UPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper with Answer Key – General Studies Paper 1

As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2014 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1.

Q: What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

a) Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

b) Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.

c) There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.

d) The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

• Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative

• It seeks to cultivate sugarcane primarily through altering the methods and inputs employed.

• It majorly involves

• Less use of seeds

• less water consumption

• optimal use of land and fertilisers

• It seeks to lower input costs, Hence Statement 1 is Correct.

• To get “more with less” in agriculture is its fundamental tenet.

• It reduces the price by up to 75%.

• It aids in improving cane length and weight while lowering plant mortality rates.

• Intercropping is a possibility, and drip watering is another option. Hence, Statement 2 and 4 are correct. 

• However, because SSI is a farmer-driven strategy, its benefits depend more on the cultivator’s own efforts.

• NPK (fertilisers) are applied as inorganic and organic fertilisers at rates of 112 kg, 25 kg, and 48 kg per acre, respectively. Hence, Statement 3 is Not Correct. 

Q: If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.

b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo meters from the edge of the wetland

c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed

d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

The correct answer is option 1.

The Montreux Record

• It is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance.
• It registers the changes occurred or occurring or may occur in ecological character because of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
• It aims is to provide assistance to developed and developing countries alike in solving the problems or threats that make inclusion in the Montreux Record necessary.
• In 1993, Chilika Lake was also listed in Montreux Record due to problem of siltation. Later in 2002, it was removed from the list as the problem of siltation was tackled by Govt. of India.

Q: Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

a) Andaman and Nicobar
b) Nicobar and Sumatra
c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
d) Sumatra and Java

The correct answer is Option 1.

Ten Degree Channel

• It separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal and forms the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It is 150km wide from north to south and 10km long from east to west with a minimum depth of 7.3m.
• It is so named as it lies on the 10-degree line of Latitude, north of the equator. 
• The Lakshadweep Islands and Maliku Atoll are separated by the Nine-degree channel.
• The Grand Channel is between the Great Nicobar islands and the Sumatra islands of Indonesia.
• Minicoy channel is a small eight-degree channel that separates Maldives and Lakshadweep.
• Sumatra and Java are separated by Sunda Strait.

Q: Consider the following pairs: Programme / Project Ministry

a) Drought-Prone Area : Ministry of Agriculture Programme

b) Desert Development : Ministry of Environment Programme and Forests

c) National Watershed: Ministry of Rural Development Development Project for Rainfed Areas

The Correct Answer is None.

The Drought-Prone area Programme

• It comes under the Ministry of Rural Development. Hence Pair 1 is Not Correct.
• This programme aims to mitigate the impacts of droughts on crop production, livestock, land and water resources.

The Desert Development Programme

• It comes under the Ministry of Rural Development. Hence Pair 2 is Not Correct.
• The basic objective of the Desert Development Programme is to minimise the adverse effect of drought and control desertification through rejuvenation of the natural resource base of the identified desert area.

The National Watershed Project 

• It is available for rainfed areas and implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture.
• It is an umbrella scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana. Hence Pair 3 is Not Correct.
• The initiative aims to enhance water availability in the watershed areas.

Q: With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:

a) It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.

b) It strives to conserve nature through actionbased research, education and public awareness.

c) It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Correct Answer is Option 3.

Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS)

• It is one of the largest non-governmental organizations in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research. Hence, Statement 1 is Not Correct.

BNHS Mission

• Conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity through action based on research, education, and public awareness. Hence Statement 2 is Correct.

BNHS Vision

• Premier independent scientific organization with a broad-based constituency, excelling in the conservation of threatened species and habitats.

Q: With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which
of the following statements is/are correct?

a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’

b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level

c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.

d) Both a) and (b)

The correct answer is Option 1.

The Global Environment Facility (GEF) 

• It unites 183 countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues.
• It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’ It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.
• It is not an agency under OECD.
• It was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle environmental problems.
• It is a private equity fund focused on seeking long term financial returns by investments

Q: With reference to technologies for solar power
production, consider the following statements:

a) ’Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.

b) Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).

c) India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

The Correct Answer is Option 1.

Photovoltaic (PV) devices 

• It generates electricity directly from sunlight using PV cells made up of semiconductors.
• It converts optional radiation into electricity.
• Several solar thermal systems can collect and transform radiant energy received from the sun into high-temperature thermal (heat) energy, which can be used directly or converted into electricity. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
• Solar energy can be converted directly into electrical energy (direct current, DC) by photovoltaic (PV) cells commonly called solar cells. Hence Statement 2 is Not Correct.
• India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology as well as for Photovoltaics. Hence Statement 3 is Not Correct.

Q: Consider the following languages:

a) Gujarati

b) Kannada

c) Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government?

The Correct Answer is Option 3.

Classical Language

• Currently, there are six languages that enjoy the ‘Classical’ status in India: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). Therefore, Gujarati is not classical language but Telugu and Kannada are classical language. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The Ministry of Culture provides the guidelines regarding Classical languages.
• Guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
• High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
• A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
• The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
• The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.

Q: Consider the following pairs

a) Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram

b) Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim

c) Saramati Peak : Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

The Correct Answer is Option 3.

The Dampa tiger reserve

• It is located in Mizoram. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
• It covers an area of about 500 km2 in the Lushai Hills at an altitude range of 800–1,100 m. 
• It was declared a tiger reserve in 1994 and is part of Project Tiger.
• The tropical forests of Dampa Tiger Reserve are home to a diverse flora and fauna. 
• It consists of forest interpolated with steep precipitous hills, deep valleys, jungle streams, ripping rivulets, natural salts licks. 

The Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary

• This is located in Tripura. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• It covers an area of about 389.54 sq km.
• It is home to animals like elephants, sambar, buffalo, yapping deer, serow, wild goat, etc.

Saramati

• It is a peak located in Nagaland. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
• It is located near Thanamir Village in the Kiphire district of Nagaland.

Q: With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.

It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

Wetlands international

• The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 in Iran but Wetlands international was formed in 1954.
• As it was formed way before the Ramsar Convention. Hence Statement 1 is Not Correct.
• Wetland International is an NGO. It works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity.
• Wetlands International’s work is in research, advocacy, and engagement with government, corporate and international policy forums and conferences. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Q: With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

a) The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.

b) South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

BRICS

• It is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
• Originally there were four nations grouped as “BRIC” (or “the BRICs”). South Africa became the member in 2010 and was last to join. Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
• The BRIC grouping’s first meeting was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia. Hence Statement 1 is not Correct.
• The importance of BRICS is self-evident: it represents 42% of the world’s population, 30% of the land area, 24% of global GDP and 16% of international trade.

Q: Consider the following diseases

a) Diphtheria

b) Chickenpox

c) Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

The Correct Answer is 3 only.

Smallpox

• It is a serious infectious disease caused by the Variola virus.
• Smallpox was eradicated, and no cases of naturally occurring smallpox have happened since 1977.
• It spreads by direct and fairly prolonged face-to-face contact between people.

Diphtheria

• It is a serious bacterial infection which affects the mucous membranes of the throat and nose.
• A type of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria.

Chickenpox

• The chickenpox infection caused by the Varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
• The virus can spread through: saliva, coughing, sneezing, contact with fluid.
• Therefore, according to the above-given options, Smallpox is the only disease eradicated from India. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Q: Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

a) Continental drift

b) Glacial cycles

The Correct Answer is Both1 and 2.

Continental drift theory

• This theory was propounded b Alfred Wegner.
• This theory deals with the distribution of the oceans and the continents.
• According to this theory, all the continents formed a single continental mass- Pangea and mega ocean- Panthalassa surrounded it.
• Pangaea started splitting and broke down into two large continental masses as Laurasia and Gondwanaland forming the northern and southern components respectively.
• The Continental drift must have moved some animals from one continent to others and few getting stuck in the same place, which must have influenced the evolution.

Glacial cycles

• It would have affected evolution as many might not able to tolerate extreme cold and would have extincted.
• The rise in sea level due to glacial melt also might have affected the evolution of organisms.

Q: Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

a) Construction of dams and barrages on rivers

b) Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers

c) Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally

d) Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

The Correct Answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

The Gangetic dolphin

• It is declared as the national aquatic animal of India.
• The Ganga river dolphins are one of the four freshwater dolphins found in the world.
• The increasing population of the crocodile in the river is nothing to do with the decline in the Ganges River Dolphins. Hence, Statement 2 is Not Correct.

Threats to gangetic dolphin

• Due to the construction of dams on river Ganga for irrigation and electricity generation which slow down the flow of the river in the main river channel and destroys their habitat.
• Due to the increase of pollution in the Ganga river the favourable condition for dolphins to survive also destroy.
• The rainwater carries pollutants, agrochemicals, pesticides and discharges these in the river cause water pollution.

