UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper with Answer Key – General Studies Paper 1

As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2018 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1

UPSC Prelims 2018 Exam

The UPSC Prelims exam is a tough phase in the Civil Services Examination, serving as an entry point to desirable positions like Indian Administrative Services (IAS) and Indian Police Services (IPS). It is set to happen on June 3, 2018, with two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam is from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM

The Importance of Previous Year Question Papers

To do well in the UPSC Prelims, candidates need more than just a solid grasp of concepts; they should also know the exam pattern, question formats, and time management strategies. A highly effective method for achieving this is to study the previous year’s question papers. These papers offer valuable insights into the exam’s format, level of difficulty, and the kinds of questions typically posed.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2018 – Available on Edukemy’s Website

Candidates eagerly anticipating the UPSC Prelims question papers don’t need to look everywhere. Soon after the exam, you can find the General Studies Paper 1 question papers on Edukemy’s website. Aspirants can effortlessly get and save the UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Papers in PDF format from our platform.

Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the leader of the opposition.

Which of the following statements given is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The first Lok Sabha elections in India were held in 1951- Indian National Congress won with a sweeping majority scoring 364 out of 489 seats. The Communist Party of India emerged as the largest party in theopposition winning a total of 16 seats. The Swatantra Party on the other hand was formed in 1959. It was founded by C. Rajagopalachari who was dissatisfied with the Indian National Congress’s socialist agenda.
• Statement 2 is correct: In a parliamentary form of government the Leader of the Opposition has a significant role to play. The Leader of INC(O), Ram Subhag Singh, became the first person to be formally recognized as LoP in the Lok Sabha. Leaders of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha were accorded statutory recognition in 1977.

Q2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Structural adaptations are important to plant’s survival in the desert. Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss through evaporation, which in the hot desert can cause loss of water from both the surface and the inside of leaves.
• Statement 2 is correct: Leaves are also smaller on desert plants, further reducing the possibility for water loss.
• Statement 3 is correct: They have hard, thick coatings and some are covered in prickly spines to prevent water loss and to protect them from animals who might try to chew through them to get to their moisture.

Q3. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural
Households”, consider the following Statement

1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households are reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

• The situation assessment survey of agricultural households is conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). It is a detailed socio-economic survey of farmer households and is the only large-scale survey that focuses specifically on estimating household crop income in India.
• Statement 1 is correct: As per the survey, Rajasthan had the highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households and the least percentage stood for Kerala (27.3 percent).
• Statement 2 is not correct: Out of the total estimated agricultural households in the country, about 45 percent belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
• Statement 3 is correct: Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for the majority of the agricultural households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities

Q4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to
   improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
• Statement 2 is correct: The National Green tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters provides speedy environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelled out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, is to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution, and to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

Q4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to
   improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
• Statement 2 is correct: The National Green tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters provides speedy environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelled out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, is to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution, and to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no Judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review. At present there are around 284 laws in the Ninth Schedule. Thus, the Parliament can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• Statement 2 is not correct: In a significant judgment delivered in I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule. The court held that judicial review is a ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution, and it could not be taken away by putting a law in the Ninth Schedule

Q6. Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?

(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for
purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

Answer: C

• MDR is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments. MDR compensates the card issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment gateways such as MasterCard or Visa for their services. MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportion between the bank and a merchant and is expressed in percentage of the transaction amount. Merchant Discount Rate, alternatively referred to as the Transaction Discount Rate or TDR is expressed as a percentage of transaction amount and is shared in a preagreed ratio between the bank and the merchant.

Q7. Which is /are the consequences/ consequences of becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Supplier Group’?

1. It will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty of non- proliferation of Nuclear weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports.
• Statement 1 is correct: By becoming a member of the Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG), India will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies. If India becomes a member, it will also have a better international market for export as well as for import of nuclear related materials.

Q8. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by nonresident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is not correct: Equalisation Levy is a tax on business transaction for online marketing in which any Indian pays a sum of more than Rs.1 lakh to non-residents entities such Google and Facebook etc. It is part of the Finance act.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Since Equalisation Levy is outside the scope of tax treaties entered into by India with other countries, the foreign company cannot claim a tax credit in its home country

Q9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review The Committee Report has recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by
   2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is correct: The FRBM review panel had recommended the criterion of debt as a parameter for fiscal responsibility the central share being 40% and state 20%. Also, in terms of domestic liabilities the figures are actually, reverse i:e central government 49% and state 21%.
• Statement 2 is not correct: At the time of the report submission domestic liabilities of the Central Government accounted for 46.5% of the GDP and that of States accounted for 24% of the GDP

Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: India imports about 14-15 million tonnes of edible oil annually to meet domestic demand. At present, the import duty on crude soybean oil is 3.0 per cent, crude sunflower oil 25 per cent and crude rapeseed oil 25 per cent. According to ICRA, India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production, leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement).
• Statement 2 is not correct: The government levies 35% and 45% import duty on all crude and refined edible oils respectively. While in 2018 the import duty on Olive oil was 40%

Q11. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru

Answer: C
Lala Lajpat Rai wrote the biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, Dayanand and Shri Krishna, besides other important works
in English, Hindi, and Urdu. He was famously called the “Lion of Punjab”

Q12. Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is not correct: As per Calcutta HC decision Aadhar Card is not a proof of citizenship.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) on its website mentioned following provisions for deactivation of Aadhaar: If within 2 years of attaining age 5, the child’s biometrics are not updated in the Aadhaar database, his/her Aadhaar number will be deactivated (no authentication permissible). It will be reactivated once biometrics are updated in the database. If a resident has not been biometrically authenticated in 5 years, his/her One Time Password (OTP) based authentication services will be deactivated.
• They will be reactivated once the resident is biometrically authenticated.

