UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Solved PYQs – International Relations

International Relations (IR) plays a pivotal role in shaping the dynamics of global affairs, and understanding its intricacies is essential for candidates aspiring for the UPSC Civil Services Examination. The UPSC Prelims from 2013 to 2023 have consistently featured questions on International Relations, reflecting the increasing significance of global issues. These questions often cover a wide range of topics, including international organizations, diplomatic relations, regional conflicts, and global economic trends. Aspirants are expected to stay abreast of current events and historical developments to tackle questions that require a nuanced understanding of global politics. This trend underscores the importance of a holistic approach to IR, encompassing both theoretical concepts and real-world applications. Candidates preparing for the UPSC Prelims must delve into the complexities of international affairs, ensuring they are well-equipped to analyze and respond to questions that probe their comprehension of global events and their impact on India’s diplomatic and strategic interests.

2023

1. About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

(a) Argentina

(b) Botswana

(c) Democratic Republic of the Congo

(d) Kazakhstan

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by the Democratic Republic of the Congo. 

2. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon

(b) Nigeria

(c) South Sudan

(d) Uganda

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Congo Basin is a vast region in Central Africa that encompasses several countries, including Cameroon. It is the world’s second-largest river basin (next to that of the Amazon), comprising an area of more than 1.3 million square miles (3.4 million square km). The vast drainage area of the Congo River includes almost the whole of the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia, northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania.

3. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project Dibrugarh and Surat. connects

2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.

3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (d)

• The Golden Quadrilateral Project is a major highway development project in India that aims to connect the four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The East-West Corridor is a part of this project and connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The IMT Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in the Indian state of Manipur with Mae Sot in Thailand, passing through Myanmar. It is an ambitious infrastructure project aimed at enhancing connectivity and trade between India, Myanmar, and Thailand. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM) Corridor is a proposed connectivity project that aims to enhance economic cooperation and trade between Bangladesh, China, India, and Myanmar. The corridor is expected to run from Kunming in China, through Myanmar, and Bangladesh, and eventually reach Kolkata in India. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

4. Consider the following pairs:

Regions often mentioned in news :    Reason for being in news : 

1. North Kivu and Ituri.                      War between Armenia and Azerbaijan.

2. Nagorno-Karabakh.                       : Insurgency in Mozambique.

3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia.         : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d)

• North Kivu and Ituri are the Provinces of the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Humanitarian Emergency in North Kivu, Ituri and South Kivu in 2023. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
• The landlocked mountainous region of Nagorno-Karabakh is the subject of an unresolved dispute between Azerbaijan, in which it lies, and its ethnic Armenian majority, backed by neighbouring Armenia. Hence, pair 2 is  incorrectly matched.
• Russia carried out referendums on joining Russia in the Ukrainian regions of Luhansk, Donetsk, Zaporizhzhia and Kherson – which represent 15 per cent of Ukraine’s territory and are controlled by Russia. Hence, pair 3 is in correctly matched.

5. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.

Statement-II : The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

• Egypt and Jordan are the only two Arab countries that have formal diplomatic relations with Israel, though some other Arab countries, like Saudi Arabia and Morocco, have reportedly had back-channel communications with it for years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Arab Peace Initiative is a comprehensive peace plan which was proposed in 2002 by then-Crown Prince Abdullah of Saudi Arabia. The Initiative calls for an end to the conflict between Israel and the Palestinians and the normalization of relations between Israel and the entire Arab world, in exchange for an Israeli withdrawal from the areas gained by Israel during the 1967 Six Day War and a “just settlement” to the issue of Palestinian refugees. The Arab League endorsed the plan in March 2002, and readopted it in March 2007. However, The Israeli government rejected the initiative immediately, calling it a “non-starter,” though the Quartet on the Middle East endorsed the Initiative in 2003. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

6. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding per- formance by a sportsperson over period of last four years.

2. Arjuna Award :  For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson

3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams.

4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: The recipient(s) is/are selected by a committee constituted by the Ministry and is honoured for their “spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years” at international level. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• The Arjuna Award, officially known as Arjuna Awards for Outstanding Performance in Sports and Games,is the second-highest sporting honour of India. Dhyan chand award is the lifetime achievement sporting honour of India. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Dronacharya Award is is given to coaches for doing outstanding and meritorious work on a consistent basis and enabling sportspersons to excel in International events. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar’ is given to corporate entities (both in private and public sector), Sports Control Boards, NGOs, including sports bodies at the State and National level, who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and development. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

7. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:

1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi’.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (b)

• The world’s biggest chess event is happening in India for the first time. Chennai is hosting the 44^th Chess Olympiad. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Official Mascot of the 44th Chess Olympiad is ‘Thambi’. The word ‘Thambi’ in Tamil language means – little or younger brother. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The trophy for the 1st place in the Open section: Hamilton-Russel Cup. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• The trophy for the 1st place in the Women’s section: Vera Menchik Cup. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

8. Consider the following pairs:

Area of conflict mentioned in news     Country where it is located
1. Donbas                                                     :Syria
2. Kachin                                                       :Ethiopia
3. Tigray                                                         :North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d)

• The Donbas or Donbass is a historical, cultural, and economic region in eastern Ukraine. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
• Kachin State also known by the endonym Kachinland, is the northernmost state of Myanmar. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
• Tigray is Ethiopia’s northernmost region. Bordering Eritrea, it is home to most of the country’s estimated 7 million ethnic Tigrayans. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

9. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons is common to all of them?

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups

Answer: (d)

In the last couple of years, Africans witnessed a series of military coups. Most of the recent military takeovers have taken place in West Africa, but the trend threatens to spread wider. In West Africa, the cycle of coups began in Chad. Mali has witnessed two military coups within a span of 18 months. In 2021, the military in Sudan ended its uneasy cohabitation with the civilian government by staging a coup. Hence, option (d) is correct.

10.  Consider the following statements about G-20:

1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

• The G20 group of 19 countries and the EU was established in 1999 as a platform for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Together, the G20 countries account for almost two-thirds of the global population, 75% of global trade, and 85% of the world’s GDP. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• India is pitching its digital infrastructure at G20 as an open-access platform that can aid in improving development outcomes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

11. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.

Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

• Switzerland’s gold exports amounted to a value of nearly 87 billion U.S. dollars in 2021. Switzerland is consistently the world’s leading gold exporting country based on value. In addition to being the largest exporter of gold based on value, Switzerland is also consistently the largest importer of gold based on value in the world. Switzerland imports unrefined gold, and exports it in its refined form. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Switzerland has the seventh-largest reserves of gold in the world. Its reserves of 1,040.0 tons account for 6.3% of its foreign reserves. In 2022, China’s mines produced an estimated 330 metric tons of gold. China is the largest gold producer in the world. Hence, statement II is not correct.

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:  Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade Technology Council’. and

Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

• Recently the United States of America and the European Union have launched the Trade and Technology Council, a strategic coordination mechanism to tackle challenges at the nexus of trade, trusted technology and security. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The EU-US Trade and Technology Council serves as a forum for the United States and European Union to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues and to deepen transatlantic trade and economic relations based on these shared values. Hence, statement II is not correct.

13. Consider the following statements:

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a)

• The Stability and Growth Pact is a political agreement that sets limits on the fiscal deficits and public debt of the Member States of the European Monetary Union (EMU). These guidelines are intended to ensure sound management of public finances within the EMU in order to prevent one Member State’s irresponsible budgetary policies from spilling over and undermining the economic stability of the entire Europe. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The European Union Stability and Trade Pact does not make any provision related to the sharing of infrastructure and technology. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

14. Consider the following statements:

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.

2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.

3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (d)

• The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration is the first intergovernmental agreement, adopted under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner. It was adopted at an intergovernmental conference on migration in Marrakesh, Morocco, on 10 December 2018. The pact was agreed by all 193 members, except the United States. But at the ceremony to adopt the text on 10 December, only 164 countries formally adopted it. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The global compact is non-legally binding. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration is the world’s first, intergovernmental negotiated agreement covering all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

15. Consider the following countries:

1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. Only five

Answer: (a)

Ukraine is bordered by the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov to the south, Russia to the east and north, Belarus to the north, Poland, Slovakia, and Hungary to the west, and Romania and Moldova to the south. Hence, option (a) is correct.

16. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Israel
4. Japan

Answer: (d)

Japan is the country that has its own satellite navigation system. The system is called the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) and it is designed to augment the existing GPS system, providing more accurate and reliable positioning and timing information within Japan and surrounding regions. Hence, option (d) is correct.

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’ India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

• According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022,’ India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal every year. Hence, statement I is correct.
• As per the report, about 89% of this groundwater is used in India for irrigation. Hence, statement-II is not correct.

18. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

1. Angola
2. Costa Rica
3. Ecuador
4. Somalia

Answer: (d)

A total of 6.5 million people in Somalia face acute food insecurity amid the driest conditions in 40 years, following five consecutive failed rainy seasons. Drought is compounding the impacts of other recurrent climate shocks, persistent insecurity and instability. In 2021, Somalia faced its worst desert locust infestation in 25 years, which further threatened food security and livelihoods. A total of 1.84 million children under 5 face acute malnutrition. Hence, option (d) is correct.

2022

1. Consider the following statements:

1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from the civil war in Somalia live in the Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (c)

Bidibidi became the World’s second-largest refugee settlement in the World and the biggest in Africa.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is located in the West Nile Area of Uganda and is home to over 270,000 South Sudanese refugees — the second largest refugee settlement in the world.  

Statement 2 is correct: Bidibidi is home to more than 270,000 refugees mostly from South Sudan. The Uganda Government and other NGOs have worked to create a settlement rather than a camp to host and contain the influx of the growing number of asylum seekers from South Sudan. 

Statement 3 is correct: The Dadaab refugee (Kenya) complex consists of three camps. The three Dadaab camps are Dagahaley, Ifo and Hagadera. The first two are located in Lagdera (Dadaab) district while Hagadera is located in the neighboring Fafi district. The first camp was established in 1991 when refugees fleeing the civil war in Somalia started to cross the border into Kenya. A second large influx occurred in 2011, when some 130,000 refugees arrived, fleeing drought and famine in southern Somalia. Humanitarian assistance at the camp has waned in last few months following Kenya’s announcement that it will close the camps in June 2022.

2. Consider the following countries

1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?    

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Organization of Turkic States (then called the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States – Turkic Council) was established in 2009 as an intergovernmental organization, with the overarching aim of promoting comprehensive cooperation among Turkic States.

Its four founding member states are Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Turkey. During the 7thSummit held in Baku in October 2019, Uzbekistan joined as a full member.

3. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea in measure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is an international agreement that establishes a legal framework for all marine and maritime activities. Every State has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baselines determined in accordance with this Convention.   

Statement 2 is correct:  According to Article 17 under Section 3 of United Nations Conventions (UNCLOS) ships of all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

Statement 3 is correct: The 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) defines an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). It is an area that shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines. The EEZ is measured from the breadth of the territorial sea.

• The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982 is an international agreement that establishes the legal framework for marine and maritime activities.
• It is also known as Law of the Sea. It divides marine areas into five main zones namely- Internal Waters, Territorial Sea, Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and the High Seas.
• It is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces. It provides a different legal status to different maritime zones.
• It provides the backbone for offshore governance by coastal states and those navigating the oceans.
• It not only zones coastal states’ offshore areas but also provides specific guidance for states’ rights and responsibilities in the five concentric zones.
• While UNCLOS has been signed and ratified by nearly all the coastal countries in the South China Sea, its interpretation is still hotly disputed.
• There is a maritime dispute in the East China Sea as well.

3. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue which Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea

(c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.

(d) Through International Courts of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: Senkaku Islands are a group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea. Japan and China claim the uninhabited islands, known as the Senkaku in Japan and Tiaoyu in China, as their own, but Japan has administered them since 1972. The Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands were formally claimed by Japan in 1895. After Japan’s defeat in World War II, the island chain was controlled by the US until 1971 before its return. Since then, Japan has administered the island chains. China began to reassert claims over the Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands in the 1970s, citing historic rights to the area. However, Japan does not recognise Chinese claims.

