UPSC CSAT 2024 Questions with Explanation – Edukemy

The UPSC CSAT 2024 is a crucial component of India’s Civil Services Examination, which aims to recruit candidates for various government positions. Edukemy, a well-known educational platform, provides in-depth explanations and solutions to the CSAT questions. Their resources help aspirants understand complex concepts in a simplified manner, enhancing their problem-solving skills and boosting their confidence. With Edukemy’s expert guidance, tackling the diverse and challenging questions of the CSAT becomes more manageable, increasing the chances of success in this competitive exam.

Directions for the following 4 (four) items: 

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage-1 

According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption. The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices, and excessive groundwater extraction. The energy spent over wasted food results in about 3.5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful emissions of other gases in the atmosphere. Addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical to complete the cycle of food efficiency and food sustainability. 

Q1: Which of the following statements best reflect the most logical and rational inferences that can be made from the passage? 

1. The current methods of food distribution are solely responsible for the loss and wastage of food. 
2. Land productivity is adversely affected by the prevailing trend of food loss and wastage. 
3. Reduction in the loss and wastage of food results in lesser carbon footprint. 
4. Post-harvest technologies to prevent or reduce the loss and wattage of food are not available. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

1. 1, 2 and 3 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1, 3 and 4 
4. 1, 2 and 4 

Answer:(b) 

Inference 1 is incorrect: This statement is not supported by the passage. The passage mentions “Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption … Addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical to completing the cycle of food efficiency and food sustainability”. This suggests that food loss and wastage occur throughout the supply chain, from production to household consumption, and not solely due to distribution methods. 

Inference 2 is correct: Land productivity is based on the quality of land. The passage mentions that due to wastage, the quality of the land degrades. This means that wastage increases land degradation, which adversely affects land productivity. This inference can be drawn from the lines, “The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices, and excessive groundwater extraction” which can be exacerbated by food loss and waste. 

Inference 3 is correct: This statement is supported by the passage, which mentions that the energy spent on wasted food results in significant carbon dioxide production- Consider the line, “The energy spent over wasted food results in about 3.5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful permissions of other gases in the atmosphere.” Therefore, reduction in food loss and waste would reduce the carbon footprint. 

Inference 4 is incorrect: This statement is not supported by the passage. The passage does not discuss the non-availability of post-harvest technologies. It is also common knowledge, that various technologies and methods exist to reduce food loss and waste after harvest. 

Q2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. The food distribution mechanism needs to be reimagined and made effective to reduce the loss and wastage of food. 
2. Ensuring the reduction of wastage and loss of food is a social and moral responsibility of all citizens. 

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(a*) 

Assumption 1 is valid: The passage mentions that food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain. While it does not specifically single out the distribution mechanism, it implies that improvements across the entire supply chain, including distribution, would help reduce food wastage. Therefore, this assumption is reasonable and valid. 

Assumption 2 is invalid: The passage does not explicitly suggest this. The passage focusses on the environmental and economic impacts of food wastage and the need to address it to achieve food efficiency and sustainability. While one could argue that addressing food wastage is indeed a social and moral responsibility, the passage does not provide explicit support for this assumption. Further, the residents of a nation or locality include members who are not citizens, as well. Therefore, it seems that pinning the responsibility on citizens is not the intention of the author. 

*However, there is a possibility that assumption 2 be taken as valid: The passage primarily discusses the loss and wastage of food and its impact on the environment and on humans. Although the passage does not explicitly connect the social and moral duty of citizens to reduce wastage and loss of food, it does bring in the aspect and mention “household consumption” as well, which indicates a moral and social responsibility on citizens. Therefore, they too must ensure the reduction of wastage and loss of food. 

Passage-2 

As inflation rises, even governments previously committed to budget discipline are spending freely to help households. Higher interest rates announced by central banks are supposed to help produce modest fiscal austerity, because to maintain stable debts while paying more to borrow, governments must cut spending or raise taxes. Without the fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction. Higher interest rates become inflationary, not disinflationary, because they simply lead governments to borrow more to pay rising debt-service costs. The risk of monetary unmooring is greater when public debt rises, because interest rates become more important to budget deficits. 

Q3. Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? 

1. Central banks cannot bring down inflation without budgetary backing. 
2. The effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(c) 

Inference 1 is correct: The passage suggests that higher interest rates announced by central banks are meant to help produce fiscal austerity. However, without fiscal backing (i.e., the government cutting spending or raising taxes), monetary policy loses effectiveness, and higher interest rates could even become inflationary. This implies that budgetary backing is crucial for central banks to control inflation. 

Inference 2 is correct: Consider the lines from the passage, “Without the fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction.” and “The risk of monetary unmooring is greater when public debt rises”. The passage therefore clearly states that without the fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction as higher interest rates can lead to more borrowings by the government to pay for the rising debt-service costs. This indicates that the effectiveness of monetary policy is heavily influenced by the fiscal policies of the government. 

Q4. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. Fiscal policies of governments are solely responsible for higher prices. 
2. Higher prices do not affect the long-term government bonds.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(d) 

Assumption 1 is invalid: The passage discusses how government spending and fiscal policies interact with monetary policies and interest rates to impact inflation and does not suggest that fiscal policies are solely responsible for higher prices. The passage suggests how monetary policy also impacts inflation in the lines, “Higher interest rates are announced by central banks….Higher interest rates become inflationary”. 

Assumption 2 is invalid: The passage does not mention the impact or interaction between (long-term) government bonds and higher prices. 

Q5. What is the least possible number of cuts required to cut a cube into 64 identical pieces? 

(a) 8 

(b) 9 

(c) 12 

(d) 16 

Answer:(b) 

Let n be the number of cubes on each edge of the cube. n³ = 64  or n = 4 

So, there are 4 cubes on each edge of the cube. For this to happen we need to cut each edge 3 times. 

This can be achieved by cutting the cube 3 times along each of the three axes – x, y and z. So, the total number of minimum possible cuts required = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9 

Q6. In the expression 5 * 4* 3* 2* 1, * is chosen from +, -, × each at most two times. What is the smallest non-negative value of the expression? 

(a) 3 

(b) 2 

(c) 1 

(d) 0 

Answer:(d) 

5 – 4 – 3 + 2 × 1 

= 5 – 4 – 3 + 2 

= 0 

Q7. A certain number of men can complete a piece of work in 6k days, where k is a natural number. By what percent should the number of men be increased so that the work can be completed in 5k days? 

1. 10% 
2. (50/3)% 
3. 20% 
4. 25% 

Answer:(c) 

Let the number of men in the first and second instances be m and n respectively. So, man-days required = 6k × m = 5k × n 

Or 6m = 5n Or n = (6/5)m Or n = 1.2 m 

Or n = m + 20% of m 

So, the number of men need to be increased by 20%. 

Q8. X, Y and Z can complete a piece of work individually in 6 hours, 8 hours and 8 hours respectively. However, only one person at a time can work in each hour and nobody can work for two consecutive hours. All are engaged to finish the work. What is the minimum amount of time that they will take to finish the work. 

1. 6 hours 15 minutes 
2. 6 hours 30 minutes 
3. 6 hours 45 minutes 
4. 7 hours 

Answer:(c) 

X, Y and Z can complete a piece of work individually in 6 hours, 8 hours and 8 hours respectively. Now, to finish the work in minimum possible time, we need to ensure that X is utilized the most, as he’s the most efficient worker. So, we will use X alternatively every second hour. We will also start with him. 

So, the sequence of their working will be X, (Y or Z), X, (Y or Z), X, …..and so on. 

X can complete the work in 6 hours. So, in one hour he can complete 16.67% of the work. 

Similarly, Y (or Z) can complete the work in 8 hours. So, in one hour he can complete 12.5% of the work. 

Now, X + Y + X + Y + X + Y = 3X + 3Y = 50 + 37.5 = 87.5% 

Now, 12.5% of the work is left and it’s X’s turn to do it. 

X can do it in (12.5/16.67) hours, i.e. 0.75 hours, or 45 minutes. 

So, the entire task can be done by them in the minimum possible time of 6 hours 45 minutes. 

Q9. How many consecutive zeros are there at the end of the integer obtained in the product 1² × 2⁴ × 3⁶ × 4⁸ ×…. × 25⁵⁰? 

1. 50 
2. 55 
3. 100 
4. 200 

Answer:(d) 

We get a zero when we get 10, which in turn is obtained when 2 and 5 are multiplied. The number of zeroes will depend on whichever is less in number from among 2 and 5. 

In the given product 1² × 2⁴ × 3⁶ × 4⁸ ×. × 25⁵⁰ , we can deduce that 2 is definitely more in number 

than 5. So, the number of zeroes at the end will be equal to the number of 5’s in the given product. The number of 5’s in the given expression are: 

5¹⁰  10 

10²⁰  20 

15³⁰  30 

20⁴⁰  40 

25⁵⁰  100 

So, the number of zeroes at the end of the product = 10 + 20 + 30 + 40 + 100 = 200 

Q10. On January 1st, 2023, a person saved Rs 1. On January 2nd, 2023, he saved Rs. 2 more than that on the previous day. On January 3rd, 2023, he saved Rs. 2 more than that on the previous day and so on. At the end of which date was his total savings a perfect square as well a perfect cube? 

1. 7th January, 2023 
2. 8th January, 2023 
3. 9th January, 2023 
4. Not possible 

Answer:(b) 

The total savings done by the person by 8^th January = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 = 64 

Now, 4³ = 8² = 64 

So, 64 is a perfect square, as well as a perfect cube. So, it satisfies the given conditions. 

Directions for the following 4 (four) items : 

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage-1 

Today, if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris as some of the most iconic cities in the world, it is because plans carrying a heavy systems approach were imposed on their precincts. The backbone of the systems theory is the process of translating social, spatial and cultural desirables into mathematical models using computing, statistics, optimization and an algorithmic way of formulating and solving problems. The early universities of the West which began to train professionals in planning, spawned some of the most ingenious planners, who were experts in these domains. This was because these very subjects were absorbed into the planning curriculum that had its roots in the social sciences, geography and architecture. Planning in India, and its education differ from the West. 

