consider the following statements:
- Autogenic succession is brought about by the outside forces of a community whereas The allogenic succession is brought about by living inhabitants of that community
itself. - In Autotrophic succession, the green plants are much greater in quantity at the initial stage whereas in Heterotrophic succession, heterotrophs are greater in quantity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – B
- Ecological succession is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time. The community begins with relatively few pioneering hardy species like mosses, lichens, etc., and develops through increasing complexity until it becomes stable or self-perpetuating as a climax community.
- Statement 1 is not correct: The word Autogenic is made of two roots, “Auto- meaning self or same”, and “genic-meaning producing or causing”. It refers to ecological succession driven by biotic factors within an ecosystem. For example, the plants themselves cause succession to occur, leading to a gradual ecological change in a particular spot of land, known as a progression of inhabiting species. Allogenic succession is defined as the succession, where changes in the ecosystem are brought by outside forces driven by abiotic components (for example, lava eruptions and forest fires) of an ecosystem.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Succession in which green plants are in much greater in quantity is known as autotrophic succession and the ones in which the heterotrophs are greater in quantity are known as heterotrophic succession.
Q18. “Dead Water Zones” is described as:
(a) These are the coastal areas of the river Ganges where Hindus cremate the dead bodies.
(b) These are the heavily polluted rivers near the cities in developing countries due to sewage disposal.
(c) These are the nutrient-deprived naturally occurring lakes where waters are crystal clear.
(d) These are the coastal zones of oceans where dissolved oxygen has fallen to a level that threatens the survival of marine life.
Answer – D
- Option (d) is correct: Hypoxia (low dissolved oxygen) is the name of the process, and this happens when there is a boom in the growth of phytoplankton along with the leaching of nitrogen-rich fertilizers from the agricultural fields. The ‘Dead water Zones’, as they are commonly known, are areas of large bodies of water that are generally found in the ocean but also sometimes in lakes and even rivers and these areas do not have enough oxygen to support marine life. Usually, eutrophication (an increase in chemical nutrients in the water) is the reason behind such ‘hypoxic’ (lacking oxygen) conditions which results in excessive blooms of algae and as a result underwater oxygen level depletes. The primary reasons are the Nitrogen and phosphorus from agricultural runoff. Though, dead zones are also developed due to sewage, vehicular and industrial emissions, and even natural factors.
Q19. Which of the following statements is/are correct about an aquatic ecosystem?
- The depth of the Photic zone depends upon the transparency of water.
- In a Photic zone, only respiration activity takes place.
- The lower layers of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration and plant growth are restricted, form the Aphotic zone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer – D
- Factors Limiting the Productivity of Aquatic Habitats are Sunlight, transparency, temperature, dissolved oxygen, etc. They are classified as Photic and Aphotic Zones on the basis of light penetration and plant distribution.
- Statement 1 is correct: The photic zone is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems, and its depth depends on the transparency of the water.
- Statement 2 is not correct: In the Photic Zone, both photosynthesis and respiration activity take place. The photic (or “euphotic”) zone is the lighted and usually well-mixed portion extending from the lake surface down to where the light level is 1 percent of that at the surface.
- Statement 3 is correct: Aphotic Zone is the lower layer of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration and plant growth are restricted. The Aphotic Zone is placed below the Littoral and Photic zones to the bottom of the lake where light levels are too low for photosynthesis. Respiration occurs at all depths, so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. This deep, unlit region is also known as the Profundal zone.
Q20. Which of the following Water bodies are examples of a Lentic water ecosystem?
- Ephemeral pool
- Pond
- Ocean
- Artificial Dam
How many water bodies given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 water body
(b) Only 2 water bodies
(c) Only 3 water bodies
(d) All 4 water bodies
Answer – C
- Option (c) is correct: A freshwater Water ecosystem can be classified into Lentic and Lotic (flowing water like river) water systems, which is based on the mobility of water. A Lentic ecosystem contains still water. It includes ponds, basin marshes, ditches, reservoirs or dams, seeps, lakes, and vernal/ephemeral pools.