Q: The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

a) solve the problem of minorities in India
b) give effect to the Independence Bill
c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal

The Correct Answer is Option 3.

The Radcliffe Committee

• It was named after the chairman of the Border Commissions, Sir Cyril Radcliffe.
• This committee divided India into three halves: West Pakistan, East Pakistan, and India.
• The Indian Independence Act gave effect to the Independence bill. The Indian Independence Act was based upon the Mountbatten plan.
• The Radcliffe Line is a boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan upon the Partition of India. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Q: Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery.
Why is there some concern about their use?

a) They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.

b) They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

The Correct Answer is Both 1 and 2.

Flame retardants

• It is used to make it more difficult for a material to ignite or to reduce the spread of fire, but they do not make the material non-flammable.
• Polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs) are used as flame retardants They’re persistent, bio-accumulative, and toxic to both humans and the environment.
• They easily don’t degrade in the environment. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
• They can accumulate in humans and animals causing many diseases. Hence Statement 2 is also Correct.
• Hence both the answer is correct.

Q: Consider the following:

a) Bats

b) Bears

c) Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in
which of the above kinds of animals?

The Correct Answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Hibernation

• It is a state of inactivity and metabolic depression in endothermic species characterized by low body temperature, slow breathing and heart rate, and low metabolic rate.
• It is a state of inactivity and reduced metabolic activity that occurs during the winter season in some animals. During this period metabolic rate is reduced.
• It is a mechanism of survival.
• It is found in Bat ,bear and rodents etc.
• Hence all the statement is correct.

Q: Which one of the following is the largest Committee
of the Parliament?

a) The Committee on Public Accounts
b) The Committee on Estimates
c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
d) The Committee on Petitions.

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

The Estimates Committee

• It is the largest Committee of the Parliament. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It has 30 members and all these members are from Lok Sabha.
• This committee tries to report the economy and efficiency in expenditures.
• The members are elected by Lok Sabha members from amongst themselves every year by principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote so that all parties get a due presentation in it.
• A minister cannot be elected as member / Chairman of the estimates committee.

Q: Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

a) Volcanic action

b) Respiration

c) Photosynthesis

d) Decay of organic matter

The Correct Answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

• Producers remove the carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and hydrosphere through the process of photosynthesis. They convert carbon dioxide to glucose. Hence, Statement 3rd is wrong.
• The process of respiration releases carbon dioxide back to air or water (aquatic ecosystem). Hence, Statement 2nd is correct.
• Decomposers release carbon stored in bodies of dead organisms back to the atmosphere. Hence, Statement 4th is correct.
• Volcanoes emit carbon dioxide in two ways: during eruptions and through underground magma. Hence, Statement 1 correct.

Q: If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize
the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses.

Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

a) Painted Stork

b) Common Myna

c) Black-necked Crane

The Correct Answer is 2 only.

Painted Stork

• It is a fish eating bird. Hence, Code 1 is incorrect.

Common Myna

• It is an opportunistic feeder on inspects, disturbed by grazing cattle.

Black-necked crane

• Found in Trans-himalayan region
• Only found in Arunanchal Pradesh and Ladakh (WWF). therefore we are unlikely to find it while walking through “country side” in all states and places .

Q: In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

a) military officers
b) village headmen
c) specialists in Vedic rituals
d) chiefs of craft guilds

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

Mahattara and Pattakila

• It were the terms used for village headmen in Medieval India.
• A village headman is the community leader of a village or a small town.
• He performs various duties in the village and acts as a dispute resolver or mediator in resolving disputes relating to the village or individuals.

Q: Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

a) algae and bacteria
b) algae and fungi
c) bacteria and fungi
d) fungi and mosses

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

A lichen

• It is not a single organism.
• It is a stable symbiotic association between a fungus and algae and/or cyanobacteria. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• The study of lichens is called Lichenology.
• Lichens are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, Lichens are called pioneer colonizers of bare rock.

Q: If you travel through the Himalayas, you are Iikely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

a) Oak

b) Rhododendron

c) Sandalwood

The Correct Answer is 1 and 2 only.

Oak and Rhododendron

• These are characteristic plants of the Temperate forest. Temperate forests are mainly found in the middle altitudes of the Himalayas.

Sandalwoods

• This is found in tropical deciduous forests or monsoon forests which are found in southern states of India but the presence is ‘negligible’ and/or confined only to North-eastern states.

Q: Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?

a) Oxides of sulphur

b) Oxides of nitrogen

c) Carbon monoxide

d) Carbon dioxide

The Correct Answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

• Air pollutants are released from steel industries in India, which includes gaseous substances such as oxides of sulphur, oxides of nitrogen (mainly NO2 and NO), oxides of carbon (CO2 and CO).
• In steel furnace, coke reacts with iron ore, releasing iron along with the generation of oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon.
• Hence, Statement 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Q: Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

a) Avanti

b) Gandhara

c) Kosala

d) Magadha

The Correct Answer is Option 3

• Avanti whose capital was Ujjain,was not directly related to life of Buddha, so this can be eliminated. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
• Pasenadi (Prasenajit), king of Kosala, was the Buddha’s contemporary and is frequently mentioned in Pali texts.
• Kosala and Magadha were linked through matrimonial ties.
• Buddha wandered through the towns and villages in the kingdoms of Kosala and Magadha teaching his philosophy. Hence, Statement 3 and 4 are correct.
• Whereas Gandhara is not directly associated with the life of Buddha. It was expansion of Maurya empire that Gandhara received much Buddhist influence, notably during the reign of Asoka. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q: Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/ tribes?

a) Bhutia and Lepcha
b) Gond and Korku
c) lrula and Toda
d) Sahariya and Agariya

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

• Every monsoon, the Gond and Korku tribes of Madhya Pradesh’s Betul and Harda districts celebrate Hari Jiroti.
• It is a month-long festival of greenery, during which the tribals plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees.
• The Gond and Korku tribes celebrate a month long ecologically important campaign/festival in which they plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. It is celebrated annually.

Q: The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

a) tax imposed by the Central Government
b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government

The Correct Answer is Option 4.

Sales Tax

• The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is the tax imposed and collected by the state government, as stated in the CST 1956 act of also known as The Central Sales Tax Act.
• It is paid to the Sale Tax Authority in the state from where the goods are moved or sold or bought. Whereas now all these taxes come under the GST, also known as Goods and Service Tax. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

Q: What does venture capital mean?

a) A short-term capital provided to industries
b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

Venture capital

• It is A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It is a form of private equity and a type of financing that investors provide to start-up companies and small businesses that are believed to have long-term growth potential.
• It generally comes from well-off investors, investment banks, and any other financial institutions.

Q: The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

a) inclusive growth and poverty reductions
b) inclusive and sustainable growth
c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment
d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

The Correct Answer is Option 4.

The Twelfth Five Year Plan

• It lasted from 2012-2017.
• It was launched with the objective of faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The Twelfth Five Year Plan lasted from 2012-2017.
• It was launched with the objective of faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth.
• It was the last five-year plan.
• The plan was under the leadership of Manmohan Singh and Narendra Modi.
• Its growth rate target was 8%.
• Later, the government has dissolved the Planning Commission with the NITI Aayog.

Q: With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

a) Balance of trade

b) Foreign assets

c) Balance of invisibles

d) Special Drawing Right

The Correct Answer is 1 and 3 only.

The balance of payment

• It is a record of all monetary transactions made between the residents of one country and the rest of the world.
• A balance of payments deficit means the nation imports are more than it exports.
• The two components of the Balance of Payments are the current account and capital account.
• The current account includes trade in goods and services (Invisibles) and transfer payments etc.
• The capital account includes Foreign Direct Investment, Foreign Portfolio Investment, External Commercial Borrowings, SDR.
• The capital account records all international purchases and sales of assets such as money, stocks, bonds, etc.

Q: The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

a) banking operations
b) communication networking
c) military strategies
d) supply and demand of agricultural products

The Correct Answer is Option 1.

Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

• It is the rate at which banks borrow funds overnight from the RBI against approved government securities.
• Under MSF, banks can borrow funds up to one percentage of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL).
• It used by banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Q: What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

a) It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.

b) It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

The Correct Answer is Both 1 and 2.

The Business Correspondent (BC) Model

• It was initiated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2006 to upgrade financial inclusion in India.
• Business Correspondents are agents who represent banks and are responsible for delivering banking services at locations other than a bank branch/ATM.
• Services offered by Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas are
• Giving access to banking,
• It also enables government subsidies and social security benefits to be directly credited to the accounts of the beneficiaries, enabling them to draw the money from the bank saathi or business correspondents in their village itself. Hence, Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Q: In the context of Indian economy; which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?

a) To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create

b) To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid

c) To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits

d) To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

The Correct Answer is 1 only.