Q13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up the recent past due to human activities?

1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: A

• Aral Sea: The Aral Sea is a saline lake located in Central Asia that was once the world’s fourth largest Salt Lake. In the 1960s the Aral Sea, which was the drainage basin for Kyrgyzstan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and
  Kazakhstan, began to shrink as the Soviet Union began to divert water for agricultural purposes. The Aral Sea, which was once 26,300 square miles in size had decreased in size by 2007 to only 10% of its original area.
• Black Sea: Past 60 years, the oxygen-rich top layer of the Black Sea decreased from 140 meters to 90 meters deep, which amounts to an over 40 percent dip in habitable waters. Two existing causes behind the shrinkage: an abundance of nutrients, particularly algae that led to great consumption of oxygen and global warming. The Black Sea has lost more then a third of its habitable volume. The habitable area in Black Sea is shrinking, but the actual volume is not shrinking immensely.
• Lake Baikal: In 2015, Russia officially declared Lake Baikal an emergency zone because of a catastrophic drop in its water
  level. Baikal is the globe’s largest freshwater lake and is on the UNESCO World Heritage list. Lake Baikal hasn’t shrunk immensely yet. Certainly, its water is shrinking. But, it’s not ‘immense’ like Aral Sea. If one has to go for two options, the intensity of shrinkage should be either equal or comparable. Case of Aral Sea is extreme and Lake Baikal’s present condition, which is better, is no comparison to Aral Sea’s fate

Q14. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project

Answer D

• The World Justice Project (WJP) is an American independent, multidisciplinary organization with the stated mission of “working to advance the rule of law around the world”. It brings rule of law index. The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index is a quantitative assessment tool designed to offer a detailed and comprehensive picture of the extent to which countries adhere to the rule of law in practice. The Index provides data on eight dimensions of the rule of law: limited government powers; absence of corruption; order and security; fundamental rights; open government; regulatory enforcement; civil justice; and criminal justice

Q15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

(a) Indian Banks’ Association
(b) National Securities Depository Limited
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India

Answer: C

• National Payments Corporation of India links all the ATMs in India. It is expected to bring greater efficiency by way of uniformity and standardization in retail payments and expanding and extending the reach of both existing and innovative payment products for greater customer convenience.

Q16. Consider the following statements:

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk-weighted assets and current liabilities. It is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account holders fail to repay dues.
• Statement 2 is not correct: It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.

Q17. The identity platform `Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

• Application Programming Interface (API) is Computer Program code that lets two applications. interact with each other. It helps in letting software exchange data and use each other’s capabilities.
• Statement 1 is correct: Aadhaar provides open Application Programming Interfaces, which can be integrated easily into any electronic device. Its open application programming interface (API) layers known as “India Stack” set Aadhaar apart from other biometric ID programmes. India Stack APIs, which include the Unified Payment Interface (UPI) and Aadhaar e-KYC, allow applications to be built on a top App (for example, the Bharat Interface for Money or BHIM app) and enable identity-driven transactions.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Aadhaa authentication Application programming the interface provides various ways for an Aadhaar holder to authenticate themselves. At a higher level, this authentication takes place using demographic data or Biometric data, and OTP. Moreover, online authentication using iris is also possible.

Q18. Very recently, in which of the following countries having lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan

Answer: D

• The world faces one of the largest food crises in 70 years with 20 million people I four countries namely: Yemen, Nigeria, South Sudan and Somalia according to FAO.

Q19. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. The establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: As per Wood’s Despatch, an education department was to be set up in every province along with the provision of grants in aid to the affiliated private schools.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Wood’s Despatch also recommended the establishment of three universities in the Presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras on the model of the London University.
• Statement 3 is not correct: It also wanted to promote the study of English as well as Indian regional languages and classical languages like Arabic, Persian and Sanskrit. It did not recommend English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education, only for higher studies it was recommended.

Q20. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executives within the scope of such delegation?

(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Committee on rules
(d) Business Advisory Committee

Answer: B

• The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, subrules delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the Houses, the Committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.

Q21. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the
   concerned State Council of Teacher education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: In 2011, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) laid down the teacher recruitment norms for all government schools in India irrespective of the State.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Teacher Eligibility Test, known as TET, is the minimum qualification required in India for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher for Classes I to VIII. The test is mandatory for teaching jobs in Indian government schools.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The NCTE is the apex body that manages the teacher’s education institutions in the country. The key role of the NCTE is to ‘achieve planned and coordinated development of the teacher education system throughout the country. However, more than 90% of the teacher education institutions across the country are privately managed.

Q22. Consider the following pairs:

Tradition State

1. Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram
2. Khongiom Parba Ballad Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance Sikkim
   Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Chapchar Kut, a popular spring festival, is celebrated by the Mizo people of Mizoram.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Khongjom Parba ballad is a style of ballad singing from Manipur. It is accompanied with the sounds of a dholak or drum.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Thang-Ta is a Manipuri art form. It combines ritual, demonstration and combat and involves a variety of dance forms and warrior drills

Q23. Consider the following statements:

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The Food Safety and Standard Act, 2006 replaced various Acts and Orders like the Edible Oils Packaging
• (Regulation) Order 1998, Fruit Products Order (FPO) 1955, Meat Food Products Order (MFPO), Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, etc.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is appointed by the Government of India. The The chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. It is not under the charge of Director General of Health services.

