UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper with Answer Key – General Studies Paper 1

As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2017 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1.

UPSC Prelims 2017 Exam

The UPSC Prelims exam is a tough phase in the Civil Services Examination, serving as an entry point to desirable positions like Indian Administrative Services (IAS) and Indian Police Services (IPS). It is set to happen on June 18, 2017, with two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam is from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM

The Importance of Previous Year Question Papers

To do well in the UPSC Prelims, candidates need more than just a solid grasp of concepts; they should also know the exam pattern, question formats, and time management strategies. A highly effective method for achieving this is to study the previous year’s question papers. These papers offer valuable insights into the exam’s format, level of difficulty, and the kinds of questions typically posed.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2017 – Available on Edukemy’s Website

Candidates eagerly anticipating the UPSC Prelims question papers don’t need to look everywhere. Soon after the exam, you can find the General Studies Paper 1 question papers on Edukemy’s website. Aspirants can effortlessly get and save the UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Papers in PDF format from our platform.

Prelims 2017 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions

Q1. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

• Private Member Bill 

• A private member bill is introduced by any member of parliament other than a minister. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• A one-month notice is needed to introduce a bill in the house of Representatives. 
• A private bill discussion is scheduled for every Friday of the workweek. 
• A private member’s bill expresses the opposing party’s perspective on current events. 
• In 1952, Syed Mohammed Ahmad Kasmi’s Muslim wakfs bill became the first private member’s bill to be passed. 
• Since independence, 14 private member bills have so far been approved by the parliament. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• The last private member bill passed by the parliament was the Supreme Court (enlargement of criminal appellate jurisdiction) bill in 1970. 

Q2. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryan and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Rigvedic Aryan used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans have domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – C

• Rig Vedic: 

• Rig Vedic Aryans utilised to mail and helmets in warfare, although the people of the Indus Valley Civilization left no indication of utilising them. 
• There is also evidence of swords, arrows, and bows used by Rig Vedic Aryans. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Rig Vedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 
• The Indus valley people knew gold, copper, and bronze but not iron, but the Rig Vedic Aryans knew gold, silver, copper, and iron. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q3. ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels
b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes
c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor is some public sector undertakings
d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development programme

Answer – A

• Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) Scheme  
• It aims to promote decentralization and local governance for better planning and implementation of skill development programmes. 
• It is being implemented by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC). 
• It recognizes the value of learning acquired outside a formal setting and provides a government certificate for an individual’s skills. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• Candidates receive exposure to concepts of digital and financial literacy and accidental insurance coverage for three years free of cost. 
• No fee is charged from a candidate for participating in the RPL programme and every successfully certified candidate receives Rs. 500. 
• This initiative is part of a larger programme on ‘Skill Development Planning at the level of Gram Panchayat’ that focuses on introducing RPL in a structured manner in various gram panchayats across the country.

Q4. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assume importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

b) Nallamala Forest

(c) Nagarhole National Park

d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Answer -A

• Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve: 
• It is a part of both the Western and Eastern Ghats and is situated in Tamil Nadu’s Erode district. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• An essential wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is the Sathyamangalam forest range. 
• It is a genetic link between the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park, and Bandipur National Park, four additional protected places that it borders. 
• It is a component of “Project Tiger,” which aims to protect tiger populations and lessen tiger trafficking and poaching. 
• The Indian government started Project Tiger in 1973. 

• Nallamala Forest: 
• It is situated in Andhra Pradesh’s Kurnool district. 
• Situated in the Eastern Ghats, the Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve includes Nallamala Forest. 
• The Telangana Nallamala Hills also contain the Amrabad Tiger Reserve. 
• Tigers, wild dogs, and jungle cats are well-known in this forest. 

• Nagarhole National Park: 
• It is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park and is situated in the Karnataka districts of Kodagu and Mysore. 
• It is a portion of the Bandipur National Park, Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, and Niligiri Biosphere Reserve. 
• It protects the habitat of tigers and elephants. 

• Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve: 
• It is situated in the Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh’s southern region. 
• Famous red sander and slender lories species can be found at the Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve. 

Q5. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

a) Privileges
b) Restraints
c) Competition
d) Ideology

The correct answer is option 1. 

• By abolishing the institutional system of inequality and privilege, equality in society can be preserved. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• Restraints, refer to the act of controlling or restricting someone. 
• Hence, restrictions violate equality and limit an individual’s freedom. Hence, Option 2 is not correct. 
• Competition is necessary for an activity, institution, or business to advance. Equality has nothing to do with it. Hence, Option 3 is not correct. 
• A group of individuals or an institution’s ideology is its set of guiding ideals or ideas in a given culture. 
• Political ideologies like democracy, communism, and others fall under the category of ideology. Hence, Option 4 is not correct.