Q11. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? 

1. Curriculum for urban planning courses should have diverse and interdisciplinary approach. 
2. In India, city administration is under bureaucracy which lacks formal training in urban planning and management. 
3. In India, the management of urban areas is a local affair with a chronic problem of insufficient funds. 
4. With high density of population and widespread poverty in our urban areas, planned development in them is very difficult. 

Answer:(a) 

Inference (a) is correct: The passage emphasizes the importance of a systems approach to urban planning, that factors in social, spatial and cultural aspects. For example, the passage mentions, “The was because these very subjects were absorbed into the planning curriculum that had its roots in the social sciences, geography and architecture.” This implies a need for a diverse and interdisciplinary approach in the curriculum for urban planning courses. 

Inference (b) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss bureaucracy or the lack of formal training in city administration. Thus, it is beyond the scope of the passage and cannot be a logical or rational inference. 

Inference (c) is incorrect: The passage does not mention the management of urban areas as a local affair or problems of insufficient funds. Thus, it is beyond the scope of the passage and can not be a logical or rational inference. 

Inference (d) is incorrect: While it may be true, in general, high density and poverty make development planning difficult, this aspect is not specified in the passage. Thus, it is beyond the scope of the passage and can not be a logical or rational inference. 

Q12. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. India needs a new generation of urban professionals with knowledge relevant to modern urban practice. 
2. Indian universities at present have no capacity or potential to impart training in systems approach. 

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(a) 

Assumption 1 is valid: The passage implies that there is a need for professionals trained in modern systems approaches to urban planning, understood through the lines “Today if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris……The early universities of the West which began to train professionals in planning…these very subjects were absorbed into the planning curriculum” and 

“Planning in India, and its education differ from the West.” This indicates a gap between current Indian planning education and that of western cities, suggesting a need for updated knowledge in the field. 

Assumption 2 is invalid: The passage does not state that Indian universities do not have the capacity to impart training in the systems approach, but only that their education differs from the West. 

Passage-2 

Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience. When anonymous private entities with high capital can pay for more space for their opinions, they are effectively buying a louder voice. If political discourse in the digital sphere is a matter of outshining one’s opponent till the election is won, then the quality of politics suffers. The focus of social media is restricted to the promotion of content that generates more user engagement, regardless of how inflammatory the content may be. 

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage ? 

1. Constructed as a marketplace of views, social media ensures instant access to information. 
2. Social media are not ideal or moral institutions but the products built by companies to make profits. 
3. Social media have been created to strengthen democracies. 
4. In today’s world, social media are inevitable for well-informed social life. 

Answer:(b) 

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage’s focus is not on the aspect of instant access to information, but rather on the influence of capital in amplifying voices. This is evident from the statement, “When anonymous private entities with high capital can pay for more space for their opinions, they are effectively buying a louder voice.

“Option (b) is correct: The passage highlights that social media platforms are driven by profit motives, leading to prioritization of user engagement and inflammatory content. This is reflected in the lines, “The focus of social media is restricted to the promotion of content that generates more user engagement, regardless of how inflammatory the content may be.” 

Option (c) is incorrect: The passage suggests that social media can jeopardise the quality of political discourse, which contradicts the idea of strengthening democracies. This is indicated in the lines, “If political discourse in the digital sphere is a matter of outshining one’s opponent till the election is won, then the quality of politics suffers.” 

Option (d) is incorrect: The inevitability of social media for well-informed social life is not the focus of the passage. The passage is about the negative impact of social media on political discourse and the prioritization of profit over quality content. 

Q14. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. Internet is not inclusive enough. 
2. Internet can adversely affect the quality of policies in a country.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(c) 

Assumption 1 is valid: The passage implies that the internet is not inclusive enough through the statement, “When anonymous private entities with high capital can pay for more space for their opinions, they are effectively buying a louder voice.” This suggests that the internet favours those with more resources, leading to an exclusionary environment. 

Assumption 2 is valid: The passage clearly states that the internet can negatively impact the quality of politics. This is evident from the line, “If political discourse in the digital sphere is a matter of outshining one’s opponent till the election is won, then the quality of politics suffers,” indicating that the internet can adversely affect the quality of politics. 

Q15. 222³³³ + 333²²² is divisible by which of the following numbers? 

1. 2 and 3 but not 37 

2. 3 and 37 but not 2 

3. 2 and 37 but not 3 

4. 2, 3 and 37 

Answer:(b) 

222³³³ + 333²²² 

= [(222)³]¹¹¹ + [(333)²]¹¹¹ 

= [(2³ × 111³)]¹¹¹ + [(3² × 111²)]¹¹¹ 

= [(8 × 111³)¹¹¹ + [(9 × 111²)]¹¹¹ 

= (111²)¹¹¹ × [{(8 × 111)¹¹¹ + (9)¹¹¹}] 

= 111²²² × [888¹¹¹ + 9¹¹¹] 

= 111 × (111)²²¹ × [888¹¹¹ + 9¹¹¹] 

Now, we know that 111 = 37 × 3. Also, the expression 111²²² × [888¹¹¹ + 9¹¹¹] is definitely odd. Therefore, we can say that the given expression is divisible by 37 and 3, but not 2 

Alternate method: 

Here, we have 2 numbers out of which 333²²² is odd, while 222³³³ is even. 

Now, we know that the sum of an odd and an even number is always an odd number. Therefore, the given expression is not divisible by 2. 

Only option (b) fits the bill. 

Q16. What percent of water must be mixed with honey so as to gain 20% by selling the mixture at the cost price of honey ? 

1. 20% 
2. 10% 
3. 5% 
4. 4% 

Answer:(a) 

Here, gain is 20% = (1/5) 

Let the cost price (CP) of honey be Rs. 1 per gram. So, CP of 100 grams honey will be Rs. 100 

After a gain of 20%, the selling price (SP) will be Rs. 120 

It means 120 grams of mixture is sold. 

So, amount of water mixed = 120 – 100 = 20 grams 

So, the required percent of water = (20/100) × 100 = 20% 

Q17. What is the rightmost digit preceding the zeros in the value of 30³⁰? 

(a) 1 

(b) 3 

(c) 7 

(d) 9 

Answer:(d) 

(30)³⁰ = (10 × 3)³⁰ 

= 3³⁰ × 10³⁰ 

Since, 10³⁰ will result in a 31-digit number with 30 zeros at the end. So, the rightmost digit preceding the zeros will be the unit digit of 3³⁰. 

Now, 330 = 3(28 + 2) = 3(4×7 + 2) 

We know that 3¹ = 3; 3² = 9; 3³ = 27, i.e. unit digit 7; 3⁴ = 81, i.e. unit digit 1; 3⁵ = 3; and so on. So, we can say that after every 4^th power the unit digit will repeat, i.e. 3 has a cyclicity of 4. 

So, the unit digit of 3^{(4×7 + 2)} [which is of the form 3^{(4n + 2)}] must be 9. Hence, the rightmost digit preceding the zeros will be 9. 

Q18. 421 and 427, when divided by the same number, leave the same remainder 1. How many numbers can be used as the divisor in order to get the same remainder 1 ? 

(a) 1 

(b) 2 

(c) 3 

(d) 4 

Answer:(c) 

Here, the numbers are 421 and 427 

When we subtract 421 and 427 by 1, we get 420 and 426. 

Now by taking the prime factors we get: 

420  2×2×3×5×7×1 

426  2×3×71×1 

The common factors among them are 2, 3, and 6 (multiple of 2 and 3). Hence, we can say that 3 numbers can be used as the divisor. 

Q19. A can X contains 399 litres of petrol and a can Y contains 532 litres of diesel. They are to be bottled in bottles of equal size so that whole of petrol and diesel would be separately bottled. The bottle capacity in terms of litres is an integer. How many different bottle sizes are possible? 

(a) 3 

(b) 4 

(c) 5 

(d) 6 

Answer:(b) 

Quantity of petrol contained in X = 399 litre Quantity of diesel contained in Y = 532 litres By taking the factors of 399 and 532 we get: 

399 = 1×3×7×19 

532 = 1×2×2×7×19 

So, the possible bottle sizes are 1 litre, 7 litres, 19 litres and 133 litres. Therefore, the number of possible bottle sizes is 4. 

Q20. Consider the following statements in respect of the sum S = x + y + z, where x, y and z are distinct prime numbers each less than 10 : 

1. The unit digit of S can be 0. 
2. The unit digit of S can be 9. 
3. The unit digit of S can be 5. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer:(c) 

x, y and z are distinct prime numbers less than 10. So, these numbers can be 2, 3, 5, or 7. 

S = x + y + z 

S = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 (1) 

S = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15 (3) 

So, (2,3,5) and (3,5,7) satisfy conditions 1 and 3 respectively. However, statement 2 is not true for these given set of numbers. 

Direction for the following 3 (three) items : 

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage—1 

By the time children reach class 8, the bulk of them tend to be in the age range of 13 years to 15 years. But in our country, about a quarter of all children in class 8 struggle with reading simple texts and more than half are still unable to do basic arithmetic operations like division. Every year about 25 million young boys and girls from elementary school move into the life that lies for them beyond compulsory schooling. They cannot enter the workforce at least in the organized sector till they are 18. For many families, these children are the first from their families ever to get this far in school. Parents and children expect that such ‘graduates’ from school will go on to high school and college. Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture. On the other hand, abilities in terms of academic competencies are far lower than they should be even based on curricular expectations of class 8. 

Q21. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. For effective school education, parents have greater role than the governments. 
2. School curriculum that conforms to today’s requirements and is uniform for the entire country may address the issues brought out. 