Statutory Reserve Requirement

• It is a quantitative monetary policy instrument to manage liquidity.
• RBI requires commercial banks to keep reserves in order to ensure that banks have sufficient assets to draw on when account holders want to be paid. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Cash Reserve Ratio is the fraction of their deposits that banks must keep with RBI to make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid.
• When the central bank wants to increase the money supply in the economy, it lowers the reserve ratio. Hence it enables the Central Bank to control the number of advances the banks can create. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Reserve requirements are designed as “precautionary measures” to control the economy and not to stop banks from “excessive” profit and not to force the banks to have sufficient cash to meet their day-to-day requirements. Hence statement 3 and 4 is incorrect.

Q: Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

a) Egypt
b) Lebanon
c) Syria
d) Tunisia

The Correct Answer is Option 4.

The Arab Spring

• It was a revolutionary wave of demonstrations protests and civil wars in the Arab world that began on 18 December 2010 and spread throughout the countries of the Arab League.
• It originally started from Tunisia. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Tunisia is bordered by Algeria and Libya and has a marine boundary with the Mediterranean Sea.

Q: Consider the following countries:

a) Denmark

b) Japan

c) Russian Federation

d) United Kingdom

e) United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic
Council ‘?

The Correct Answer is 1, 3 and 5 only.

Arctic Council:

• It is a high-level intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa declaration.
• It is an intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation in the Arctic region.
• Members of the Arctic Council are Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America as a member of the Arctic Council. Therefore, Japan and united Kingdom are not members of Arctic Council. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

Q: Consider the following pairs:

Region often in news Country

a) Chechnya : Russian Federation

b) Darfur : Mali

c) Swat Valley : Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

The Correct Answer is 1 only.

All regions were affected by some conflict,

Chechnya

• It is republic in southwestern Russia. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
• It is situated on the northern flank of the Greater Caucasus range. 
• It is conquered by Russia in 1858.

Darfur

• It is a region in western Sudan. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Swat Valley

• It is known as the “mini Switzerland”.
• It is a province in Pakistan. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Q: Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) It is a surface-to-surface missile.

b) It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.

c) It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

The Correct Answer is 1 Only.

Agni-IV

• Agni-IV is a nuclear-capable long-range ballistic missile of India, with a strike range of 4,000 km.
• It is indigenously developed and it is a two-stage surface-to-surface missile. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is 20 metres long with a weight of 17 tonnes.
• It is a two stage solid fuelled system that can carry a one-tonne nuclear warhead over a distance of 4,000 kilometres. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Q: With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following ‘statements:

a) Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.

b) In India abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

The Correct Answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Shale gas 

• It refers to natural gas that is trapped within shale formations. 
• Shales are fine-grained sedimentary rocks that can be rich sources of petroleum and natural gas.
• It is natural gas and is a hydrocarbon gas mixture. 
• It consists mainly of methane. 
• It contains other hydrocarbons like ethane, propane, and butane, and it also contains carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and hydrogen sulfide. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• India has identified six basins as areas for shale gas exploration: Cambay (Gujarat), Assam-Arakan (North East), Gondwana (Central India), Krishna Godavari onshore (East Coast), Cauvery onshore, and Indo-Gangetic basins. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Coalbed methane

• It is a non-conventional and is a major source of natural gas.
• It is extracted from coal seams.

Q: With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements :

a) They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.

b) They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool

c) They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Correct Answer is 2 and 3 only.

The Changpa

• They are a semi-nomadic Tibetan ethnic group found mainly in Zanskar region of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes. In 1989, Changpas were declared as the Scheduled Tribes. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Q: In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the
manufacture of biodegradable plastics
b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the
extraction of shale gas
c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties
of anti-histamines
d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel

The Correct Answer is Option 2.

Guar gum

• It is used in hydraulic fracturing technology during shale gas extraction.
• Synthetized from a small bean named guar, guar gum is an organic substance used to increase the viscosity of hydraulic fracturing fluids, which makes hydraulic fracturing more effective by improving the results of the pressure pumping of fluids to the fractures made to the reservoir rocks.
• It is native to India and is widely grown in dry, warm, and arid regions.
• It is a source of Guar gum. Guar gum is derived from guar seeds, a legume crop that grows in semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Haryana.
• It is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed. The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas. Hence, option 2 is correct.

Q: Which of the following have coral reefs?

a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

b) Gulf of Kachchh

c) Gulf of Mannar

d) Sunderbans

The Correct Answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Coral Reefs

• Most of the world’s coral reefs are located within the tropical zone between 30º N and 30º S latitude.
• The most favourable temperature for the growth of the coral reefs is between 23°C to 25°C.
• The Coral reefs in India are mainly restricted to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Strait and the Lakshadweep islands. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• All of these reefs are Fringing reefs, except Lakshadweep which are Atolls. While Sundarbans do not have coral reef.
• Corals can survive only under saline conditions with an average salinity between 27% to 40%.

Q: In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

a) Terrace cultivation

b) Deforestation

c) Tropical climate

The Correct Answer is 2 Only.

Soil erosion

• It is the removal of the topmost fertile layer of the soil through wind or water.
• Anthropogenic activities are responsible for soil erosion to a great extent.
• As the human population increases, the demand on the land also increases.
• Forest and other natural vegetation are removed for human settlement, for cultivation, for grazing animals and for various other needs. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Improper use of land leads to soil erosion.
• Terrace farming, contour ploughing, etc are the measures to control soil erosion.

Q: The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

a) Equatorial climate
b) Mediterranean climate
(e. Monsoon climate
d) All of the above climates

The Correct Answer is Option 3.

Monsoon type of climate:

• Seasonal reversal of wind is feature of monsoonal climate. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• This type of climate is best developed in the Indian subcontinent, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts of Vietnam, and south china and northern Australis.
• It is characterized by the onshore wet monsoon in summer and offshore dry monsoon in winter.
• The basic cause of monsoon climates is the difference in the rate of heating and cooling of land and sea. Monsoon refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year.
• The monsoon type of climate is characterized by a distinct seasonal pattern.

Equatorial type of climate:

• Equatorial type of climate is found in the Amazon basin in South America, Congo basin in Africa, Guinea coast in Africa, and much of the Indo-Malaysian region, eastern Central America, some islands in the Caribbean Sea, western Colombia, and eastern Madagascar.
• This type of climate is located till 5 degrees to 10 degrees on either side of the equator.

Q: With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to

a) an assembly of village elders
b) a religious sect
c) a style of temple construction
d) an administrative functionary

The Correct Answer is Option 3.

Panchayatan

• It is a style of temple construction that has a central shrine surrounded by four other shrines. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It has a main shrine which is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines.
• The main shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines at four different corners, making it total of five shrines.
• In the Panchayatana style of temple architecture, the main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth.
• Famous examples of this style of architecture are Kandariya Mahadeva Temple in Khajuraho, Lingaraja Temple in Bhubaneswar, Dashavatara Temple in Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh.

Q: Consider the following rivers:

a) Barak

b) Lohit

c) Subansiri

Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

The Correct Answer is 2 and 3 only.

Barak River

• It flows through the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam in India and into the Bay of Bengal. It does not flow through Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• It rises in the Manipur Hills in northern Manipur state, India, where it is called the Barak.

Lohit river

• It is a river in Arunachal Pradesh and is a tributary of River Brahmaputra. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It originates in eastern Tibet, in the Zayal Chu range, and surges through Arunachal Pradesh.

The Subansiri River

• It flows through the Indian states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It is the largest tributary of the River Brahmaputra.

Q: Consider the following pairs:
Wetlands Confluence of rivers

Harike Wetlands Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej

Keoladeo Ghana National Park Confluence of Banas and Chambal

Kolleru Lake Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

The Correct Answer is 1 only.

Harike Wetlands

• It was formed by constructing the headworks across the Sutlej river.
• The headworks is located downstream of the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej river.
• It is one of the largest man-made wetlands of northern India.
• This wetland shares its area with the Tarntaran, Ferozpur, and Kapurthala districts of Punjab.
• It came into existence after the construction of a barrage near the confluence of rivers Sutlej and Beas in 1952. Hence, Pair 1 is correct.
• It is also a Ramsar site.

Keoladeo Ghana National Park

• It is formed by confluence of Gambira and Banganga rivers. Hence, Pair 2 is not correct.
• It is a man-made and man-managed wetland in Rajasthan. It is also declared a World Heritage site.
• It is situated at the confluence of the Gambhir and Banganga rivers. 
• It was designated as a Ramsar site under the Wetland Convention in October 1981.

