Prepare for the UPSC Prelims with focused practice on “Indian Polity and Governance – Central Government” through topic-wise questions. This resource provides a structured approach to mastering key concepts and understanding the intricacies of central government functions in India.
Covering constitutional provisions, legislative processes, executive functions, and the roles of significant institutions, these questions help aspirants assess their understanding and identify areas for improvement.
With detailed explanations and answers, this resource serves as an invaluable tool for reinforcing knowledge and building confidence to tackle UPSC Prelims questions effectively.
Enhance your preparation by engaging with targeted practice questions, ensuring thorough coverage of the central government’s functioning and boosting your readiness for the UPSC Prelims examination.
1. Consider the table given below.(1995)
Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’?
(a) Ministers who are not Members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office.
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members.
(c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories.
(d) The Attorney General who has the right of speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament.
Ans. (c)
In India’s parliamentary setup, the Rajya Sabha, or Council of States, has a maximum capacity of 250 members. Among them, 238 are representatives chosen indirectly from States and Union Territories, while the President nominates the remaining 12.
Conversely, the Lok Sabha, known as the House of the People, is capped at 552 members. Of these, 530 directly represent States, 2 are presidential nominations from the Anglo-Indian Community if underrepresented, and 20 seats are allocated to Union Territories.
To ensure balanced representation, no more than 20 Union Territory representatives, denoted by “X,” are permitted in either house. This structure facilitates equitable participation from different regions and communities in India’s Parliament.
2. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention ? (1995)
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House.
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House.
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers.
(d) In the event of both the President and the Vice- President demitting office simultaneously before the end of their tenure the Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President.
Ans. (b)
In India, the Constitution doesn’t explicitly mandate the resignation of the Prime Minister upon losing majority in the Lower House, yet it’s a convention upheld. Similarly, the Constitution lacks a defined procedure for selecting and appointing the Prime Minister. These aspects operate based on established practices rather than explicit constitutional guidelines.
3. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ?
(1995)
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament.
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament.
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature.
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature.
Ans. (d)
Members of the State Legislative Assembly, belonging to the Lower House, hold voting privileges in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha elections. According to Article 80 of the Indian Constitution, Rajya Sabha representatives from each state are elected by State Legislative Assembly members using proportional representation through the single transferable vote method.
It’s important to note that members of either Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha lack the authority to vote in the election of Rajya Sabha members. Similarly, the Upper House of the State Legislature doesn’t participate in electing representatives for its state in the Rajya Sabha. This ensures a clear and distinct electoral process for Rajya Sabha representation.
4. Which one of the following is part of the electoral
college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment? (1996)
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Ans. (d)
State Legislative Assemblies are not involved in the impeachment process of the President. According to Article 54, the President is elected by an electoral college comprising members from both Houses of Parliament and elected members from State Legislative Assemblies, including those from the NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry (Puducherry). This process ensures a representative and inclusive election mechanism for the President of India.
5. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that states will be (1996)
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 6
Ans. (*)
In determining the reserved seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) in a State, it hinges on the SC population within that state. In the absence of the SC population percentage in a given scenario, none of the provided options are correct. In 1996, there were 79 reserved seats for SCs in the Lok Sabha. However, following the 2001 census which showed an increase in the overall SC and ST populations, the Delimitation Commission adjusted the number of reserved seats. Accordingly, the seats for SCs in the Lok Sabha were raised from 79 to 84, and for STs from 41 to 47, out of a total of 543 constituencies, as per the Delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies Order of 2008. Currently, there are 84 seats reserved for SCs in the Lok Sabha.
6. Which one of the following statements is correct? (1996)
The Prime Minister of India
(a) is free to choose his minister only from among those who are members of either House of Parliament.
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard.
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet.
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested with the President of India.
Ans. (c)
In India, the Prime Minister holds complete authority in selecting individuals to serve as ministers in the cabinet. According to the Constitution, there’s no restriction on appointing someone from outside the legislature as a Minister. However, they must obtain a seat in either House of Parliament within six months to continue in the position.
7. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper
House of Parliament (1997)
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
Ans. (a)
If the Prime Minister of India is a member of the Upper House of Parliament, they cannot cast a vote in their own favor during a no-confidence motion. This is because such motions are exclusively passed in the Lok Sabha, as per Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha.
8. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression ‘population’ here means the population as ascertained by the (1997)
(a) 1991 Census
(b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census
(d) 1961 Census
Ans. (a)
The term “population” refers to the population data determined by the most recent census with published figures. Up until 2026, this is typically understood as referencing the 1991 Census. However, the 87th Amendment Act of 2003 mandated constituency delimitation based on the 2001 census instead of the 1991 census. Notably, this adjustment doesn’t change the number of seats allocated to each state in the Lok Sabha.
9. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India? (1997)
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
Ans. (b)
Both the statements (1) and (2) are correct
According to the Constitution, the Indian Parliament comprises three main components: the President, the Council of States, and the House of the People. Article 59 specifies that the President cannot hold membership in either House of Parliament or any state legislature. While not physically present at Parliament meetings, the President plays a crucial role as bills passed by both Houses require presidential approval to become law. Article 79 outlines the structure of the Union Parliament, consisting of the President and two Houses known as the Council of States and the House of People.
10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. (1997)
| List I (Functionaries) | List II (Oaths of affirmations) |
| A. President of India | 1. Secrecy of Information |
| B. Judges of Supreme Court | 2. Faithful Discharge of Duties |
| C. Members of Parliament | 3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India |
| D. Minister for the Union | 4. Upholding the Constitution and the law |
Codes
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (b)
The correct matching is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.
In accordance with Article 60 of the Constitution, the President of India swears to uphold and protect the Constitution and the law. Supreme Court judges, Members of Parliament (MPs), and Union Ministers also take oaths or affirmations outlined in the Constitution’s 3rd Schedule. Supreme Court judges pledge allegiance to the Constitution, MPs vow to faithfully discharge their duties, and Union Ministers promise to maintain the confidentiality of information.
11. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties (2000)
(a) with the consent of all the state
(b) with the consent of the majority of states
(c) with the consent of the states concerned
(d) without the consent of any state
Ans. (d)
According to Article 253 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament possesses the authority to enact laws for implementing international treaties, agreements, or conventions without needing consent from any state. This grants Parliament the power to legislate on matters within the state list concerning international treaties. The enactment of such laws doesn’t necessitate consent from all or a majority of states, or even the concerned states.
12. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct? (2000)
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
Ans. (a)
Statement (a) is inaccurate as Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha holds limited authority in this matter. A bill qualifies as a Money Bill if it strictly adheres to the provisions outlined in Article 110 of the Constitution. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha holds the ultimate decision-making power in determining whether a bill meets the criteria to be classified as a Money Bill.
13. The speaker can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as (2000)
(a) decorum
(b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation
(d) yielding the floor
Ans. (d)
The Speaker of Parliament has the authority to interrupt one Member of Parliament while speaking and allow another member to speak instead. This practice is commonly referred to as “yielding the floor.”
14. Consider the following functionaries. (2000)
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Minister
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence in the order of precedence is
(a) 3,4,2,1
(b) 4,3,1,2
(c) 4,3,2,1
(d) 3,4,1,2
Ans. (c)
The accurate sequence of precedence is as follows: Chief Justice of India, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Election Commissioner, and Cabinet Secretary. This sequence indicates the hierarchy of officials within both Union and State Governments.
15. Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor General of India? (2001)
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Ans. (d)
Contrary to popular belief, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) doesn’t handle the control of public money receipts and issuances. Instead, the duties and functions mandated by Parliament and the Constitution include:
- Auditing accounts concerning expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India, each State, and Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly.
- Auditing expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India, Public Account of India, Contingency Fund, and Public Account of each State.
- Auditing trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets, and subsidiary accounts maintained by Central and State Government departments.
16. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration? (2001)
1. Through Parliamentary Committees.
2. Through consultative committees of various ministries.
3. By making the administrators send periodic reports.
4. By compelling the executive to issue writs.
Ans. (a)
Parliament exercises oversight over executive committees through the utilization of Parliamentary Committees, which aren’t explicitly mentioned in the Constitution but are established according to the Rules of Business. These committees come in two forms: standing and ad hoc. Standing committees are permanent, while ad hoc committees are temporary, created to address specific issues and disbanded upon completion of their tasks. Prime Ministers establish ad hoc committees based on the current needs and circumstances. Examples of such committees include the Public Accounts Committee, Estimate Committee, and various Standing Committees.
17. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct? (2002)
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the states
Ans. (d)
Regarding Indian politics, Statement (d) is accurate. The National Development Council (NDC) comprises the Prime Minister, Cabinet members (including the Finance Minister), and the Chief Ministers of States.
18. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers? (2002)
(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Ans. (d)
The 44th Amendment Act to the Indian Constitution grants authority to the President to return any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers. However, if the Council of Ministers reaffirms the same advice, the President is obligated to accept it. This amendment became effective on June 20, 1979.
19. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the (2002)
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30% posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created states
Ans. (a)
The 93rd Constitution Amendment addresses the extension of reservation for backward classes in government employment. It introduced a provision in Article 15, empowering states to enact special provisions for socially and educationally backward individuals, including SCs/STs, in educational institutions. This provision applies to all educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except minority educational institutions.
20. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the (2002)
(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliament Affairs
(d) Ministry of Transport
Ans. (c)
The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is formed by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs to facilitate discussions. These committees are affiliated with different ministries and coordinate their gatherings. The Minister of State responsible for the relevant ministry serves as the Chairman of the respective Consultative Committee. Membership in these committees is voluntary and determined by the members and their party leaders. Each committee can have a maximum of 30 members and a minimum of 10.
21. The term of the Lok Sabha (2002)
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Ans. (c)
The Lok Sabha’s regular term spans five years, but it can be dissolved prematurely by the President based on the Council of Ministers’ advice. During a national emergency, its term can be extended for up to one year at a time. However, this extension cannot surpass six months following the end of the emergency.
22. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidate respectively is (2002)
(a) ₹5,000 and 2,500
(b) ₹10,000 and₹2,500
(c) ₹10,000 and ₹ 5,000
(d) ₹15,000 and ₹7,500
Ans. (b)
In Lok Sabha elections, general category candidates deposit ₹25,000, while SC/ST candidates deposit ₹12,500 and ₹5,000 respectively. Candidates unable to secure more than one-sixth (16.6%) of the total valid votes forfeit their deposit.
23. Consider the following statements. (2003)
1. The joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statement(s) are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
All statements provided are accurate.
Under Article 108 of the Constitution, India’s Parliament can convene a joint sitting of both houses. The inaugural joint sitting occurred regarding the Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961, with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presiding.
The President holds the authority to summon both Houses for joint deliberation and voting on bills. This provision applies to ordinary bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills but excludes money bills, where the Lok Sabha retains supremacy. Constitutional Amendment Bills necessitate separate passage by each House.
For a joint sitting, a quorum of one-tenth of the total members of both Houses is required.
The second joint sitting was convened to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
24. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)? (2003)
(a) Article 121
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 124
Ans. (c)
Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to issue ordinances, such as one concerning electoral reforms, when Parliament is not in session. If the President deems immediate action necessary due to prevailing circumstances, an ordinance can be issued, carrying the same legal weight as a parliamentary act.
25. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2003)
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union Minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections
Ans. (c)
Statement (c) is accurate as there is no constitutional restriction preventing a nominated member from being appointed as a Union Minister. However, they must either be a sitting Member of Parliament or become one within six months of their appointment.
26. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with (2003)
(a) the President of India
(b) the Chief Justice of India
(c) the Parliament
(d) the Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Ans. (c)
The authority to extend the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India regarding matters listed in the Union List lies with Parliament. As per Article 138 of the Constitution, Parliament has the discretion to expand the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction and authority on Union List issues through legislation. Additionally, the Supreme Court may acquire additional jurisdiction and powers over any matter through special agreements between the Government of India and any State government.
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