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(d) 

Assumption 1 is invalid: The passage does not explicitly discuss the relative roles of parents and the government in school education. It focuses on the educational challenges and expectations faced by children and their families only, as evident in the line “For many families, these children are the first from their families ever to get this far in school. Parents and children expect that such ‘graduates’ from school will go on to high school and college. Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture”. There is no clear indication that parents’ roles are greater than those of the government in addressing these issues. Hence, this assumption is incorrect. 

Assumption 2 is invalid: The passage strictly discusses the lags in basic academic competencies, but does not spell out any reason for the same. Further, it cannot be assumed that a uniform curriculum across the country would address the issue. Therefore, this assumption would go beyond the scope of the passage. 

Q22. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage? 

1. Total eradication of poverty in the country will resolve the issue of under-performance of our school-children. 
2. Monetary incentives to parents and teachers is a strategy to improve the children’s academic performance. 
3. Public policy should ensure that competencies and achievements of young people are aligned with their expectations. 
4. India is not going to take advantage of the demographic dividend unless some school pass- outs go back to agriculture. 

Answer:(c) 

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage nowhere mentions the reason for the fallout of academic competencies. The option however introduces a reason (poverty) for such a fallout, which is beyond the scope of the passage. 

Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss any reason behind the learning gaps of children, hence we cannot infer or assume that monetary incentives would be a solution or strategy to address the academic underperformance of children. The passage highlights the gap between expected competencies and actual abilitiy, without suggesting financial incentives as a remedy. Therefore, this option is beyond the scope of the passage. 

Option (c) is correct: The passage clearly states that “abilities in terms of academic competencies are far lower than they should be even based on curricular expectations of class 8” and that “Parents and children expect that such ‘graduates’ from school will go on to high school and college.” This disconnect between expectations and actual academic abilities suggests a need for policies that bridge this gap, aligning competencies with expectations, which is precisely what option (c) suggests. 

Option (d) is incorrect: The option suggests going back to agriculture as desirable if India wishes to reap the benefits of the demographic dividend (high number of youths/ working population, in comparison to dependent population). 

This option goes against the message conveyed in the passage, which is that “Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture”. The author further links this to the learning gaps, that going back to agriculture might become necessary on account of learning gaps, which would hinder us from achieving the demographic dividend. The following lines bring this meaning out “Parents and children expect that such ‘graduates’ from school will go on to high school and college. Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture. On the other hand, abilities in terms of academic competencies are far lower than they should be even based on curricular expectations of class 8.” 

Passage—2 

We take it for granted now that science has a social responsibility. The idea would not have occurred to Newton or Galileo. They thought of science as an account of the world as it is, and the only responsibility that they acknowledged was to tell the truth. The idea that science is a social enterprise is modern, and it begins at the industrial revolution. We are surprised that we cannot trace a social sense further back, because we nurse the illusion that the industrial revolution ended a golden age. 

Q23. Which one of the following statements best reflects the thinking of the author about the science? 

1. Science must value the commitment of the scientists. 
2. Science is a product of civilized society and must be used for the promotion of scientific awareness in people. 
3. Industrial revolution was made possible by the advancements in science. 
4. Science must pursue truth but be responsible for social welfare. 

Answer:(d) 

Option (a) is incorrect: This statement emphasizes the importance of scientists’ commitment but doesn’t directly address the author’s focus on the social responsibilities of science. It’s more about the personal dedication of scientists rather than the broader social role of science itself. 

Option (b) is incorrect: This statement highlights science as a societal product and discusses promoting scientific awareness. While it may slightly touch upon the social role of science, it does not specifically address the social responsibilities or consequences that the author discusses about the Industrial Revolution and modern views on science. 

Option (c) is incorrect: This statement is factual in that scientific advancements did play a role in enabling the Industrial Revolution. However, the passage does not focus on this causal relationship, but rather on how the concept of science’s social responsibility emerged around the time of the Industrial Revolution. Therefore, this statement, while true, is not directly relevant to the specific point the author is making. 

Option (d) is correct: This statement most accurately reflects the author’s view as outlined in the passage. It captures the dual aspect of science that the author describes: pursuing truth, as in the times of Newton and Galileo, and also being responsible for social welfare, a modern perspective that emerged around the time of the Industrial Revolution. 

Q24. Consider the sequence A_BCD_BBCDABC_DABC_D 

that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence? 

1. B, A, D, C 
2. B, A, C, D 
3. A, A, C, D 
4. A, A, D, C 

Answer:(c) 

Given sequence: A_BCD_BBCDABC_DABC_D The required sequence is: 

A A BCD / A BBCD / ABC C D / ABC D D 

Hence, the missing letters are – A, A, C, D. 

Q25. Two persons P and Q enter into a business. P puts ₹ 14,000 more than Q, but P has invested for 8 months and Q has invested for 10 months. If P’s share is ₹ 400 more than Q’s share out of the total profit of ₹ 2,000, what is the capital contributed by P? 

1. ₹ 30,000 
2. ₹ 26,000 
3. ₹ 24,000 
4. ₹ 20,000 

Answer:(a) 

Let Q invested Rs. X for 10 months and P invested Rs. (X + 14000) for 8 months. Now, in the profit of Rs.2000, P’s share is Rs. 1200 and Q’s share is Rs. 800. 

We know that, the profit is divided in the ratio of contribution. So, {8 × (X + 14000)} / (10X) = 1200/800 

Or 8X + 112000 = 15X Or 7X = 112000 

Or X = Rs. 16000 

Hence, money invested by Q = Rs. 16000 

So, money invested or contributed by P = Rs. 16000 + Rs. 14000 = Rs. 30000 

Q26. P’s salary is 20% lower than Q’s salary which is 20% lower than R’s salary. By how much percent is R’s salary more than P’s salary? 

1. 48.75% 
2. 56.25% 
3. 60.50% 
4. 62.25% 

Answer:(b) 

Let the salary of R be Rs. 100 

Then salary of Q= 80% of Rs. 100 = Rs. 80 And salary of P = 80% of Rs. 80 = Rs. 64 

Required percentage = {(100 – 64)/64} × 100 = (36/64) × 100 = 56.25 % 

Q27. A number is mistakenly divided by 4 instead of multiplying by 4. What is the percentage change in the result due to this mistake? 

1. 25% 
2. 50% 
3. 72.75% 
4. 93.75% 

Answer:(d) 

Let the number be 100. 

After multiplying the number by 4, the number will be 4× 100 = 400 

But by mistake it was divided by 4. The resultant number will be 100/4 = 25 Required percentage change = {(400 – 25)/400} × 100 = (375/400) × 100 = 93.75% .

Q28. In an examination, 80% of students passed in English, 70% of students passed in Hindi and 15% failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students who failed in only one subject? 

1. 15% 
2. 20% 
3. 25% 
4. 35% 

Answer:(b) 

80% of students passed in English means 20% of students failed in English. 70% of students passed in Hindi means 30% of students failed in Hindi. 

We can solve this question by using Venn diagram method: 

Students that failed in only one subject = Students that failed in only English or those that failed in only Hindi = 5 +15 = 20% 

Q29. A father said to his son, “n years back I was as old as you are now. My present age is four times your age n years back”. If the sum of the present ages of the father and the son is 130 years, what is the difference of their ages? 

1. 30 years 
2. 32 years 
3. 34 years 
4. 36 years 

Answer:(a) 

Let the age of father be X and the age of son be Y. According to the question, 

(X – n) = Y 

Or X – Y = n (i) 

And X = 4(Y – n) Or X = 4Y – 4n 

Or (4Y – X)/4 = n (ii) 

From equations (i) and (ii), we get: X – Y = (4Y – X)/4 

Or 4X – 4Y = 4Y – X Or 5X = 8Y 

Or X/Y = 8/5 

Or we can say that, X = 8k and Y = 5k 

Given that, X + Y = 130 Or 8k +5k = 130 

Or 13k = 130 

Or k = 10 

Hence, age of father (X) = 8k = 80 years And age of son (Y) = 5k = 50 years Difference in their ages = 80 – 50 = 30 years 

Q30. Consider the following: 

1. 1000 litres = 1m³ 
2. 1 metric ton = 1000 kg 
3. 1 hectare = 10000 m² 

Which of the above are correct?  

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer:(d) 

We know that: 

1. 1000 litres = 1 m³ 
2. 1 metric ton = 1000 kg 
3. 1 hectare = 10000 m² 

So, all of the given statements are correct. 

Directions for the following 4 (four) Items : 

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage—1 

“The history of science is the real history of mankind.” In this striking epigram, a nineteenth-century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind, and to treat the former has some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war. Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time at men’s convenience. Yet we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by international conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie elsewhere? 

Q31. Which of the following is/are emphatically conveyed by the author of the passage? 

1. Without science, mankind could not have continued to exist till today. 
2. It is the science that will ultimately determine the destiny of mankind. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(d) 

Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage does not explicitly state that mankind’s existence is solely attributed towards science. Though it emphasizes the strong link between science and human history, it does not suggest that humanity’s survival hinges on scientific advancements. Hence it is incorrect. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the passage does discuss the significant impact of science on human history and civilization, it does not claim that science will determine mankind’s destiny. It raises a question about the allegations against the role of science in societal conflicts, indicating that the relationship between science and mankind’s destiny is complex and possibly influenced by other factors. Hence, this statement is also incorrect. 

Q32. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 

1. The horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science. 
2. The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science is what man has made it.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(b) 

Assumption 1 is invalid: The passage questions whether the international conflicts and horrors of modern life are the inevitable results of scientific progress in the lines, “Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie elsewhere?”. Here the author contradicts the assertion that the horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science, suggesting that the real cause lies elsewhere (for example, the direction in which science has progressed). The author is thus questioning rather than affirming the inevitability. 

Assumption 2 is valid: The passage reflects on how science and mankind cannot be divorced at convenience and points out that treating science as an abstract entity separate from human agency is misleading. This supports the assumption that the overlooked truth is that science is indeed shaped by human actions and decisions. It aligns well with the passage’s theme of emphasizing the interconnectedness of science and human agency. 

