UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Solved PYQs – Indian Polity

The Indian Polity section in the UPSC Prelims examination has been a crucial and dynamic component over the years, spanning from 2013 to 2023. These examinations have consistently tested candidates’ understanding of the Indian political system, constitutional provisions, and governance structures. The questions have ranged from fundamental concepts like the separation of powers, federalism, and parliamentary procedures to contemporary issues such as constitutional amendments, electoral reforms, and the evolving role of constitutional bodies. The examination has emphasized a multidimensional approach, requiring aspirants to integrate their knowledge of historical and current events with a profound comprehension of constitutional principles. Topics like the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), Goods and Services Tax (GST), and the functioning of constitutional bodies like the Election Commission have featured prominently. The questions not only assess factual knowledge but also evaluate candidates’ analytical and application skills in interpreting constitutional provisions in real-world scenarios. Aspirants are challenged to stay abreast of constitutional amendments, landmark judicial decisions, and legislative developments, reflecting the evolving nature of India’s polity. Therefore, a comprehensive and updated understanding of Indian polity remains imperative for aspirants navigating the UPSC Prelims from 2013 to 2023.

2023

1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The Principle of Natural Justice.
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: The due process of law doctrine examines not only whether a law exists to deprive a person of his or her life and personal liberty, but also whether the legislation is fair, just, and not arbitrary. 

2. Consider the following statements: 

Statement- I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. 

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a)

• Prison is a State subject under List-II of the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution. The management and administration of Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State Governments, and is governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. Thus, States have the primary role, responsibility and power to change the current prison laws, rules and regulations. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Under Prison act 1894, which governs the prisons, management and administration of prison falls in the domain of state governments. Hence, statement II is correct, and it gives correct explanation to statement I.

3. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: chief purpose of a constitution is to establish the fundamental principles, structure, and functions of a government and to define the rights and freedoms of individuals within a country. Constitutions serve as the supreme law of the land and provide a framework for governance, ensuring the balance of power, protecting individual rights, and guiding the functioning of the state. 

4. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment.
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: During the initial months of the working of the Constitution, certain difficulties were brought to light by judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights. The citizen’s right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by article 19(1)(a) had been held by some courts to be so comprehensive as not to render a person culpable even if he advocates murder and other crimes of violence. As a result of this, the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 was passed. Its object was to amend Article 19 for the purposes indicated above and to insert provisions fully securing the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws in general and certain specified State Acts in particular. 

5. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India:

(1) The National Commission for Backward Classes
(2) The National Human Rights Commission
(3) The National Law Commission.
(4) The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 has been repealed through the National Commission for Backward Classes (Repeal) Act, 2018. The Commission has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through “The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018” Act.  

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October 1993. The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. 

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.

Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, 

Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite term of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.

6. Consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None 

Answer: (d)

• If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision remain valid. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Election for the post of the President of India is not postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. As when an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the Presidential election. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• When the bill is presented to the President, and the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill, or that he withholds assent therefrom Provided that the President may, as soon as possible after the presentation to him of a Bill for assent, return the Bill if it is not a Money Bill to the Houses with a message requesting that they will reconsider the Bill or any specified provisions thereof. The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit within which he/she has to declare his/ her assent. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

7. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (a)

• A Finance Bill is a Money Bill as defined in Article 110 of the Constitution. Whereas a Financial Bill is an ordinary bill as it apart from dealing with money matters also deals with non-money matters. The Finance Bill is accompanied by a Memorandum containing explanations of the provisions included in it. The Finance Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. However, the Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments in the Bill. The bill has to be passed by the Parliament within 75 days of its introduction. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
• As a finance bill is a money bill, so no joint sitting of the two houses is allowed with respect to a finance bill under Article 108. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

8. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (b)

• In the Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule are:
  • Preponderance of tribal population
  • Compactness and reasonable size of the area
  • A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring areas.
• The Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of the said areas. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

9. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 Answer: (c)

• The Court has held in several judgments (Indra Sawhney and Others v Union of India and Others 1993; M Nagaraj and Others v Union of India and Others 2006) that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335 (2) which provides for “maintenance of efficiency of administration,” while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the making of appointments to public services and posts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This was done while the Constitution does not define the term “efficiency of administration.” Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

10. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.

2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.

3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b)

• Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. They are recruited from amongst all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for betterment of the community. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan (4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

11. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Action           The Act under which it is covered 

1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms               The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly interfering with police/military officer engaged in their duties Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
   
   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
   
   (a) Only one
   
   (b) Only two
   
   (c) All three
   
   (d) None

Answer: (b)

• Official Secrets Act, 1904 stated that Unauthorised use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents. If any person for the purpose of gaining admission or of assisting any other person to gain admission to a prohibited place or for any other purpose prejudicial to the safety of the State wears police or military uniform shall be guilty. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Official Secrets Act, 1904 stated that No person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of engaged on guard, Sentry, patrol, or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 ensures that those using firearms in a rash or negligent manner in celebratory gunfire, endangering human life or personal safety of others, shall be punishable with an imprisonment to two years or with fine which may extend to Rs one lakh or with both. Hence, pair 3 correctly matched.

12. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d)

• The Flag Code of India, 2002 was amended recently, and National Flag made of polyester or machine-made flag have also been allowed. Now, the National Flag shall be made of hand-spun, hand-woven or machine-made cotton/polyester/wool/ silk/khadi bunting, as per the amended flag code. The standard sizes of the National Flag shall be as follows:

1	6300 X 4200
2	3600 X 2400
3	2700 X 1800
4	1800 X 1200
5	1350 X 900
6	900 X 600
7	450 X 300
8	225 X 150
9	150 X 100

Hence, statement I is not correct.

• The National Flag shall be rectangular in shape. The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the flag shall be 3:2. Hence, statement II is correct.

13. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: 

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

• The Constitution Day is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment on 19th November 2015 notified the decision of Government of India to celebrate the 26th day of November every year as ‘Constitution Day’ to promote Constitution values among citizens. Hence, statement-I is correct.
• The Drafting Committee was set up on August 29, 1947. It was this committee that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

14. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Answer: (b)

• Janani Suraksha Yojana launched on 12th April 2005, is being implemented in all states and UTs with special focus on low performing states. It is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It was implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
• Providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age is not an objective of the scheme. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

15. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Answer:  (c)

• Interventions of Anaemia Mukt Bharat:
  • Not Prophylactic calcium supplementation but Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation is provided to children, adolescents and women of reproductive age and pregnant women irrespective of anaemia. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Increase intake of iron-rich, protein-rich and vitamin C-rich foods through dietary diversification/quantity/frequency and food fortification. Promoting practice of delayed cord clamping (by at least 3 minutes or until cord pulsations cease) in all health facility deliveries followed by early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the age groups between 1-19 years is carried out every year under National Deworming Day (NDD) programme. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Anaemia Mukt Bharat also integrates deworming of women of reproductive age and for pregnant women as part of the NDD strategy. Addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets, with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

16. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

correct Answer:(d)

• The Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres (ABHWCs) were launched under the Ayushman Bharat Programme in a bid to move away from selective health care to a more comprehensive range of services spanning preventive, promotive, curative, rehabilitative and palliative care for all ages. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• In ABHWCs at the Sub Health Centre (SHC) level, Multi-Purpose Workers (male & female) & ASHAs and Primary Health Centre/ Urban Primary Health Centre are organized by state govt but in case of tertiary Health services Central govt is also a key stakeholder. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

17. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: (a)

• As per Article 355, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• As per Article 22(1), No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice. And as per Article 22(5), when any person is detained in pursuance of an order made under any law providing for preventive detention, the authority making the order shall, as soon as may be, communicate to such person the grounds on which the order has been made and shall afford him the earliest opportunity of making a representation against the order. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, 1987 and the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 had made provisions to admit the confessions made by the accused before the police authorities. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

18. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statement are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Answer: (a)

• As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of
  • The elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and 
  • The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry]. 
  • The Members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The value of the vote of an MP in a presidential election is based on the number of elected members in legislative assemblies of states and union territories, including Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir. If the number of elected Assembly seats increased, the value of vote of each MLA of that state will decrease. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is 131 which is less than that of Kerala where it is 152. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry (16) is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh (8) because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

19. Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance

2. Forest and ecology

3. Governance reforms

4. Stable government

5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used the following as criteria:

• Population
• Area
• Forest & ecology
• Income Distance
• Tax & fiscal efforts
• Demographic performance

2022

1. In India, which one of the following compiles pieces of information on industrial disputes, closures, entrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing worker?

(a) Central Statistics Office

(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(c) Labor Bureau

(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Labour Bureau compiles Statistics on Industrial Disputes, Closures, Retrenchments and Layoffs in India based on the voluntary returns received every month from the Labour Departments of the States and Union Territories and the Regional Labour Commissioners.

2. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a)

The Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO) is a subordinate office of the ministry of coal, having its headquarters at Kolkata and field offices at Dhanbad, Ranchi, Bilaspur, Nagpur, Sambalpur, Kothagudem and Asansol. It collects and maintains coal production data of all private and public sector coal mines in the country. The information is collected on a monthly basis.

Statement 1 is correct. Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted with the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India. 

Statement 2 is correct. It is entrusted with the task of monitoring captive mines. Work such as permission for opening and reopening of coal mines has been entrusted to CCO.

Statement 3 is correct. Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957- Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Ensuring that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time is not the function of Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO).

3. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Governor can make regulations for peace and good governance of a scheduled area after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non-tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ‘in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: On June 25, 2015, the India Sanitation Coalition was established at the FICCI in New Delhi. The International Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society organizations, media, donors/bilateral/multilateral, experts, etc. to work in the sanitation space to advance sustainable sanitation through a partnership model. These include supporting the unlocking of WASH financing with focus on the private sector, forging partnerships with allied organizations for leading the discourse on sustainable sanitation; convening, curating and disseminating best practices in the sanitation advocacy — space and providing inputs into the policy aspects of sanitation through participation at allied forums. It is not funded by WHO.

Statement 2 is correct. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. As a hub for generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) was appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its urban development plans. Since then, it has worked closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast-urbanizing India and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the future.

5. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: The Tea Board of India is a statutory body created under the Tea Act, 1953 and it was established for the purposes of regulating the Indian tea industry and protecting the interests of tea producers in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce. The Board is constituted of 31 members (including Chairman) drawn from Members of Parliament, tea producers, tea traders, tea brokers, consumers, and representatives of Governments from the principal tea producing states, and trade unions. The Board is reconstituted every three years.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Tea Board of India’s Head Office is situated in Kolkata.

Statement 4 is correct: The Tea Board of India has overseas offices in Moscow, Dubai, Hamburg, London and New York. Moscow office. The Moscow office of the Tea Board of India operates under the Embassy of India, and its area of activity includes Russia and the CIS countries, which comprise 50% of Indian tea exports. All these foreign offices of the Board are designed to undertake the various promotional measures to boost up export of Indian tea. These offices also act as a liaison office for interaction between importers of Indian tea of the respective regions as well as Indian Exporters.

6. Consider the following statements: 

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only 

(c) 3 and 4 only 

(d) 3 only 

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Sanyal Committee examined the law relating to contempt of courts in general, and the law relating to the procedure for contempt proceedings including the punishment thereof in particular. The Committee submitted its report in 1963, which inter alia defined and limited the powers of certain courts in punishing contempt of courts and provided to regulate the procedure in relation thereto. The recommendations of the Committee were generally accepted by the Government after having wide consultation with the State Governments, Union Territory Administrations, and all other stakeholders. Pursuant to the recommendations made by the H N Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court and the High Courts of India have been empowered with the power to penalize for Contempt of Court under Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India. 