Kolleru Lake

• It is a freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh.
• It was previously a lagoon.
• It was designated a wetland of international importance in November 2002 under the international Ramsar Convention.
• It lies between the Godavari and Krishna river deltas. Hence, Pair 3 is not correct.
• Many birds migrate here in winters, such as Siberian cranes, ibis, and painted storks.

Q: Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
c) Lokayata and Kapalika
d) Sankhya and Yoga

The Correct Answer is Option 3.

Six major systems of Hindu Philosophy. 

SCHOOL	FOUNDER	DETAIL
Nyaya	Akshapada Gautama Rishi	It is a school that deals with logic and epistemology. The teaching of Nyaya states that the suffering of human existence is caused by the cycle of death and rebirth. It enlists four valid (Pramana) and four invalid means of gaining knowledge.
Vaisheshika	Kannada Rishi	This school acknowledges the existence of God or of the supreme soul. The focus on the teachings of this system is on the realisation of the true nature of the Soul as different from all creation.
Samkhya	Kapila Acharya	It explores the understanding of the creator and the creation. There are two external realities: soul and nature.
Ashtanga Yoga	Rishi Patanjali	The eight-limbs of Yoga sutras highlight how to connect with the greater cosmic essence and enhance spirituality. These eight-limbs include- Yama (moral conduct) Niyama (Disciple)  Asana (right posture) Pranayama (effective breathing) Pratyahara (withdrawing the senses)  Dharana (to concentrate on one object) Dhyana (meditation) Samadhi (supreme bliss/ salvation)
Purva Mimamsa	Rishi Jaimini	It provides details on why it is important to conduct Vedic rituals for a person to attain the last ultimate goal of life which is Moksha.
Vedanta	The philosophical school was grounded by VED-VYAS. Advaita Vedanta by Shankaracharya Vishista Advaita by Ramanujacharya  Dvaita Vedanta by Madhavacharya Dvaitadvaita Vedanta by Nimbaraka Shuddha Advaita Vedanta by Vallabhacharya.	It is the last of the four forms of Vedas. Brahmanas, Samhitas, and Aranyakas are the others. Vedanta means the end, completion or perfection of knowledge. The VEDANTA school is divided into three parts according to how they regard the relationship between God and the Unive

Therefore, Lokayata and Kapalika do not form of Six system of Indian philosophy. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Q: Consider the following pairs:

Hills Region

Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
Mahadeo Hills : Central India
Mikir Hills : North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

The Correct Answer is 3 and 4 only.

Cardamom Hill

• It located in Kerala and south-west Tamil Nadu. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• This is located on the south-western side of India.
• This hills produces tea, coffee, teak, cardamom, and bamboo.
• The Anamudi is the highest peak with 2,695 meters (8,842 ft)

Kaimur Hill

• This is the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• This range is present in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Mahadeo Hill

• It is a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
• This is located in the northern part of the Satpura Range.

Mikir Hill

• This is located to the south of the Kaziranga National Park, Assam.
• This is in north-east India and part of Karbi-Plateau. Hence, Pair 4 is correctly matched.
• Dambuchko is the highest peak of Mikir Hills.

Q: Consider the following pairs:

Hills Region

Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
Mahadeo Hills : Central India
Mikir Hills : North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

The Correct Answer is 3 and 4 only.

Cardamom Hill

• It located in Kerala and south-west Tamil Nadu. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• This is located on the south-western side of India.
• This hills produces tea, coffee, teak, cardamom, and bamboo.
• The Anamudi is the highest peak with 2,695 meters (8,842 ft)

Kaimur Hill

• This is the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• This range is present in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Mahadeo Hill

• It is a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
• This is located in the northern part of the Satpura Range.

Mikir Hill

• This is located to the south of the Kaziranga National Park, Assam.
• This is in north-east India and part of Karbi-Plateau. Hence, Pair 4 is correctly matched.
• Dambuchko is the highest peak of Mikir Hills.

Q: Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

a) Second Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Eighth Schedule
d) Tenth Schedule

The Correct Answer is Option 4.

The Tenth Schedule 

• It was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• It deals with the Anti defection law i.e, provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection.

Schedules in Indian Constitution

Schedule	Features
First	Names of states and UTs and their territorial jurisdiction and extent.
Second	Provisions of allowances, privileges, emoluments of President of India, Governors, Speakers and Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and Legislative Council, Supreme Court and High Court judges, Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Third	Oath and affirmation for Union and States Ministers of India, Candidates for election to the Parliament and State Legislature, Members of Parliament and State Legislature, Supreme Court and High Court judges.
Fourth	Contains the provisions in relation to the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
Fifth	Contains provisions in relation to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Sixth	Contains provisions in relation to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Seventh	Union, State, and Concurrent list
Eighth	22 official languages
Ninth	It deals with the state acts and regulations related to land reforms.
Tenth	Provisions relating to the disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985.
Eleventh	Provisions that specify the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats. It has 29 subjects.
Twelfth	Provisions that specify the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities. It has 18 subjects.

Q: The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

a) biosphere reserves
b) botanical gardens
c) national parks
d) wildlife sanctuaries

The Correct Answer is option (a)

Biosphere Reserves

• Biosphere reserves are designed to promote the sustainable coexistence of humans and nature, allowing for the conservation of biodiversity while also accommodating the cultural and economic needs of local communities.

• They often involve collaboration between governments, local communities, and conservation organizations to manage natural resources effectively while supporting traditional human activities.

Q: Turkey is located between

a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

The Correct Answer Is option (b)

Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea

• Black Sea: Turkey’s northern coastline borders the Black Sea, which is an inland sea bounded by Europe, Anatolia (Asia Minor), and the Caucasus. The Black Sea provides access to various countries such as Russia, Ukraine, Romania, and Bulgaria.

• Mediterranean Sea: Turkey’s southern coastline stretches along the Mediterranean Sea, a major body of water connecting Europe, Africa, and Asia. The Mediterranean Sea is bordered by Southern Europe, North Africa, and Western Asia, and it is a significant route for maritime trade and transportation.

Q: What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

a) Bangkok

b) Hanoi

c) Jakarta

d) Singapore

The correct answer is 3-4-1-2.

• The correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north is Jakarta-Singapore-Bangkok and Hanoi. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Q: The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above preindustrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

a) Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source

b) Widespread coral mortality will occur.

c) All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.

d) Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Terrestrial biosphere

• ⦁ It plays a significant role in regulating atmospheric composition and climate.
• ⦁ It can release or absorb the greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O).
• ⦁ It regulates fluxes of energy, water and aerosols between the earth surface and atmosphere.
• ⦁ Although a tiny amount of carbon leaves the terrestrial biosphere and enters the oceans as dissolved organic carbon, carbon is most quickly exchanged with the atmosphere. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Corals

• It is invertebrate animal belonging to a large group of colourful and fascinating animals called Cnidaria. 
• ⦁ It is extremely diverse marine ecosystems hosting over 4,000 species of fish, massive numbers of cnidarians, molluscs, crustaceans, and many other animals.
• ⦁ As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events occur. If the temperature keeps on rising, widespread coral mortality will occur. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• ⦁ The temperate regions can still survive if the temperature increases. The temperate zones are where the widest seasonal changes occur. The vegetation can survive there. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
• ⦁ The weather should be warm and moist during the early stage of growth of cereals. Therefore, the cultivation of cereals would still be possible if the temperature rises. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.

Q: The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

a) Katha Upanishad
b) Chandogya Upanishad
c) Aitareya Upanishad
d) Mundaka Upanishad

The correct answer is Option 4.

Mundaka Upanishad

• The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from Mundaka Upanishad.
• This motto means “Truth Alone Triumphs”. It is written in Devanagari script.
• It is ranked fifth among the 108 Upanishads in Hinduism’s Muktika canon.
• This Upanishad has 64 verses composed in the form of mantras and is written in a poetic verse style.

Katha Upanishad

• It is listed as number 3 in the Muktika canon of 108 Upanishads.
• It is embedded in the last short eight sections of the Kaṭha school of the Krishna Yajurveda.

Chandogya Upanishad

• It is a Sanskrit text embedded in the Chandogya Brahmana of the Sama Veda of Hinduism.
• It is one of the oldest Upanishads.
• It is listed as number 9 in the Muktika canon of 108 Upanishads.

Aitareya Upanishad 

• It comprises the fourth, fifth and sixth chapters of the second book of Aitareya Aranyaka.

Q: In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

a) Preamble to the Constitution
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Ninth Schedule

The correct answer is the Option 2.