Q21. Acid rains are caused by which of the following gases:
(a) Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide
(b) Sulfur dioxide and Nitrogen gas
(c) Sulfur dioxide and Nitrogen oxide
(d) Ammonium Hydroxide and Carbon monoxide
Answer – C
- Option (c) is correct: Acid rain includes any form of precipitation having acidic components (pH of less than 5.6), such as Sulphuric acid or Nitric acid that falls in dry or wet forms on the ground. It is caused by emissions of Sulfur dioxide and Nitrogen oxide, which produce acids after reacting with the water molecules present in the atmosphere. These acidic components can reach the ground along with rain, snow, fog, dust, or hail.
Q22. Which of the following statements is/are correct abour ‘REN21’?
- It is a think tank and a multistakeholder group that is focused on Renewable energy policy.
- It stands for Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century.
- It promotes renewable energy to meet the needs of Asian and African countries only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer – A
- REN21 was formed in 2004 as an outcome of the International Conference on Renewable Energy which took place in Bonn (2004). This “coalition of the willing” came together with the objective to promote and accelerate the development of renewable energy.
- Statement 1 is correct: REN21 is a think tank and a multi-stakeholder group that is focused on renewable energy policy. It connects a wide range of key actors from Governments, International organizations, Industry associations, academia and civil society to facilitate a rapid global transition to renewable energy.
- Statement 2 is correct: It stands for Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century. Since 2005, it has been publishing an annual report called the Renewables Global Status Report (GSR).
- Statement 3 is not correct: REN21 promotes renewable energy to meet the needs of both industrialized and developing countries that are driven by climate change, energy security, development, and poverty alleviation.
Q23. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Wind Energy?
- Wind turbines convert the kinetic energy in the wind directly into electrical energy.
- In India, Gujarat State has the maximum wind energy potential.
- A wind turbine works more efficiently at a height of 30 meters or more above
ground.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer -C
- Wind energy is the kinetic energy associated with the movement of atmospheric air which is harnessed to generate electricity as a renewable source of energy
- Statement 1 is not correct: Wind turbines convert the kinetic energy in the wind into mechanical energy. This mechanical power can be utilized for tasks like grinding of grain or pumping of water. This mechanical power can also be converted into electricity with the help of Generators.
- Statement 2 is correct: As per the National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE), the wind energy potential in the country at 100 m AGL is over 302 GW. According to the NIWE, Gujarat has the maximum wind energy potential, which is followed by Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.
- Statement 3 is correct: Wind turbines are mounted on a high tower to capture the kinetic energy of the wind (High at higher altitudes). At 100 feet (30 meters) or more above ground, they can take advantage of the faster and less turbulent wind. Hence, Wind turbines work more efficiently at a height of 100 feet (30 meters) or more above ground.
Q24. Which of the following is the consequences of Sand Mining?
(a) It leads to downstream erosion.
(b) It enhances the level of groundwater.
(c) It decreases the river’s capacity for erosion.
(d) It promotes agriculture
Answer – A
- Option (a) is correct: Sand Mining is defined as an activity of actual removal of sand from the foreshore including rivers, streams, and lakes. Environmental Consequences of Sand Mining are:
- Sand that has been illegally dredged holds a lot of water, and when it is mined and loaded onto trucks without thought, enormous amounts of water are lost in transit.
- Because sand on a riverbed works as a link between the running river and the water table and is part of the aquifer, it causes groundwater table depletion.
- It has a negative impact on microorganism habitat. There are a lot of microorganisms that aren’t visible and aren’t well-known, but they’re important for soil structure and fertility. Sand dredging physically deprives them of their environment.
Q25. The Animal Welfare Board of India’ was constituted under:
(a) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(b) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(c) Prevention of Cruelty to Animal Act (PCA), 1960
(d) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
Answer – C
- Option (c) is correct: The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 1960.It prohibits the infliction of needless pain or suffering on animals and modifies legislation pertaining to animal cruelty prevention. The Government of India established the ‘Animal Welfare Board of India’ in accordance with the law’s stipulations. The Act makes a provision under the heading “Saving as respects manner of killing prescribed by religion: Nothing contained in this Act shall render it an offense to kill any animal in a manner required by the religion of any community.”
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