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define Civil Contempt and/or Criminal Contempt.

Contempt of court act, 1971 Defines,
(a) “contempt of court” means civil contempt or criminal contempt;
(b) “civil contempt” means willful disobedience to any judgement, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court or willful breach of an undertaking given to a court;
(c) “criminal contempt” means the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which—
(i) scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or
(ii) prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with, the due course of any judicial proceeding; or
(iii) interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner;
(d) “High Court” means the High Court for a State or a Union territory, and includes the court of the Judicial Commissioner in any Union territory.

Statement 4 is correct: Article 142 (2) of the Indian Constitution clearly states that “subject to the provisions of any law made on this behalf by Parliament” the Supreme Court shall have all and every power to make any order on the punishment of any contempt of itself. Thus, the parliament is vested with powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

7. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: An Advocate is a person authorized to appear in a Court litigation on behalf of a party and who possess a law degree, enrolled with the Bar Council in accordance with the prescriptions laid by the Advocates Act, 1961. Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as lawyers and there’s no prohibition on their recognition as lawyers. A patent attorney or patent lawyer is also an advocate. This means that an individual who has a law degree and has enrolled with a State Bar Council is an advocate who can deal with patent litigation and is hence a patent attorney.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.

8. Consider the following statements: 

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to article 368 of Indian constitution, prior approval of the President is not required for the Constitutional Amendment Act.  The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.

Statement 2 is correct: As per 1971 amendment of Article 368, it has been obligatory for the President to give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill and the President cannot exercise any veto power regarding this.  The President cannot exercise his veto powers with respect to Constitution Amendment Bill. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of Parliament. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act, and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

Statement 3 is correct: Constitutional Amendment Bill needs to be passed by both the houses separately by a special majority and there is no provision of joint sitting.

9. Consider the following statements: 

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 74 of the Constitution of India states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Hence, Constitution of India does not define any categorization of ministers. 

Statement 2 is correct: As per 91^st Constitutional Amendment Act, the total number of ministers including prime minister shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha. 

10. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 
3. To impeach the President of India 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 1 and 3 

(d) 3 only 

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, a resolution for the ratification of the proclamation of an emergency must be passed by a special majority by the both the houses of the Parliament separately. If the proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved/the dissolution takes place during the period of one month without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it. 

Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 75 of the Constitution, Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. 

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 61 of the Constitution, both the Houses of the Parliament, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, have an equal say in the Impeachment of the President.

Procedure for impeachment of the President:  

• When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament 
• No such charge shall be preferred unless 
• the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after at least fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by not less than one fourth of the total number of members of the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and 
• such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two thirds of the total membership of the House 
• When a charge has been so preferred by either House of Parliament, the other House shall investigate the charge or cause the charge to be investigated and the President shall have the right to appear and to be represented as such investigation 
• If as a result of the investigation a resolution is passed by a majority of not less than two thirds of the total membership of the House by which the charge was investigated or cause to be investigated, declaring that the charge preferred against the President has been sustained, such resolution shall have the effect of removing the President from his office as from the date on which the resolution is so passed.

11. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 
2. The law does not provide any timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (b) 

Statement 1 is incorrect:  According to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House.  Hence, he/she can join any political party within 6 months of taking his/her seat in the House without the fear of disqualification. 

Statement 2 is correct: There is no time mentioned in the law during which the Presiding Officer must decide on the disqualification plea.

12. Consider the following statements: 

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Article 76 of the Constitution of India, Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which she/he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. Solicitor General of India, a statutory post assists the AG in fulfillment of the official responsibilities. The Solicitor General does not participate in the meetings of Parliament as it is a statutory post assisting the Attorney General in the fulfilment of the official responsibilities.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no provision regarding the procedure and grounds for the removal of Attorney General mentioned in the Constitution except that he/she holds office during the pleasure of the president. Conventionally (not mandatorily), he/she can resign when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice. 

13. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (c) 

Statement 1 is correct: The term “mandamus” means ‘we command’. It is generally a command which is issued by the court to a public servant asking him to perform his duties, which he has failed to do so. The writ of mandamus cannot be granted against a private individual or organization.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The writ of mandamus can also be issued against a corporation, inferior court or government body for failing to perform their duties in official committees.

Statement 3 is correct: The term quo- warranto means ‘by what authority or by what warrant’. It is generally issued by a court to enquire about the legality or under what authority he is holding that office. It prevents the illegal holding of a public office by any person.  It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial or private office. 

14. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: 

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 
3. It has seamless portability across the country. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: The Government of India has launched the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission to promote the digitization of healthcare and to create an open interoperable digital health ecosystem for the country. Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens and participation of a healthcare institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE). It doesn’t aim to cover every citizen of the country but rather relies on PM Jan Arogya Yojana data which selects beneficiary on the basis of SECC data.

Statement 3 is correct: ABDM seeks to bridge the gap among multiple stakeholders who are part of the healthcare ecosystem by prescribing common health data standards, developing health facilities registry, healthcare professionals, etc. required for interoperability by enabling seamless data sharing across various healthcare providers who may be using different digital health systems.

15. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) 1 and 3 only 

(b) 1, 2 and 3 

(c) 3 and 4 only 

(d) 2 and 4 only 

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker and whenever the office of the Deputy Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy. The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: Both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party till the 10^th Lok Sabha election. Since then, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party. However, this is not a mandatory provision.

Statement 3 is correct: The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. He also presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting. 

Statement 4 is incorrect: : At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that the member proposed is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker, if elected, provided that a member shall not propose one’s own name, or second a motion proposing the member’s own name, or propose or second more than one motion.

2021

1. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

1. the Right to Equality
2. the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. the Right to Freedom
4. the Concept of Welfare

Answer:(b)

Option (b) is correct:

PART IV Directive Principle of State Policy– Article 39 says that:

The State shall direct its policy towards securing— 

(a) that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.

(b) that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are distributed as best to subserve the common good. 

(c) that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

(d) that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

2. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

1. Legal right available to citizens only
2. Legal right available to any person
3. Fundamental Right available to citizens only
4. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Answer:(b)

Option (b) is correct: The Right to Property is a legal right available to any person. Article 300-A provides that no person shall be deprived of his property saved by authority of law.  The Forty Fourth Constitutional Amendment, 1978, deleted Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 from Part III, the chapter on Fundamental Rights in the Constitution. 

3. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26^th January 1950?

1. A Democratic Republic
2. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
3. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
4. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer:(b)

Option (b) is correct: Though India became a free nation on August 15, 1947, it declared itself a Sovereign, Democratic and Republic state with the adoption of the Constitution on January 26, 1950.

With the enactment of the 42nd Amendment of 1976, the words “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted. The Preamble now reads “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic”.  

4. Constitutional government means

1. a representative government of nation with federal structure
2. a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
3. a government whose Head enjoys real powers
4. a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means government conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors, and which therefore help to constrain the unfettered exercise of power by separating or dividing it. The contemporary political systems that combine constitutionalism and democracy share a common basis in that they accord to the will of the majority of the people as expressed in free elections. In all such systems, political parties are key institutions, for they are the agencies by which majority opinion in a modern mass electorate is mobilized and expressed.

5. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2. The Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1996, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the National Awards–Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Sri.  National awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as prefixes or suffixes to the name of the recipient in any manner. 

Article 18(1) abolishes all titles. It prohibits the State from conferring titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen. Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give title or honor on a man of merit. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 to be awarded to citizens of India in recognition of their distinguished contribution in various spheres of activity. The government suspended the practice of granting the Padma awards for two years in 1977.  It was again suspended during mid-1992 when 2 PILs were filed in the High Courts of India They are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order) and Padma Shri (distinguished service). 

Statement 3 is incorrect: A maximum of 3 people can be awarded the Bharat Ratna. The total number of Padma awards to be conferred each year is limited to 120. But the count excludes posthumous awards and any non-resident Indian or Overseas Citizen of India or foreign-based winners.

6. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.  Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate and is locked up in a jail. In Police custody, the accused is lodged in a police station and the police have physical custody of the accused.

Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure governs the provisions for custody in India. As per rules, the first thing that happens to a suspect when arrested is that he is taken into police custody, following which he is to be taken before a magistrate. From there, he may either be remanded to judicial custody or be sent back into police custody.  

Statement 2 is correct. During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation being necessary under the facts produced before the court. However, during police custody, the police officer in charge of the case, may interrogate the suspect. 

7. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:(b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with suspension of the sentence. It is a privilege/concession but not a right of any convicted prisoner. Parole is to be granted only on a sufficient cause such as cases of severe illness or death of any member of the prisoner’s family. The granting authority for parole is the deputy home secretary of the state government. Parole may be denied to a prisoner even when he makes out sufficient cause for release on parole.

Furlough is seen as a matter of right for a prisoner, to be granted periodically irrespective of any reason. It is granted merely to enable the prisoner to retain family and social ties, and to counter the ill effects of prolonged time spent in prison. Both Parole and Furlough can be denied if the competent authority is of the opinion that releasing the inmate would not be in the interest of society.

Statement 2 is correct: States have separate prison/parole rules because “Prison and persons detained” is a state subject of the 7th schedule of the Constitution. The management and administration of prisons fall exclusively in the domain of state governments and are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894, and the Prison Manuals of the respective state governments. 

The Prisons Act further says that only states can make rules regarding the release of prisoners on furlough, parole and remission as part of the correctional process in jail reforms.

8. At the national level, which ministry is nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
2. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
3. Ministry of Rural Development
4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer:(d)

Option (d) is correct: The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. The ministry deals with forest and livelihood objectives at the national level.

Forest Rights Act, 2006

• The Act recognizes and vests the forest rights and occupation in Forest land in Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD) who have been residing in such forests for generations.
• Forest rights can also be claimed by any member or community who has for at least three generations (75 years) prior to the 13th day of December, 2005 primarily resided in forest land for bona fide livelihood needs.
• It strengthens the conservation regime of the forests while ensuring livelihood and food security of the FDST and OTFD.
• The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of Individual Forest Rights (IFR) or Community Forest Rights (CFR) or both that may be given to FDST and OTFD.
• The Act identifies four types of rights:
• Title rights: It gives FDST and OTFD the right to ownership to land farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to a maximum of 4 hectares. Ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the concerned family and no new lands will be granted.
• Use rights: The rights of the dwellers extend to extracting Minoe Forest Produce, grazing areas etc.
• Relief and development rights: To rehabilitate in case of illegal eviction or forced displacement and to basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection.
• Forest management rights: It includes the right to protect, regenerate or conserve or manage any community forest resource which they have been traditionally protecting and conserving for sustainable use.

9. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India?

1. Article 14
2. Article 28
3. Article 32
4. Article 44

Answer:(a)

Article 14 of Indian Constitution says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’. This concept has the following three elements or aspects:

• Absence of arbitrary power 
• Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary law of the land 
• The constitution is the result of the rights of the individual.

Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion. It provides that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. Further, no person attending any educational institution recognized by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to attend any religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consent.  

Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights of the citizens.  It confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen.

Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that the “State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”.

10. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

1. The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
2. The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
3. The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
4. Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The establishment of an independent judiciary indicates the federal character of Indian polity. The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states.

Key features of federalism:

• There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
• Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
• The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So, the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
• The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both levels of government.
• Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.

11. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

1. A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
2. A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
3. A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
4. A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

Answer: (a)

According to Max Weber, a State is a human community that claims the monopoly of the legitimate use of physical force within a given territory. It alone has the prerogative of making laws. Lawmaking power derives from sovereignty, which is the most distinctive characteristic of the State. The state possesses a government which has the authority to enforce a system of rules over the people living inside it. That system of rules is commonly composed of a constitution, statutes, regulations, and common law.

12. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only with the previous consent of the President and of the person to be so appointed. Such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine. He will also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of the Supreme Court.   

Statement 2 is incorrect: High Court is a court of record and does have the power to review its own judgment however it is not the same as SC.

13. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only ‘one citizenship and one domicile’.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

Answer:(a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution provides for only a single citizenship, that is, the Indian citizenship. There is no separate state citizenship and when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates.  In 2010, the Uttarakhand High Court declared that there is no separate domicile for each State and there is only one domicile for the entire country.  

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Citizenship Act offers other categories of citizenship like Citizenship by Registration (Section 5) and Citizenship by Naturalization (Section 6). In India, both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President. This is different from USA, where only a citizen by birth (and not a naturalized citizen) is eligible for the office of President.  

Statement 3 is incorrect: A foreigner, who has been earlier granted Indian citizenship, can be deprived of his citizenship on the basis of, if the registration or certificate of naturalization was obtained by “means of fraud, false representation or the concealment of a material fact; or that citizen has shown himself by act or speech to be disloyal or disaffected towards the Constitution of India as by law established; or that citizen has, during any war in which India may be engaged, unlawfully traded or communicated with an enemy; or that citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for a continuous period of seven years”, that person’s citizenship can be cancelled.

14. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

1. A committed judiciary
2. Centralization of powers
3. Elected government
4. Separation of powers

Answer:(d)

Option (d) is correct: Separation of powers is the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government. It minimizes the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the government since the sanction of all three branches is required for the making, executing, and administering of laws. The constitutional demarcation precludes the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. In the liberal approach, which is inherent in democracy, all forms of power are rooted in the will of the people. Separation of powers should be secured between the legislature and executive. Judiciary should be separated from these. Any concentration or combination of these powers can be dangerous for Liberty. The Executive should not exercise legislative or judicial powers because this may threaten the freedom and liberty of individuals. The Legislative should never exercise the executive or judicial powers as this may lead to arbitrariness and hence, end the liberty. The Judiciary should not exercise the executive or legislative powers because then a judge would behave like a dictator.

Constitutional Provisions Ensuring Separation of Power

Article 50: The state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive. 

Article 121 and 211:  Judicial conduct of a judge of the Supreme Court and the High Courts cannot be discussed in the Parliament and the State Legislature. 

Article 122 and 212:  Validity of proceedings in Parliament and the Legislatures cannot be called into question in any Court. 

Article 361:  The President or the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.

15. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:(c)

Statement 1 is correct: Parliamentary sovereignty is the most important part of the UK constitution. It makes UK’s Parliament the supreme legal authority which can create or end any law. Therefore, the UK constitution is often described as ‘partly written and wholly uncodified’. (Uncodified means that the UK does not have a single, written constitution.)

Statement 2 is correct: In India, matters related to the constitutionality of an amendment of an act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. A Constitution Bench is a bench of the Supreme Court having five or more judges on it. These benches are not a routine phenomenon. A vast majority of cases before the Supreme Court are heard and decided by a bench of two judges (called a Division Bench), and sometimes of three. Constitution Benches are set up when the case involves a substantial question of law pertaining to the interpretation of the Constitution (Article 145(3) of the Constitution, which mandates that such matters be heard by a bench of not less than five judges). 

Presently, Constitution Benches are set up on an ad hoc basis as and when the need arises. The idea behind a Constitution Bench is clear: it is constituted in rare cases to decide important questions of fact or legal and/or constitutional interpretation.

16. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar, in his Report namely ‘Reorganization of the Machinery of Central Government’ in 1950 recommended for the grouping of ministries, improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the O&M Division. It was a 7-member drafting committee appointed on August 29, 1947.

Statement 2 is correct: On the basis of the recommendations of ARC, DoPT was set up under a Cabinet Secretary. Since, Cabinet Secretary falls under PM’s charge, it can be concluded that DoPT was under PM’s charge. 

17. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

1. Article 15
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 29

Answer:  (c)

Option (c) is correct: According to Article 21, Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. The nine–judge Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union of India and Ors (2017) has ruled that individual privacy is intrinsic to life and liberty and an inherent part of the fundamental rights enshrined in the Article 21 of the Constitution.

2020

1. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

1. all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
2. the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
3. the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them.
4. the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Answer:(b)

Option (b) is correct: A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it. In such a system, the role of President or monarch is primarily ceremonial and the Prime Minister along with the cabinet wields effective power.

Additional Information: According to the Article 75(3) of Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) which is one the constituents of the Parliament. The rules of Lok Sabha provide a mechanism for testing this collective responsibility. They allow any Lok Sabha MP, who can garner the support of 50 colleagues, to introduce a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. If the no confidence motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the government falls. 

2. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Preamble
4. Seventh Schedule

Answer:(a)

Option (a) is correct: Part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution of India, deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) which declares the ideal of a Welfare State. DPSP aims to create a socio-economic condition where the citizens of the State can lead a good life and establish socio- economic democracy through a welfare state. Article 38 of the Constitution of India mentions that:

The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic, and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.

The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Indian Constitution does not define the term ‘basic structure’. It is a judicial tool that was coined by the Supreme Court of India in the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973) landmark judgment. The ‘basic structure’ doctrine has since been interpreted to include the supremacy of the Constitution, the rule of law, Independence of the judiciary, doctrine of separation of powers, sovereign democratic republic, the parliamentary system of government, the principle of free and fair elections, welfare state, etc.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 13(2) of the Constitution prescribes that the Union or the States shall not make any law that takes away or abridges any of the fundamental rights, and any law made in contravention of the aforementioned mandate shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void. Thus, the constitution itself provides for the judicial review to safeguard the citizen’s liberties and rights.

4. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

1. the final goal of a stateless society
2. class struggle
3. abolition of private property
4. economic determinism

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The final aim of both Gandhism and Marxism is the establishment of a stateless and classless society; however, their means for achieving this aim are different. For Mahatma Gandhi, in an ideal state, there is no State which he wanted to achieve through non-violent means but Marx, who saw State is an instrument of oppression and an organ of the bourgeoisie that only works for maintaining the class dominance, wanted a stateless society by striving for class struggle and revolution.

5. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

1. An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
2. An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
3. Political An agency for facilitating stability and economic growth
4. An agency for the implementation of public policy

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Civil services or the bureaucracy constitutes the professionals who are permanent and salaried employees that are a part of the government’s executive organ. They are politically neutral. The public administration in many countries is an example of bureaucracy. Providing policy input to the Government and implementing the policies once they become law or directives are the two basic functions of Bureaucracy. So, bureaucracy can be considered as an agency for the implementation of public policy.

6. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

1. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
2. not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
3. a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
4. a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution. It contains the ideals, objectives and basic principles of the Constitution. The salient features of the Constitution have evolved directly and indirectly from these objectives which flow from the Preamble.

Additional Information:

In the Berubari Union case 1960, the Supreme Court held that, “Preamble is not a part of the Constitution”. Later, in the Kesavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala 1973 case, the Supreme Court ruled that “Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended” as any other provisions of the Constitution, provided the basic structure of the Constitution is not destroyed.

In the Union Government Vs. LIC of India case 1995, the Supreme Court has once again held that Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution but is not directly enforceable in a court of justice in India.

7. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: Unlike the Fundamental Rights (Part III), the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) contained in Part IV (Articles 36–51) of the Constitution are non-justiciable in nature i.e., they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.  

Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country. It shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Also, the Directive Principles help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.

8. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that state.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 164 of the Constitution, a minister who is not a member of the state legislature for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister. The provision allows a non-legislator to occupy a post in the council of ministers, including the office of the chief minister, for six months. Within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature, otherwise, he ceases to be minister.

Statement 2 is not correct: Section 8 of RPA, 1951 states the grounds for disqualification on conviction of certain offences pursuant to Section 8 of RPA, 1951, in case the candidate is convicted of certain offences specified and sentenced for imprisonment for not less than two years then the person will be disqualified to contest the election from the date of the conviction and will continue to be disqualified for further six years even after the release.

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India can summon a session of Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct:  Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Constitution does not provide for three sessions of the Parliament. It is by convention that Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. The Budget Session is held towards the beginning of the year; a three-week Monsoon Session follows from July to August; and then there is the Winter Session in November-December.

Statement 3 is correct: To meet in a year there is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required in fact, the number of days that Parliament meets has reduced over the years. During the first two decades of Parliament, Lok Sabha met for an average of a little more than 120 days a year. In the last decade this has come down to approximately 70 days.

10. Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. The state cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that the Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored beyond six months. The Supreme Court has read down Section 2(d) of the Aadhaar Act which allowed storage of such data for a period of five years, to refrain government authorities from storing metadata of transactions.

Statement 2 is correct: Part of Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, enabling bodies corporate and individuals to seek authentication, has been held unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.

Statement 3 is not correct: In the 2018 judgment, the Supreme Court held that Aadhar is not mandatory to purchase the insurance products, however, it can be voluntarily used for KYC of the insurance products. Even IRDA has made similar rules.

Statement 4 is correct: Further, the amendment made to Section 7 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 has been upheld. It stipulates a condition that the State government can mandate use of Aadhaar authentication for beneficiaries for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India.

11. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

1. the matter of creating new All India Services
2. amending the Constitution
3. the removal of the government
4. making cut motions

Answer: (b)

Option (a) is not correct: Rajya Sabha enjoys certain special powers compared to Lok Sabha which are as follows:

• Power to transfer a subject from the State List to Union List for a specified period (Article 249).
• To create additional All India Services (Article 312).
• To endorse Emergency under Article 352 for a limited period when the Lok Sabha remains dissolved.

Option (b) is correct: Other important matters in respect of which both Houses enjoy equal powers are election and impeachment of the President, election of the Vice-President, amending the constitution, approving the Proclamation of Emergency, the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States and financial emergency. 

Option (c) is not correct: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha which means the ministry stays in office so long as it enjoys confidence of the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha.

Option (d) is not correct: A cut motion is a special power vested in members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand being discussed for specific allocation by the government in the Finance Bill as part of the Demand for Grants. If the motion is adopted, it amounts to a no-confidence vote, and if the government fails to jot up numbers in the lower House, it is obliged to resign according to the norms of the House.

12. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: The MPLAD scheme was formulated in 1993 to enable Members of Parliament (MPs) to recommend to the District Collector for works to the tune of ?5 crores per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt need. The durable assets include drinking water, primary education, public health, sanitation and roads, etc.

Statement 2 is correct: There is a special focus on areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe populations by earmarking 15% and 7.5 % of the MPLADS funds, respectively. Out of an amount of Rs.5 Crores, the M.P. shall recommend for areas inhabited by the SC population, Rs.75 lakhs, and Rs.37.5 lakhs for areas inhabited by ST population.

Statement 3 is not correct: Each year under MPLADS, MPs receive 5 crores in two instalments of 2.5 crore each. Funds under MPLADS are non-lapsable i.e., in the case of non-release of fund in a particular year it is carried forward to the next year.

Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. The District Authority should involve the MPs in the inspections of projects to the extent feasible.

13. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

1. Right against Exploitation
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. Right to Equality

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Article 17 of the Constitution of India abolishes the age-old practice of Untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. Untouchability refers to a social practice that looks down upon certain oppressed classes solely on account of their birth and makes any discrimination against them on this ground. This comes under the Right to Equality (Article 14- 18).