Directive Principles of State Policy

• These provisions are contained in Part IV (Article 36–51) of the Constitution of India. However, these are not enforceable by any court.
• States have a responsibility to take Directive Principles into account when enacting legislation for the benefit of the populace.
• It is taken from the Constitution of Ireland.
• The “Directive Principles of State Policy” in the Indian Constitution include the promotion of international peace and security. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Article 51 says to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations. It is to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations and to encourage settlement of the international dispute by arbitration.

Q: What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?

a) Prevention of soil runoff

b) Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers

c) Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table

d) Regeneration of natural vegetation

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

• Integrated Watershed Development Programme 
• It is carried out by the Ministry of Rural Development’s Department of Land Resources.
• Utilizing, protecting, and developing degraded natural resources like soil, vegetation, and water are the key goals of the Integrated Watershed Development Programme.
• Prevention of soil run-off; rainwater harvesting and recharging of the groundwater table. Hence, Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
• Increasing crop yield; introducing multiple crops and a variety of agro-based activities; encouraging sustainable livelihoods; and raising household incomes.
• It does not aim to link the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers. Hence, Statement 2 is not correcT

Q: Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

a) The Finance Commission

b) The National Development Council

c) The Union Ministry of Rural Development

d) The Union Ministry of Urban Development

e) The Parliament

The correct answer is 2 and 5 only.

• The finance commission is involved in the distribution of taxes and grants. It is not involved in planning. Therefore, by just eliminating all options involving statement 1 we get Option 3 is correct.
• Finance Commission
• It is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements.
• It is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution to give its recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.
• The 15th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in November 2017, under the chairmanship of NK Singh. Its recommendations will cover a period of five years from the year 2021-22 to 2025-26.

Q: Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

a) Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings

b) Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees

c) Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

The Cabinet Secretariat

• It is entrusted with the responsibility of administering the Government of India. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• They assists in decision-making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination and evolving consensus through the standing/ad hoc Committees of Secretaries. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government.
• It is under the direct administration of the Prime Minister.
• The Prime Minister sets up different Cabinet Committees with selected members of the Cabinet and assigns specific functions to these Committees.
• The Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure is entrusted with the allocation of financial resources to the Ministries. Hence, Statement 3 is Not correct.

Q: Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which

a) places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority

b) places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

The correct answer is 2 only.

The Constitutional Government

• It is defined by the existence of a constitution.
• It can be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity.
• The idea behind constitutionalism is the control of power by its distribution among several state offices. The power is delegated to state offices but the central power remains with the main government.
• It places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Hence, statement 1 is Incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
• The citizens have the freedom to live and work in a society as they want. However, the citizens are abided by certain rules to follow for the betterment of the overall functions of the society.
• That is why citizens are given the fundamental rights that no one can deprive them of.

Q: Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

a) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule

b) Appointing the Ministers

c) Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India

d) Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Governor

• The Governor’s appointment, his powers and everything related to the office of Governor have been discussed under Article 153 to Article 162 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Governor performs the same duties as the President, but for the State.
• The discretionary powers of the Governor include:-
• He/She has the discretion to choose a candidate for the chief minister when no party gets a clear majority.
• He/She can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the President for his approval. 
• Governor can reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• They can override the advice of the council of ministers if specifically permitted by the President during emergency rule per Article 353.
• Article 356 also states that the President can invoke President rule in a state on the report of the governor. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Governor appoints Chief Minister and other Ministers as per Article 164 and the Advocate General for the State as per Article 165. Therefore, this is not a part of discretionary powers. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q: If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
b) increase the tax collection of the Government
c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy
d) increase the total savings in the economy

The correct answer is to Option 3.

Impact of decreased Interest in an Economy

• When the interest rates decrease, citizens do not want to keep their currency in banks since they would not get a high return. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.
• In such times, citizens keep the cash flowing in the economy. 
• They either invest in productive things or can spend the money on a day-to-day basis. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Therefore, the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will increase the investment expenditure in the economy.
• Decreased interest rates would ensure the availability of capital for investment expenditure. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The relationship between the interest rate and investment Expenditure is also illustrated by the investment curve of the economy.
• The curve has a downward slope, indicating that a drop in interest rate, causes the investment-spending to rise.
• If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will decrease the tax collection of the Government. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q: Consider the following statements:

a) The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

b) All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

The correct answer is 1 only.

Article 77 of the Indian Constitution

• It includes “Conduct of Business of the Government of India”.
• It says that “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business”. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It includes that “All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President”. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• It includes that “Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the President, and the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated shall not be called in question on the ground that it is not an order or instrum

Q: Consider the following statements regarding a No-confidences Motion in India:

a) There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.

b) A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

No-Confidence Motion in Indian Constitution

• Article 75 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
• A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Article 118 of the Indian Constitution permits both houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) of Parliament to make its own rules for its functioning.
• There is no mention of “no-confidence” motion in the Articles of Indian Constitution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Rule 198 of Lok Sabha mentions the procedure for a motion of no-confidence.
• Once a notice is given, the speaker reads it in the House and asks those who are in favour of it.
• In case there are 50 MPs in favour, a date for discussing the motion is assigned.
• The vote has to take place within 10 days of the notice, if the majority of the members vote in favour of the motion then the motion is passed and the government in power has to vacate the office.

Q: With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

a) Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.

b) Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.

c) Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Azadirachta indica (Neem Tree)

• It is commonly known as neem tree.
• It is a tree in the mahogany family Meliaceae.
• It is easily propagated – both sexually and vegetatively. It can be planted using seeds, seedlings, saplings, root suckers, or tissue culture.
• Neem leaf has various properties such as antibacterial, antiviral, antiparasitic, anti-inflammatory, anticarcinogenic, antioxidant, and immune upregulation. It is used in the pharmaceutical industry. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Neem oil

• It can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It is also used for skin diseases and digestive system disorders.
• It can also be obtained from solvent extraction of the neem seed and this solvent-extracted oil is mostly used for soap manufacturing.
• It can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents (not any particular source). Hence According to UPSC Official Answer key Statement 2 is not correct

Q: Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

The correct answer is Option 2.

Photosynthesis

• It is the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy.
• It uses light energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen gas.
• In photosynthesis food is oxidized to form energy oxygen and water. Therefore, the free energy is converted into potential energy and stored. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• The potential energy stored in the molecular bonds of glucose becomes kinetic energy after cellular respiration. 
• Chemical bonds are a form of stored or “potential” energy because when the bonds are broken, energy is released.
• It converts water and carbon dioxide into sugar and oxygen using sunlight as the catalyst.
• A byproduct of the photosynthetic process is the release of oxygen into the atmosphere.

Q: In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

a) Iris scanning

b) Retinal scanning

c) Voice recognition

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

With fingerprint scanning, the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person.

Iris scanning

• This is the process of using visible and near-infrared light to take a high-contrast photograph of a person’s iris.
• This is a form of biometric technology.

Retinal scanning

• It maps the unique patterns of a person’s retina.
• The blood vessels within the retina absorb light more readily than the surrounding tissue and are easily identified with appropriate lighting.
• This is highly accurate and difficult to spoof, in terms of identification.

Voice recognition

• This is a computer software program with the ability to decode the human voice.
• This is used to operate a device or perform commands.

Q: Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

a) Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.

b) Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.

c) Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Vegetative propagation

• This is an asexual method of plant reproduction that occurs in its leaves, roots and stem.
• This is often used when the crop plants either do not produce seeds or when the seeds produced are not viable or are of long dormancy.
• The widespread use of vegetative propagation results in the spread of viruses through propagules such as cuttings, tubers, runners and bulbs. A plant once systemically infected with a virus usually remains infected for its lifetime. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• It can be practised most of the year. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It is a process by which new organisms arise without production of seeds. It helps in development of clones. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Q: Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?

Spacecraft Purpose

Cassini-Huygens Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth

Messenger Mapping and investigating the Mercury

Voyager 1 and 2 Exploring the outer solar system

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Cassini-Huygens

• This was the fourth space probe to visit Saturn. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• It was launched with two elements: the Cassini orbiter and the Huygens probe.
• It reached Saturn in July 2004. 
• Its objective was to determine the dynamic behaviour of the rings of Saturn and the atmosphere of Saturn at cloud level among many other goals.

Messenger

• This was the seventh Discovery-class mission, and the first spacecraft to orbit Mercury. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Its primary goal was to study the geology, magnetic field, and chemical composition of the planet.

Voyager 1 and 2

• It was launched in 1977.
• Its main mission was the exploration of Jupiter and Saturn.
• Voyager 2 went on to explore Uranus and Neptune.
• The Voyagers explore the outer boundary of the heliosphere in interstellar space. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q: Consider the following pairs: Region Well-known for the production of

Kinnaur : Areca nut

Mewat : Mango

Coromandel : Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

The correct answer is None of these.