Q24. The term “Two-state Solution” is sometimes mentioned in the new in the context of the affairs of

(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen

Answer: B

• The two-state solution would establish an independent Palestinian state alongside Israel — two states for two peoples. This is a proposed framework for resolving the Israeli- Palestinian conflict by establishing two states for two peoples: Israel for the Jewish people and Palestine for the Palestinian people

Q25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home
   ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Act provided for coverage of up to 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population to receive highly subsidized food grains under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Under this Act, two-thirds of the total population of the country or approximately 81 crore persons are estimated to receive benefits under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Hence, the families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ are not the only eligible people to receive subsidized food grains.
• Statement 2 is correct: As a step towards women empowerment, the eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above is mandated to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards under the Act

Q26. India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO

Answer: D

• Article 22 of the TRIPS Agreements (WTO Agreement) defines Geographical Indication as “indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographical origin”. Consequently, upon India joining as a member state of the TRIPS Agreement suigenies legislation for the protection of geographical indication was enacted in 1999. Geographical Indications are covered as an element of Intellectual Property Rights under the TRIPS Agreement (WTO Agreement).

Q27. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is not correct: As per the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015 the non-coal mines have to be auctioned by the respective State governments.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Jharkhand has both alluvial and native gold. Alluvial gold is obtained from the sands of the Subarnarekha River, Sona Nadi in Singhbhum district and the streams draining the Sonapat valley. Native gold is found near Lowa in Singhbhum district. In Andhra Pradesh gold deposits are found in Ramagiri in Anantapur district.
• Statement 3 is correct: About 2621 million tons of resources of Iron–Ore (both Hematite & Magnetite) are estimated in Rajasthan. The Iron-Ore deposits are located in the district of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara

Q28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Statement 1 is correct: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a mobile payment app developed by the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI) based upon the system of Unified Payments Interface (UPI). BHIM app integrates the Payments platform as the official app of the government of India. It allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
Statement 2 is not correct: Debit cards do not have four-factor authorization and BHIM

Q29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune

Answer: A

• The longitude of Delhi is 77.1025° E. Bengaluru with a longitude of 77.5946° E lies on the longitude closest to that of Delhi. Longitude of Hyderabad: 78.4867° E Longitude of Nagpur: 79.0882° E Longitude of Pune: 73.8567° E

Q30. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

(a) Child Labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace

Answer: A

• The Union Cabinet gave its approval for ratification of the two fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organization namely, Minimum Age Convention (No 138) concerning minimum age for admission to employment and the Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention (No 182) concerning the prohibition and immediate action for elimination of the worst forms of Child Labour.

Q31. Regarding the Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has the provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulations of borrowings of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of
India.

Answer: C

Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of Money Bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the
following matters:
● The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
● The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
● The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund.

Q32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of vote of MPs in Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of
3. MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The President is elected by an electoral college, which comprises only of elected representatives (Parliament, Legislative Assemblies of States and UTs of Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated members of Parliament are not allowed to vote. The value of a vote of an MLA varies from State to State, mainly to reflect the population of each state. Forexample: the value of one MLA’s vote in Delhi is 58, in Uttar Pradesh it is 208 and in Sikkim it is just 7.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The value of vote of each MP is same whether it is Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is a little unclear on whether it refers to an individual MP or MPs as a whole. But, then the term “The value of THE VOTE (and not VOTES)” makes it clear that the examiner is not asking you for the total number of votes. So, “MPs of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha” are to be understood as a single group here, and not as a plural entity.

Q33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Answer: A

• Option A is correct: The Additional Protocol is not a stand-alone agreement, but rather a protocol to a safeguards agreement that provides additional tools for verification. In particular, it significantly increases the IAEA’s ability to verify the peaceful use of all nuclear material in States with comprehensive safeguards agreements. Hence, the civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
• Option B is not correct: The military nuclear installations don’t come under the inspection of IAEA.
• Option C is not correct: IAEA protocol ratification will not give the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
• Option D is not correct: NSG membership is not based on IAEA Additional Protocol ratification.

Q34. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only

Answer: C

• Apart from the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) between ASEAN member states, the regional trade bloc has signed several FTAs with some of the major economies in the Asia-Pacific region. These include the ASEAN Australia-New Zealand FTA (AANZFTA), the ASEAN-China FTA (ACFTA), the ASEAN-India FTA (AIFTA), the ASEAN Korea FTA (AKFTA), and the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP).

Q35. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 3 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) is an inclusive, voluntary, and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). GACSA was launched in September 2014 in the margins of the UN Climate Summit. It was launched at COP 21 in Paris.
• Statement 2 is correct: Membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.
• Statement 3 is not correct. India was not instrumental in the creation of GACSA. However, few Indian NGOs are its members.

Q36. Which of the following is/are the aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?

1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 3 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• The Digital India program is centered on three key vision areas:
• Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen
• Governance and Services on Demand
• Digital Empowerment of Citizens

Q37. Consider the following pairs:

Towns are sometimes mentioned in the news Country

1. Aleppo – Syria
2. Kirkuk – Yemen
3. Mosul – Palestine
4. Mazar-I-sharif – Afghanistan
   Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 1 and 4 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

• Pair 1 and pair 4 are correctly matched: Aleppo is in Syria. Mazar-i-sharif is located in Afghanistan.
• Pair 2 and pair 3 are not correctly matched: Kirkuk and Mosul, both are in Iraq. All these places appeared in news in context of war and violence.

Q38. In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers given to the

(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors

Answer: B

• The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an AllIndia Federation consisting of Provinces and Princely States as units. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists, Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), the Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Residuary powers were given to the Governor General.