Additional Info:

There are six categories of Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution:

• Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)
• Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
• Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
• Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
• Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-30)
• Right to Constitutional Remedies (Articles 32)

The Parliament of India passed the Untouchability (offences) Act in 1955 which came into force 1^st June 1955 to make untouchability law further strong. In 1976, this Act was further amended and renamed as Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

14. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

1. the Preamble of the Constitution
2. a Directive Principle of State Policy
3. the Seventh Schedule
4. the conventional practice

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) of the Constitution.

Article 50 of the Constitution reads as under: Separation of Judiciary from Executive – The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Additional Information:

The Criminal Procedure Code 1973 also mandates the separation of judiciary from the executive, which enables the state to work independently and impartially without the interference of any other organs of the State.

DPSPs were not made justiciable because at the time of the drafting of the Constitution, India was a newly born independent state and was lacking in financial resources and also struggling with various issues and making DPSPs justiciable would have put India in great difficulty.

15. Along with the Budget, the finance minister also places other documents before Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

1. Long standing parliamentary convention
2. Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India
3. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
4. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The Macro Economic Framework Statement is presented to Parliament as mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. The FRBM Rules came into force on July 5, 2004.

 Additional Information:

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 seeks to institutionalize financial discipline, reduce India’s fiscal deficit, improve macroeconomic management and the overall management of the public funds by moving towards a balanced budget. This Act mandates the Central Government to lay before the Houses of Parliament, Macro-Economic Framework Statement, Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement and Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement along with the Annual Financial Statement and Demands for Grants.

16. A Constitutional government by definition is a

1. government by legislature
2. popular government
3. multi-party government
4. limited government

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: A Constitutional government is defined as a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity that effectively controls or limits the exercise of political power. Hence, it is often termed as ‘limited government’ as well. The core component of the constitutional government is the existence of a “Rule-of Law” or a set of “basic laws” that binds both public officeholders and all members of a society (i.e., citizens) within a given territory.

The essence of Constitutionalism is the control or limit of power by its distribution among several state organs. Constitutional government also refers to a written Constitution guiding the country with mechanisms called checks and balances. 

Q 17. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: The objectives of Preamble such as Justice (social, economic, and political), Equality and Liberty also reflect the principles of UDHR.  

Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 22 of UDHR, everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security and is entitled to realization, through national effort and international cooperation and in accordance with the organization and resources of each State, of the economic, social, and cultural rights indispensable for his dignity and the free development of his personality. The Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution bear a close resemblance to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Q 18. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens?

1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Answer: (a)

Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the National Legal Services Authority, is constituted to provide free legal services to the weaker section of the society and to provide Lok Adalats to settle disputes amicably.

Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct: The sections of the society as enlisted under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act are entitled for free legal services, they are:

• A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe.
• A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggars as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution.
• A woman or a child.
• A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
• A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake, or industrial disaster; or an industrial worker.

Income level: Low income (Annual income less than Rs 1,00,000), Senior citizen (Annual income less than Rs 2,00,000), Transgender (Annual income less than Rs 2,00,000).

Statement 3 is not correct: There is no such clear-cut demarcation for Other Backward Classes (OBC) i.e., whether a member of OBC with an annual income of less than ?3,00,000 will avail free legal aid under the Act.

Statement 4 is not correct: Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. Therefore, not all senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid.

2019

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44^th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: In 1975, Parliament passed the Thirty-ninth amendment to the Constitution which removed the authority of the Supreme Court to adjudicate petitions regarding elections of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Instead, a body constituted by Parliament would be vested with the power to resolve such election disputes.

Statement 2 is correct: The 99^th Constitutional Amendment and National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act were brought by the government to replace the 1993 collegium system for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and the High courts. But the Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the Constitution as it impinged upon the principles of “independence of the judiciary”, as well as “separation of powers”.

Additional Info:

The 44^th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978 removed the 39^th Constitution Amendment Act, 1975. It was enacted by the Janata Party to “restore the Constitution to the condition it was before the Emergency”. Some provisions of 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 are as follows:

• Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right (Article 31) and was made Legal Right (Article 300A)
• Proclamation of Emergency could be done on the basis of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The word “Internal Disturbance” was replaced with “armed rebellion.”
• Written recommendation of the cabinet to the President was made necessary to proclaim National Emergency.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Judges (Inquiry) Act,1968 contains the detailed procedures relating to the removal of Judges of the Supreme Court or the High Court. Under this Act, the Chairman or the Speaker may or may not admit the motion of impeachment.

Statement 2 is not correct: The constitution nowhere defines the term “incapacity and proved misbehavior”.

3. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
3. Indira Gandhi
4. Morarji Desai

Answer: (a)

In the aftermath of Kameshwar Singh V State of Bihar judgment, the Government got apprehensive that the whole agrarian reform programs would be endangered. To ensure that agrarian reform legislation did not run into heavy weather, the legislature amended the Constitution in the year 1951 under the Prime ministership of Jawahar Lal Nehru which inserted Ninth Schedule.

Additional Info: The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution contains a list of Central and State laws which cannot be challenged in courts. Currently, 284 laws are protected from judicial review. However, the Supreme Court in 2007 held that laws in the Ninth Schedule are also open to judicial scrutiny.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. The posts are:

• Ministers in the Government of India and States.
• Whips in Parliament.
• Parliamentary Secretary and Under Secretaries.
• Officers of the National Cadet Corps and the Territorial Army.
• Chairman and Members of Advisory Committees set up by the Government.

Statement 2 is correct: This act has been amended five times 1960, 1992, 1993, 2006 and in 2013.

Statement 3 is not correct: The law or the constitution of India does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit, but the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court judgments.

5. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

1. Third Schedule
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Ninth Schedule
4. Twelfth Schedule

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Grant of mineral concessions in Scheduled Areas is guided by the provisions contained in article 244 along with Fifth and Sixth Schedules to the Constitution relating to administration of the Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas and the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 and the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 or any other relevant statutory acts protecting the interests of tribals.

Under the fifth Schedule, the Governor may by public notification direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or any part thereof in the State or shall apply to a Scheduled Area.

Additional Info:

Only the President of India has the power to declare an area as Scheduled Area by order and can also declare a scheduled area to be ceased to be known as scheduled area. Further, the President can also by order alter the boundaries of the scheduled areas. However, to change the boundary of a scheduled area, the President is required to consult the Governor of the state in which the area is located. No separate law / act is needed to establish, change boundaries or discontinue a scheduled area.

6. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct and 3 is not correct: PVTGs constitute the most vulnerable section among the tribal, isolated inhabited, remote and difficult areas in small and scattered hamlets/ habitats. They are economically backward and have low levels of literacy. There is a total of 75 such groups of tribals found in 18 states and in 1 union territory.

Statement 2 is correct: The criteria followed for determination of PVTGs are as under:

• A pre-agriculture level of technology;

A stagnant or declining population;

• Extremely low literacy; and
• A subsistence level of economy.

Statement 4 is correct: PVTGs in Andhra Pradesh (including Telangana): Bodo Gadaba, Bondo Poroja, Chenchu, Dongria Khond, Gutob Gadaba, Khond Poroja, Kolam, Kondareddis, Konda Savaras, Kutia Khond, Parengi Poroja and Thoti.

PVTGs in Tamil Nādu: Kattu Nayakans, Kotas, Kurumbas, Irulas, Paniyans and Todas.

6. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

1. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
2. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.
3. In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
4. State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Article 142 of the Indian Constitution states that the Supreme Court of India may pass an order which it finds necessary for doing complete justice in a case or matter pending before it. Such an order would be applicable throughout the territory of India.

Additional Information:

One of the important instances of application by the Supreme Court of Article 142 was in the Union Carbide case, relating to the victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy, where the Court felt a need to deviate from existing law to bring relief to the thousands of persons affected by the gas leak. In this judgment, the Supreme Court, while awarding compensation of $470 million to the victims, went to the extent of saying that to do complete justice, it could even override the laws made by Parliament by holding that, “prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot, ipso facto, act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142.” By this statement the Supreme Court of India placed itself above the laws made by Parliament or the legislatures of the States. 

7. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall Address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform the Legislature of the causes of its Summons.

Statement 2 is not correct: When the State legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, the rules made by the Speaker of the Assembly or Chairman of the Council are applicable. Article 208(1) states that, the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of the Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business.

Article 208(2) states that until such rules are made for the conduct of business, the adaptations and modifications made by the Speaker of Legislative Assembly, or the Chairman of the Legislative Council shall be applicable.

8. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to sell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill 2018 permits felling and transit of bamboo grown in non-forest areas. However, bamboo grown on forest lands would continue to be classified as a tree and would be guided by the existing legal restrictions.  

Statement 2 is correct: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 recognizes bamboo as a Minor Forest Produce and vests the “right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce” with Scheduled Tribes and traditional forest dwellers.  

Statement 3 is correct: In 2006, the Forest Rights Act (FRA) for the first time defined minor forest produce as including bamboo and tendu and many other things. It also gave tribals and other traditional forest dwellers the “right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce, which has been traditionally collected within or outside village boundaries.”

Additional Info:

The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs.

The Gram Sabha is a highly empowered body under the Act, enabling the tribal population to have a decisive say in the determination of local policies and schemes impacting them.

9. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

1. Article 19
2. Article 21
3. Article 25
4. Article 29

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The right to marry is a component of right to life under Article 21 of constitution of India which says, “No person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law”. in the context of right to marry, mention may be made of a few Indian cases. A person who is suffering from venereal disease, even prior to the marriage, cannot be said to have any right to marry so long as he is not fully cured of the disease.

In 2018, the Supreme Court in Hadiya Marriage case has held that the Right to Marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (Right to Life and Liberty) of the Constitution. In Lata Singh vs state of Uttar Pradesh 2006, the Supreme Court viewed the right to marry as a component of right to life under Art 21 of Indian Constitution.

10. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patent Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is not correct: Article 3(J) of Indian Patent Act, excludes from patentability “plants and animals in whole or in any part thereof other than microorganisms, including seeds, varieties, and species, and essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plants and animals”.

Statement 2 is not correct: Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been constituted by the Government of India in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry in September 2003 to hear appeals against the decisions of the Registrar under the Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

Statement 3 is correct: Plant variety protection provides legal protection of a plant variety to a breeder in the form of Plant Breeder’s Rights (PBRs). In India, the Plant Variety Protection and Farmers Rights (PPVFR) Act, 2001 is a sui generis system that aims to provide for the establishment of an effective system for the protection of plant varieties and the rights of plant breeders and farmers.

11. Which one of the following suggested, that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

1. First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. Rajamannar Committee (1969)
3. Sarkaria Commission (1983)
4. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer: (c)

The Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution. The Commission suggested various recommendations for the appointment of the Governor.

It recommended that the Governor:

• Should be an eminent person.
• Must be a person from outside the State.
• Should not have participated in active politics at least for some time before his appointment.
• Should not be connected with local politics of the state.

12. Consider the following statements:

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programs carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning

Authority exists at both National and State levels.

Statement 2 is not correct: The provisions laid out in the rules that limit compliance with the FRA only to those areas where rights holders have been formally recognized. Moreover, it does not provide for mandatory people’s participation in the compensatory afforestation programs carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Additional Information:

The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is meant to promote afforestation and regeneration activities as a way of compensating for forest land diverted to non-forest uses.

National CAMPA Advisory Council has been established as per orders of The Hon’ble Supreme Court with the following mandate:

• Laying down broad guidelines for State CAMPA.
• Facilitating scientific, technological and other assistance that may be required by State CAMPA.
• Making recommendations to State CAMPA based on a review of their plans and programs.
• Providing a mechanism to State CAMPA to resolve issues of an inter-state or Centre-State character.

13. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 2 and 5 only

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: In India, there are 24 Department Related Standing Committees that comprise members from both Houses of Parliament. These committees are ministry specific and may review the working of regulators within their respective departments. Parliament may also establish ad-hoc committees which may examine the working of regulators.

14. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is not correct and 3 is correct: Increased paid maternity leaves from 12 weeks to 26 weeks for women employees, unless they have two or more surviving children. This maternity benefit should not be availed before eight weeks (earlier six weeks) from the date of expected delivery.

Statement 2 is not correct: Mandatory crèche (day care) facilities for every establishment employing 50 or more employees, including the right of mothers to visit the crèche four times per day.

Additional Information:

Other Provisions of the Act are:

• Recognition of the rights of an adopting mother and of a commissioning mother (using a surrogate to bear a child) for the first time, who may claim paid maternity leave for 12 weeks.
• A “work from home” option that may be of benefit after the maternity leave expires.  

15. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

1. The proportion of literates in the population.
2. The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines.
3. The size of population in the working age group.
4. The level of mutual trust and harmony in society.

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Social capital refers to connections among individuals – social networks and the norms of reciprocity and trustworthiness that arise from them.  Social Capital along with economic capital and cultural capital form the three components of Social Resources and the access to these Social Resources is a hallmark of a society’s wellbeing.

16. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the judicial review power of high court. It debarred the high courts from considering the constitutional validity of any central law. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position. The High Court has the power to invalidate any central law which goes against the ethos of the constitution.  

Statement 2 is not correct: If any constitutional amendment goes against the basic structure of the constitution, the Supreme court has the power to call it into question. In 2015, the Supreme Court declared both the 99th Constitutional Amendment, 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014 as unconstitutional and null and void.

Additional Information:

Article 226 of the Constitution vests in the High Court the power to issue writs for the restoration of fundamental rights. However, this power of the High Court does not derogate the similar power conferred on the Supreme Court in Article 32 of the Constitution.

17. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

1. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. Absence of restraints
3. Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on activities of individuals and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. However, it does not mean ‘license’ to do what one likes and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself. In brief, liberty conceived by the Preamble or Fundamental Rights is not absolute but qualified. Though, liberty in narrow sense is the absence of restraints. But a wider interpretation of liberty is positive and that facilitates the overall development of an individual.

2018

1. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

1. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd amendment to the Constitution.
2. Article 17 and the Directive Principle of the State Policy in Part IV
3. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
4. Article 24 and provisions under the 44th Amendments to the Constitution

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: The Supreme Court in the case of Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017) delivered the landmark judgement where it upheld the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right protected under Part III of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court held that “Right to Privacy” is an integral part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed in Article 21 of the Constitution.

2. Regarding the Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. A Money Bill has the provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
3. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
4. A Money Bill deals with the regulations of borrowings of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of Money Bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:

The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.

• The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
• The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund.

The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

• Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure.
• The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state.
• Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.

3. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs in Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The President is elected by an electoral college, which comprises only of elected representatives (Parliament, Legislative Assemblies of States and UTs of Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated members of Parliament are not allowed to vote. The value of a vote of an MLA varies from State to State, mainly to reflect the population of each state. For example: the value of one MLA’s vote in Delhi is 58, in Uttar Pradesh it is 208 and in Sikkim it is just 7.

Statement 2 is not correct: The value of vote of each MP is same whether it is Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is a little unclear on whether it refers to an individual MP or MPs as a whole. But, then the term “The value of THE VOTE (and not VOTES)” makes it clear that the examiner is not asking you for the total number of votes. So, “MPs of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha” are to be understood as a single group here, and not as a plural entity.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker remains in the office during the life of the Assembly. However, he/she vacates his/her office earlier if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly, if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker, or if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.

Statement 2 is not correct: Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.

5. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

1. If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
2. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
3. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
4. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Liberty or freedom is formally defined as absence of restraint. Law, on the other hand, imposes restraints on certain activities of individuals. When liberty is accepted as a universal principle, it is imperative that liberty of one individual does not endanger the liberty of another individual.

If there are no laws, there is no liberty is a statement made by John Locke. He, in Second Treatise of Civil Government, wrote: “where there is no law, there is no freedom” In 1689, he also wrote that “the end of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.” No law would give LICENSCE (Unregulated liberty).

 6. Which of the following are regarded as the main feature of “Rule of Law”?

1. Limitation of power
2. Equality before the law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The first and second elements are applicable to the Indian system, the Constitution is the source of individual rights.

Statement 3 is not correct: It should be that government is responsible to the people and not the vice versa.

Statement 4 is correct: The primacy of the rights, liberty and civil rights, of the individual, that is, the Constitution is the result of rights of individuals as defined and enforced by the court of law rather than the Constitution being the source of individual rights.

Additional Information:

The Rule of Law is the foundational feature of all modern democratic nations. A.V. Dicey, the British jurist, has given a few elements or aspects of Rule of Law.

Rule of Law includes:

• Absence of arbitrary power
• Equality before law
• Primacy of individual rights

6. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by- laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executives within the scope of such delegation?

1. Committee on Government Assurances
2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
3. Committee on rules
4. Business Advisory Committee

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the Houses, the Committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.

7. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the State Council concerned for Teacher education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: In 2011, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) laid down the teacher recruitment norms for all government schools in India irrespective of the State.

Statement 2 is correct: The Teacher Eligibility Test, known as TET, is the minimum qualification required in India for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher for Classes I to VIII. The test is mandatory for teaching jobs in Indian government schools.

Statement 3 is not correct: The NCTE is the apex body that manages the teacher’s education institutions in the country. The key role of the NCTE is to ‘achieve planned and coordinated development of the teacher education system throughout the country. However, more than 90% of the teacher’s education institutions across the country are privately managed.

8. Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the leader of the opposition.

Which of the following statements given is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only

3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The first Lok Sabha elections in India were held in 1951-52. Indian National Congress won with the sweeping majority scoring 364 out of 489 seats. The Communist Party of India emerged as the largest party in the opposition winning a total of 16 seats. The Swatantra Party on the other hand was formed in 1959. It was founded by C. Rajagopalachari who was dissatisfied with the Indian National Congress’s socialist agenda.

Statement 2 is correct: In parliamentary form government the Leader of the Opposition has a significant role to play. The Leader of INC(O), Ram Subhag Singh, became the first person to be formally recognized as LoP in the Lok Sabha. Leaders of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha were accorded statutory recognition in 1977.

Statement 3 is not correct: The leader of the largest opposition party having not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house is recognized as the Leader of the Opposition in that house. In order to receive the status of opposition party and Consequent Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure 10% of the total strength of the House 1.e. 55 seats in the Lok Sabha. This is as per the Mavlankar Rule.

9. Consider the following statements:

1. Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no Judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review.   At present there are around 284 laws in the Ninth Schedule. Thus, the Parliament can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

Statement 2 is not correct: In a significant judgement delivered in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule. The court held that judicial review is a ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution, and it could not be taken away by putting a law in the Ninth Schedule.

10. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

1. Amnesty International
2. International Court of Justice
3. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
4. World Justice Project

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The World Justice Project (WJP) is an American independent, multidisciplinary organization with the stated mission of “working to advance the rule of law around the world”. It brings rule of law index. The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index is a quantitative assessment tool designed to offer a detailed and comprehensive picture of the extent to which countries adhere to the rule of law in practice.

The Index provides data on eight dimensions of the rule of law: limited government powers; absence of corruption; order and security; fundamental rights; open government; regulatory enforcement; civil justice; and criminal justice.

13. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: The Governor is entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts, and cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.

Statement 2 is correct: A Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters his office. He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office.

14. If the president of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the constitution in respect of a particular state, then

1. the assembly of a state is automatically dissolved.
2. the power of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
3. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
4. the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: When the State Legislature is suspended or dissolved, the power of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament. The Parliament can also delegate the power to make laws for the State to the President or to any other Authority specified by him in this regard.

Additional Information:

The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds, one mentioned in Article 356 itself and another in Article 365. When the President’s rule is imposed, the President dismisses the State Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the State Legislative Assembly.

2017

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: (d)

• Election commission
  • The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body in India that is in charge of administering Union and State election processes.
  • The body is in charge of elections to India’s Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies, as well as the offices of the President and Vice President.
  • Articles 324 to 329 of the constitution deal with the commission’s and members’ powers, functions, tenure, eligibility, and so on. 
  • The election commission has three election commissioners, one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. 
  • They serve for a fixed term of six years, or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes first. 
  • They have the same status and benefits as Supreme Court Judges.
  • The Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed from office through a procedure similar to that of a Supreme Court judge appointed by Parliament.
  • The election commission determines the election schedule for both general elections and bye-elections. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • It also resolves disputes involving splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.
  • It creates the electoral roll and issues the Electronic Photo Identity Card (EPIC).
  • It recognises political parties and assigns election symbols to them, as well as resolving related disputes.
  • It publishes the Model Code of Conduct for Political Parties and Candidates in Elections.
  • It establishes campaign spending limits for all political parties.

2. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States,

(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer: (d)

• Federalism in India
  • India has a federal system, but it leans more toward a unitary government.
  • It is sometimes referred to as a quasi-federal system because it combines elements of both a federal and a unitary system.
  • ‘India, that is Bharat, shall be a union of states,’ states Article 1 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The term “federation” does not appear in the constitution.
  • Elements of federalism were introduced into modern India by the Government of India Act of 1919, which divided powers between the centre and the states: three lists are provided in the Constitution’s Seventh Schedule, namely the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • The constitution’s supremacy. In India, the constitution is the supreme law. Independent judiciary – the constitution calls for a separate and independent judiciary. Hence, option 1 is correct. 
  • Based on population, states are given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31 for each state. Hence, option 3 is correct. 
  • Unlike the American federation, the Indian federation is not the result of a state-by-state agreement. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

3. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.

(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: 

• Democracy is a form of government in which citizens elect their representatives through voting. Because democracy requires people to make decisions through voting, the process involves people’s intelligence and character. 
• The object of government, according to John Stuart Mill, is the attainment of values and virtues in men and their self-development, the government must be of those whose self-development is sought. 
• In a democracy, the right to vote allows citizens to exercise their rights and ensures adherence to moral values or character traits such as justice and equality. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

4. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralization

(c) Administrative delegation

(d) Direct democracy

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Local self-government is best understood as a form of democratic decentralisation. 

• Decentralization and grassroots empowerment are the two guiding principles of local self-government.
• It is covered by the 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution.
• Local self-government bodies are political entities that are managed by their representatives and are elected directly or indirectly by the people.
• There can be no direct democracy because all decisions are made directly by the people in direct democracy.

5. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic liberty

(c) Liberty of expression

(d) Liberty of belief

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: 

• The Indian Constitution’s preamble guarantees freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. 
• The preamble contained no mention of economic liberty. India is declared to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic in the preamble. 
• The Preamble’s stated goals are to secure justice, liberty, and equality for all citizens, as well as to promote fraternity to maintain the nation’s unity and integrity.

6. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(c) Constitutional Right

(d) Legal Right

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: ‘The right to vote’ is a constitutional right in India. 