Passage—2 

Only with long experience and opening of his wares on many a beach where his language is not spoken, will the merchant come to know the worth of what he carries, and what is parochial and what is universal in his choice. Such delicate goods as justice, love and honour, courtesy, and indeed all the things we care for, are valid everywhere but they are variously moulded and often differently handled, and sometimes nearly unrecognizable if you meet them in a foreign land, and the art of learning fundamental common values is perhaps the greatest gain of travel to those who wish to live at ease among their fellows. 

Q33. When we meet other people while we travel, we learn to differentiate between 

1. imagination and understanding 
2. communities and nationalities 
3. Local values and universal values 
4. friends and foes 

Answer:(c) 

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not directly discuss the contrast between imagination and understanding. It focuses more on the realisation of what values are universal versus what are localized, understood better through travel and interaction. Therefore, this option does not directly relate to the distinction made in the passage. 

Option (b) is incorrect: Although the passage mentions encountering various cultures (“on many a beach where his language is not spoken”), it does not focus on differentiating between communities and nationalities. Instead, the passage is about understanding the essence of common values, irrespective of geographical or cultural boundaries. 

Option (c) is correct: This option directly aligns with the passage’s theme: 

Universal values: “Such delicate goods as justice, love and honour, courtesy, and indeed all the things we care for, are valid everywhere 

Local values: “but they are variously moulded and often differently handled, and sometimes nearly unrecognizable if you meet them in a foreign land. 

The passage further mentions, “the art of learning fundamental common values is perhaps the greatest gain of travel to those who wish to live at ease among their fellows.” 

Therefore, recognising the values that are specific to certain areas and those that are globally relevant, the merchant learns “what is parochial and what is universal in his choice”. 

Overall, the passage suggests that travel helps in understanding the universal applicability of certain values despite their local variations, which is precisely what this option states. 

Option (d) is incorrect: There is no mention or implication in the passage about differentiating between friends and foes through travel. The focus is on the values and how they are perceived differently across cultures, not on personal relationships or conflicts. 

Q34. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. Travel leads to an understanding of humans. 
2. Travel helps those who wish to learn fundamental common values. 
3. A person with long experience in travel can resolve differences amongst people.

Which of the assumptions given above are valid? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer:(a) 

Assumption 1 is valid: The passage mentions that through travel, a merchant learns the worth of what he carries, including values like justice, love, and honour. These are related to understanding human values and behaviours across different cultures. Thus, this assumption aligns well with the idea that travel enhances understanding of human values and differences. 

Assumption 2 is valid: The passage explicitly states that “the art of learning fundamental common values is perhaps the greatest gain of travel to those who wish to live at ease among their fellows.” This directly supports the assumption that travel aids in learning universal values. 

Assumption 3 is invalid: This assumption is invalid. While the passage suggests that a well-traveled person becomes knowledgeable about different values and how they are expressed around the world, it does not directly state that this knowledge equips a person to resolve differences among people. It implies a deep understanding but not necessarily the ability to mediate or resolve conflicts.

Q35. Let X be a two-digit number and Y be another two-digit number formed by interchanging the digits of X. If (X + Y) is the greatest two-digit number, then what is the number of possible values of X? 

(a) 2 

(b) 4 

(c) 6 

(d) 8 

Answer:(d) 

Let X = 10a + b and Y = 10b + a (interchanging the digits of X) Greatest two-digit number = 99 

a	b
1	8
2	7
3	6
4	5
5	4
6	3
7	2
8	1

Q36. Consider the following : 

Weight of 6 boys = Weight of 7 girls = Weight of 3 men = Weight of 4 women 

If the average weight of the women is 63 kg, then what is the average weight of the boys? 

1. 40 kg 
2. 42 kg 
3. 45 kg 
4. 63 kg 

Answer:(b) 

Average weight of women = 63 kg. 

So, Total weight of 4 women = 63 x 4 = 252 kg. 

It is given that weight of 6 boys = weight of 4 women So, Total weight of 6 boys = 252 kg. 

So, Average weight of a boy = 252/6 = 42 kg. 

Alternate method: 

LCM of 6 boys, 7 girls, 3 men and 4 women, i.e. 6, 7, 3 and 4 = 84 

So, let Weight of 6 boys = Weight of 7 girls = Weight of 3 men = Weight of 4 women = 84 kg 

So, the Ratio of the Average weights of Boys : Girls : Men : Women = 84/6 : 84/7 : 84/3 : 84/4 

= 14 : 12 : 28 : 21 

= 42 : 36 : 84 : 63 

So, the average age of boys = 42 kg. 

Q37. How many times the hour hand and the minute hand coincide in a clock between 10:00 a.m. and 2.00 p.m. (same day)? 

1. 3 times 
2. 4 times 
3. 5 times 
4. 6 times 

Answer:(a) 

Time frame: 10 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. Hour and minute hands coincide: 

1 time between 10 a.m. and 11:00 a.m. 

1. time between 11 a.m. and 1:00 p.m. 
2. time between 1 p.m. and 2:00 p.m. 

So, hour and minute hands coincide 3 times between 10:00 a.m. and 2.00 p.m. 

Q38. The calendar for the year 2025 is same for 

1. 2029 
2. 2030 
3. 2031 
4. 2033 

Answer:(c) 

Here, we will be calculating the number of odd days from 2025 till the number of odd days become 7, 

i.e. 0. 

Year	Odd days
2025	1
2026	1
2027	1
2028 (Leap year)	2
2029	1
2030	1
Total days	7

So, year 2031 will have the same calendar as that of 2025. 

Alternate method: 

The calendar of a non-leap year repeats after 6 or 11 years. If we observer the options, only 2031 seems suitable. 

Q39. Let p, q, r and s be distinct positive integers. Let p, q be odd and r, s be even. Consider the following statements : 

1. (p-r)²(qs) is even. 
2. (q-s)q²s is even. 
3. (q + r)²(p + s) is odd. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

1. 1 and 2 only 
2. 2 and 3 only 
3. 1 and 3 only 
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Answer:(d) 

p and q are odd numbers. 

Similarly, r and s are even numbers. 

Statement 1: 

(p – r)²(qs) is even, as s is an even number. This statement is correct. 

Statement 2: 

(q – s)q²s is even, as s is an even number. This statement is correct. 

Statement 3: 

(q + r)²(p + s) is odd, as both (q + r) and (p + s) are odd. This statement is correct. 

Q40. What is the angle between the minute hand and hour hand when the clock shows 4:25 hours? 

1. 12.5° 
2. 15° 
3. 17.5° 
4. 20° 

Answer:(c) 

Time = 4 : 25 

Minute hand moves 6^o per minute. 

So, Angle traced by minutes hand in 25 minutes = 25 × 6^o = 150^o 

The hour hand moves half a degree in one minute. 

So, angle traced by hour hand at 4 hours and 25 minutes, i.e. 265 minutes = 265 × 0.5 ^o = 132.5^o Thus, the angle between two hands at 4 : 25 = 150^o – 132.5^o = 17.5^o 

Directions for the following 4 (four) items : 

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage-1 

Conventional classrooms, by emphasizing fixed duration over learning effectiveness, resign themselves to variable outcomes. The tyranny of the classroom is that every learner is subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration. In the end, a few learners shine, some survive, and the rest are left behind. After the fixed duration, the classroom model moves on, with not a thought spared for those left behind. This is how we end up with 10 percent employability in our graduates after a decade and half of formal education. Repeating the same ineffectual script in the realm of skill education will not produce different results. 

Q41. Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? 

1. In conventional classroom learning, the central goal is duration of learning rather than attainment of competency. 
2. Conventional classrooms encourage one-size-fits-all approach and stamp out all differentiation. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(c) 

Inference 1 is correct: The passage revolves around the issue of a one-size-fits-all approach in the form of fixed class durations and the same set of lectures for all. We can infer this from the lines, “Conventional classrooms, by emphasizing fixed duration over learning effectiveness” and “every learner is subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration. In the end, a few learners shine, some survive, and the rest are left behind. After the fixed duration, the classroom model 

moves on, with not a thought spared for those left behind. This is how we end up with 10 percent employability in our graduates after a decade and half of formal education.” 

Inference 2 is correct: The passage mentions, “Conventional classrooms….The tyranny of the classroom is that every learner is subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration”. Though an extreme phrase is used in “stamp out all differentiation”, the spirit of the inference can be understood to be correct in the context of the passage. 

Q42. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. As a large number of workers in our country are employed in unorganized sector, India does not need to change its present conventional classroom system of education. 
2. Even with its present conventional classroom system of education, India produces sufficient number of skilled workers to fully realize the benefits of demographic dividend. 

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(d) 

Inference 1 is incorrect: Consider the lines of the passage, “Conventional classrooms, by emphasizing fixed duration over learning effectiveness, resign themselves to variable outcomes. The tyranny of the classroom is that every learner is subjected to the same set of…the classroom model moves on, with not a thought spared for those left behind. This is how we end up with 10 per cent employability in our graduates after a decade and a half of formal education.” 

The author therefore criticizes the conventional classroom system for emphasizing fixed duration over learning effectiveness and highlights the poor employability outcome of graduates. It suggests that the current system leaves many students behind. Therefore, the author advocates a need for change in the education system, which will promote employability, rather than being comfortable with large unorganised sector employment. 

Inference 2 is incorrect: The passage suggests the opposite of this inference, explaining the issues with the conventional education systems and linking them to poor employability or lack of realisation of our demographic dividend. In this respect, consider the lines, “This is how we end up with 10 per cent employability in our graduates after a decade and a half of formal education. Repeating the same ineffectual script in the realm of skill education will not produce different results” 

Passage-2 

When a child reaches adolescence, there is apt to be a conflict between the parents and the child, since the latter considers himself to be by now quite capable of managing his own affairs, while the former are filled with parental solicitude, which is often a disguise for love of power. Parents consider, usually, that the various moral problems which arise in adolescence are peculiarly their province. The options they express, however, are so dogmatic that the young seldom confide in them, and usually go their own way in secret. 