4. Consider the following pairs

Country	Important reason for being in the news recently
1. Chad	Setting up of permanent military base by China
2. Guinea	Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
3. Lebanon	Severe and prolonged economic depression
4. Tunisia	Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four Pairs

Answer: (c)

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: China established its first, and so far only, overseas military base in the eastern African nation of Djibouti in 2017. The facility is strategically located near the Bab el-Mandeb Strait linking the Indian Ocean and the Red Sea. and A permanent Chinese military installation in Equatorial Guinea is the culmination of nearly a decade’s investment in Africa – and will not be the last of such bases on the continent’s Atlantic coast.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Guinean special forces in September 2021 staged a coup, capturing President Alpha Conde and announcing a nationwide curfew “until further notice” as well as the replacement of governors by the military. After putting Guinea back under military rule for the first time in over a decade, the junta said Guinea’s governors were to be replaced by regional commanders. A nightly curfew was put in place, and the country’s constitution and National Assembly were both dissolved.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Lebanon’s severe and prolonged economic depression is, according to the World Bank, ‘likely to rank in the top 10, possibly top 3, most severe crisis episodes globally since the mid-nineteenth century.

Pair 4 is correctly matched: Tunisian President Kais Saied on March 2022 announced that he was dissolving the suspended parliament. The decision came after 124 of 217 members of parliament held an online meeting despite the suspension. Tunisian President Kais Saied slammed what he called a “failed coup attempt” after lawmakers convened online and voted to repeal presidential decrees that gave him near-total power.

5. Consider the following pairs :

Region often mentioned, in the news	Country
1. Anatolia        2.  Amhara        3. Cabo Delgado4. Catalonia	– Turkey- Ethiopia- Spain- Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d)All four pairs

Answer: (b)

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Anatolia, also called Asia Minor, the peninsula of land that today constitutes the Asian portion of Turkey. Because of its location at the point where the continents of Asia and Europe meet, Anatolia was, from the beginnings of civilization, a crossroads for numerous peoples migrating or conquering from either continent.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Amhara Region is a regional state in northern Ethiopia and the homeland of the Amhara people. Its capital is Bahir Dar which is the seat of the Regional Government of Amhara. Amhara is bordered by Sudan to the west and northwest and by other the regions of Ethiopia: Tigray to the north, Afar to the east, Benishangul-Gumuz to the west and southwest, and Oromia to the south.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique (not Spain). The region is an ethnic stronghold of the Makonde tribe, with the Makua and Mwani as leading ethnic minorities.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the north-eastern corner of Spain (not Italy). Catalonia was formerly a principality of the crown of Aragon, and it has played an important role in the history of the Iberian Peninsula. From the 17th century,, it was the centre of a separatist movement that sometimes-dominated Spanish affairs.

6. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The United Nations Credentials Committee is a committee of the United Nations General Assembly.

Statement 2 is incorrect. A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.

Statement 3 is correct.     The Committee reports to the Assembly on the credentials of representatives. The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly thereon (Rule 28 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).

The credentials of representatives and the names of members of the delegation of each Member State are submitted to the Secretary-General and are issued either by the Head of the State or Government or by the Minister for Foreign Affairs (Rule 27 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).

7. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.

2. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

To address the problem of unsustainable debt levels, the G20 reached agreement in November 2020 on a Common Framework for Debt Treatments.

Statement 1 is correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club.The G20 recently announced the agreement in principle of a “Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI)”. The framework aims to address the problem of unsustainable debts faced by many countries in the aftermath of the Covid-19 pandemic. The agreement includes all members of the G20 and the Paris Club. Club.

Statement 2 is correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. The Common Framework considers debt treatment, on a case-by-case basis, driven by requests from eligible debtor countries. In response to a request for debt treatment, a Creditor Committee is convened. Negotiations are supported by the IMF and the World Bank, including through their Debt Sustainability Analysis. The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed to support, in a structural manner, low-income countries with unsustainable debt. It is a way to temporarily ease the financing constraints for these countries and free up scarce money that they can instead use to mitigate the human and economic impact of the COVID-19 crisis.

8. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer: (a)

Polar Code is International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters. The Polar Code covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles. It is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL). The Polar Code covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles. The Polar Code entered into force on 1 January 2017.

9. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member states, international organizations and other entities Permanent Observer Status. However, The UN Charter and the General Assembly Rules of Procedure have no provisions related to granting permanent observer status and is based on practice only.

Statement 2 is correct: General Assembly decided that observer status would be confined to States and intergovernmental organizations whose activities cover matters of interest to the Assembly.  

Statement 3 is correct: Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.

A list of non-Member States, entities and organizations can receive a standing invitation to participate as observers in the sessions and the work of the General Assembly. Permanent Observers have free access to most meetings and relevant documentation.

10. Consider the following:

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

India is the member of all the Organizations.

Statement 1 is correct. On 24 October 2014, twenty-one countries signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) regarding the AIIB in Beijing, China: Bangladesh, Brunei, Cambodia, India, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Mongolia, Nepal, Oman, Pakistan, Philippines, Qatar, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Uzbekistan and Vietnam. The AIIB is a multilateral development bank that aims to improve economic and social outcomes in Asia. India is a member since 2016.

Statement 2 is correct. India became a full member of the MTCR after a “deal” was struck with Italy. This marks the first entry into any multilateral export control regime for India. MTCR is a multilateral export control regime whose members have an informal political understanding to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. India became a member of the MTCR in 2016.

Statement 3 is correct. The SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization, created in 2001 in Shanghai (China). India became its member in 2017. The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan).

11. Consider the following statements:

1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 3 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (c) 

Statement 1 is correct: According to a forecast by PricewaterhouseCoopers in February 2017, Vietnam may be the fastest-growing of the world’s economies, with a potential annual GDP growth rate of about 5.1%, which would make its economy the 10th-largest in the world by 2050.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Vietnam is a Marxist–Leninist one-party state based on democratic centralism. Vietnam is a one-party communist state, not a multi-party parliamentary democracy.  

Statement 3 is correct: Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. Poverty rates declined sharply from over 32 percent in 2011 to below 2 percent today. Thanks to its solid foundations, the economy has proven resilient through different crises, the latest being COVID-19. Vietnam was one of only a few countries to post GDP growth in 2020 when the pandemic hit. Vietnam is projected to be the fastest-growing internet economy in Southeast Asia in the next 10 years.  