Q39. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate
   his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Assembly. However, he/she vacates his/her office earlier if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly, if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker, or if he is removed by a the resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.

Q40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer: B

• Liberty or freedom is formally defined as absence of restraint. Law, on the other hand, imposes restraints on certain activities of individuals. When liberty is accepted as a universal principle, it is imperative that liberty of one individual does not endanger the liberty of another individual.
• Option B is a popular choice because it was a statement made by John Locke. He, in The second Treatise of Civil Government, wrote: “where there is no law, there is no freedom” In 1689, he also wrote that “the end of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.” No law would give LICENSCE (Unregulated liberty).

Q41. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is correct: The Governor is entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts and cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
• Statement 2 is correct: A Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office

Q42. The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

(a) Bundi School
(b) Jaipur School
(c) Kangra School
(d) Kishangarh School

Answer: D

• BaniThani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihal Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful. The painting’s subject, BaniThani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of king Sawant Singh (1748–1764).
• She has been compared to the Mona Lisa. Inspired by Radha, BaniThani is characterized by idealized distinct features such as arched eyebrows, lotus-like elongated eyes and a pointed chin. This painting was featured in an Indian stamp issued in 1973.

Q43. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile program
(c) An American anti-missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Answer: C

• Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or re-entry) by intercepting with hit-to-kill approach. THAAD was developed after the experience of Iraq’s Scud missile attacks during the Gulf War in 1991. The THAAD interceptor carries no warhead, but relies on its kinetic energy of impact to destroy the incoming missile.

Q44. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kirtis are devotional songs in Praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharay and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharaya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: Saint Tyagaraja was a renowned composer of Carnatic music. He composed thousands of devotional compositions, mostly in Telugu in praise of Lord Rama, many of which remain popular even till this date.
• Statement 2 is correct: Tyagaraja introduced and gave life to several unusual new ragas in Carnatic music. Some he created while others he found as mere scales in books and infused musicality into them.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Sri Tallapaka Annamacharya was a saint composer in the 15th century, while Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th century. Hence, they were not contemporaries.
• Statement 4 is correct. Annamacharaya was the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called Sankirtanas in praise of God Venkateshwara, a form of Vishnu.

Q45. Which of the following are regarded as the main feature of “Rule of Law”?

1. Limitation of power
2. Equality before the law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The first and second elements are applicable to the Indian system, the Constitution is the source of individual rights.
• Statement 3 is not correct: It should be that government is responsible to the people and not the vice versa.
• Statement 4 is correct: The primacy of the rights, liberty and civil rights, of the individual, that is, the Constitution is the result of rights of individuals as defined and enforced by the court of law rather than the Constitution being the source of individual rights

Q46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases.
(b) The money which a creditor is under the compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country.

Answer: B

• Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. The national currency is legal tender in practically every country. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt.

Q47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

(a) the opportunity cost is zero.
(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

Answer: C

• Opportunity cost represents the benefits an individual, investor or business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another. When you have the opportunity to access public services for free, this would always come at the cost of somebody paying for it. In this case, the tax payer bears the opportunity cost

Q48. An increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: C

• Increasing poverty and unemployment reflect that the fruits of growth in Real GNP have not adequately spread to all. While economic growth is happening for the nation in general a section of people is left behind hence a higher level of economic development is not taking place in the country.

Q49. Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process that enables

1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of the people of the country.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible wealth

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

• Human Capital can be defined as the economic value of an individual’s skills, abilities, knowledge, or experience, etc.
• Statement 1 is not correct: This is Gross Capital Formation (GCF) representing physical capital.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to the OECD, human capital is defined as: “the knowledge, skills, competencies and other attributes embodied in individuals or groups of individuals acquired during their life and used to produce goods, services or ideas in market circumstances”.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Human Capital Formation relates to the enhancement in the abilities of humans as a resource in himself/herself and not the accumulation of tangible wealth like land, money, etc. Tangible wealth is related to assets that can be seen and touched like gold, land, etc. However, these form the part of economic capital and not human capital. Tangible capital is also GCF is which involves largely infrastructural components.

Q50. Despite being a high-saving economy, capital formation may not result in a significant increase in output due to

(a) weak administrative machinery
(b) illiteracy
(c) high population density
(d) high capital-output ratio

Answer: D

• The capital-output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. A higher ratio means that more capital is needed to produce one unit of output due to which the increased capital formation may not result in significant increase in output. A higher ratio generally indicates inefficient deployment of the capital resources of a nation.

Q51. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

1. The territories called ‘Santhal Parganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C

• Statement 1 is correct: In order to be able to rule the area, the British finally agreed on the demands of Santhals following which the District of Santhal Pargana was created in 1885, carving out 5,500 square miles from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.
• Statement 2 is correct: The British government enacted laws to ensure that the tribal land is not taken away by outsiders (dikes). This means it became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Q52. Economically one of the results of British rule in India in the 19th century was the

(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
(d) rapid increase in the urban population

Answer: C

• Commercialization of Indian agriculture was the result of British rule in India in the 19th century. Farmers were forced to grow Indigo and other cash crops which were exported to Great Britain as raw materials of the English factories. In the 19th century, agriculture became commercial due to the use of modern agricultural equipment and Indians started producing crops for commercial use and on a large-scale basis.

Q53. If the president of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the constitution in respect of a particular state, then

(a) the assembly of a state is automatically dissolved.
(b) the power of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer: B

• When the State Legislature is suspended or dissolved, the power of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament. The Parliament can also delegate the power to make laws for the State to the President or to any other Authority specified by him in this regard.