Kinnaur

• This is a district in Himachal Pradesh.
• According to the 2011 census, Kinnaur district has a population of 84,121.
• This is mostly famous for apples.
• The production of Areca nuts is mostly confined to Karnataka, Kerala and Assam. Therefore, pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Mewat

• This is a district in Haryana.
• The main occupation is agriculture along with allied and agro-based activities.
• This is not primarily famous for Mango. Therefore, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Coromandel

• This is a coastal plain in the eastern Tamil Nadu state.
• Rice, pulses, sugarcane, cotton, and peanuts are primarily grown in this region.
• The production of soybean in India is dominated by Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh which contribute 89 per cent of the total production. Therefore, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q: Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

a) Crystallization of sodium chloride

b) Melting of ice

c) Souring of milk

The correct answer is 3 only.

Chemical change

• When one chemical substance is transformed into one or more different substances, it is called a chemical change.
• The most common example is when iron transforms into rust.

Crystallization of sodium chloride

• When the solubility limit of NaCl exceeds, the crystallization of NaCl takes place.
• It is a physical change since sodium chloride does not transform into some other chemical element after crystallization. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

Melting of ice

• Ice is the solid form that liquid water takes when it is cooled below 0 degrees Celsius.
• When the temperature rises, solid ice changes into liquid water.
• Melting of Ice is not a chemical change since the composition of water molecules stays the same before and after melting. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Souring of milk

• Lactic acid bacteria ferment lactose at room temperature and turn it into lactic acid.
• As a result, the acidity of the milk increases, which in its turn causes the protein to fold and liquid to separate into whey and a viscous mass.
• The soured milk has new elements and it cannot be reversed. Therefore, souring of milk is a chemical change. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Q: The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

a) advisory jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction.
c) original jurisdiction
d) writ jurisdiction

The correct answer is Original Jurisdiction.

Original Jurisdiction of a court

• It refers to a matter for which the particular court is approached first or it means the power to hear and determine a dispute in the first instance.
• It is covered under Article 131 of the Indian constitution.
• The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its original jurisdiction. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It is under Article 131 of the Indian Constitution.
• It includes the following cases-
• the Centre and one or more states. Hence option 3 i.e. Orignal jurisdiction is correct.
• the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other.
• Any dispute between two or more States.

Q: Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

a) Budding and grafting in fruit plants

b) Cytoplasmic male sterility

c) Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic
crops?

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Transgenic Crops

• It is the crops that have their genomes modified through genetic engineering techniques either by the addition of a foreign gene or removal of a certain detrimental gene. the aim is to introduce a new trait to the plat which does not naturally occur.
• Budding and Grafting are horticultural techniques, Grafting is the act of placing a portion of one plant (bud or scion) into or on a stem, root, or branch of another (stock) in such a way that a union will be formed and the partners will continue to grow.
• In the budding process, a bud is taken from one plant and grown on another. it does not lead to any genetic modification. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

Cytoplasmic male sterility 

• It is total or partial male sterility in plants as the result of specific nuclear and mitochondrial interactions.
• Male sterility is the failure of plants to produce pollen or male gametes.
• The cytoplasmic male sterility systems are widely utilized in crop plants for hybrid breeding due to the convenience of controlling sterility. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Gene Silencing 

• By using RNA interference technology, transcriptional gene silencing, virus-induced gene silencing, has been used in horticultural techniques. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The double-strand RNAs present inside the cell are responsible for producing small interfering RNAs, short hairpin RNAs, and micro RNAs.

Q: Consider the following statements:

a) Maize can be used for the production of starch.

b) Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.

c) Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Maize starch 

• It is produced by the wet milling process, which involves the grinding of softened maize and separation of corn oil seeds (germs), gluten (proteins), fibers (husk), and finally pure starch.
• ⦁ ​Corn starch is made from maize kernels, which are high in starch. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• ⦁ Corn starch has a wide variety of applications. It is used as a thickening agent in soups.
• ⦁ Corn starch is also used in manufacturing bio-plastics and the preparation of corn syrup.
• ⦁ The general way to Produce Biodiesel fuels is transesterification of fat or oil triacylglycerols with short-chain alcohol such as methanol or ethanol in the presence of alkaline or acid catalysts.
• ⦁ Corn Biodiesel chemically is a mixture of long-chain fatty acid methyl esters (FAMEs).
• ⦁ Oil extracted from maize that can be converted into ethanol or biodiesel. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• ⦁ The type of alcohol in the alcoholic drinks we drink is a chemical called ethanol. To make alcohol, you need to put grains, fruits, or vegetables through a process called fermentation. the common source of ethanol is maize and other grains. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Q: Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

a) Crab
b) Mite
c) Scorpion
d) Spider

The correct answer is Option 1.

Mite, Scorpion, and Spider are Arachnids, while Crab is a Crustacean. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Crustacean-

• Phylum: Arthropoda
• Kingdom: Animalia
• Scientific name: Crustacea
• Crustacean is generally aquatic and differ from other arthropods in having two pairs of appendages (antennules and antennae) in front of the mouth and paired appendages near the mouth that function as jaws.
• Crabs, lobsters, shrimps, and woodlice are among the best-known crustaceans.

Arachnids any member of the arthropod group that includes spiders, daddy longlegs, scorpions, and the mites and ticks.

• Phylum: Arthropoda
• Kingdom: Animalia
• Scientific name: Arachnida
• All Arachnids have eight legs, and unlike insects, they don’t have antennae.
• The bodies of Arachnids are divided into two sections, the cephalothorax in front and the abdomen behind.

Q: The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

a) the President of India
b) the Parliament
c) the Chief Justice of India
d) the Law Commission

The correct answer is Option 2.

Supreme Court

• The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in the “Parliament”. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• In the Indian Constitution, Parliament is authorized to regulate judges.
• The number of judges in the Supreme Court, the Bill of 2019, was increased by four judges.
• With this, the total number of judges including the Chief Justice has been increased from 31 to 34.
• Articles 124 to 147 – Deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, powers, procedures, and so on of the Supreme Court.
• Under Article 124, the Constitution of India provides for a Supreme Court.

Q: Consider the following towns of India:

a) Bhadrachalam

b) Chanderi

c) Kancheepuram

d) Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of
traditional sarees / fabric?

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Chanderi

• This is located in Ashoknagar district of Madhya Pradesh.
• The main occupation of the people of Chanderi is handicraft.
• Chanderi sarees are famous all over the world.
• It is also famous for Ancient Jain Temples.

Kancheepuram

• This is located in Tamil Nadu and famous for silk Sarees. 
• 108 holy temples of the Hindu god Vishnu, 15 are located in Kancheepuram.

Q: Consider the following pairs: National Highway Cities connected

a) NH 4 : Chennai and Hyderabad

b) NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata

c) NH 15 : Ahmadabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

The correct answer is None.

National Highway	Cities connected	Lengths (Km)
NH 4	Mayabandar-Port Blair-Chiriyatapu (Andaman). Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.	230
NH 6	Jorabat (Meghalaya) – Selling (Mizoram). Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.	1873
NH 15	Baihat(Assam)-Wakro(Arunachal   Pradesh). Hence, Pair 3 is not correctly matched.	664

Q: Consider the following international agreements:

a) The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture

b) The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification

c) The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has / have a bearing on the
biodiversity?

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture

• This was adopted by the 31st session of the Conference of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations on 3rd November 2001.
• This is also known as the Seed Treaty.
• India is a signatory to the treaty.

The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification-

• This is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
• It was drafted and opened for signing in 1994. It became effective in 1996 after receiving 50 ratifications.
• Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to implement the Convention and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals. 

The World Heritage Convention-

• It was created in 1972, the primary mission of the Convention is to identify and protect the world’s natural and cultural heritage considered to be of outstanding universal value.
• This is a Convention under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

Q: Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’:

a) It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.

b) It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.

c) It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Earth Hour

⦁ ​It is Organized by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
⦁ It was started as a light out event in Sydney, Australia in 2007.
⦁ It is held every year on the last Saturday of March.
⦁ The idea is to refrain from the use of non-essential lighting to save energy in a symbolic call for environmental protection.
⦁ The event is held worldwide annually encouraging individual’s community’s households and businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet. Hence, Statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Q: Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

The correct answer is Option 1.

⦁ Diatoms are autotrophs which prepare their own food.
⦁ Crustaceans are herbivorous animals which feed on diatoms.
⦁ Herrings are carnivorous animals which feed on Crustaceans. This completes the food chain.
⦁ Diatoms are autotrophs prepare their own food. Crustaceans eats diatoms. Crustaceans’ members of zoo plants and are eaten by Herring fish when small. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Q: The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905lasted until

a) the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.

b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911

c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement

d) the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

The correct answer is Option 2.