• Constitutional rights are those rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution and conferred on Indian citizens that do not fall under the purview of Part III.
• The Indian Constitution guarantees the right to vote in Article 326 of the Indian Constitution. To exercise this right, every citizen must be at least 18 years old. 
• In 1950, the concept of ‘Universal Suffrage’ guaranteed full voting rights to Indian citizens.
• The 61st constitutional amendment, passed in 1988, reduced the voting age for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies elections from 21 to 18 years. 
• Constitutional rights, unlike fundamental rights, do not apply to everyone. 
• They are applicable in certain circumstances. If a law is found to be incompatible with constitutional rights, the law is declared null and void.

7. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

• Right to equality (Articles 14 – 18)
  • The right to equality ensures that everyone is treated equally before the law.
  • It prohibits discrimination on a variety of grounds.
  • In terms of public employment, it treats everyone equally.
  • Removal of untouchability and titles.
• Right against exploitation (Articles 23-24)
  • Article 23 forbids the buying and selling of men, women, and children for immoral purposes.
  • Article 24 forbids any form of forced labour or beggary; beggary is a practice in which the worker is forced to work for free. Hence, options 1 and 4 are correct.
• Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29-30)
  • Article 29 protects minorities’ interests by stating that any citizen/section of citizens with a distinct language, script, or culture has the right to preserve it.
  • Article 29 states that no discrimination will be tolerated based on religion, race, caste, language, or any combination of these factors.
  • According to Article 30, all minorities, regardless of religion or language, have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

8. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(c) Competition

(d) Ideology

Answer: (a)

• By abolishing the institutional system of inequality and privilege, equality in society can be preserved. Hence, Option (a) is correct.
• Restraints, refer to the act of controlling or restricting someone.
• Hence, restrictions violate equality and limit an individual’s freedom. Hence, Option (b) is not correct.
• Competition is necessary for an activity, institution, or business to advance. Equality has nothing to do with it. Hence, Option (c) is not correct.
• A group of individuals or an institution’s ideology is its set of guiding ideals or ideas in a given culture.
• Political ideologies like democracy, communism, and others fall under the category of ideology. Hence, Option (d) is not correct.

9. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(c) Right to work, education and public assistance

(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is found in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, which covers Articles 36-51. 
• It is the values that the state should keep in mind when adopting policies and laws for the state (36 to 51).
• 42^nd Amendment in Directive Principles of State Policy:
  • It expanded the list of state policy directives by adding the following four:
    • The purpose of Article 39 is to guarantee chances for children’s healthy development.
    • Article 39 (A) aims to advance equal justice and give the poor free legal representation.
    • Article 43 (A) mandates action to ensure employees’ involvement in the administration of industries. 
    • Article 48 (a) aims to maintain forests and wildlife as well as to protect and develop the environment.

10. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Answer: (c)

• Citizens’ rights are asserted against the state, and the state is obligated to defend citizens against societal oppression. Hence option (c) is correct.
• The state cannot claim or demand anything from citizens since it takes away and restrains their rights. Hence option (a) is not correct.
• The concept of special privileges, which would lead to social inequity, is not present in the constitution. Hence option (c) is not correct.
• According to article 18, other than military and academic distinctions, no other citizens have titular privileges, except for military and academic distinctions. Hence option (d) is not correct.

11. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

1. legislative function
2. executive function

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: 

• The Directive Principles of State Policy does not constitute limitations upon legislative function and executive function.
•  Fundamental rights act as limitations on the legislative and executive functions. 
• According to the Sapru Committee in 1945 two categories of individual rights were suggested. 
• One being justiciable and the other being non-justiciable rights. Justiciable rights are known as Fundamental Rights. 
• The non-justiciable are known as the Directive Principles of State Policy. 
• Directive Principles of State Policy are usually classified into three types: Socialistic Principles Gandhian Principles Liberal-Intellectual Principles

Q 12. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• Fundamental Duties:
  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 incorporated the fundamental duties into Part IV-A of our constitution.
  • Article 51 A of the constitution currently lists eleven fundamental duties.
  • The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the former Soviet Union.
  • Originally, there were ten duties; however, the eleventh Fundamental duty was added through the 86th Amendment Act of 2002.
  • The Swaran Singh Committee recommended that Fundamental Duties be included in the Indian Constitution.
  • Fundamental duties are not enforceable.
  • There is no legislative process in place to compel citizens to carry out their responsibilities. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • A legal duty must be carried out under the law. Hence, there is no relationship between legal and fundamental duties. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

13. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer: (a)

• Fundamental Duties:
  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 incorporated the fundamental duties into Part IV-A of our constitution.
  • Article 51 A of the constitution currently lists eleven fundamental duties.
  • The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the former Soviet Union.
  • Originally, there were ten duties; however, the eleventh Fundamental duty was added through the 86th Amendment Act of 2002.
  • The Swaran Singh Committee recommended that Fundamental Duties be included in the Indian Constitution.
  • Fundamental duties are not enforceable.
• Fundamental Rights
  • Fundamental Rights are addressed in Articles 12-35 of Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • Fundamental rights can be enforced in a court of law.
  • Rights and duties are inextricably linked and cannot be separated. (Option (a) is correct)
  • One cannot enjoy a right if others do not perform their responsibilities.
  • The state protects and enforces rights, and all citizens must be loyal to the state.

14. In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer: (a)

• Judicial Review
  • The most widely accepted definition of judicial review is the power of the courts or Judiciary to consider the constitutionality of executive and legislative acts. (Option (a) is correct)
  • It declares executive and legislative acts unconstitutional if they violate or are inconsistent with the fundamental principles of the Constitution.
  • Article 13(2) of the Indian Constitution states that the Union or States shall not make any law that takes away or abridges any of the fundamental rights, and any law made in violation of the aforementioned mandate shall be void to the extent of the contravention.
  • The scope of judicial review before Indian courts has evolved in three dimensions – firstly, to ensure fairness in administrative action, secondly, to protect the constitutionally guaranteed fundamental rights of citizens, and thirdly, to rule on questions of legislative competence between the centre and the states.

15. Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• In India, elections for the Lok Sabha or State Assembly are held using a first-past-the-post system, which means that the winning candidate may or may not receive a majority (50%+1) of the votes cast.
• In addition, the Indian constitution has adopted the system of territorial representation for electing members to the Lok Sabha or State Assembly.
• A constituency is a geographical area that an MP or MLA represents in this system.
• Only one representative is elected from each constituency.
• Hence, such a constituency is referred to as a single-member constituency.
• In this system, the candidate with the most votes are declared elected. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Before the tenth Lok Sabha, both the Deputy Speaker and the Speaker were usually members of the ruling party. 
• Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been agreement that the post of Deputy Speaker is held by the main opposition party, while the Speaker is held by the ruling party (or ruling alliance).
• This means that it is an ‘informal consensus’ among political parties rather than a constitutional provision. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

16. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

• Proclamation of President rule
  • Article 356 states that the President’s Rule can be imposed on any Indian state if the constitutional machinery fails. 
  • There are two kinds of this: a). If the President receives a report from the state’s Governor or is otherwise convinced or satisfied that the state’s situation is such that the state government cannot carry on governance under the provisions of the Constitution, b). President’s Rule can be imposed if any state fails to comply with all directions given by the Union on matters it is empowered to.
  • The state governor administers the state on behalf of the President, with the assistance of the chief secretary of state or advisors appointed by the President. Hence The removal of the State Council of Ministers is unquestionably the result of the proclamation. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
  • During the president’s rule, the state executive is fired, and the state legislature and local governments are suspended or dissolved. Hence, dissolution is not a ‘necessary’ result. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.

17. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer: (c)

• The parliamentary system
  • Cabinet Government is another name for the parliamentary system. 
  • It establishes the executive’s collective responsibility to the legislature. 
  • Because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible specifically to the House of People, parliamentary democracy is a mechanism for ensuring the Government’s collective responsibility to the people. (Option (c) is correct) 
  • In the end, it is through these powers (over budget, motions, etc.) that Parliament enforces the Executive’s responsibility to itself and the people. 
  • Despite the adoption of the British model of parliamentary or Cabinet government, a hereditary monarch was not installed because India had declared itself a republic in which political sovereignty is vested in the people.

18. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

(d) any citizen of India.

Answer: (c)

 Option (c) is correct:

• Eligibilities for Lok Sabha Member
  • Anyone who is 25 years old or older is eligible to run for a Lok Sabha seat. 
  • The candidate must be a registered constituency elector and an Indian citizen.
  • She/he can, however, run for any seat in any state if she/he is a registered voter in that state. 
  • The candidate cannot be nominated if they have been convicted of a crime and are in prison, or if they are out on bail pending the outcome of their appeal. 
  • Every candidate must make a security deposit of Rs 25,000 for the Lok Sabha election when filing a nomination. 
  • Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have to pay only half the amount, Rs 12,500, as the deposit.

Q 19. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• Private Member Bill
  • A private member bill is introduced by any member of parliament other than a minister. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • A one-month notice is needed to introduce a bill in the house of representatives.
  • A private bill discussion is scheduled for every Friday of the workweek.
  • A private member’s bill expresses the opposing party’s perspective on current events.
  • In 1952, Syed Mohammed Ahmad Kasmi’s Muslim wakfs bill became the first private member’s bill to be passed.
  • Since independence, 14 private member bills have so far been approved by the parliament. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • The last private member bill passed by the parliament was the Supreme Court (enlargement of criminal appellate jurisdiction) bill in 1970.

20. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:

• The Indian Constitution calls for parliamentary government at both the national and state levels.
• Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system of government at the Union level, while Articles 163 and 164 deal with the States.
• The executive must account to the legislature for its policies and actions.
• In the Presidential form of government, the executive is not accountable to the legislature for its policies and actions, implying that the executive and legislature operate independently.

21. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through:

1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

• Parliament controls the functions of the Council of Ministers
  • Parliament exerts control through various mechanisms such as committees, question hours, zero hours, and so on. The ministers are collectively accountable to Parliament. 
• By asking questions and supplementary questions, MPs hold the executive accountable.
• Adjournment motions can be used to address urgent issues.
• The primary goal of an adjournment motion is to bring the House’s attention to a recent matter of urgent public importance with serious consequences.
• ‘Unstarred questions’ are those that do not require an oral answer but instead require a written response.
• MPs can ask questions, known as ‘starred questions,’ that require ministers to give oral answers.
• During the first hour of Parliament, known as question hour, ministers respond to such questions. MPs can cross-examine and corner the minister by asking supplementary questions based on the response.

2016

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.

2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• Panchayat Raj System:
  • The Panchayat Raj System in India is covered in Part IX of the Constitution.
  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 established Panchayati Raj as a constitutional principle.
  • Direct elections are used to fill every seat in the panchayat.
  • Each panchayat’s chairperson is chosen in accordance with state legislation.
  • Every panchayat has a five-year lifespan after the date of its first meeting.
  • State law permits an early dissolution of it.
  • A panchayat that was reinstated after being prematurely dissolved merely serves out the remaining time. However, elections are not required if the remaining time is shorter than six months. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • All adults over 21 who meet the requirements to serve in the state legislature also meet the requirements to serve in the panchayat. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • A panchayat may be granted permission by the state to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, fees, tolls, etc.
  • The Finance Commission is established every five years to examine the financial standing of panchayats and offer suggestions.
  • The governor appoints the state election commissioner to oversee, direct, and regulate panchayat elections.