Q6. Consider the following statements in respect of the related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC).

TRAFFIC is a beurau under United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP)

The mission of Traffic is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 2 Only. 

• Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 

• TRAFFIC is a well-known non-governmental organisation that promotes sustainable development and biodiversity conservation through worldwide trade in wild animals and plants. Hence, Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is not correct. 
• It was founded in 1976 and has offices in Cambridge, UK. 
• It is a cooperative project of the World Wildlife Fund and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) (WWF). 
• The main goal of TRAFFIC is to make sure that traffic in wild plants and animals doesn’t jeopardise efforts to preserve the environment. 

Q7. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
c) Right to work, education and public assistance
d) Securing living wages and human conditions of work to workers.

​The correct answer is Option 2. 

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): 

• It is found in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, which covers Articles 36-51.  
• It is the values that the state should keep in mind when adopting policies and laws for the state (36 to 51). 
• 42^ndAmendment in Directive Principles of State Policy: 
• It expanded the list of state policy directives by adding the following four: 
• The purpose of Article 39 is to guarantee chances for children’s healthy development. 
• Article 39 (A) aims to advance equal justice and give the poor free legal representation. 
• Article 43 (A) mandates action to ensure employees’ involvement in the administration of industries. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• Article 48 (a) aims to maintain forests and wildlife as well as to protect and develop the environment. 

Q8. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens
b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State
d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many

​The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Citizens’ rights are asserted against the state, and the state is obligated to defend citizens against societal oppression. Hence option 3 is correct. 
• The state cannot claim or demand anything from citizens since it takes away and restrains their rights. Hence option 1 is not correct. 
• The concept of special privileges, which would lead to social inequity, is not present in the constitution. Hence option 2 is not correct. 
• According to article 18, other than military and academic distinctions, no other citizens have titular privileges, except for military and academic distinctions. Hence option 4 is not correct.

Q9. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?

a) World Economic Forum
b) UN Human Rights Council
c) UN Women
d) World Health Orgnisation

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Global Gender Gap Index: 

• It is released by World Economic Forum which is an annual report. Hence option 1 is correct. 
• The first publication of this index was released in 2006. 
• This index is ranked among 153 countries by using 4 dimensions namely as follows, 
• Educational attainment, 
• Health and survival, 
• Economic participation & opportunity and 
• Political empowerment. 
• The World Economic Forum (WEF) ranked India at 135 out of 146 countries in its Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index for 2022.  
• India’s overall score has improved from 0.625 (in 2021) to 0.629, which is its seventh-highest score in the last 16 years.  
• In 2021, India was ranked 140 out of 156 countries. 

Q10. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

1. It is centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a program aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country complete digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• Smart India Hackathon: 
• It started as a competition to create cutting-edge digital technologies to address the problems facing ministries and the federal government. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• Since 2017, it has been organised by the Ministry of Human Resource Development. 
• It immediately involves the nation-building process with the country’s youth. 
• No problem is too huge, and no idea is too little, is the motto of the Smart India Hackathon. 
• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT): 
• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs began this centrally funded programme in 2015. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• The main goals of AMRUT are to improve the level of living and quality of life for urban poor and oppressed people, as well as to offer essential facilities to urban regions. 
• Approximately 500 cities have been covered as of the first phase. It features the following. 
• The establishment of green areas and parks for recreation to lessen pollution, o The maintenance of good sewage and drinking water connections in every home, o The promotion of the use of public transportation and non-motorized forms of transportation like cycling. 

• Digital India: 
• As part of the Digital India goal and moving toward cashless transactions, the programme aims to entirely digitise all financial transactions in our nation. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct. 
• Debit/credit cards, mobile wallets, Electronic Clearing Services (ECS), National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), and other payment methods are used to transfer money. 
• The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology is in charge of promoting digital transactions, including digital payments. 

Q11. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the Chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

The correct answer is 1 only. 

• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) 
• The RBI’s benchmark interest rates, which include MSF, Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, and Liquidity Adjustment Facility, are determined by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• The committee will consist of six people. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• The government will propose three candidates for each of the six open seats. 
• The RBI’s other three members would be included. 
• Ex-officio Chairperson of MPC is the Governor of the Reserve Bank. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• Appointments to the Monetary Policy Committee will last for four years. 
• Reappointments to the Monetary Policy Committee are not permitted. 