Statement 4 is correct: Thanks to an abundance of low-wage labour, Vietnam’s manufacturing sector grew at a compound annual growth in the last decade. As the rest of East Asia developed and wages there rose, global manufacturers were lured by Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rate. Vietnam has low labour costs and stable exchange rates which attract global investments.

Statement 5 is Incorrect: According to Asian Development Bank Report, e-services including digital financial services are at a very nascent stage in Vietnam. Vietnamese fintech companies raised a total of US$375 million in the first nine months of 2021, putting the country at the 3rd position in fintech investment amount across ASEAN, behind only Singapore and Indonesia. Countries like Philippines, Singapore and Indonesia are the forefront in e-commerce productivity.

12. Consider the following statements : 

1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. 
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emmission reduction goals. 
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 

(c) 2, 3 and 5 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct: Climate group is an international non-profit founded in 2003, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam and Beijing.  It has grown its network to include over 500 multinational businesses in 175 markets worldwide. It collaborates with commercial and political leaders from all over the world to combat climate change. The organization runs programs aimed at minimizing greenhouse gas emissions and utilizing renewable energy. 

Statement 2 is not correct: EP100 is a global initiative led by the international non – profit Climate Group, bringing together over 120 energy smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements. 

Statement 3 is correct: The Climate Group’s global EP100 initiative brings together a growing group of energy-smart companies committed to improving their energy productivity and doing more with less green-house gas emission. By integrating ambitious energy targets into business strategy, leading companies are driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emissions reduction goals.

Statement 4 is correct: Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd., the world’s largest manufacturer of tractors, has signed up to EP100. The Indian-based company has committed to doubling their energy productivity by 2030, a core requirement for any business signing on to the campaign. Recently, Dalmia Cement and JSW Cement – two leading Indian cement companies – committed to the Climate Group’s flagship business initiatives RE100, EV100 and EP100. Dalmia Cement committed to EV100, while they are already members of RE100 and EP100. JSW Cement, committed to all the three campaigns in one go.  

Statement 5 is not correct: The Under2 Coalition, for which we are the Secretariat, is made up of over 260 governments globally, representing 1.75 billion people and 50% of the global economy. It is the world’s largest network of state and local governments devoted to cutting emissions in accordance with the Paris Agreements.

13. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Program Finance Initiative

(d) World Bank

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are initiatives of the IMF.

The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries.It provides rapid and low-access financial assistance to any qualifying member country facing urgent balance of payments needs that, if not addressed, would result in an immediate and severe economic disruption.

It can provide support to meet a broad range of needs, including those arising from commodity price shocks, natural disasters, conflict and post-conflict situations, emergencies resulting from fragility, and food shocks.Like the RCF, the RFI is designed for situations where a full-fledged economic program is not necessary because the need is transitory and limited in nature, or not feasible because a country’s policy design or implementation capacity is limited.

The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF):The RCF is available to PRGT-eligible member country that faces an urgent balance of payments need. The RCF is designed for situations where a full-fledged economic program is either not necessary because of the transitory and limited nature of the shock, or not feasible because of capacity constraints or domestic fragilities. For higher income countries that are non-PRGT eligible, a similar Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is available. It provides concessional, rapid, and low-access financial assistance to qualifying LICs facing an urgent balance of payments need, without ex post conditionality.

Additional Information:

There are three windows under the RFI:

• Regular window: for urgent BoP needs caused by a wide range of sources including domestic instability, exogenous shocks and fragility. 
• Large Natural Disaster window: for urgent BoP needs arising from natural disasters where damage is assessed to be equivalent to or exceed 20 percent of the member’s GDP. 
• Food Shock Window: for urgent BoP needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in the food or fertilizer import bill, or a shock to cereal exports.

2021

1.  Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. Many countries may not prove that there’s an agreed “right” to city. Therefore, the first statement may be wrong.

Statement 2 is correct: The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, transform, govern and enjoy cities, towns and human settlements that are just, inclusive, safe, sustainable and democratic, defined as common goods for enjoying life with dignity and peace.  The right to the city further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim, defend, and promote this right. 

This right claims for: 

• the social function of the city; 
• quality public spaces; 
• sustainable and inclusive rural-urban linkages; 
• inclusive economies;  
• inclusive citizenship; 
• enhanced political participation; 
• non-discrimination;  
• gender equality; and  
• cultural diversity

Statement 3 is incorrect: State can deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.

2. Consider the following statements:

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

  Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is International Seabed Authority (and Not Global Ocean Commission) that considers applications for exploration and exploitation of deep-sea resources from contractors, assesses environmental impact assessments and supervises mining activities.  With the establishment of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea in 1982 and the entry into force of the ISA in 1994, exploration activities for mineral resources in the area began to be regulated under exploration contracts. Originally, exploration activities were predominantly undertaken by national agencies, until 2010, when private companies became involved and a polymetallic-nodule-mining industry was born.
• Statement 2 is correct: India was the first country to receive the status of a ‘Pioneer Investor ‘in 1987 and was given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) for nodule exploration. India’s exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules from seabed in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) have been extended by five years. These rights are over 75000 sq. km of area in international waters allocated by the International Seabed Authority for developmental activities for polymetallic nodules.  
• Statement 3 is correct: In 1972, a young ecologist named Hjalmar Thiel ventured to a remote part of the Pacific Ocean known as the Clarion–Clipperton Zone (CCZ). The seafloor there boasts one of the world’s largest untapped collections of rare-earth elements. Some 4,000 meters below the ocean surface, the abyssal ooze of the CCZ holds trillions of polymetallic nodules — potato-sized deposits loaded with copper, nickel, manganese, and other precious ores.

3. Consider the following statements:

1. 21^st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

Statement 1 is incorrect: 21 February is declared as International Mother Language Day by UNESCO. The idea to celebrate International Mother Language Day was the initiative of Bangladesh. It was approved at the 1999 UNESCO General Conference and has been observed throughout the world since 2000. 

Statement 2 is correct: In 1948, the then Government of Pakistan declared Urdu to be the sole national language of Pakistan, even though Bengali or Bangla was spoken by the majority of people combining East Pakistan and West Pakistan. The East Pakistan people protested, and demanded that Bangla to be at least one of the national languages, in addition to Urdu. The contentious nature of the official language question came to the fore during the first session of the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. A member from East Bengal, Dhirendranath Datta, moved a motion to include Bengali as one of the languages of the Constituent Assembly along with English and Urdu. The motion was rejected.  