Q43. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. The adolescent does not feel comfortable with his parents because they tend to be dominating and assertive. 
2. The adolescent of modern times does not have much respect for parents.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(a) 

Assumption 1 is valid: The passage mentions that parents’ “parental solicitude” often disguises a “love of power” and that their opinions are “so dogmatic that the young seldom confide in them.” This suggests that parents are perceived as dominating and assertive, making adolescents uncomfortable. 

Assumption 2 is not valid: The author does discuss the behaviour and dynamics between adolescents and parents, highlighting secrecy and lack of confiding of adolescents in their parents due to the latter’s dogmatic behaviour. However, there is not enough evidence in the passage to suggest a lack of respect in the adolescents for their parents. 

Q44. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage? 

1. Parents in general may not be of much help when children are on their way to becoming adults. 
2. When children reach adolescence, involvement of parents in their lives is unnecessary. 
3. Modern-day nuclear families are not capable of bringing up children properly. 
4. In modern societies, adolescents tend to be stubborn, disobedient and careless. 

Answer:(a) 

Option (a) is correct: This statement best reflects the central idea of the passage that parents’ attempts to control and guide adolescents can be counterproductive, as it leads to conflict and secrecy. Consider the lines of the passage, “When a child reaches adolescence, there is apt to be a conflict between the parents and the child”, “young seldom confide in them, and usually go their own way in secret.” This indicates the lack of power of parents to control young adolescents. This option fits in as the best answer. 

Option (b) is incorrect: The statement is too absolute. The passage critiques the nature of parental involvement but does not mention or indicate all parental involvement to be unnecessary. 

Option (c) is incorrect: This statement is extreme and not supported by the passage. The passage is quite general and makes no mention or specification of modern nuclear or any particular type of family structure where this pattern is observed. 

Option (d) is incorrect: The passage nowhere mentions adolescents to be stubborn, disobedient and careless. It only suggests that adolescents consider themselves to be capable of managing their affairs. In fact, the passage suggests parents disguise power under the claim of love and calls them to be dogmatic, instead of blaming the adolescents. 

The passage describes the behaviour of secrecy as a reaction to their parents’ attitudes, rather than inherently labelling them as stubborn, disobedient, and careless. 

Q45. What is the number of fives used in numbering a 260-page book? 

(a) 55 

(b) 56 

(c) 57 

(d) 60 

Answer:(b) 

From 1 to 100, 5 comes 20 times. 

Similarly, from 101 to 200, 5 comes 20 times. 

Similarly, from 201 to 300, 5 comes 20 times. 

So, we just need to check the numbers after 260. Such numbers having 5 are 265, 275, 285, 295 i.e. 4 numbers. 

So, the number of 5’s used from 1 to 260 = (20 + 20 + 20) – 4 = 56 

Q46. What is the sum of the first 28 terms in the following sequence? 1, 1, 2, 1, 3, 2, 1, 4, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 2,…… 

(a) 83 

(b) 84 

(c) 85 

(d) 86 

Answer:(b) 

Series with 28 terms: 1 + 1 + 2, 1 + 3,2,1 + 4,3,2,1 + 5,4,3,2,1 + 6,5,4,3,2,1 + 7,6,5,4,3,2 

Their sum = 84 

Q47. A person buys three articles P, Q and R for ₹ 3,330. If P costs 25% more than R and R costs 20% more than Q, then what is the cost of P? 

1. ₹ 1,000 
2. ₹ 1,200 
3. ₹ 1,250 
4. ₹ 1,350 

Answer:(d) 

Let Q = 100, then R = 120% of 100 = 120 & P =125% of 120 = 150 So, P:Q:R = 15:10:12 

Now, 15 + 10 + 12 = 37 units = Rs. 3330 

Or 1 unit = Rs. 90 

So, P = 15 units = 15 × 90 = Rs. 1350 

Q48. If the sum of the two-digit numbers AB and CD is the three-digit number 1CE, where the letters A, B, C, D, E denote distinct digits, then what is the value of A? 

(a) 9 

(b) 8 

(c) 7 

(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data 

Answer:(a) 

Case 1: There’s no carry over from B+D 

A + C = 1C 

Or A + C = 10 + C 

Or A = 10 (not possible) 

Case 2: There’s carry over 1 from B+D 

A + C + 1 = 1C 

Or A + C + 1 = 10 + C Or A = 9 

Q49. Three numbers x, y, z are selected from the set of the first seven natural numbers such that x > 2y > 3z. How many such distinct triplets (x, y, z) are possible? 

1. One triplet 
2. Two triplets 
3. Three triplets 
4. Four triplets 

Answer:(d) 

4 triplets satisfying the given conditions are: (5,2,1), (6,2,1), (7,2,1) and (7,3,1) 

Q50. The total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes and 8 apples is equal to twice the total cost of 1 orange, 2 mangoes and 5 apples. Consider the following statements: 

1. The total cost of 3 oranges, 5 mangoes and 9 apples is equal to the total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes and 8 apples. 
2. The total cost of one orange and one mango is equal to the cost of one apple.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(c) 

Let the costs of oranges, mangoes and apples be Q, M and A. 4Q + 6M + 8A = 2(Q + 2M + 5A) 

Or 4Q + 6M + 8A = 2Q + 4M + 10A Or 2Q + 2M = 2A 

Or Q + M = A 

Statement 1: 

3Q + 5M + 9A = 4Q + 6M + 8A Or A = Q + M 

It is true. 

Statement 2: 

Q + M = A 

It is true. 

Hence, both statements 1 & 2 are true. 

Directions for the following 3 (three) items : 

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage-1 

When an international team of pumped a carbon dioxide and water mix into underground basalt rocks, basic chemistry took over. The acidic mixture dissolved rocks’ calcium and magnesium and formed limestone Basically carbon dioxide is converted into stone, exclaimed the scientists. 

Q51. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage? 

1. It is a cheap and practical method to produce limestone at commercial level for building purposes. 
2. This can be used as one of the methods of carbon sequestration. 
3. Basalt rock can be made a good source of calcium and magnesium minerals by this method. 
4. Good rock-dissolving acid can be produced by mixing carbon dioxide and water. 

Answer:(b) 

The passage describes how an international team injected a mixture of carbon dioxide and water into underground basalt rocks. The resulting chemical reaction dissolved the rocks’ calcium and magnesium, forming limestone. 

Option (a) is not correct: This option is not supported by the passage. The passage focuses on the chemical process and the transformation of carbon dioxide into stone. It nowhere mentions the cost factor or feasibility of carrying out the process at a commercial scale. 

Option (b) correct: This option is the best answer as it is supported by the passage. The process described involves converting carbon dioxide into limestone, which implies a method for carbon sequestration (which is the capturing and storing of atmospheric carbon dioxide). The scientists noted that carbon dioxide was effectively converted into stone. 

Option (c) is not correct: The passage mentions that the acidic mixture of carbon dioxide and water dissolved basaltic rocks’ calcium and magnesium, and thereafter goes on to mention the formation of limestone, rather than the extraction of these minerals from such rocks. Therefore, the focus of the passage is on limestone formation rather than the extraction of calcium and magnesium from such rocks. 

Option (d) is not correct: This option is not supported by the passage. There is a lack of concrete or suggestive evidence to conclude that “good” rock-dissolving acid can be produced in terms of quality or quantity. 

Further, the focus of the passage is on the result (limestone formation). 

Passage-2 

Geographers analyzed 175 satellite images of ocean colour, which is an indicator of Phytoplankton productivity at the ocean’s surface, and found that giant icebergs are responsible for storing up to 20 percent of carbon in the Southern Ocean. The researchers discovered that melting water from giant icebergs which contains iron and other nutrients, supports hitherto unexpectedly high levels of phytoplankton growth. 

Q52. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. Giant icebergs have a bearing on primary productivity and food chains of the Southern Ocean. 
2. Melting of giant icebergs can produce climate change effects and impact world fisheries.

Which of the assumptions given above is/ are valid? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(a*) 

Assumption 1 is valid: The passage states that the melting water from giant icebergs contains nutrients that support high levels of phytoplankton growth. It is common knowledge that phytoplankton are found in ocean and form a crucial part of the ocean’s primary productivity as they are consumed by fish, thus forming the base of the marine food chain. Therefore, it is safe to extend our understanding of the lines of the passage to the impact on primary productivity and food chains of the Southern Ocean. Furthermore, the option statement uses accommodative words such as ‘bearing’, which forms the base for a valid assumption. 

*However, there is a possibility that this assumption be taken as invalid: The passage primarily focuses on the impact of giant icebergs on phytoplankton productivity and carbon storage, without explicitly connecting these effects to the broader food chain. While it is logical to infer that phytoplankton growth influences the food chain, the passage does not explicitly make this connection. 

Assumption 2 is not valid: While the passage mentions that giant icebergs store carbon and support phytoplankton growth, it does not explicitly discuss the broader climate change effects or the impact on world fisheries. Although it is plausible that changes in primary productivity in the Southern Ocean could have wider implications, this is not properly covered in the passage (to consider this assumption to be valid). Furthermore, the passage mentions the Southern Ocean, whereas the option mentions and extends the assumption to world fisheries. The connection between the two is again not established in the passage. 

Passage-3 

Evolution has endowed caterpillars that feed on corn with a unique ability, they can induce the plant to turn off its defence against insect predators. This helps caterpillars to eat more and grow faster. The agent that causes this effect is the caterpillar’s faeces or frass. The find could throw new light on compounds associated with plant response to pathogens like fungi or bacteria. 

Q53. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational and practical message conveyed by the passage? 

1. Farmers can use caterpillars to feed on weeds in their crop fields/plantations. 
2. This finding can help in the development of clinically useful antimicrobial compounds. 
3. This finding can help in the development of organic, ecologically sustainable pesticides. 
4. Caterpillars can be genetically modified to be predators of the other plant pests. 