Q54. Consider the following pairs:

Craft Heritage of

1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani saris Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Puthukkuli shawls are made by Todas of Nilgiris hills in Tamil Nadu.
• Pair 1 and pair 3 are not correctly matched: Sujini and Khatwa Embroidery is famous as well as beautiful work of handicraft in Bihar. Jamdani style of weaving originated in Bangladesh. Uppada Sari is a sari style woven in Uppada of East Godavari district in Andhra Pradesh

Q55. In which of the following areas, can GPS technology be used?

1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellitebased navigation system made up of at least 24 satellites covering Earth from space. Core Applications of GPS technology are Navigation, Timing, Tracking, Mapping and Location. GPS is used for mobile phone operations
• (Example: Cell towers use it to route phone calls), banking operations (Example: ATMs and cash registers use it for transactions) and controlling the power grids (Example: electrical grids use it to send power to house). GPS is also used to identify, locate, and maintain contact reports with one or more fleet vehicles in real-time. Astronomy, Automated vehicle, Cartography, Clock synchronization, Disaster relief/emergency services, Radio occultation for weather and atmospheric science applications

Q57. Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is correct: A change in the Earth’s magnetic field resulting in the magnetic north being aligned with the geographic south, and the magnetic south being aligned with the geographic north is called as geomagnetic reversal. Complete magnetic reversals have happened every 200,000 to 300,000 years over the past 20 million years. But that regularity hasn’t continued, as the last known reversal occurred roughly 780,000 years ago.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Between 4.5 and 2.5 billion years (the Archaean and Proterozoic time), the earliest atmosphere contained carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), water vapour (H2O), carbon monoxide (CO), a little nitrogen (N), and hydrogen (H).

Q58. The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

(a) Exoplanets
(b) Cryptocurrency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Minisatellites

Answer: C

• WannaCry is a ransomware which is used for cyberattacks worldwide. It targets computers running the Microsoft Windows operating system by encrypting data and demanding ransom payments in Bitcoin cryptocurrency. The Petya ransomware not only encrypts files, but it also locks the entire disk, making it basically unusable until the infection is removed. It shuts down the system and asks for a ransom of $300 in bitcoins on rebooting. A code known as “Eternal Blue,” which cyber security experts widely believe was stolen from the US National Security Agency (NSA) and was also used in a ransomware attack, named “WannaCry.

Q59. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance.

Which of the following fall under Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Answer: C

• Conservation agriculture (CA) can be defined by a statement given by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United
• Nations as “a concept for resource-saving agricultural crop production that strives to achieve acceptable profits together with high and sustained production levels while concurrently conserving the environment”
• The 3 principles of CA are:
• Minimum tillage and soil disturbance Permanent soil cover with crop residues and live mulches
• Crop rotation and intercropping Conservation agriculture is largely the product of the collective efforts of a number of previous agricultural movements, including no-till agriculture, agroforestry, green manures/cover crops, direct planting/seeding, integrated pest management, and conservation tillage among many others.

Q60. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of
chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65
million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
(c) Large-scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation
in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food
biodiversity.
(d) Mankind’s overexploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Answer: D

• Mass extinction refers to a substantial increase in the degree of extinction or when the Earth loses more than three-quarters of its species in a geologically short period of time. The sixth, which is ongoing, is referred to as the Anthropocene extinction The large number of extinctions spans numerous families of plants and animals, including mammals, birds, amphibians, reptiles and arthropods. With widespread degradation of highly bio-diverse habitats such as coral reefs and rainforests, as well as other areas, the vast majority of these extinctions is thought to be undocumented, as we are either not even aware of the existence of the species before they go extinct, or we haven’t yet discovered their extinction. The current rate of extinction of species is estimated at 100 to 1,000 times higher than natural background rates

Q61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2021.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The space segment consists of the IRNSS constellation of eight satellites, NavIC. Three satellites are located in suitable orbital slots in the geostationary orbit and the remaining four are located in geosynchronous orbits with the required inclination and equatorial crossings in two different planes.
• Statement 2 is not correct: It covers India and a region extending 1,500 km around it, with plans for further extension. The system at present consists of a constellation of seven satellites, with two additional satellites on the ground as stand-by.
• Statement 3 is not correct: There are long-term plans to extend it to the SAARC region, but not by 2019. There are plans to add 4 more satellites to the present constellation.

Q62. Consider the following phenomena:

1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding spacetime.

Which of the above is/are the predictions/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in the media?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Einstein’s General The theory of Relativity is based on how we think gravity governs the behaviour of the Universe. According to Einstein’s theory, light, just like any other form of matter, is affected by gravity. That is, the light also “falls” in a gravitational field.
• Statement 2 is correct: General relativity also predicts the existence of gravitational waves, which have since been observed directly by the physics collaboration LIGO. In addition, general relativity is the basis of current cosmological models of a consistently expanding universe.
• Statement 3 is correct: Hubble Space The telescope captured the image of a phenomenon called Einstein Ring. General relativity is Einstein’s law of gravity, his Justification of that fundamental force that holds us to the surface of the Earth. Gravity, Einstein asserted, is caused by the warping of space and time or space-time.