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Prorogation 

• It means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House.
• All pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.
• Prorogation doesn’t affect the bills of any other business pending before the house. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

A Bill will lapse in following conditions,

• A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the People. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A bill that originates in the Lok Sabha or that the Rajya Sabha has forwarded to it but is still pending in the Lok Sabha expires.
• Bills that begin in the Lok Sabha and are passed there but are still pending in the Rajya Sabha are also regarded as expired.
• A bill that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha but is still pending in the Rajya Sabha does not expire.
• A Bill that has been approved by both Houses and is awaiting the president’s assent does not expire.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• The Chief Secretary is ‘chosen’ by the Chief Minister.
• The appointment of the Chief Secretary is made in the name of the State Governor because it is an executive decision made by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It is the highest administrative position in states.
• There is no set term limit for the position of chief secretary of state, who also serves as the Council of Ministers’ ex officio secretary.
• The Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

4. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

• The Union Parliament can legislate on any item on the State List in the national interest if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. 
• Article 249 authorises the parliament to legislate on an issue on the State List in the national interest. 

2015

1.The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

(b) determine the boundaries between States

(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats

(d) protect the interests of all the border States

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct:

• Fifth and Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
  • The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state, except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four north eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • It protects the interest of Schedule tribes. 
  • It does not relate to the boundaries of states. Hence, Option 2 is Not correct.
  • It excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system.
  • This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, and social and political institutions are not tampered with. Hence, Option 3 is also Not correct.
  • It does not protect the interests of the border States. Hence, Option 4 is Not correct.

Q 2. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct:

• The Panchayati Raj institutions
  • It is meant to promote grass-root democracy and development.
  • The main aim is to evolve a system of democratic decentralization and people’s participation to ensure rapid, speedy socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice. 
  • Political accountability can be achieved in any system with democratic rule

Additional Points

• Evolution of Panchayati Raj in India
  • A three-tier PRI system, consisting of Grama Panchayats (GPs) at the village level, Panchayat Samitis (PSs) at the block level, and Zilla Parishads (ZPs) at the district level, was proposed by a committee set up by the National Development Council in 1957 and led by Balwant Rai Mehta.
  • In 1986, the L.M. Singhvi Committee suggested giving panchayats constitutional standing.
  • On October 2, 1959, the Nagaur district of the state of Rajasthan became the first to implement the Panchayat Raj System, followed by the state of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Resource mobilization is an outcome of PRI, not an objective of Panchayati Raj in India.
    

3. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

(a) Preamble

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: A welfare State is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social welfare of its citizens.

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) promote the ideal of the welfare state by emphasizing the state promotes the welfare of people by providing them with basic facilities like shelter, food, and clothing. 

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • Articles 36-51 of Part IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). 
  • They are borrowed from the constitution of Ireland. 
  • They act as directives to the government to create any law.
  • They act as the ‘instrument of instruction.

• Preamble:
  • It can be referred to as the preface of the constitution as it highlights the entire constitution.
  • It is the soul of the constitution as it is part of the constitution.
  • This acts as an interpreter of the constitution.
  • Whenever a question of doubt arises in the interpretation of the constitution then the matter is decided in the light of the preamble.
• Fundamental Rights:
  • Articles 12-35 and Part – III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights.
  • These rights are enforceable in a court of law.
• Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution 
  • It deals with the allocation of powers and functions between the Union & States.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

• The Directive Principles of State Policy
  • It is enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
  • It was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
  • It is described as a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution by Dr BR Ambedkar and along with the Fundamental Rights contains the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution, also described as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution’.
  • It constitutes a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State to aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution which embodies the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
  • It seeks to establish economic and social democracy in the country. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • DPSPs are non-justiciable and not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation and therefore, the government (central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them but the Constitution (in Article 37) itself says that these principles are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• As stated in Article 171 of the Constitution, no more than one-third of the State Legislative Assembly’s members may serve on the State Legislative Council. However, the size of the legislative council cannot be less than 40 members. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Legislative Council (MLC) is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved, and each member has a six-year term with one-third of the council retiring every two years.
• A Member of the Legislative Council’s (MLC) term is six years, and every two years, one-third of the members leave office.
• The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members from amongst themselves. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

6. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution

(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct:

• The executive in a Parliamentary system is responsible to the legislature for all its actions. 
• The ministers are answerable to the parliament and responsible to the Lok Sabha. 
• The Council of Ministers remains in office as long as they enjoy the support and confidence of the Lok Sabha.
• Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people and represents the democratic system. 
• Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
• It is a system of democratic governance of a state in which the executive derives its democratic legitimacy, and is held accountable to, the legislature (parliament).
• The Executive forms a part of the legislature. In India, the person should be a member of parliament to become a member of the executive.

7. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

• The powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha in the following matter:
  • A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha, i.e., after being passed by the Lok Sabha, the Money Bill passes on to the Rajya Sabha which has the following options:
    • Pass the Bill in the original form.
    • Take no action for 14 days, i.e., Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the Bill to the Lok Sabha with or without any recommendations within 14 days.
    • The Lock Sabha has sole authority to accept or reject all or any of the cases, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses.
  • The Final Power to decide whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  • Rajya Sabha can only discuss the Annual Financial Statement but cannot vote on the demands for Grants, which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

8. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

(a) a simple majority of members present and voting

(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting

(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses

(d) absolute majority of the Houses

Answer: (a)

• Joint Sitting of Indian Parliament
  • According to Article 108 of the Constitution, the joint sitting of parliament is called by the President.
  • When a bill is referred to as a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, it has to be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting and a Joint Sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (Option (a) is correct.)
  • It is also held to resolve the deadlock over the passing of key legislation. 
  • The following bills can’t be referred to a joint sitting of Parliament.
    • Money bill under Article 110.
    • Constitution amendment bill under Article 368.
    • In the absence of the speaker the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the joint session.
    • The Chairman of the upper house (vice president) doesn’t preside over the joint session at any means/cost.

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• The Union’s executive power is vested in the President.
• Article 53(1) of the constitution vests the executive power of the union in the President. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• It states that the President may exercise his authority either directly or through officers’ subordinate to him; ministers are considered officers subordinate to him for this purpose.
• The Council of Ministers has genuine executive power in the name of the President, and all executive decisions are made in the President’s name (Article 77). 
• The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio chairman of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and the head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

10. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget that is presented to Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• The budget (Annual Financial Statement) is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, remittances etc are credited to the Public Account.
• The Public Account is operated by executive action i.e., payment from this account can be made without Parliamentary appropriation. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• The Constitution of India provides for the following three kinds of funds for the Central government:
• Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266)
  • Public Account of India (Article 266)
  • Contingency Fund of India (Article 267)

Additional Information

Consolidated Fund of India

• This is a fund to which all receipts are credited, and all payments are debited. 
• No money out of this fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) except by parliamentary law. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Public Account of India

• All other public money (other than those which are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India) received by or on behalf of the Government of India shall be credited to the Public Account of India.
• It is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation.
• Such payments are mostly like banking transactions.

Contingency Fund of India

• It is placed at the disposal of the president, and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditures pending its authorisation by the Parliament.
• It is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the President. Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action.

11. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

(a) The President of India

(b) The Prime Minister of India

(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat

(d) The Supreme Court of India

Answer: (d)

• Supreme Court (Apex Court) is the Custodian of the Constitution of India. (Option (d) is correct)
• The Apex court is the guardian of fundamental rights (Article 32).
• Supreme Court has the power of Judicial review. 
• The Indian judicial system is well-integrated, strong, and independent.
• The Legislature and the Executive directly collaborate in the creation of laws, but it is the judiciary that protects the public interest by investigating instances of excess, abuse, and legal error.
• The Supreme Court serves as the constitution’s protector and interpretation.
• While Parliament has the power to modify the constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to review the constitutionality of those revisions. (Amend constitution except for basic structure: Keshavananda Bharati case) 
• Through many checks and balances, the supreme court makes sure that all of the government branches carry out their duties in line with the constitution.

12. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

(a) Preamble of the Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Rights

(d) Fundamental Duties

Answer: (d)

OPtion (d) is correct: To defend and protect the Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity of India is a provision mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution, which is about Fundamental Duties if you try to concentrate on the entire sentence. 

The following are the eleven Fundamental Duties:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
• To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
• To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six to fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, of 2002.

2014

1. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a) Second Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Eighth Schedule

(d) Tenth Schedule

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.   It deals with the Anti defection law i.e., provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection.

• Schedules in Indian Constitution

Schedule	Feature
First	Names of states and UTs and their territorial jurisdiction and extent.
Second	Provisions of allowances, privileges, emoluments of President of India, Governors, Speakers and Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and Legislative Council, Supreme Court and High Court judges, Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Third	Oath and affirmation for Union and States Ministers of India, Candidates for election to the Parliament and State Legislature, Members of Parliament and State Legislature, Supreme Court and High Court judges.
Fourth	Contains the provisions in relation to the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
Fifth	Contains provisions in relation to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Sixth	Contains provisions in relation to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Seventh	Union, State, and Concurrent list
Eighth	22 official languages
Ninth	It deals with the state acts and regulations related to land reforms.
Tenth	Provisions relating to the disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985.
Eleventh	Provisions that specify the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats. It has 29 subjects.
Twelfth	Provisions that specify the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities. It has 18 subjects.

2. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission

2. The National Development Council

3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development

4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development

5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: The finance commission is involved in the distribution of taxes and grants. It is not involved in planning. 

Finance Commission

• It is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements.
• It is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution to give its recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.
• The 15th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in November 2017, under the chairmanship of NK Singh. Its recommendations will cover a period of five years from the year 2021-22 to 2025-26.

Important Points:

National Development Council

• It is presided over by the Prime Minister. It is an executive body established in August 1952.
• This body is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body.
• It is the apex body to take decisions on matters related to approval of five-year plans of the country.
• This council has been proposed to be abolished.

Union Ministry of Rural Development

• It is entrusted with the task of accelerating the socio-economic development of rural India.

Union Ministry of Urban Development

• It is known as the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• This ministry is entrusted with the formulation and administration of the rules and regulations and laws relating to the housing and urban development in India.

The Parliament

• It is the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India.
• It is directly responsible to make laws for the welfare of the society.

3. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

(a) Preamble to the Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Duties

(d) Ninth Schedule

Answer: (b)

• Directive Principles of State Policy 
  • These provisions are contained in Part IV (Article 36–51) of the Constitution of India. However, these are not enforceable by any court.
  • States have a responsibility to take Directive Principles into account when enacting legislation for the benefit of the populace.
  • It is taken from the Constitution of Ireland.
  • The “Directive Principles of State Policy” in the Indian Constitution include the promotion of international peace and security. (Option (b)  is correct.)
  • Article 51 says to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations. It is to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations and to encourage settlement of the international dispute by arbitration.

Additional Points

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution 
  • It is an introductory statement in a document that explains the document’s philosophy and objectives.
  • In a constitution, it presents the intention of its framers, the history behind its creation, and the core values and principles of the nation.
  • The date is mentioned in the preamble when it was adopted i.e., November 26, 1949.
  • The objectives are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain unity and integrity of the nation.
• The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution 
  • It contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts.
• The fundamental duties
  • It is included in Article 51-A of the Indian Constitution. 
  • There are 11 fundamental duties to which citizens must abide by.

4. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

• The Governor’s appointment, his powers and everything related to the office of Governor have been discussed under Article 153 to Article 162 of the Indian Constitution.