Answer:(c) 

The main theme of this passage lies in the (first and) last line of the passage “caterpillars’ unique ability can induce the plant to turn off its defence against insect predators…. The find could throw new light on compounds associated with plant response to pathogens like fungi or bacteria.”. 

Please note, in this question, all the options pertain to an inference from the central idea, rather than the central idea in itself. 

Option (a) is not correct: This option is not supported by the passage. The passage discusses the caterpillars feeding on corn, not weeds, and does not suggest using them for weed control. 

Option (b) is not correct: The passage mentions, “unique ability..can induce the plant to turn off its defence against insect predators”, “plant response to pathogens”. Therefore, the focus is on compounds that are specific to plants. This is best reflected in Option (c), rather than (b). 

Option (c) is correct: This option aligns well with the passage. The ability of caterpillars to turn off plant defences using their frass suggests the potential for developing new types of pesticides that could be organic and ecologically sustainable. This is a logical and practical application of the finding. 

Option (d) is not correct: This is a far-fetched option. The passage does not discuss genetic modification. 

Q54. 32⁵ + 2²⁷ is divisible by 

(a) 3 

(b) 7 

(c) 10 

(d) 11 

Answer:(c) 

32⁵ + 2²⁷ = (2⁵)⁵ + 2²⁷ (∵ (𝑎^𝑚)^𝑛 = 𝑎^𝑚𝑛) 

= 225 + 227 

= 2²⁵(1 + 2²) 

= 2²⁵ × 5 

= 224+1 × 5 

= 2²⁴ × 2¹ × 5 (∵ 𝑎^𝑚+𝑛 = 𝑎^𝑚 × 𝑎^𝑛) 

= 2²⁴ × 10 

Thus, 32⁵ + 2²⁷ is completely divisible by 10. 

Q55. Let p and q be positive integers satisfying p<q and p+q=k. What is the smallest value of k that does not determine p and q uniquely? 

(a) 3 

(b) 4 

(c) 5 

(d) 6 

Answer:(c) 

it is given that p and q are positive integers, such that p<q. p + q = k 

Case 1: If k = 3 

p + q = 3 1 + 2 = 3 

Here, p and q have unique values. Hence, this is discarded. 

Case 2: If k = 4 

p + q = 4 1 + 3 = 4 

Here, p and q have unique values. Hence, this is discarded. 

Case 3: If k = 5 

p + q = 5 

1 + 4 = 5 

2 + 3 = 5 

Thus, here p can be 1 or 2 and q can be 4 or 3. So, here p and q have multiple possible values. 

Q56. A person walks 100 m straight from his house, turns left and walks 100 m, again turns left and walks 300 m, then turns right and walks 100 m to reach his office. In which direction does he walk initially from his house if his office is exactly in the North-East direction? 

1. North-West 
2. West 
3. South 
4. South-West 

Answer:(c) 

Suppose the person was walking initially in the north direction. Then according to the information provided in the question, we can draw the following diagram tracing the path taken by him. 

According to the question, his office should be in N-E direction from his house. But it is in S-W direction in our diagram. This means that we need to rotate our diagram by 180° either in clockwise or in anti-clockwise direction. This implies that the North direction in our diagram will end up becoming the South direction. 

Q57. A person walks 100 m Westward, then turns left and walks 100 m. He then takes 225⁰ turn clockwise. In which direction is he walking now? 

1. South-West 
2. South-East 
3. North-West 
4. North-East 

Answer:(d) 

As per the information provided in the question, we can draw the following diagram. 

Thus, his final direction will be the North-East. 

Q58. A Statement is given followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Consider the Statement and the Conclusions. 

Statement : 

India is the world’s largest producer of milk. Conclusion-I: 

India is the world’s largest exporter of milk. Conclusion-II: 

India does not import milk. 

Which one of the following is correct? 

1. Only Conclusion-I follows 
2. Only Conclusion-II follows 
3. Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II follow 
4. Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II follows 

Answer:(d) 

Here, the statement says that India is the world’s largest producer of milk. However, we don’t know anything about the consumption/demand of milk in India. 

If domestic demand > production, it would mean that India will have to import milk. 

Even if domestic demand < production, and India gets to export the surplus milk, we cannot say that it would definitely be the largest exporter. That’s because how much milk India gets to export will depend on the difference between the milk production and milk consumption in India. 

Thus, none of the conclusions is correct. 

Q59. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Questions and the Statements. 

Question : 

What are the values of m and n, where m and n are natural numbers? Statement-I : 

m + n > mn and m > n. Statement-II : 

The product of m and n is 24. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(c) 

We have to find the unique values of m and n, wherein m and n are natural numbers. 

Using statement-I alone: 

m + n > mn and m>n Possible cases are: 

2 + 1 = 3 > 2 x 1 

3 + 1 = 4 > 3 x 1 

4 + 1 = 5 > 4 x 1 

5 + 1 = 6 > 5 x 1 

….and so on. 

It gives multiple values of m and n. However, the solution must be unique. Hence, this statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 

Using statement-II alone: 

mn = 24 

Possible cases are: 

1 x 24 = 24 

2 x 12 = 24 

3 x 8 = 24 

4 x 6 = 24 

It also gives multiple values of m and n. Hence, this statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 

On combining statement-I and statement-II: 

24 + 1 = 25 > 24 

So, we get unique values of m and n. We need both the statements together to answer the question. 

Q60. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Questions and the Statements. 

Question : 

What is the time required to download the software? Statement-I : 

The size of the software is 12 megabytes. Statement-II : 

The transfer rate is 2.4 kilobytes per second. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(c) 

We cannot solve this question using either statement alone. 

On combining both the statements, we can solve the question. Time = Distance / Speed = 12000/2.4 (as 1 megabyte = 1000 kilobytes) = 5000 seconds. 

Directions for the following 3 (three) items : 

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage-1 

In a robust democracy, reality, howsoever inconvenient it may be, finds its expression both in the speech of political leaders and the other social forms of assertion. The existence of the real has to be transparent, both through its circulation in and by the media as well as its argumentative articulation in deliberative democracy. A normatively responsible media through its communication effect has the responsibility to circulate the content of reality without distortion. 

Q61. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage? 

1. Responsible media should not distort the real in an ideal democracy. 
2. Fake news seems inherent in the life of an ideal democracy. 
3. There should not be any kind of restrictions on the freedom of expression in an ideal democracy. 
4. Irresponsible media and political leaders cannot be effectively controlled in an ideal democracy. 

Answer:(a) 

Option (a) is correct: The passage throughout discusses the importance of a responsible and transparent media. As per the passage “A normatively responsible media through its communication effect has the responsibility to circulate the content of reality without distortion.” Therefore, this option captures the essence of the passage well. 

Option (b) is incorrect: This statement contradicts the passage, which emphasizes the need for responsible media to avoid distortion, implying that fake news is not desirable or inherent in an ideal democracy. Further, there is no mention of fake news per se, so it goes beyond the scope of the passage as well. 

Option (c) is incorrect: While the passage does discuss freedom of expression, its focus is more on the accuracy and responsibility of the media in conveying reality, rather than on the absence of restrictions. 

Option (d) is incorrect: The statement goes against the arguments made in the passage. Consider the lines, “In a robust democracy….A normatively responsible media through its communication effect has the responsibility to circulate the content of reality without distortion.” Therefore, contrary to what is suggested in this option, the passage makes a clear case for responsible media in an ideal democracy, from which we can infer that this is not an impossible scenario. 

Passage – 2 

Now-a-days there is a growing trend to use interconnected home devices. As consumers increasingly network their homes, the connected home device manufacturers and service providers will seek to overcome “thin profit margins by gathering more of our personal data-with or without our agreement- turning the home into a corporate storefront”. Corporate marketers will have powerful incentives to observe consumer behaviour to understand the buying needs and preferences of the device owners. 

Q62. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message implied by the passage? 

1. Knowledge of consumer behaviour leads to more capital expenditure in manufacturing sector. 
2. Knowledge of consumer behaviour stimulates the growth of commerce and trade and thus helps in the overall economic development of the country. 
3. Interconnected devices give a lot of comfort to home users and improve the overall quality of life. 
4. Interconnected devices can be at security risk and home users may have privacy risk. 

Answer:(d) 

Option (a) is incorrect: This statement does not directly address the main concerns of the passage, which are about data collection and privacy, rather than capital expenditure in manufacturing. 

Option (b) is incorrect: While it is true that knowledge of consumer behaviour stimulates the growth of commerce, the passage does not connect this to economic development or make any mention of it. Therefore, it is beyond the scope of the passage. 

Option (c) is incorrect: Although interconnected devices might provide comfort, this statement overlooks the passage’s emphasis on privacy risks and data misuse. 

Option (d) is correct: Amongst the given options, this statement best addresses the most logical, rational and practical message implied by the passage, i.e. the privacy and security risks associated with interconnected home devices. 

Passage -3 

Green growth involves rethinking growth strategies with regard to the impacts on environmental sustainability and the environmental resources available to poor and vulnerable groups. In rethinking growth, we need to focus on the current reality of a resource-constrained world. Resource intensive and, in particular energy intensive processes will need to make way for more efficient and resource frugal development strategies if we are to avoid an economic dead end or a world in which only a small elite is able to enjoy affluence in the midst of a sea of poverty. 

Q63. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage? 

1. Environmental sustainability is inimical to our objective of achieving a high rate of GDP growth. 
2. Poverty eradication is not possible without a rapid economic growth and the consequent environmental degradation. 
3. Maintaining high environmental standards is now a prerequisite for achieving a steady, sufficient and inclusive growth. 
4. With large populations, rampant poverty and limited resources of today’s world, environmental degradation cannot be prevented and inequalities are inevitable. 

Answer:(c) 

Option (a) is incorrect: This statement is not supported by the passage. The passage suggests that environmental sustainability and economic growth should be pursued together through green growth strategies, and not that they are opposed to each other. 