Q63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest- resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: DMH-11 is a Genetically Modified (GM) mustard, and it is also an herbicide-tolerant mustard. DMH -11 contains three genes viz. Bar gene, Barnase and Barstar sourced from soil bacterium. The genes of a soil bacterium do not give the plant the property of pest- resistance to a wide variety of pests.
• Statement 2 is correct: It has mainly two genes (‘barnase’ and ‘bar star’) that allow for cross-pollination and hybridisation in mustard, which is largely a self-pollinating plant because of its individual flowers containing both female and male reproductive organs.
• Statement 3 is not correct: GM Mustard has been developed by a team of scientists at Delhi University (not IARI and Punjab University) led by former vice-chancellor Deepak Pental with the aim of reducing India’s demand for edible oil imports. They developed Dhara Mustard Hybrid (DMH) -11, a genetically modified hybrid variety of the mustard species (Brassica juncea).

Q64. Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes seen in news Context/Topic

1. Belle II experiment: Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain: Digital/Technology Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR-Cas9: Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Belle II experiment is designed to record data at Super KEKB, a 3 km circumference asymmetric electron-positron collider with a performance similar or better than Belle or BaBar, the B factory detectors, in a much more severe beam background environment. Belle-2 experiment in Tsukuba, Japan, by The High Energy Accelerator Research Organisation (KEK) is designed to study violations of the Standard Model of particle physics.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: A blockchain is a digitized, decentralized, public ledger of all cryptocurrency transactions. Constantly growing as ‘completed’ blocks (the most recent transactions) are recorded and added to it in chronological order, it allows market participants to keep track of digital currency transactions without central recordkeeping. Each node (a computer connected to the network) gets a copy of the blockchain, which is downloaded automatically.

Q65. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Answer: A

• The carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants. The effect varies depending on the plant species, the temperature, and the availability of water and nutrients. From a quarter to half of Earth’s vegetated lands has shown significant greening over the last 35 years largely due to rising levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

Q66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to the office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best apply to the above scenario?

(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network

Answer: B

• The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to a network comprised of physical objects capable of gathering and sharing electronic information. The Internet of Things includes a wide variety of “smart” devices, from industrial machines that transmit data about the production process to sensors that track information about the human body.
• It is the wireless sensor network (WSN) of physical devices, vehicles, home appliances and other items embedded with electronics, software, sensors, actuators, and connectivity that enables these things to connect and exchange data, creating opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world into computer-based systems, resulting in efficiency improvements, economic benefits and reduced human intervention.

Q67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used
   in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of
   India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is not correct: Not a single silicon chip for solar energy is manufactured in India. Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes from China, Europe and some other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters. China is the world’s largest silicon producer, with a production volume estimated at 5.4 million metric tons in 2020. The second largest producer of this metalloid in the world is Russia, Norway being third followed by the United States and Brazil.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission determines power tariffs including solar power tariffs in India and regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government. Solar Energy Corporation of India has a power trading license, but it does not set solar power tariffs

Q68. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were:

(a) Raw cotton, oil seeds, and opium
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc, and lead
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

Answer: D

• Crucial to the emergence of a powerful capitalist economy, British-Indian territory was developed as a source of food and materials for Britain. In fact, it ended upgrading mainly with the Indian subcontinent and China, where the main items of trade were cotton, silk, tea, opium, and saltpeter (potassium nitrate).

Q69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Answer: C

• Option (c) is correct: The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was India’s first Civil Disobedience Movement that opened a new phase in the national movement by joining it to the great struggle of the Indian peasantry for bread and land. Gandhi led the struggle of indigo workers as India’s first Satyagraha that set the pace for the involvement of peasant unrest to the National Movement.

Q70. Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?

(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Answer: D

• The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was founded in Howrah in 1948 by socialists Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists which included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary. HMS absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat, which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist-dominated AITUC.

Q71. With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism

Answer: B

• Sthanakvasi is a sect of Svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana or Moksha. The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer.

Q72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The Buland Darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and black marble and is higher than the courtyard of the mosque. The construction of the Buland Darwaza was inspired by Timurid architecture. Along with Humayun’s Tomb, its monumentality reflects its Central Asian origins.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The architectural style of the Rumi Darwaza is completely in sync with the Nawabi architecture of Lucknow, and its significantly different from the Mughals. The material used for the drawaza is bricks and its then coated with lime, while the Mughals often used red sandstone. This is why the details on the Darwaza is more intricate, which would be impossible to achieve in stone

Q73. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed diamonds and diamond mines of India?

(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

Answer: B

• Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605‒89) was one of the most renowned travelers of 17th century Europe. The son of a French Protestant who had fled Antwerp to escape religious persecution. Tavernier is best known for his discovery or purchase of the 116-carat Tavernier Blue diamond, in 1666. The diamond was certainly Indian in origin and likely sourced by Tavernier in 1666[4] at the Kolluru mine in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh

Q74. With reference to India history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

(a) Avalokiteshvara
(b) Lokesvara
(c) Maitreya
(d) Padmapain

Answer: C

• Maitreya is regarded as a future Buddha of this world in Buddhist eschatology. In some Buddhist literature, such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, he is referred to as Ajita.
• According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha, Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha). The prophecy of the arrival of Maitreya refers to a time in the future when the dharma will have been forgotten by most on the terrestrial world Maitreya has also been adopted for his millenarian role by many non-Buddhist religions in the past, such as the White Lotus, as well as by modern new religious movements, such as Yiguandao

Q75. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

(a) To maintain a large standing army at others expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

Answer: C

• Some Important features of the Subsidiary Alliance are, to maintain a large standing army at others’ expense, to keep India safe from Napoleonic danger, to establish British paramountcy over the Indian States, etc. Securing a fixed income for the Company was not a part of it.

Q76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• The introduction of English Education in India was first put forward by the Charter Act of 1813 and the Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy. Then in 1823, the Governor General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant one lakh of rupees for education. That Committee consisted of ten European members of which Lord Macaulay was the President.