Bengali was eventually granted official status under the 1956 Constitution.

4. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider the following statements :

1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct. WaterCredit is a powerful solution and the first to put microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. WaterCredit helps bring small loans to those who need access to affordable financing and expert resources to make household water and toilet solutions a reality. 

Statement 2 is incorrect. Watercredit is an initiative of Water.org. Water.org is a global non-profit organization working to bring water and sanitation to the world.  

Statement 3 is correct. It helps people get access to safe water and sanitation through affordable financing, such as small loans.  

5. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

The Laureus World Sports Awards is the premier global sporting awards. First held in 2000, the annual event honours the greatest and most inspirational sporting triumphs of the year and showcases the work of Laureus Sport for Good.

• American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The award has been received mostly by Men’s Football Team (6 times) players so far. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Roger Federer (5 times) has received this award, the maximum number of times compared to others followed by Usain Bolt (4 times) and Novak Djokovic (4 times). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

6. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32^nd Summer Olympics

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
2. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 32nd Summer Olympics was held in Tokyo in 2021. The Tokyo 2020 official Games motto was “United by Emotion”. The Rio Olympics 2016 official slogan was “A New World.” 

Statement 2 is correct: The Tokyo Olympics has 339 events across 41 different sports. Six new sports will be contested at the Tokyo Olympics – baseball, softball, karate, skateboarding, sport climbing, and surfing.

7. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:

1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: The ICC World Test Championship semifinalist teams will be chosen based on a percentage of points earned rather than the number of games they have won.

Statement 2 is not correct:  New Zealand entered the final despite having won fewer games than England but more points.

2020

1. Consider the following pairs:

International agreement/set-up Subject

1. Alma-Ata Declaration Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention Biological and chemical weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue Global climate change
4. Under2 Coalition Child rights 

Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

Pair 1 is correctly matched: It was adopted at the International Conference on Primary Health Care (PHC) which was held in Almaty, Kazakhstan in 1978. It urged all the governments, health care workers and development workers to promote and protect the primary health of all the people. 

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: There are a series of Hague Convention on different subjects such as Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict, Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction, etc. But it is not related to biological and chemical weapons. 

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Dialogue was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP 23) in Bonn (Germany) in 2017. Talanoa is a traditional word used in Fiji and across the Pacific to reflect a process of inclusive, participatory and transparent dialogue. The purpose of Talanoa is to share stories, build empathy and to make wise decisions for the collective good. 

Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The Under2 Coalition is a global community of state and regional governments committed to ambitious climate action in line with the Paris Agreement. The coalition brings together more than 220 subnational governments who represent over 1.3 billion people and 43% of the global economy. Currently, Telangana and Chhattisgarh are signatories to this pact from India. Signatories commit to keeping global temperature rises to well below 2°C with efforts to reach 1.5°C.

2. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?

1. Argentina, Mexico, South Africa, and Turkey
2. Australia, Canada, Malaysia, and New Zealand
3. Brazil, Saudi Arabia, and Vietnam
4. Indonesia, Japan, Singapore, and South Korea

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The members of the G20 include Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Unions.

The G20 is an informal group of 19 countries and the European Union, with representatives of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank. The G20 membership comprises a mix of the world’s largest advanced and emerging economies, representing about two-thirds of the world’s population, 85% of global gross domestic product, 80% of global investment and over 75% of global trade. The G20 Presidency rotates annually according to a system that ensures a regional balance over time.

2019

1. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the:

1. International Monetary Fund
2. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. World Economic Forum
4. World Bank

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum.  India ranked 68^th in the 2019 edition of this report, down from 58^th in the previous year (2018).

Some other important reports published by WEF are:

Global Environmental Performance Index

• Social Mobility Index

Global Gender Gap Report

• Human Capital Index

Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index

• Enabling Trade Report

2. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) currently has 103 member nations.

Statement 2 is not correct: China is the largest shareholder (shareholding 30.77%) in AIIB followed by India (shareholding 8.64%), Russia (6.75%) and Germany (4.63%).

Statement 3 is not correct: AIIB has 39 non-regional members (members from outside Asia) as well. Some of them are Austria, Canada, Finland, etc.

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank that aims to support the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region. It is headquartered in Beijing, China.

It offers sovereign and non-sovereign financing for sound and sustainable projects in energy and power, transportation and telecommunications, rural infrastructure and agricultural development, water supply and sanitation, environmental protection and urban development and logistics.

3. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. The European Union
4. The United States of America

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) standardizes data protection law across all 28 EU countries and imposes strict new rules on controlling and processing personally identifiable information (PII). It also extends the protection of personal data and data protection rights by giving control back to EU residents. GDPR replaces the 1995 EU Data Protection Directive, and went into force on May 25, 2018.

4. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?

1. Japan
2. Russia
3. The United Kingdom
4. The United States of America

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: An ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Co-operation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ was jointly signed by India and Russia in October 2018 in New Delhi. The document was signed by Director General of Rosatom State Atomic Energy Corporation and Secretary of Department of Atomic Energy and Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission of India.

2018

Q1. What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?

1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports.

Statement 1 is correct:  By becoming a member of the Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG), India will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies. If India becomes a member, it will also have a better international market for export as well as for import of nuclear related materials.

Statement 2 is not correct: NPT (Non-proliferation Treaty) is an international treaty, which came into force in 1970. Joining the NSG will not automatically lead to becoming a member of “The Treaty of non- proliferation of nuclear weapons (NPT).

Q2. The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

a) China

b) Israel

c) Iraq

d) Yemen

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: The two-state solution would establish an independent Palestinian state alongside Israel — two states for two peoples. This is a proposed framework for resolving the Israeli- Palestinian conflict by establishing two states for two peoples: Israel for the Jewish people and Palestine for the Palestinian people.

Q3. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to:

1. Child labour
2. Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change
3. Regulation of food prices and food security
4. Gender parity at the workplace

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Union Cabinet gave its approval for ratification of the two fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organization namely, Minimum Age Convention (No 138) concerning minimum age for admission to employment and the Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention (No 182) concerning the prohibition and immediate action for elimination of the worst forms of Child Labour.