• The Governor performs the same duties as the President, but for the State.
• The discretionary powers of the Governor include: –
  • He/she has the discretion to choose a candidate for the chief minister when no party gets a clear majority.
  • He/she can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the President for his approval. 
  • Governor can reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • They can override the advice of the council of ministers if specifically permitted by the President during emergency rule per Article 353.
  • Article 356 also states that the President can invoke President rule in a state on the report of the governor. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Governor appoints Chief Minister and other Ministers as per Article 164 and the Advocate General for the State as per Article 165. Therefore, this is not a part of discretionary powers. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

5. Consider the following statements:

A Constitutional Government is one which

1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of the State Authority.
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• The Constitutional Government
  • It is defined by the existence of a constitution.
  • It can be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity.
  • The idea behind constitutionalism is the control of power by its distribution among several state offices. The power is delegated to state offices, but the central power remains with the main government.
  • It places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
  • The citizens have the freedom to live and work in a society as they want. However, the citizens are abided by certain rules to follow for the betterment of the overall functions of the society.
  • That is why citizens are given the fundamental rights that no one can deprive them of.

6. Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

• Article 77 of the Indian Constitution
  • It includes “Conduct of Business of the Government of India”.
  • It says that “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business”. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • It includes that “All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President”. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • It includes that “Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the President, and the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated shall not be called in question on the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the President”.

7. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

• No-Confidence Motion in Indian Constitution
  • Article 75 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
  • A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Article 118 of the Indian Constitution permits both houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) of Parliament to make its own rules for its functioning.
  • There is no mention of “no-confidence” motion in the Articles of Indian Constitution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Rule 198 of Lok Sabha mentions the procedure for a motion of no-confidence.
  • Once a notice is given, the speaker reads it in the House and asks those who are in favour of it.
  • In case there are 50 MPs in favour, a date for discussing the motion is assigned.
  • The vote has to take place within 10 days of the notice, if the majority of the members vote in favour of the motion, then the motion is passed and the government in power has to vacate the office.

8. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) The Committee on Petitions

Answer: (b)

The Estimates Committee

• It is the largest Committee of the Parliament. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It has 30 members, and all these members are from Lok Sabha.
• This committee tries to report the economy and efficiency in expenditures.
• The members are elected by Lok Sabha members from amongst themselves every year by principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote so that all parties get a due presentation in it.
• A minister cannot be elected as member / Chairman of the estimates committee.

9. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• The Cabinet Secretariat
  • It is entrusted with the responsibility of administering the Government of India. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • They assist in decision-making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination and evolving consensus through the standing/ad hoc Committees of Secretaries. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government.
  • It is under the direct administration of the Prime Minister.
  • The Prime Minister sets up different Cabinet Committees with selected members of the Cabinet and assigns specific functions to these Committees.
  • The Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure is entrusted with the allocation of financial resources to the Ministries. Hence, Statement 3 is Not correct.

10. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a) advisory jurisdiction

(b) appellate jurisdiction

(c) original jurisdiction

(d) writ jurisdiction

Answer: (c)

• Original Jurisdiction of a court
  • It refers to a matter for which the particular court is approached first, or it means the power to hear and determine a dispute in the first instance.
  • It is covered under Article 131 of the Indian constitution.
  • The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its original jurisdiction. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • It is under Article 131 of the Indian Constitution.
  • It includes the following cases-
    • the Centre and one or more states. (Option (c) is correct.
    • the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other.
    • Any dispute between two or more States.

Important Points:

• Advisory Jurisdiction 
  • Under this the President can request the Supreme Court to offer its opinion on any issue of law or fact.
  • It is covered under Article 143 of the Indian constitution.
• Appellate Jurisdiction
  • It is the power of a Supreme court to review, amend, and overrule decisions of the lower court.
• Writ Jurisdiction 
  • The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warranto, and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizen.

11. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India

(b) the Parliament

(c) the Chief Justice of India

(d) the Law Commission

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct:

• Supreme Court
  • The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in the “Parliament”. 
  • In the Indian Constitution, Parliament is authorized to regulate judges.
  • The number of judges in the Supreme Court, the Bill of 2019, was increased by four judges.
  • With this, the total number of judges including the Chief Justice has been increased from 31 to 34.
  • Articles 124 to 147 – Deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, powers, procedures, and so on of the Supreme Court.
  • Under Article 124, the Constitution of India provides for a Supreme Court.

Additional Information

• The President of India
  • He is the head of the Indian State. 
  • He is a part of the Union Executive (Article 52-78) along with Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and Attorney-General of India. 
  • Article 52 – 63 of the Indian constitution, under these articles, information on how a President is elected, his powers and functions, and also his impeachment process is given. 
• The Chief Justice of India
  • He is appointed by the president of India after consultation with the judges of the Supreme Court and high courts. 
  • President Droupadi Murmu appointed Justice D.Y. Chandrachud as the 50th Chief Justice of India (CJI). 
• The Law Commission of India
  • It is a non-statutory, executive body constituted by the government. 
  • Its major function is to work for legal reforms. 
  • The Commission is established for a fixed tenure of three years and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.

2013 

1. Which one of the following statements is correct? 

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time. 

(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. 

(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post. 

(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support. 

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct: No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post. 

Statements (a), (b) and (d) are correct:

In India, same person can be appointed as Governor of two or more states at the same time. 

Judges of HC are also appointed by President. 

In case of UTs, CM is appointed by President. 

2. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 

1. National Development Council 
2. Planning Commission 
3. Zonal Councils 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct: National Development Council and Planning Commission are non-constitutional and non-statutory bodies while Zonal councils were set up vide Part-III of ‘States Re-organisation Act, 1956’. 

3. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? 

(a) To provide self-governance 

(b) To recognize traditional rights 

(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas 

(d) To free tribal people from exploitation 

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct:  To create autonomous regions in tribal areas is not an objective of PESA Act.

Objectives of Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act:

1. To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to Scheduled Areas, identified by the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. To guarantee self-governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India.

3. To provide tribals control and rights over the natural resources and conserves their identity and culture.

• The act brought a positive development in the lives of tribal communities who have earlier suffered tremendously.
• The tribal areas are found in ten Indian states, thus the provisions of Panchayats extended through the PESA  Act find a place in these Fifth Schedule Areas.

4. Consider the following statements: 

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. 
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. 
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (b) 

• NDC is listed as an advisory body to Planning commission. Moreover, the plans made by Planning commission are placed before NDC for its acceptance. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• In the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent list. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• According to the Indian Constitution, the Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

5. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 

• The Prime Minister 
• The Chairman, Finance Commission 
• Ministers of the Union Cabinet 
• Chief Ministers of the States 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 

(c) 2 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct: The National Development Council consists of the Prime Minister, Ministers of the Union Cabinet, and the Chief Ministers of the States. It does not consist the Chairman, Finance Commission. 

6. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both? 

(a) State Forest Department 

(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner 

(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer 

(d) Gram Sabha 

Answer: (d) 

Option (d) is correct: Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both. 

7. Consider the following statements: 

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the states of India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (d) 

• An Amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated in any house of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by only not less than half states of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

8. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in 

(a) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights 

(b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy 

(c) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy 

(d) None of the above 

Answer: (b) 

Option (b) is correct: Directive Principles strive for the ‘economic democracy/justice’ while Fundamental rights strive for ‘Political democracy/justice’. 

9. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country? 

(a) Fundamental Rights 

(b) Fundamental Duties 

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy 

(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties 

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct:

Directive Principles of State Policy 

Article 37: The provisions contained in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

10. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? 

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha 

(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further 

(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration 

(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill 

Answer: (a) 

 Option (a) is correct:   A Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. However,a Money Bill can not be introduced in Rajya Sabha.It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with prior recommendation of the President for introduction in Lok Sabha. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker thereon is final.

Rajya Sabha is required to return a Money Bill passed and transmitted by Lok Sabha within a period of 14 days from the date of its receipt. Rajya Sabha may return a Money Bill transmitted to it with or without recommendations. It is open to Lok Sabha to accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of Rajya Sabha. 

However, if Rajya Sabha does not return a Money Bill within the prescribed period of 14 days, the Bill is deemed to havebeen passed by both Houses of Parliament at the expiry of the said period of 14 days in the form in which it was passed by Lok Sabha.

Like Money Bills, Bills which, inter alia, contain provisions for any of the matters attracting sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of article 110 can also not be introduced in Rajya Sabha. They can be introduced only in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President. However, other restrictions in regard to Money Bills do not apply to such Bills.

11. Consider the following statements: 

Attorney General of India can 

1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 
2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 
3. Speak in the Lok Sabha 
4. Vote in the Lok Sabha 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 4 only 

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 

(d) 1 and 3 only 

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct: The Attorney General of India can take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha, can be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha, can speak in the Lok Sabha but he doesn’t have the right to vote. 

12. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties 

(a) With the consent of all the States 

(b) With the consent of the majority of States 

(c) With the consent of the States concerned 

(d) Without the consent of any State 

Answer: (d) 

• Article 253 of the Indian Constitution gives the Parliament the power to make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties without the consent of any State. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

13. Consider the following statements: 

The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts 

• consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha 
• scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government 
• examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (b) 

• The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya sabha). Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• The major functions of the Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts are 
• To scrutinize appropriation and finance accounts of the Government and to examine the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. 

Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct. 

14. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? 

• Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. 
• Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. 
• Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 3 only 

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (a) 

• The Cabinet is formed among the ministers who are the Members of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• In the Parliamentary system of government as in India, the ministers are responsible to the Parliament. So, they hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Cabinet is headed by the Head of Government (i.e., the Prime Minister) and not by the Head of State (i.e., the President). Hence, statement 3 is not correct. 

15. Consider the following statements: 

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. 
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (b) 

• According to the Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers in the Centre will be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• According to the Article 75(2) of the Indian Constitution, the Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• According to the Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

16. Consider the following statements: 

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (b)

• The Vice President of Indian acts as an ex officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha but the Deputy Chairman is elected among the members of the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• The Collegium in the election of President does not consist the nominated members of the Parliament but in the election of the Vice President they are the part of the Collegium. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

17. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: 

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither I nor 2 

Answer: (c) 

• The objective of the National Legal Service Authority is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• One of the major functions of the National Legal Service Authority is to issue guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Question: What is the significance of the 73rd Amendment Act in the context of Indian governance?

Answer: The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, introduced the concept of Panchayati Raj institutions in rural areas, aiming to decentralize power and promote local self-governance. It granted constitutional status to Panchayats, ensuring their democratic functioning and facilitating the economic and social development of rural areas.

2. Question: Explain the concept of ‘Money Bill’ in the Indian Constitution and its implications.

Answer: A ‘Money Bill’ is a type of financial legislation that exclusively deals with national taxation or public expenditure. As per Article 110 of the Constitution, only the Lok Sabha can introduce and pass Money Bills. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments, but it must pass the bill within 14 days. This provision ensures financial stability and parliamentary control over fiscal matters.

3. Question: What is the significance of the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, in the Indian Constitution?

Answer: The 44th Amendment Act was crucial in restoring democratic principles and individual freedoms. It repealed certain provisions of the 42nd Amendment Act, which had curtailed fundamental rights. The 44th Amendment reinforced the supremacy of the Constitution, limited the powers of the government during emergencies, and safeguarded citizens’ rights.

4. Question: Differentiate between a federal structure and a unitary structure of government. How does India’s political system incorporate both?

Answer: In a federal structure, power is divided between a central government and regional entities, while a unitary structure concentrates power at the national level. India’s political system is quasi-federal, combining elements of both. Although the Constitution establishes a strong central government, it also allocates specific powers to states, creating a federal structure. The flexibility to reorganize states and center-state relations reflects this balance.

5. Question: Discuss the constitutional provisions related to the appointment and removal of the Chief Justice of India.

Answer: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President and holds office until the age of 65. The President consults with the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts in making the appointment. The Chief Justice can be impeached by Parliament through a motion with a special majority. This ensures judicial independence while allowing for a mechanism to address misconduct or incapacity.

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