Q77. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: A

• Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Kodaikanal Lake is in the Palni Hills. It is starfish-shaped but with four points, centrally located in the town of Kodaikanal and is surrounded by lush green hills of the Northwestern Palani Hills Kolleru lake, one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, (it was designated a sanctuary in October 1999) is situated between the Krishna and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. Kolleru is one of the most important wetlands of India. It is a Ramsar site. Naini Lake is the sole source of drinking water for Nainital town, an important tourist destination in Uttarakhand state. It is a natural lake.

Q78. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is not correct: Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) implemented by National Skill Development Corporation. The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youths to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.
• Statement 2 is correct: The training program under the scheme comes under the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) wherein various training centers provide skills and training in areas such as soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.

Q79. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?

(a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society

Answer: A

• All India Home Rule League which in October 1920 was renamed the “Swarajya Sabha” with the avowed object of securing complete Swaraj for India in accordance with the wishes of the people of India.

Q80. Which among the following events happened earliest?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

Answer: B

• Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj1875 Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan=1858- 1859 Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath-1882 Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination -1863

Q81. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water – table

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: Depletion of sand in the streambed causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It leads to decreased salinity in the river.
• Statement 2 is correct: The sediment in the mining site, if it contains toxic material due to long-term accumulation, will cause groundwater pollution.
• Statement 3 is correct: Riverbed becomes dry due to exposure to solar radiation, decreasing the surface and groundwater. It causes lowering of the water tables.

Q82. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. Soil texture and organic matter are the key components that determine soil water-holding capacity. Organic matter influences the physical conditions of a soil in several ways. Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, thereby enhancing rainwater infiltration and reducing runoff. Each 1 per cent increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulphur cycle describes the movement of Sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things. Although Sulphur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important to living things because it is a component of many proteins. Hence, soil plays a role in the Sulphur cycle.

Q83. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries to transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Answer: B

• The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a United Nations mechanism to assist countries in transition towards greener and more inclusive economies emerged at The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro. PAGE seeks to put sustainability at the heart of economic policies and practices to advance the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. PAGE brings together five UN agencies which are the UN Environment, International Labour Organization, UN Development Programme, UN Industrial Development Organization, and UN Institute for Training and Research

Q84. “3D printing” has applications in which of the following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is correct: 3D printing is being used across a range of industries, from construction to medical technology. Its use in the food industry continues to grow. 3D printing of confectionery has focused primarily on chocolate and hard sugar candy etc.
• Statement 2 is correct: Bionic ears have been developed by some agencies.
• Statement 3 is correct: It is quite logical as constructing solid parts was one of the first uses of 3D printing.
• Statement 4 is correct: People can now receive custom 3D-printed facial implants to help after illness or injuries.
• Statement 5 is correct: Multi-material voxel printing method that enables the physical visualization of data sets commonly associated with scientific imaging. It enables additive manufacturing of discontinuous data types such as point cloud data, curve and graph data, image-based data, and volumetric data.

Q85. Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Barren Island, the only active volcano in India is also situated in the Nicobar Islands.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Barren Island lies about 140 Km from Port Blair.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 2018. It was a stratovolcano composed of lava, rock fragments, and volcanic ash. On the west side of the island is a caldera formed by an explosive eruption in the Pleistocene era.

Q86. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above

Answer: B

• The kikar or Prosopisjuliflora was brought to Delhi from Mexico by the British more than a century ago. The exotic plant became invasive and wiped out most of the native plants and along with it the animals, which once used to roam in the ridges. With its deep roots, it had also wreaked havoc on city’s groundwater.

Q87. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia an Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Most the coral reefs are in tropical waters, located between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, in the Pacific Ocean, the Indian Ocean, the Caribbean Sea, the Red Sea, and the Persian Gulf.
• Statement 2 is correct: Indonesia, followed by Australia and the Philippines are the largest reef nations, while France comes in fourth. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia, and Philippines.
• Statement 3 is correct: Coral reefs are the most diverse communities on the planet. These tropical marine communities occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor, but are inhabited by at least 25% of all marine species. Scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described species from thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats – four times the number of animal phyla found in tropical rain forests.

Q88. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organization

Answer: C

• “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by the UNFCCC Secretariat. The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world. Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and governments to measure their climate footprint, reduce their emissions as much as possible, and offset what they cannot reduce with UN-certified emission reductions.

Q89. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:

Institution Founder

1. Sanskrit College at Benaras William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: B

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: In 1791 the efforts of Jonathan Duncan, the British Resident at Benares, bore fruit and
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Warren Hastings set up Calcutta Madrasa in 1781 for the study and learning of Persian and Arabic.
  This was done as the British hoped to win a place in the hearts of the “natives”; only then could the alien rulers expect to be respected by their subjects.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Lord Richard Colley Wellesley (Not Arthur Wellesley) took the first step for the training of Civil Servants when he founded the fort William College, in Calcutta in November 1800 where the Civil Servants of the Company were to receive training in literature, science and languages of India

Q90. Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country

1. Catalonia – Spain
2. Crimea – Hungary
3. Mindanao – Philippines
4. Oromia – Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Catalonia is an autonomous community in the northeastern corner of Spain. It is one of Spain’s wealthiest regions. It consists of four provinces, Barcelona, Girona, Lleida, and Tarragona.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Republic of Crimea, officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula stretching out from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. It is separated from Russia to the east by the narrow Kerch Strait.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Mindanao, Island, the second largest (after Luzon) in the Philippines, in the southern part of the archipelago, surrounded by the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.
• Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The Oromo people are the native inhabitants of Ethiopia, Eastern Africa. Their population is estimate to be 55 million, which makes it the largest ethnic group in Eastern Africa.