Q12. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements

1. It is a song and dance performance
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is used to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

Manipuri Sankirtana 

• It involves ritual singing, drumming, and dancing. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• It was also inscribed in the Representative List of the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2013.  
• Manipuri Sankirtana is practiced primarily by the Vaishnava community in Manipur (also in some parts of Tripura and Assam). 
• Manipuri Sankirtana is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 
• Cymbals are not the only musical instruments as Drums are also used in the performance. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 

Q13. Which among the following was/were associated with the introduction of the Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British Rule?

1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. 

• During British rule, Alexander Read and Thomas Munro were involved in the introduction of the Ryotwari Settlement in India. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 

• Thomas Munro introduced the Ryotwari System in 1820. 
• It was based on the Captain Alexander Reed-managed system. 
• The system began in Tamil Nadu and was later expanded to Maharashtra, Berar, East Punjab, Coorg, and Assam. 
• Ownership rights were transferred to peasants under the Ryotwari System. 
• There were no middlemen between the government and the individual cultivator, and the British government collected taxes directly from the peasants.

Q14. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation techniques?

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• Bioremediation technique  
• Bioremediation is a treatment that involves the use of naturally occurring organisms to convert hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances.  
• It degrades organic contaminants in soil, groundwater, sludge, and solids using microorganisms. 
• The bioremediation technique is a method of cleaning up pollution by enhancing the natural biodegradation process. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Not all contaminants are easily treated by microorganism-based bioremediation. Heavy metals, for example, cadmium and lead, are not easily absorbed or captured by microorganisms. 
• Bioremediation is only applicable to biodegradable compounds. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• Bioremediation is the process of degrading environmental contaminants using microorganisms, primarily bacteria and fungi. 
• Using genetic engineering, microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation can be created. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Q15. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

a) the participation of the workers in the management of industries
b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes
c) an intervention by British Court in the event of a trade dispute
d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 

• It established a tribunal system and prohibited strikes. 
• The main purpose of the Trade Disputes Act of 1929 was to establish procedures for the formation of Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation. 
• The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 also prohibited unannounced strikes or lockouts in public utility services. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• The Working Men’s Club, founded in 1870 by Sasipada Banerjee, was the first labour organisation. It was established in Kolkata. 
• B.P. Wadia founded the Chennai Labour Union.

Q16. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

a) Federalism
b) Democratic decentralisation
c) Administrative delegation
d) Direct democracy

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Local self-government 

• It is best understood as a form of democratic decentralisation. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• Decentralization and grassroots empowerment are the two guiding principles of local self-government. 
• It is covered by the 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution. 
• Local self-government bodies are political entities that are managed by their representatives and are elected directly or indirectly by the people. 
• There can be no direct democracy because all decisions are made directly by the people in direct democracy. 

Q17. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitutes limitations upon

1. Legislative Function
2. Executive Function

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• The Directive Principles of State Policy do not impose restrictions on legislative or executive functions. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct. 
• Fundamental rights serve as constraints on legislative and executive functions. 
• In 1945, the Sapru Committee proposed two categories of individual rights. 
• One type of right is justiciable, while the other is not. 
• Fundamental Rights are justiciable rights. 
• The non-justiciable are referred to as State Policy Directive Principles. 
• State policy directive principles are typically classified into three types: 

• Principles of Socialism 
• Gandhian Fundamentals 
• Principles of Liberal Intellect. 

Q18. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the new refers to

a) ASEAN
b) BRICS
c) EU
d) G 20

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Digital Single Market Strategy  
• In the news, the term “Digital Single Market Strategy” refers to the EU. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• The ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ includes telecom, digital marketing, and e-commerce. 
• Juncker Commission announced the digital market in May 2015. 
• This strategy is built on three pillars: 
• Development of digital networks and services; expansion of the European digital economy. 
• Availability of online products and services. 

Q19. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shoreline a few kilometers and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

a) Bhavnagar
b) Bheemunipatnam
c) Chandipur
d) Nagapattinam

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• If you stand on a seashore in India and watch the sea, you will notice that the seawater recedes from the shoreline a few kilometres and returns to the shore twice a day, and you can walk on the seafloor when the water recedes. This one-of-a-kind phenomenon can be seen in Chandipur. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• Odisha is home to Chandipur Beach. 
• Chandipur Beach is also known as the ‘hide-and-seek’ beach, and it is home to the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organization) Integrated Research Range, where ballistic missiles are tested. 
• Fresh seafood is also available at Chandipur Beach. 