ILO Convention No. 182 is the first ILO Convention to achieve universal ratification. It was also the most rapidly ratified Convention in the history of the ILO, with the majority of ratifications occurring within the first 3 years after it was adopted in 1999. ILO Convention No. 138 has also been widely ratified by ILO member States.

Q 4. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA

c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The Additional Protocol is not a stand-alone agreement, but rather a protocol to a safeguards agreement that provides additional tools for verification. In particular, it significantly increases the IAEA’s ability to verify the peaceful use of all nuclear material in States with comprehensive safeguards agreements. Hence, the civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

Option (b) is not correct: The military nuclear installations don’t come under the inspection of IAEA.

Option (c) is not correct: IAEA protocol ratification will not give the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

Option (d) is not correct: NSG membership is not based on IAEA Additional Protocol ratification.

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) headquartered in Vienna, Austria. It is the world’s centre for cooperation in the nuclear field and seeks to promote the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear technologies. It was established as an autonomous organisation on 29 July 1957. The IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.

An Additional Protocol to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25 July 2014.

Q 5. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ?

a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: Apart from the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) between ASEAN member states, the regional trade bloc has signed several FTAs with some of the major economies in the Asia-Pacific region. These include the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand FTA (AANZFTA), the ASEAN-China FTA (ACFTA), the ASEAN-India FTA (AIFTA), the ASEAN Korea FTA (AKFTA), and the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP).

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration). Currently, it has 10 member nations which are: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.

Q6. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ?

 a) Amnesty International

 b) International Court of Justice

 c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights

 d) World Justice Project

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: The World Justice Project (WJP) is an American independent, multidisciplinary organization with the stated mission of “working to advance the rule of law around the world”. It brings rule of law index. The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index is a quantitative assessment tool designed to offer a detailed and comprehensive picture of the extent to which countries adhere to the rule of law in practice.

The Index provides data on eight dimensions of the rule of law: limited government powers; absence of corruption; order and security; fundamental rights; open government; regulatory enforcement; civil justice; and criminal justice.

2017

Q1. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS)
  • IONS is a voluntary initiative that aims to increase maritime cooperation among the navies of the Indian Ocean Region’s littoral states by providing an inclusive and open forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The Indian Navy presided over the first IONS Seminar in 2008. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Subsequent seminars and meetings of the ‘Conclave of Chiefs’ have been held at the commencement of each two-year IONS Chairmanship:
    • United Arab Emirates in 2010,
    • South Africa in 2012,
    • Australia in 2014,
    • Bangladesh in 2016 and
    • Iran in 2018.
  • The IONS Chairmanship will be rotated to France in 2020 and Thailand in 2022.
  • IONS consists of 24 nations that permanently hold territory abutting or lying within the Indian Ocean, as well as 8 observer nations.

Q2. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

a) European Union

b) Gulf Cooperation Council

c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: 

• Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)
  • On June 28, 2007, India and the EU began negotiations in Brussels, Belgium, on a broad-based Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA).
  • Both India and the EU expect to promote bilateral trade by removing trade barriers in goods and services, as well as barriers to investment in all sectors of the economy. 
  • Both parties believe that a comprehensive and ambitious agreement that is consistent with WTO rules and principles would open new markets and expand opportunities for Indian and EU businesses.
  • Trade in Goods, Trade in Services, Investment, Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, Technical Barriers to Trade, Trade Remedies, Rules of Origin, Customs and Trade Facilitation, Competition, Trade Defense, Government Procurement, Dispute Settlement, Intellectual Property Rights & Geographical Indications, Sustainable Development are all covered by the negotiations.

Q3. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

b) India’s relations with oil producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: 

• Chabahar Port
  • In 2003, the Chabahar port project was signed.
  • Chabahar Port is located in the province of Sistan and Baluchistan in southeastern Iran, on the Gulf of Oman.
  • In December 2018, India took over the Port’s operations.
  • Gives India better access to Afghanistan by avoiding Pakistan. 
  • It will serve as the gateway to the International North-South Transport Corridor, which will connect Russia, Europe, Central Asia, Iran, and India via road, rail, and sea routes.
  • If necessary, India can conduct humanitarian operations from this port.
  • Because this port is only 170 kilometres from China’s Gwadar port in Pakistan, it will be of strategic importance to the Indian Navy and defence establishment.
  • This enhances connectivity, energy supplies and trade.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• Nuclear Security Summits are held regularly under the auspices of the United States (US), not the United Nations. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Fissile Materials International Panel
  • It was established in January 2006.
  • The International Panel on fissile Materials is an Independent non-governmental organisation comprised of experts in arms control and nonproliferation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • It includes experts from both nuclear and non-nuclear weapon states.

Q5. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

a) ASEAN

b) BRICS

c) EU

d) G20

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: 

• In the news, the term “Digital Single Market Strategy” refers to the EU. 
• The ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ includes telecom, digital marketing, and e-commerce.
• Juncker Commission announced the digital market in May 2015.
• This strategy is built on three pillars:
• Development of digital networks and services; expansion of the European digital economy.
• Availability of online products and services.

2016

1. ‘Belt and road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

(a)    African Union

(b)    Brazil

(c)    European union

(d)    China

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: 

• The OBOR initiative has also been referred to as the Belt and Road Initiative
• (BRI), which was announced in 2013 by China’s President Xi Jinping.
• The ‘Belt’ also refers to the ‘Silk Road Economic Belt’.
• The main objective of the Initiative is to improve sub-regional and regional
• cooperation.
• It aims to connect the East Asian economic region with the European economic circle and runs across the continents of Asia, Europe, and Africa.

2. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’?

a)    Iran

b)    Saudi Arabia

c)    Oman

d)    Kuwait

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: 

• Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a political and economic alliance of six Middle East countries. The members of GCC are Bahrain, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman and UAE. Iran is not a member of GCC. 
• The headquarters of GCC is in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. All current members of GCC are monarchies. The GCC supreme council is the highest decision-making entity of the GCC. It sets its vision and goals. Each member state has one vote. Decisions on substantive issues require unanimous approval, while issues on procedural matters require a majority

3. ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an

(a) agency  created by EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving from Middle East

(b) agency of EU that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries

(c) agency of EU to deal with all the bilateral and multilateral agreements on trade

(d) agency of EU to deal with the conflict arising among the member countries

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: 

• European Stability Mechanism (ESM) was an international financial institution set up by the euro area Member States to help euro area countries in severe financial distress. 
• The European Stability Mechanism (ESM) was set up in October 2012 as a successor to the European Financial Stability Facility (EFSF). It provides financial assistance, in the form of loans, to eurozone countries or as new capital to banks in difficulty. 
• This assistance is granted only if it is proven necessary to safeguard the financial stability of the euro area as a whole and of ESM Members. 

4.‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontiercs)’, often in the news, is

a) A division of World Health Organization

b) A non-governmental international organization

c) And inter-government agency sponsored by European Union

d) A specialized agency of the United Nations

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: 

• Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF) or Doctors without Borders is a Nongovernmental organisation. It was founded on 20 December 1971. 
• The international humanitarian medical aid organisation works in 69 countries. MSF has no real “headquarters.” Although the organization was established in France. 
• It has grown into an international association with 24 independent sections worldwide. It serves populations affected by epidemics, armed conflicts, natural calamities, and manmade disasters. It delivers health care to some of the most deprived peoples on the planet.

5. Consider the following statements:

The India-Africa Summit

1. Held in 2015 was the third such Summit
2. Was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: The first India-Africa Summit was held in 2008 in New Delhi. It is an official platform for the African-Indian relations and held once in every three years. It was not initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951.

6. With reference to ‘Organization for the prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’ consider the following statements:

1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO
2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons free emerging
3. It provides assistance and protection to Stated Parties against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (b)

• Organization for the Prohibitions of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is an intergovernmental organisation and the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention. It is not under the European Union. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• OPCW is the Hague-based autonomous body, which works within the framework of the United Nations, was established in 1997 by the Chemical Weapons Convention to carry out its mandate. It oversees the global endeavour to permanently and verifiably eliminate chemical weapons. 
• The Convention contains four key provisions: Destroying all existing chemical weapons under international verification by the OPCW. Monitoring the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from reemerging. Hence statement 2 is correct.

7. Community sometimes mentioned in the news In the affairs of

1. Kurd : Bangladesh
2. Madhesi : Nepal
3. Robingya : Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: 

• Kurds are the Muslim ethnic group predominantly in the Middle East. Kurds inhabit a mountainous region straddling the borders of Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran and Armenia. 
• They make up the fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East, but they have never obtained a permanent nation-state. Madhesis were in news for demanding greater representation for the community in the Nepalese constitution. 
• The Madhesi also referred to as Teraibasi Nepali are an indigenous ethnic group of Nepalese people who are natives of the Madhesh plains of Southern Nepal in Terai belt of South Asia. Rohingya are an ethnic group, the majority of whom are Muslim, who have lived in Myanmar province of Rakhine. 

2015

Q1. India is a member of which of the following?

1. Asia-Pacific economic corporation.
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations.
3. East Asia Summit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) India is a member of none of them

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: At present India is not a member of APEC and ASEAN. The East Asia Summit EAS is a forum held annually by leaders of 16 countries in the East Asian region. The first summit was held in Kuala Lumpur Malaysia on 14 December 2005. India is a member of this forum. 

Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC)

• It is an inter-governmental forum for 21 member economies in the Pacific Rim.
• It aims to promote free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region
• It started in 1989, in response to the growing interdependence of Asia-Pacific economies and the advent of regional trade blocs in other parts of the world.
• It aimed to establish new markets for agricultural products and raw materials beyond Europe.
• APEC is headquartered in Singapore.

Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN)

• It is a regional intergovernmental organization comprising ten countries in Southeast Asia.
• It promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic, political, security, military, educational, and socio-cultural integration among its members and other countries in Asia.
• The motto of ASEAN is “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”.

East Asia Summit (EAS)

• It was established in 2005 is a forum of 18 regional leaders for strategic dialogue and cooperation on the key political, security, and economic challenges facing the Indo-Pacific region.
• It comprises the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) – Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam – along with 8 members Australia, China, Japan, India, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States.

Q2. Consider the following countries

1. China
2. France
3. India
4. Israel
5. Pakistan

Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Nonproliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: 

• The objective of the Non-Proliferation treaty 
  • It is to inhibit the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further achieve the goal of nuclear disarmament.
  • The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), entered into force in March 1970.
  • Nuclear-weapon states (NWS) consist of the United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom. 

• Non-Proliferation treaty  
  • It is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to foster the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of disarmament.
  • This treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. Presently, it has 191 member states.
  • India is not a member of NPT.
  • NPT requires countries to give up any present or plans to build nuclear weapons in return for access to peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
  • NPT represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
  • Nuclear-weapon states parties under the NPT are defined as those that manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive devices before 1^st January 1967.

Q3. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:

a) ASEAN

b) BRICS

c) OECD

d) WTO

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: 

• Fortaleza Declaration 
  • The presidents of the BRICS nations signed the agreement establishing the New Development Bank at the sixth BRICS summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014. (NDB).
  • Fortaleza Declaration  stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global development thus contributing to sustainable and balanced growth. 
  • NDB’s major areas of operation are clean energy, transport infrastructure, irrigation, sustainable urban development and economic cooperation among the member nations.
  • The BRICS countries’ equal rights are upheld by the NDB, which operates on a consultation mechanism.
  • NDB’s main office is in Shanghai.
  • The prospect of establishing a new Development Bank to raise funds for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in the BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as in developing nations, was discussed at the Fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi (2012).

Q4. Amnesty International is

a) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars

b) a global Human Rights Movement

c) a non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor people

d) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-ravaged regions

Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct: 

• Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization with its headquarters in the United Kingdom focused on human rights.
• It was established in July 1961 and was founded by Peter Benenson. 
• Campaigning for “a society in which every individual enjoys all of the human rights recognised in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and other international human rights instruments” is the organization’s stated aim. 
• More than 7 million people worldwide participate in Amnesty International because they find injustice to be personally offensive.
• The group received the 1977 Nobel Peace Prize for “defending human dignity against torture.”

Q 5. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants?