Partition of Bengal (1905) 

⦁ As per Curzon, after the partition, the two provinces would be Bengal (including modern West Bengal, Odisha, and Bihar) and the other one is Eastern Bengal and Assam.
⦁ The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until. the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended. King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911.
⦁ 1911: King George V visits India
⦁ Owing to mass political protests, the Bengal partition was annulled in 1911.
⦁ The capital of British India was moved to Delhi from Calcutta (now Kolkata).
⦁ East and West Bengal were reunited while Bihar and Orissa became separate provinces. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
⦁ A separate Assam province was created. 

Q: The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress
c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
d) decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

The correct answer is Option 2.

1929 Congress Session

⦁ It was held at Lahore
⦁ Jawahar Lal Nehru was the president.
⦁ Indian National Congress, took the resolution of Poorna Swaraj or Complete Independence.
⦁ Civil Disobedience movement for complete independence to be launched.
⦁ Congress decided to observe 26th January as the total independence or Purna Swaraj Day. 
⦁ This session is significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress Hence, option 2 is correct.

Q: With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:

a) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.

b) It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.

c) It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only

Sattriya Dance

⦁ It was introduced in the 15th century A.D by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer of Assam, Mahapurusha Sankaradeva as a powerful medium for propagation of the Vaishnava faith. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
⦁ The dance form evolved and expanded as a distinctive style of dance later on.
⦁ This neo-Vaishnava treasure of Assamese dance and drama has been, for centuries, nurtured and preserved with great commitment by the Sattras. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
⦁ It was introduced in the 15th century A.D.
⦁ It was given the status of classical dance in the year 2000 by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
⦁ The themes performed are mostly on Radha Krishna and other myths.
⦁ It consists of dhemali, drum playing, known as gayan bayan, where several men play drums, in various talas (rhythms) and also use hand gestures.
⦁ Popular Artists are Guru Jatin Goswami and Sharodi Saikia among others.
⦁ It is based on devotional songs composed by Sankardeva. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q: Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

a) 22 March (or 21st March)
b) 15th May (or 16th May)
c) 31st March (or 30th March)
d) 21st April (or 20th April)

The correct answer is Option 1.

National Calendar of India/Saka Calendar 

⦁ ​Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to 22nd March of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 355 days and on 21 March in leap year. Hence, option 1 is correct.​
⦁ The Saka Era marked the beginning of the Saka Samvat, a historic Hindu calendar which was later introduced as ‘Indian National Calendar’ in 1957.
⦁ The Saka calendar consists of 365 days and 12 months which is similar to the structure of the Gregorian Calendar.

Q: With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:

Famous work of sculpture Site

a) A grand image of Buddha’s
Mahaparinirvana with numerous : Ajanta
celestial musicians above and
the sorrowful figures of his
followers below

b) A huge image of Varaha : Mount Abu
Avatar (boar incarnation. of Vishnu,
as he rescues Goddess Earth from
the deep and chaotic waters,
sculpted on rock

c) “Arjuna’s Penance” / : Mamallapuram
”Descent of Ganga” sculpted
on the surface of huge boulders
Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly
matched?

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Ajanta Caves

⦁ The Mahaparinirvana of the Buddha in Cave 17, with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below, is one of the grandest expressive scenes with the grieving figure of Ananda near his feet is exceptional. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
⦁ It is a series of Rock-cut caves in the Sahyadri ranges on Waghora river Aurangabad in Maharashtra. 
⦁ It consists of 29 Buddhist Caves of which 25 are viharas remaining 4 are Chaityas or prayer hall.
⦁ It developed between 200 BC to 658AD. 
⦁ It was built under the patronage of Vakataka Kings. 
⦁ It is abundant with Fresco paintings, outlining in red colour, absence of blue colour, all themed around Buddhism. 
⦁ It was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983.

Udaygiri caves

⦁ The Udayagiri Caves are twenty rock-cut caves near Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh from the early years of the 5th century CE. They contain a huge image of Varaha Avatar. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
⦁ It was built near the fifth century and are the oldest surviving Hindu temples in India. 
⦁ The sculpture of Vishnu in his incarnation as the male boar rescuing the mother earth presenting bhudevi to the boar’s tusk as depicted in Hindu mythology is present here.
⦁ They were built under the patronage of Gupta rulers. 

Arjuna’s Penance/ Descent of Ganga

⦁ The Monolithic sculpture was built under the reign of Pallava King Mahendra Varma located at Sri Sathya Perumal Temple. 
⦁ It was built around 600-640 AD. 
⦁ It was sculpted on the surface of huge boulders is found in Mamallapuram. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q: The Ghadr (Ghadar. was a

a) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.
b) nationalist organization operating from Singapore
c) militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
d) communist movement for India’s freedom with head-quarters at Tashkent

The correct answer Option 1.

Gadar movement 

⦁ It was an early 20th-century movement among Indians in North America to end British rule. 
⦁ The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary association founded by Punjabi Indians in the United States and Canada with the aim to gaining Indias independence from British rule. Key members included Lala Har Dayal Sohan Singh Bhakna Kartar Singh Sarabha and Rashbehari Bose.It had its headquarters at San Francisco. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
⦁ Many of the Gadarites return to India to carry out terrorist activities in Central Punjab. 
⦁ Lala Hardayal delivered lectures to Americans in intellectual workers in radicals. 
⦁ He became the leader of Indian immigrants on the West Coast.
⦁ A weekly periodical called Gadar was also started for propaganda campaigns to spread awareness about British rule in India.
⦁ Komagata Maru was a ship that was commissioned to transport Indian immigrants but the authorities did not allow immigrants to land and they were forced to return.

Q: With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?

a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India
b) It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in southern part of Coromandel area
c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar
d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

The correct answer is option 4.

Kalaripayattu 

⦁ It is a martial art.
⦁ It originated in Kerala from the 3rd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
⦁ The place where this martial art is practised is called a ‘Kalari’.
⦁ It is considered to be among the oldest martial arts still in existence. Hence, option 4 is correct.
⦁ It is practised in Kerala, in contiguous parts of Tamil Nadu and among Malyali community of Malaysia.
⦁ It includes kicks, grappling preset forms, weaponry and healing methods.
⦁ Practitioners of Kalaripayattu also possess intricate knowledge of pressure points on the human body and healing techniques that incorporate the knowledge of Ayurveda and Yoga.
⦁ Unlike other parts of India, warriors in Kerala belonged to all castes. Women in Keralite society also underwent training in Kalaripayattu, and still do so to this day.

Q: Consider the following pairs:

a) Garba : Gujarat

b) Mohiniattam : Odisha

c) Yakshagana : Karnataka

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Garba

⦁ It is a form of dance which originated in the state of Gujarat in India. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.

Mohiniyattam

⦁ It is literally interpreted as the dance of ‘Mohini, the celestial enchantress of Hindu mythology, is the classical solo dance form of Kerala. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Yakshagana

⦁ It is a traditional theatre form, developed in Karnataka, that combines dance, music, dialogue, costume, make-up, and stage techniques with a unique style and form. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q: With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs:

Famous shrine Location

a) Tabo monastery and temple : Spiti Valley
complex

b) Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, : Zanskar Valley
Nako

c) Alchi temple complex : Ladakh
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Famous Shrine	Location
Tabo monastery	⦁ It is located in the Tabo village of Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh, India. Hence pair 1 is correct. ⦁ It was founded in 996 CE by the Tibetan Buddhist Lotsawa Rinchen Zangpo on behalf of the king of the western Himalayan Kingdom of Guge, Yeshe-O.
Alchi temple complex	⦁ It is situated in Alchi village of Leh District, Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council. Hence pair 3 is correct. ⦁ It is administered by the Likir Monastery. ⦁ It was constructed by Guru Rinchen Zangpo between 958 and 1055 AD.
Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako	⦁ It is the 12th century Temple at now Ko in the Kinnaur region of Himachal Pradesh. Hence pair 2 is not correct. ⦁ It has been identified as one of the hundred most endangered heritage sites by the words monuments fund.