Q20. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements :

1. A property transaction is no treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government
3. The act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

The correct answer is 2 only 

• Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act) 
• A property transaction is treated as a Benami transaction even if the owner of the property is unaware of the transaction because ignorance of the law is never an acceptable defence for breaking the law in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.  
• Benami’s properties are subject to confiscation by the government.  
• They are also subject to confiscation by the government without compensation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Tribunal have been established as an appeals mechanism. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. 
• Persons involved in Benami transactions may face up to 7 years in prison and a fine. 

Q21. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected
2. There could be drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds

Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• Butterflies (also known as bees)  
• It plays an important role in plant pollination and crop production. 
• Butterflies move pollen grains from one location to another. 
• Hence, if the population of certain butterfly species declines dramatically, pollination of some plants may suffer. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Because there are no reasons (that have been proven) for a significant increase in fungal infections in some cultivated plants. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• It may cause a decrease in the population of some wasps, spiders, and birds because these species are the predators of butterflies, and if the population decreases, these predators will lose their main food source. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Q22. It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only an not on continents
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large-scale facilities which may rise ecological and social concerns

Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. 

• Algae-based biofuels  
• It can be produced on land, in saline water, or wastewater. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.  
• Algal biofuel production is possible in both seas and on land.  
• They can grow in marginal or non-cropland environments, as well as brackish or polluted water.  
• Land-based systems have advanced more than sea-based systems. Because producing biofuels from algae is still in the pre-commercial stage of technology development, and capital investments are a significant barrier, setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production requires a high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• Economically viable production necessitates the establishment of large-scale facilities, which may raise ecological and social concerns because it reduces the amount of food available for humans and increases the cost of food and fuel due to supply shortages. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Q23. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women
3. To promote the consumption of millets coarse cereals and unpolished rice
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. 

National Nutrition Mission 

• It is also known as the POSHAN Abhiyaan (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition). It took off from Jhunjhunu in Rajasthan on March 8, 2018, to commemorate International Women’s Day. 
• ‘National Nutrition Mission’ Goals: 
• Raising awareness about malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Lower the prevalence of anaemia in young children, adolescent girls, and women. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• To reduce maternal and child malnutrition (children under the age of three) in 200 high-burden districts. 
• There is no mention of promoting the consumption of millet, coarse cereals, and unpolished rice in the report. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. 
• The report also makes no mention of encouraging the consumption of poultry eggs. Hence, statement 4 is not correct. 

Q24. Consider the following statements:

1. The Factories Act, of 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labor movement in British India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 2 only. 

The Factory Act of 1881: 

• It was adopted in 1881 by Lord Ripon. 
• In 1885, a Factory Commission was formed. 
• The 1881 Act aimed to improve labour working conditions. 
• It also prohibited hiring children under the age of seven. 
• The most important decision was to limit the number of working hours for children under the age of twelve. 
• The Factory Act of 1881 required one hour of rest during the working day and required that dangerous machinery be properly fenced, but it made no mention of the formation of trade unions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• N.M. Lokhande was a forerunner in organising the British Indian labour movement. He worked for the working conditions of textile mills and also for the caste and communal issues. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Q25. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only. 

• Carbon sequestration 

• Carbon sequestration is the process of storing (or capturing) atmospheric carbon dioxide. 
• It is used to reduce the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere. 
• Because CO2 molecules attach to the surface of coal, abandoned and uneconomic coal seams can be used to store CO2. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• CO2 is also used as a recovery tool, such as injecting CO2 into depleted oil fields to boost oil recovery. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Forests serve as carbon sinks because trees are natural carbon sequesters. 
• Wetland restoration, as wetlands conserve 14.5% of the world’s soil carbon; is also used for Subterranean deep saline formations. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Q26. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments
b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India
c) Impose censorship on national press
d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Butler Committee Report of 1927: 

• It sought to improve relations between the Government of India and the Indian States. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• The Butler Committee, also known as the Indian States Committee, was formed in 1927. 
• In 1929, the committee submitted its report. 
• According to the Committee, the Viceroy should represent the Crown in all dealings with the States. This proposed change is comparable to the new Imperial arrangement under which the Governor-General of a Dominion serves as High Commissioner for the Protectorates of the Dominion. 
• It states that the monarchy must remain supreme. 
• It is claimed that British supremacy protects the princely state. 
• The Committee understands the Native Princes’ concern that their States might be transferred without their consent under a new Government in British India accountable to an Indian Legislature, and they express unequivocally that no such transfer should occur without the Princes’ consent.  
• It also states that the state should not be transferred unless both parties agree.