1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 5

Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct: 

• Mekong Ganga cooperation is a regional organization comprising India and 5 ASEAN countries Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam. Therefore, Bangladesh and China are not members of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation. 
• It was launched in Vientiane (Laos) in 2000.
• It aims to facilitate closer contacts inhabiting these two major river basins.
• It also enhances cooperation in tourism, culture, transport, communication, and education.
• It is an integral part of India’s ‘Act East Policy’ 
• It also aims in narrowing the development gap through digital connectivity and capacity building.  

Q6. ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’ often seen in the news, is

a) a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization.

b) a plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum

c) an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations

d) a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia Summit

Answer: (c) 

Option (c) is correct: 

• The Beijing Declaration and the Platform for Action  was adopted unanimously by 189 countries at the United Nations World Conference on Women in Beijing in 1995.
• It recognizes women’s rights as human rights and sets out a comprehensive roadmap for achieving equality between women and men. 
• It aims at accelerating the implementation of the Nairobi Forward-looking Strategies for the Advancement of Women and at removing all the obstacles to women’s active participation in all spheres of public and private life through a full and equal share in economic, social, cultural and political decision-making.
• The Platform for Action is an agenda for women’s empowerment.

Q7. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’,

Consider the following statements:

1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation
  • It is an international organization comprising 22 States in the Indian Ocean.  
  • This is a regional forum in which representatives of government, business, and Academia promote cooperation and closer interaction. 
  • Its headquarters is in Ebene, Mauritius. 
  • This was established in 1997 and is formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim initiative. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • This is known as the Indian Ocean Rim Association now.  
  • It coordinates and monitors the implementation of policy decisions adopted by the member states.
  • Indian ocean carries half of the words container shipments, one-third of the world’s bulk cargo traffic, and around two-thirds of the world’s oil shipments which makes it the lifeline of international trade. 
  • Maritime security, trade, and investment, disaster risk reduction, academic and scientific Corporations, cultural exchange, blue economy, empowerment of women, and fisheries management are identified as eight priorities area of the Indian Ocean Rim Association. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Indian Ocean dialogue was established in the 13th Council of Ministers’ meeting organized in Perth Australia in 2013. 
  • The first Indian ocean dialogue was held in Kerala in 2014. 

2014

Q1. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• BRICS  is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. 
• Originally there were four nations grouped as “BRIC” (or “the BRICs”). South Africa became the member in 2010 and was last to join. Hence Statement 2 is Correct. 
• The BRIC grouping’s first meeting was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia. Hence Statement 1 is not Correct. 
• The importance of BRICS is self-evident: it represents 42% of the world’s population, 30% of the land area, 24% of global GDP and 16% of international trade.

Q2. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

a) Egypt

b) Lebanon

c) Syria

d) Tunisia

Answer: (d)

 Option (d) is correct: 

• The Arab Spring was a revolutionary wave of demonstrations protests and civil wars in the Arab world that began on 18 December 2010 and spread throughout the countries of the Arab League. 
• It originally started from Tunisia. 
• Tunisia is bordered by Algeria and Libya and has a marine boundary with the Mediterranean Sea.

Additional Points

• Egypt is bordered by Libya, Sudan, and Israel. 
• Lebanon is bounded by Syria and Israel and has marine boundary with the Mediterranean Sea. 
• Syria is bounded by Turkey, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, and Israel.

Q3. Consider the following countries:

1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘?

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 4 and 5
d) 1, 3 and 5

Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: 

• Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa declaration.
• It is an intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation in the Arctic region.
• Members of the Arctic Council are Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America as a member of the Arctic Council. Therefore,  Japan and united Kingdom are not members of Arctic Council. 

Q4. Consider the following pairs:

Region often in news         Country

1. Chechnya          : Russian Federation
2. Darfur                : Mali
3. Swat Valley        : Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

All regions were affected by some conflict,

• Chechnya
  • It is republic in southwestern Russia. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • It is situated on the northern flank of the Greater Caucasus range. 
  • It is conquered by Russia in 1858.
• Darfur
  • It is a region in western Sudan. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Swat Valley
  • It is known as the “mini Switzerland”.
  • It is a province in Pakistan. Hence, Pair 3 is not correctly matched.

2013

1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Geographical Feature   –   Region
(a) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia
(b) Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa
(c) Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa
(d) Okavango Basin : Patagonia

Answer: (b)

Abyssinian Plateau is situated in Ethiopia (Africa). It is also known by other names like Altipiano Etiopico, Amhara Plateau, Ethiopian Massif, and Ethiopian Plateau.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Q: What is the significance of the term “Soft Power” in the context of International Relations, as per UPSC Prelims questions from 2013-2023?

Explore the evolving concept of soft power and its role in international diplomacy. Refer to specific examples and instances mentioned in the UPSC Prelims questions to illustrate its practical application.

Q: Discuss the major principles of the United Nations Charter based on UPSC Prelims questions from the last decade.

Summarize key principles such as sovereignty, non-intervention, and the role of the Security Council. Provide instances or events cited in UPSC questions to highlight the application of these principles in real-world scenarios.

Q: Examine the changing dynamics of regional organizations in the realm of International Relations, drawing insights from UPSC Prelims questions.

Analyze the UPSC questions related to regional organizations to identify trends and shifts in their roles and functions. Discuss how these organizations contribute to regional stability and global governance.

Q: Evaluate the role of technology in shaping contemporary International Relations, citing examples from UPSC Prelims questions between 2013-2023.

Explore how technological advancements, such as cyber warfare and artificial intelligence, influence diplomatic relations and international security. Reference specific instances from UPSC questions to support your analysis.

Q: Explain the concept of Global Commons and its relevance in the context of UPSC Prelims questions over the past decade.

Define the term Global Commons and discuss its components, including the oceans, atmosphere, and outer space. Provide instances from UPSC questions where issues related to Global Commons were addressed and analyze the implications for international cooperation and conflict.

To get free counseling/support on UPSC preparation from expert mentors please call 9773890604

1. Join our Main Telegram Channel and access PYQs, Current Affairs and UPSC  Guidance for free – Edukemy for IAS
2. Learn Economy for free- Economy for UPSC
3. Mains Answer Writing Practice-Mains Answer Writing
4. For UPSC Prelims Resources, Click here

Visit our YouTube Channel – Here