Q91. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government was formed in a State in India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
(b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
(d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Answer: B

• In 1953, India nationalized all Indian airlines, creating two corporations—one for domestic service, called Indian Airlines Corporation (merging Air-India Limited with six lesser lines), and one for international service, Air-India International Corporation. The Reserve Bank of India, which is the Central Bank of India, acquired a controlling interest in the Imperial Bank of India in 1955. On 1 July 1955, the Imperial Bank of India became the State Bank of India. First democratically elected communist party government formed in a state in India in 1957. The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats

Q92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately implies the above statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principle of the State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 24 and provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Answer: C

• The Supreme Court in the case of Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017) delivered the landmark judgment where it upheld the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right protected under Part III of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court held that the “Right to Privacy” is an integral part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed in Article 21 of the Constitution.

Q93. Consider the following:

1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7

Answer: B

• The government announces MSP for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane. The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops. The list of crops are as follows:
• Cereals: Paddy, Wheat, Barley, Jowar, Bajra, Maize and Ragi (finger millet). Pulses: Gram, Arhar/tur, Moong, Urad and Lentil.
• Oilseeds: Groundnut, Rapeseed/mustard, Toria, Soybean, Sunflower seed, Sesamum, Safflower seed and Niger seed.

Q94. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland

Answer: A

• Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas, in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2002. The habitat comprises lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen, and Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests

Q95. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication satellites to the highly elliptical Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) whereas PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring.
• Statement 2 is not correct: PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth observation” or “Remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. Satellites launched by PSLV do not appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
• Statement 3 is not correct: GSLV Mk 3 is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-one, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage

Q96. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

• The purpose of capital infusion into public sector banks (PSBs) is to strengthen the lending capacity and improve credit growth among PSBs that are saddled with a heavy, non-performing assets (NPAs) as well as are struggling to meet capital adequacy ratio.
• Statement 1 is not correct: Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has not steadily increased in the last decade. As per the Department of Financial Services data, Rs. 25,000 crores were infused in 2016-2017 Financial Year while only Rs. 10,000 crores were infused in the FY of 2017-18.
• Statement 2 is correct: One of the desired objectives of consolidation of banks is the streamlining of banking operations and reduce their NPA burden. In 2017, State Bank of India merged with five of its associate banks, which are: the State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Travancore, State Bank of Hyderabad, and State Bank of Patiala along with Bhartiya Mahlia Bank.

Q97. Consider the following items:

1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Good and Services Tax)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

• Goods and Services Tax was introduced in 2017 as a destination-based indirect tax. The Constitution was amended under the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act to insert Article 246A and Article 269A among other changes to facilitate the GST.
• Statement 1 is correct: Previously GST council imposed 5% rate of GST on hulled grains. However, later on 11th June 2017,
  the rate of GST applicable on hulled grains is 0%. (Nil rate) falls under GST HSN code number 1104.
• Statement 2 is correct: Chicken eggs cooked: 0% GST rate
• Statement 3 is not correct: Fish processed and canned: 5% GST rate
• Statement 4 is correct: Newspapers containing advertising material: 0% GST rate. However, ads attract 5% GST, not the newspapers publishing them

Q98. Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The definition ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ is incorporated in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
• Statement 2 is correct: Baiga Tribals became India’s first community to get Habitat Rights. Baigas are considered as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in the Indian Constitution and rely mostly on shifting cultivation, forest produce and fishing for sustenance. The tribe numbers only 150,000 people spread over forested areas of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The definition of the Habitat Rights was incorporated through an Amendment in the FRA in 2012. As per the amendment, the District Level Committee under the Act shall ensure that all PVTGs receive Habitat Rights, in the Consultation with the concerned traditional institutions of these groups, after filing claims before the Gram Sabha.

Q99. Consider the following:

1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

• Plant diseases spread through direct transmission (the pathogen is carried externally or internally on the seed or planting material like cuttings, sets, tubers, bulbs etc.) or through indirect transmission (the pathogen spreads itself by way of its persistent growth or certain structures of the pathogen carried independently by natural agencies like wind, water (rain), animals, insects, mites, nematodes, birds etc

Q100. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Ministry of Commerce and Industry has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) shall function as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP. APEDA was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December 1985.
• Statement 3 is correct: Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state by implementing organic practices on around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

FAQ 1: What is the pattern of the UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper 1 consists of objective-type multiple-choice questions. It covers diverse subjects such as History, Geography, Polity, Economics, Environment, and Current Affairs. The total marks for the paper are 200, and it is designed to test candidates’ knowledge and understanding of a wide range of topics.

FAQ 2: How many questions can candidates expect in the UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2018 typically comprises 100 to 150 questions. The exact number may vary each year. Candidates need to answer all the questions within a specified time limit, usually two hours.

FAQ 3: Is there a negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: Yes, there is a negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper 1. For each incorrect answer, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question are deducted. However, there is no negative marking for unanswered questions.

FAQ 4: What is the role of the UPSC Prelims 2020 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2020 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1 is a crucial resource for candidates. It provides the correct answers to all the questions asked in the exam. Candidates can use the answer key to estimate their probable scores and identify areas where they need improvement. It also serves as a valuable tool for self-assessment.

FAQ 5: How can candidates access the UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key is usually made available on the official UPSC website after the examination. Candidates can download the answer key and compare it with their responses to calculate their expected scores. Additionally, coaching institutes and educational websites often release unofficial answer keys shortly after the exam for quick reference, but candidates are advised to rely on the official answer key for accurate information.

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