Option (b) is incorrect: The passage, on the contrary, suggests that sustainable development strategies will help avoid an economic dead end and ensure inclusive growth. 

Option (c) is correct: As per the passage “Resource-intensive and, in particular, energy-intensive processes will need to make way for more efficient and resource frugal development strategies if we are to avoid an economic dead end or a world in which only a small elite is able to enjoy affluence in the midst of a sea of poverty.” This option therefore aligns well with the theme of the passage, which emphasizes the need for environmentally sustainable growth strategies to achieve inclusive growth and avoid economic and social disparities. 

Option (d) is incorrect: This statement is more pessimistic than the passage. The passage advocates for rethinking growth strategies to achieve environmental sustainability and inclusiveness. We cannot infer from any line that degradation and inequality are inevitable. For instance, “Resource intensive and, in particular energy intensive processes will need to make way for more efficient and resource frugal development strategies if we are to avoid an economic dead end or a world in which only a small elite is able to enjoy affluence in the midst of a sea of poverty.” It therefore suggests that extreme environmental and economic outcomes are avoidable. 

Q64. A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. 

Question : 

What are the unique values of x and y, where x, y are distinct natural numbers? Statement-I : x/y is odd. 

Statement-II : xy = 12 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(c) 

Given that, x and y are distinct natural numbers. 

Using statement-I alone: 

x/y = odd 3/1 = 3 

6/2 = 3 …..and so on. 

This statement alone is not sufficient, as so many possibilities are there. 

Using statement-II alone: 

xy = 12 

The values of x and y may be 12 & 1, 4 & 3, or 6 & 2. So, this statement alone is also not sufficient. 

On combining statement-I and statement-II: 

12/1 = 12, which is not odd. 4/3 is a fraction. 

Now, 6/2 = 3, which is an odd number. 

Hence, unique values of x and y are 6 and 2 respectively. 

Hence, the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone. 

Q65. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. 

A certain amount was distributed among X, Y and Z. Question : 

Who received the least amount? Statement-I : 

X received 4/5 of what Y and Z together received. Statement-II: 

Y received 2/7 of what X and Z together received. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(c) 

Given that, a certain amount has been distributed among X, Y and Z. 

Using statement-I alone: 

X = (4/5) (Y + Z) 

Or 5X = 4Y + 4Z (i) 

Using statement-II alone: 

Y = (2/7) (X + Z) 

Or 7Y= 2X + 2Z (ii) 

Or 14Y= 4X + 4Z (ii) 

On combining statement-I and statement-II: 

From equations (i) and (iii), we get: 

9X = 18Y 

Or X = 2Y (iv) 

So, X > Y 

Putting the value of X in equation (ii), we get: 

7Y = 4Y + 2Z Or 3Y = 2Z 

Or Z = 1.5 Y (v) 

So, Z > Y 

From equations (iv) and (v), we can say that value of Y is the least. Hence, Y received the least amount. 

Hence, the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone. 

Alternate method: 

Using statement-I alone: 

X = (4/5) (Y + Z) Or X / (Y + Z) = 4/5 

Or X = 4k and (Y + Z) = 5k ………(i) 

Using statement-II alone: 

Y = (2/7) (X + Z) Or Y / (X + Z) = 2/7 

Or Y = 2k and (X + Z) = 7k (ii) 

On combining statement-I and statement-II: 

From equations (i) and (ii), we get: 

Y + Z = 5k 

Or 2k + Z = 5K Or Z = 3K 

So, we get X = 4k, Y = 2k and Z = 3k Or X : Y : Z = 4 : 2 : 3 

By seeing this ratio, we can say that Y received the least amount. 

Hence, the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone. 

Q66. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. 

Question : 

If the average marks in a class are 60, them what is the number of students in the class? Statement-I : 

The highest marks in the class are 70 and the lowest marks are 50. Statement-II : 

Exclusion of highest and lowest marks from the class does not change the average. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(d) 

Given that the average marks in a class are 60. 

Using statement-I alone: 

The highest marks in the class are 70 and lowest marks are 50. 

This statement is not sufficient, as the strength of the class can be anything. 

Using statement-II alone: 

Exclusion of highest and lowest marks from the class doesn’t change the average. 

This statement is also not sufficient, as we don’t get any information regarding the strength of the class. 

This question cannot be answered even by using both the statement together. 

Q67. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. 

There are three distinct prime numbers whose sum is a prime number. Question : 

What are those three numbers? Statement-I : Their sum is less than 23. Statement-II : One of the numbers is 5. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(a) 

Given that there are three distinct prime numbers whose sum is a prime number. 

Using statement-I alone: 

Their sum is less than 23. 

Only one triplet of prime numbers satisfies this condition: (3, 5, 11). (3 + 5 + 11 = 19 < 23) Hence, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. 

Using statement-II alone: 

One of the numbers is 5. 

5 + 7 + 11 = 23 (a prime number) 

5 + 11 + 13 = 29 (a prime number) 

Using this statement alone, we cannot obtain a unique set of prime numbers. 

Hence, the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone. 

Q68. A Question if given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. 

Question : Is (x+y) an integer? Statement-I : (2x+y) is an integer. Statement-II : (x+2y) is an integer. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(d) 

Using statement-I alone: 2x + y is an integer. If x = 1.5 and y = 2, then: 

2x + y = 3 + 2 = 5, which is an integer. 

But, x + y = 1.5 + 2 = 3.5, which is not an integer. 

If x = 1 and y = 2, then: 

2x + y = 2 + 2 = 4, which is an integer. Also, x + y = 1 + 2 = 3, which is an integer. 

So, with the help of statement –I alone, we cannot say that x+y is an integer or not. 

Using statement-II alone: x + 2y is an integer. If y = 1.5 and x = 2, then: 

x + 2y = 2 + 3 = 5, which is an integer. 

But, x + y = 2 + 1.5 = 3.5, which is not an integer. If x = 1 and y = 2, then: 

x + 2y = 1 + 4 = 5, which is an integer. Also, x + y = 1 + 2 = 3, which is an integer. 

So, with the help of statement –II alone, we cannot say that x+y is an integer or not. 

On combining statement-I and statement-II: 

2x + y is an integer. Also, x + 2y is an integer. 

But even if it’s true, x+y may be an integer or not. Let’s illustrate with an example. If x = 1.33 and y = 2.33, then: 

x + 2y = 1.33 + 4.67 = 6, which is an integer. 2x + y = 2.66 + 2.33 = 5, which is an integer. 

But, x + y = 1.33 + 2.33 = 3.66, which is not an integer. 

So, even after combining both of the statements, we cannot say that x+y is an integer or not. 

Q69. A Question is given followed by two Statement I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. 

A person buys three articles p, q and r for ₹50. The price of the article q is ₹16 which is the least. 

Question : 

What is the price of the article p? Statement-I : 

The cost of p is not more than that of r. Statement-II : 

The cost of r is not more than that of p. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(c) 

p + r + q = Rs. 50, wherein q = Rs. 16 So, p + r = 50 – 16 

Or p + r = 34 (i) 

Also, it is given that the price of q is the least. 

Using statement-I alone: 

p ≤ r 

It alone is not sufficient. 

Using statement-II alone: 

r ≤ p 

It alone is not sufficient. 

On combining statement-I and statement-II: 

We can say that p = r. 

Therefore, from equation (i), we get: 

p + r = 34 

Or p = r = 17 

Therefore, the price of the article p = Rs. 17 

Hence, the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone. 

Q70. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. 

P, Q, R and S appeared in a test. Question : 

Has P scored more marks than Q ? Statement-I : 

The sum of the marks scored by P and Q is equal to the sum of the marks scored by R and S. Statement-II : 

The sum of the marks scored by P and S is more than the sum of the marks scored by Q and R. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(d) 

Using statement-I alone: 

P + Q = R + S ….…(i) 

So, from statement –I alone we cannot say that P scored more than Q or not. 

Using statement-II alone: 

(P + S) > (Q + R) (ii) 

So, from statement –II alone also, we cannot say that P scored more than Q or not. 

And even after combining both the statements, we cannot definitely say that P scored more that Q or not. Therefore, this question cannot be answered even by using both of the statements together. 

Directions for the following 2 (two) items : 

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. 

Passage-1 

Unlike religion and science, poetry does not posit or expect any belief in absolute truths. Those forces or individuals who claim to have absolute truths in their grasp tend to turn dictatorial and tyrannical. Truth usually does not admit any contradictions or imperfections. It is unitarian. It is, therefore, not of much use for poetry. Poetry abides by the plurality of life and existence. Perhaps poetry follows reality which is plural, anachronistic, full of contradictions. Against the tyranny of truth, poetry remains a partisan of democratic reality. Against the arrogance of power, wealth and hierarchy, poetry proposes both humility and defiance. 

Q71. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the above passage? 

1. It is the poetry, not science or religion, which recognizes and accepts imperfections in humans. 
2. Truth is revealed through science or religion and poetry is anathema to truth. 
3. Poetry is romantic, imaginary and is about feeling whereas science and religion are about truth. 
4. In a world of violence, tyranny and bigotry, poetry is a form of dynamic resistance. 

Answer:(a*) 

Option (a) is Correct: This statement best reflects the logical and rational message conveyed by the passage. The passage mentions that “poetry does not posit or expect any belief in absolute truths” and that it “abides by the plurality of life and existence.” This implies that poetry, unlike science or religion, which often seek absolute truths, recognizes and accepts the imperfections and contradictions inherent in humans. 

Option (b) is incorrect: While the passage discusses how poetry does not deal with absolute truths, it does not suggest that poetry is an anathema to truth. Instead, it indicates that poetry operates within a different paradigm that values plurality and contradictions. 

Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not emphasize poetry as merely romantic or imaginary. It focuses on the role of poetry in recognizing the plurality and contradictions of life, rather than categorizing it as purely about feelings. 