Q: Consider the following statements:

a) ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.

b) The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Saint Kabir

⦁ He was a renowned poet and social reformer during that 15 century.
⦁ His writings influenced the Bhakti movement.
⦁ Kabir was against religious discrimination and propagated the presence of one Supreme being in all the religions. 
⦁ They founded a religious community known as KabirPanth and his followers referred to as kabirpanthis.
⦁ Kabir was greatly influenced by his Guru Saint Swami Ramanand.
⦁ His works: Sakhi Granth, Anurag Sagar, bijak, kabir granthawali, etc. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

Pusti Bhakti is the grace of God and is of four kinds

⦁ Vallabhacharya’s philosophy came to be known as Pushtimarga (the path of grace). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
⦁ Pravaha Pustibhakti worldly life but move with awareness to attain God
⦁ Maryada Pustibhakti withdrawing from the world and devote themselves to God
⦁ Pusti-Pustibhakti enjoying God’s grace and attempt to acquire knowledge. 
⦁ Suddha-Pustibhakti devotes themselves to the singing and praising of God.

Q: A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

a) martial arts in North-East India
b) musical tradition in North-West India
c) classical vocal music in South India
d) pietra dura tradition in Central India

The correct answer is Option 2.

Manganiyars 

⦁ It is a tribal community from Rajasthan North west with a strong musical tradition. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
⦁ They are Muslim communities in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan.
⦁ They are patronized by the Bhati Rajput. 
⦁ They still sing on various auspicious occasions and festivals. 
⦁ They considered themselves as descendants of the Rajput and renowned as folk Musicians of the Thar desert.
⦁ These communities are famous for their classical folk music and the playing of Khartals. 
⦁ Khartal is a traditional percussion instrument that is a part of Rajasthani folk music.
⦁ The instrument is named after the Hindi words ‘kara’ means hand and ‘tala’ means rhythm — the rhythm of the hand. 
⦁ It is used during religious and social celebrations. 
⦁ It is made from Sheesham wood or teak and some can also be made of metals. 

Q: A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

a) martial arts in North-East India
b) musical tradition in North-West India
c) classical vocal music in South India
d) pietra dura tradition in Central India

The correct answer is Option 2.

Manganiyars 

⦁ It is a tribal community from Rajasthan North west with a strong musical tradition. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
⦁ They are Muslim communities in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan.
⦁ They are patronized by the Bhati Rajput. 
⦁ They still sing on various auspicious occasions and festivals. 
⦁ They considered themselves as descendants of the Rajput and renowned as folk Musicians of the Thar desert.
⦁ These communities are famous for their classical folk music and the playing of Khartals. 
⦁ Khartal is a traditional percussion instrument that is a part of Rajasthani folk music.
⦁ The instrument is named after the Hindi words ‘kara’ means hand and ‘tala’ means rhythm — the rhythm of the hand. 
⦁ It is used during religious and social celebrations. 
⦁ It is made from Sheesham wood or teak and some can also be made of metals. 

Q: Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family
b) Akbar’s private chamber prayer
c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.
d) the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs

The correct answer Option 3.

Ibadat khana

⦁ It was the meeting house built by Mughal Emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri 1575 AD. 
⦁ It was the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions on every Thursday to debate on religious issues raised by Akbar. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
⦁ This was a meeting house together spiritual leaders of different religious grounds and to conduct a discussion on teachings of various religious leaders.
⦁ This was also known as the Hall of prayer.  
⦁ It was a place for theologists, mystics, and religious Scholars known for their scholarship and intellectual attainment.
⦁ Akbar also attempted to Reconcile all different religion by creating a new faith called Din-e-Ilahi or the fate of the divine.  
⦁ It incorporated elements of various Islamic Sufism, Bhakti, and devotional movements along with some elements from Christianity, Zoroastrianism, Jainism, etc. 

Q: In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation?

a) There is no National Seeds Policy in place.

b) There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.

c) There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

The correct answer is 3 only.

⦁ We have a National Seed policy made in 2002. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
⦁ The private sector produces high-priced seeds but in lower volume. It supplies nearly the entire hybrid seeds required for vegetables. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
⦁ The private sector seed companies supply quality seeds of vegetables but in a small volume.
⦁ There is a demand-supply gap recording quality of seeds in case of low value and high volume crops such as wheat and rice.  
⦁ Farmers prefer to use their own preserve seeds due to the high demand and supply gap. Hence statement 3 is correct.
⦁ The seed replacement rate is a measure of how much of the total cropped area was sown with certified seeds in comparison to farm-saved seeds.
⦁ Seed replacement rate denotes better utilization of certified quality seeds which results in better productivity. 

Q: With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection. A c t, 1972.

b) The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Eco-sensitive zones
⦁ It is ecologically Fragile Areas within 10 km around protected areas to act as a buffer.
⦁ It is notified under section 3 of the Environment Protection Act 1986 by the Ministry of Environment and Forest. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
⦁ Certain activities are either banned or regulated to protect the environment.  
⦁ Agriculture, Horticulture practices by local communities, organic farming, rainwater harvesting, scientific research, tourism, etc. are permitted in the Eco-sensitive zones. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
⦁ It act as a shock absorber for the protected areas and are a transition zone from high protection areas to lesser protection areas.  
⦁ It help in In-situ conservation.
⦁ It minimize forest depletion and man-animal conflict.
⦁ It minimize the impact of urbanization and developmental activities in protected areas. 

Q: Consider the following statements:

a) Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection.Act, 1986.

b) National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.

c) National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Animal Welfare Board of India

⦁ This is a statutory body established under the prevention of cruelty to animals act 1960 in 1962.
⦁ It is an advisory body of the Government of India on animal welfare laws. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
⦁ This consists of 28 members who serve for a term of 3 years. 
⦁ Ministry of Environment and Forest is nodal ministry for Animal Welfare Board of India.
⦁ Its headquarters is in Ballabgarh in the Faridabad district of Haryana.

National Tiger conservation authority

⦁ It is a statutory body under the ministry of environment forest and climate change established in 2005. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
⦁ This was constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

National Ganga River Basin Authority 

⦁ It was replaced by the National Ganga Council under River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management) Authorities Order, 2016.
⦁ The National Ganga Council is chaired by the Prime Minister and the Union Minister for Jal Shakti is its vice-chairperson. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
⦁ This is responsible for the implementation of the national mission for Clean Ganga.

Q: Consider the following pairs:

Vitamin Deficiency disease

Vitamin C Scurvy

Vitamin D Rickets

Vitamin E Night blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Vitamins 

⦁ It is substances that our bodies need to develop and function normally like vitamins A, C, D, E, and K, choline, and vitamin B (thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, and folate/folic acid).
⦁ It shores up bones, heal wounds, and bolster your immune system.
⦁ It converts food into energy and repair cellular damage.
⦁ Deficiency of vitamin-E causes neurological problems due to poor conduction, night blindness is caused by deficiency of vitamin-A. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Q: There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products Why?

a) They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and soil.

b) They can enter the food chains.

c) They can trigger the production of free radicals.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Nanoparticle

⦁ It is defined as a particle of matter that is between 1 and 100 nanometres (nm) in diameter.
⦁ It is formed through the breaking down of larger particles or by controlled assembly processes.
⦁ It is used in the manufacture of scratchproof eyeglasses, crack-resistant paints, anti-graffiti coatings for walls, transparent sunscreens, stain-repellent fabrics, self-cleaning windows, and ceramic coatings for solar cells.
⦁ It can also be used in stronger, lighter, cleaner, and “smarter” surfaces and systems.
⦁ The toxicity of nanoparticles depends on their chemical composition.
⦁ The properties of particles may change in unpredictable ways at nanoparticle form.
⦁ It can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
⦁ It can enter food chains. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
⦁ It can trigger the production of free radicals. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
⦁ It may cross cell membranes.
⦁ It can reach the blood and may reach other target sites such as the liver, heart, or blood cells and may cause damage to cells as they stay for a persistently long time.

Q: Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

a) The International Monetary Fund
b) The United Nations Development Programme
c) The World Economic Forum
d) The World Bank

The correct answer is Option 1.

World Economic Outlook 

⦁ It is published by the International Monetary Fund twice a year. (April and October). Hence, Option 1 is correct.
⦁ This report analyses and predicts near and medium-term growth prospects.
⦁ Countries are compared based on GDP growth rate, or absolute GDP.

Q: With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

a) Defence -expenditure

b) Interest payments

c) Salaries and pensions

d) Subsidies

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Non Plan Expenditure

⦁ All expenditures which are done in the name of planning were called plan expenditures while the rest are placed under non-plan expenditures. 
⦁ The government of India has now scrapped the plan and non-plan expenditures in budget exercise and are replaced by capital and revenue spending classifications. 

Example of Non-plan expenditure

⦁ Expenditure incurred on Defence Services
⦁ Interest payments for debt
⦁ Subsidies (food, fertilisers, etc.)
⦁ Salaries and pensions of employees in various government services 
⦁ Economic services by the government such as Agriculture, Industry, Power, Science & Technology,
⦁ Loans and grants
⦁ Social services such as healthcare, education, social security
⦁ Police, etc.

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