Option (d) is incorrect: Although the passage does state that “poetry remains a partisan of democratic reality” and “proposes both humility and defiance,” the primary message is about poetry’s acceptance of imperfections and contradictions, rather than framing it explicitly as dynamic resistance. Further, the passage does not mention violence, so it goes beyond the scope of the passage as well. 

There is a possibility for Option (d) to be correct:* The passage mentions “forces or individuals who claim to have absolute truths in their grasp tend to turn dictatorial and tyrannical” and “Against the tyranny of truth, poetry remains a partisan of democratic reality. Against the arrogance of power, wealth and hierarchy, poetry proposes both humility and defiance.” Therefore, it can be concluded that in a world of violence, tyranny and bigotry, poetry is a form of dynamic resistance. 

Passage-2 

The flower was not invented to please us. It flaunted its petals and spread its perfume to attract an insect. The insect carries the pollen from flower to flower so that pollen is not carried away by wind and thus not wasted. What we call a flower’s beauty is merely a by-product and a human invention. The perfume is not there to please us, it pleases us because it is there and we have been conditioned to it. 

Q72. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 

1. The author of the passage believes that flowers are creations of Nature’s luxury. 
2. The author of the passage does not believe in the usefulness of flowers except as things of beauty. 

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(d) 

Assumption 1 is invalid: The passage does not suggest that flowers are creations of Nature’s luxury. It emphasizes the functional role of flowers in attracting insects for pollination. The passage states, “The flower was not invented to please us. It flaunted its petals and spread its perfume to attract an insect.” This indicates that flowers have a practical purpose rather than being luxurious creations. 

Assumption 2 is invalid: The author believes flowers to have functional utility, rather than being things of beauty. S/he highlights the practical role of flowers in pollination: “The insect carries the pollen from flower to flower so that pollen is not carried away by wind and thus not wasted.” This demonstrates the author’s recognition of the usefulness of flowers beyond their beauty. 

Q73. Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. 

Age of each of P and Q is less than 100 years but more than 10 years. If you interchange the digits of the age of P, the number represents the age of Q. 

Question : 

What is the difference of their ages? Statement-I : 

The age of P is greater than the age of Q. Statement-II : 

The sum of their ages is 11/6 times their difference. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements? 

1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone 
2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone 
3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone 
4. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together 

Answer:(a) 

It is given that age of P and Q is less than 100 but more than 10. That is, both P and Q are two-digit numbers. 

So, 10 < P, Q < 100 

Also, let P = xy, then Q = yx  

Using statement-I alone: 

P > Q 

There are various possibilities: 

81 > 18 

72 > 27 …. and so on. It alone is not sufficient. 

Using statement-II alone: 

P + Q = (11/6) (P – Q) 

Or 10x + y + 10y + x = (11/6) (10x + y – 10y – x) Or 11(x + y) = (11/6) (9x – 9y) 

Or 6(x + y) = 9 (x – y) Or 2x + 2y = 3x – 3y Or x = 5y 

As, x and y must be one-digit numbers, y must be 1 and x therefore must be 5. So, P = 51 and Q = 15 

So, difference in their ages = P – Q = 51 – 15 = 36 years So, statement-II alone is sufficient to answer this question. 

Hence, the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone. 

Q74. Main Statement is followed by four Statements labelled P, Q, R and S. Choose the ordered pair of the Statements where the first Statement implies the second, and the two Statements are logically consistent with the Main Statement. 

Main Statement : 

Pradeep becomes either a Director or a Producer. Statement P : Pradeep is a Director. 

Statement Q : Pradeep is a Producer. Statement R : Pradeep is not a Director. Statement S : Pradeep is not a Producer. Select the correct answer. 

1. SP only 
2. RQ only 
3. Both SP and RQ 
4. Neither SP nor RQ 

Answer:(c) 

Main statement: Pradeep becomes either a Director or a Producer. It means Pradeep cannot be both. Also, he must be one of them. 

SP: 

Statement S: Pradeep is not a Producer. 

It means he must be a Director, as given in statement P. 

So, statement P follows from S and they are logically consistent with the main statement. 

RQ: 

Statement R: Pradeep is not a Director. 

It means he must be a Producer, as given in statement Q. 

So, statement Q follows from R and they are logically consistent with the main statement. 

Q75. a + b means a – b; a – b means a x b; a x b means a ÷ b; a ÷ b; means a + b, then what is the value of 10 + 30 – 100 x 50 ÷ 25? (Operations are to be replaced simultaneously) 

1. 15 
2. 0 
3. –15 
4. –25 

Answer:(d) 

On changing the mathematical signs according to the given instructions, we get: 10 – 30 x 100  50 + 25 

= 10 – 30 x 2 + 25 

= 10 – 60 + 25 

= 35 – 60 

= – 25 

Q76. If P means ‘greater than (>)’; Q means ‘less than (<)’; R means ‘not greater than ( )’; S means ‘not less than ( )’ and T means ‘equal to (=)’, then consider the following statements: 

1. If 2x(S)3y and 3x(T)4z, then 9y(P)8z. 
2. If x(Q)2y and y(R)z, then x(R)z. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer:(d) Statement 1: 

2x(S)3y and 3x(T)4z, then 9y(P)8z 

On placing symbols according to the given instructions: 2x ≥ 3y and 3x = 4z, then 9y > 8z 

x  3y/2 (a) 

3x = 4z (b) 

So, 4z/3  3y/2 Or 8z  9y 

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 

Statement 2: 

x(Q)2y and y(R)z, then x(R}z. 

On placing symbols according to the given instructions: x < 2y and y ≤ z, then x ≤ z. 

x < 2y (a) 

y ≤ z 

or 2y ≤ 2z (b) 

So, x < 2y ≤ 2z Or x < 2z 

But from this we cannot deduce that x  z 

Hence, statement 2 is also not correct. 

Q77. If in a certain code, ‘ABCD’ is written as 24 and ‘EFGH’ is written as 1680, then how is ‘IJKL’ written in that code? 

1. 11880 
2. 11240 
3. 7920 
4. 5940 

Answer:(a) 

Here, the code is being calculated by multiplying the position values of the alphabet. ABCD = 24 

1 x 2 x 3 x 4 = 24 

EFGH = 1680 

5. x 6 x 7 x 8 = 1680 

IJKL = 9 x 10 x 11 x 12 = 11880 

Q78. If in a certain code, ‘POT’ is written as ATOP and ‘TRAP’ is written as APART, then how is ‘ARENA’ written in that code? 

1. AARENA 
2. AANREA 
3. AANEAR 
4. AANERA 

Answer:(d) 

In a certain code, ‘POT’ is written as ‘ATOP’ and ‘TRAP’ is written as ‘APART’, Logic: Here the word is being reversed and prefix ‘A’ is being added to the front. Reverse order of POT = TOP 

Thus, code of POT will be ’ATOP’. Reverse order of TRAP = PART 

Thus, code of TRAP will be ’APART’. 

Similarly, Reverse order of ARENA = ANERA Thus, code of ARENA will be ’AANERA’. 

Q79. What will come in place of * in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258? 

1. 150 
2. 155 
3. 160 
4. 176 

Answer:(b) 

Given series: 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258 

The series follows the following pattern: 1³ + 1² + 1 = 3 

2³ + 2² + 2 = 14 

3³ + 3² + 3 = 39 

4³ + 4² + 4 = 84 

* = 5³ + 5² + 5 = 155 

6³ + 6² + 6 = 258 

Thus, missing number is 155. 

Q80. In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. If Q – S = 2S and T = R + S + 3, then what is the value of P + R – T? 

(a) 1 

(b) 2 

(c) 3 

(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data 

Answer:(b) 

In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. 

Here, Q – S = 2S 

So, Q = 3S …….(i) 

The only possible values of S and Q are: 

If S = 4, then Q = 12 Or, if S = 5, then Q = 15 

Also, T = R + S + 3 …….(ii) Case 1: If S = 4 and Q = 12 T = R + S + 3 = R + 7 

This is only possible if T = 12 and R = 5. 

But both Q and T cannot be 12. So, we can eliminate this case. 

Case 2: If S = 5 and Q = 15 

T = R + S + 3 = R + 8 

This is only possible if T = 12 and R = 4. 

So, we get R = 4, S = 5, T = 12 and Q = 15. It means P must be 10. So, P + R – T = 10 + 4 – 12 = 2 

FAQs

Q: What is the UPSC CSAT exam?

The UPSC CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) is a part of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) in India. It tests your aptitude in various areas like comprehension, logical reasoning, and basic numeracy.

Q: What is the format of the CSAT paper?

The CSAT paper consists of 80 multiple-choice questions. Each question carries 2.5 marks, making a total of 200 marks. The exam duration is 2 hours.

Q: What subjects are covered in the CSAT exam?

The CSAT exam covers topics like comprehension, logical reasoning, analytical ability, decision-making, problem-solving, basic numeracy (up to class 10 level), and general mental ability.

Q: Is there negative marking in the CSAT exam?

Yes, there is a negative marking in the CSAT exam. For each wrong answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question are deducted. So, it’s essential to answer carefully.

Q: What is the passing score for the CSAT exam?

The CSAT exam is a qualifying paper. Candidates need to score a minimum of 33% (66 out of 200 marks) to qualify. Only the marks obtained in the General Studies Paper-I are counted for ranking in the prelims.

Q: How can I prepare for the comprehension section of the CSAT exam?

To prepare for the comprehension section, practice reading and understanding passages from newspapers, magazines, and online articles. Focus on improving your vocabulary and comprehension skills by summarizing what you read and answering related questions.

Q: What are some tips for improving logical reasoning and analytical ability?

To improve logical reasoning and analytical ability, practice solving puzzles, logical games, and previous years’ CSAT question papers. Regularly practicing these types of questions will help you identify patterns and improve your problem-solving speed and accuracy.

Q: Are coaching classes necessary for CSAT preparation?

Coaching classes are not necessary but can be helpful for structured guidance and practice. Many candidates successfully prepare for CSAT using self-study materials, online resources, and practice tests. Choose the method that works best for you and ensure consistent practice and revision.

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