Q27. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

a) Developing solar power production in our country

b) Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country

c) Exporting our food products to other countries

d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• National Solar Mission: 

• The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ appears in the news from time to time concerning developing solar power production in our country. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• It was established as part of the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission. 
• India adopted the National Solar Mission, also known as the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission, in 2010. 
• It intends to generate 100,000 MW of grid-connected solar power capacity by 2022. 
• Domestic content requirements were imposed on solar power developers participating in phases I and II. 

Q28. Consider the following statements :

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of United Nations
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• Nuclear Security Summits are held regularly under the auspices of the United States (US), not the United Nations. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Fissile Materials International Panel 
• It was established in January 2006. 
• The International Panel on Fissile Materials is a non-governmental organisation comprised of experts in arms control and nonproliferation. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• It includes experts from both nuclear and non-nuclear weapon states. 

Q29. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

a) Resident Indian citizens only
b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
d) All Central Government employees including those of the Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• NPS (National Pension System) 
• It is a government-sponsored defined contribution pension scheme. 
• NPS applies to all new Central Government employees (except the Armed Forces) and Central Autonomous Bodies who join the government on or after January 1, 2004. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. 
• NPS applies to all employees of State Governments and State Autonomous Bodies who join services after the respective State Governments’ notification date. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
• NPS is open to all Indian citizens between the ages of 18 and 60 as of the date of application to a Point of Presence (POP) / Point of Presence-Service Provider (POP-SP). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• NRIs were recently permitted to open National Pension Scheme (NPS) accounts online. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 

Q29. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

a) Resident Indian citizens only
b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
d) All Central Government employees including those of the Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• NPS (National Pension System) 
• It is a government-sponsored defined contribution pension scheme. 
• NPS applies to all new Central Government employees (except the Armed Forces) and Central Autonomous Bodies who join the government on or after January 1, 2004. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. 
• NPS applies to all employees of State Governments and State Autonomous Bodies who join services after the respective State Governments’ notification date. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
• NPS is open to all Indian citizens between the ages of 18 and 60 as of the date of application to a Point of Presence (POP) / Point of Presence-Service Provider (POP-SP). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• NRIs were recently permitted to open National Pension Scheme (NPS) accounts online. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 

Left	Right
Dibang River Lohit River Dhansiri River Kolong River	Kameng River Manas River Beki River Raidak River Jaldhaka River Teesta River Subansiri River

Q31. Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• Zika Virus: 

• Zika virus disease is transmitted in tropical regions by the same mosquito (Aedes species mosquito) that transmits dengue.  
• Aedes species mosquitos also spread chikungunya viruses. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Zika virus disease is transmitted through bites, but it can also be transmitted through intrauterine infection.  
• Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible even if the infected person is asymptomatic at the time. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• It was discovered in 1947 in Zika Forest, Uganda. 
• There is currently no specific treatment or vaccine for Zika. 

Q32. Consider the following statements:

1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS. is mandatory for automotive tires and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 1 only. 

• Certain types of electronics and IT goods, cement, household electrical products, food products, steel materials, and all types of automotive tyres and tubes are required to bear the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Standard Mark. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• AGMARK vs FSSAI: 
• AGMARK is a quality certification mark issued by the Government of India’s Directorate of Marketing and Inspection. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• AGMARK is a certification mark that is applied to agricultural products. 
• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a body established by the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006 to inspect the quality of food products. 
• FSSAI’s role is agency inspection, whereas AGMARK’s role is certification. 

Q33. What is/are the advantages/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmer’s access to the nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• National Agriculture Market: 

• The National Agriculture Market connects the existing APMC mandis to form a unified national agricultural commodity market. 
• It is an electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities that operates across India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• It gives farmers access to a nationwide market at prices that are commensurate with the quality of their produce. Essentially, it provides a platform for purchasing at lower prices. Hence, Statement 2 is also correct. 
• The Centre launched it in 2015. 
• NAM also promotes the scientific storage and movement of agricultural goods. 

Q34. With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS
   Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual
   property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• National Intellectual Property Rights Policy: 
• The National Intellectual Property Rights Policy aims to create a country-wide ecosystem that fosters innovation and creativity in terms of IP awareness and creation, commercialization, and enforcement. 
• The nodal department has been designated as the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP). Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• India introduced this policy as part of its commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The National Intellectual Property Rights Policy encompasses and unifies all IPRs on a single platform. 
• It intends to incorporate and adapt global best practises to the Indian context. 

• TRIPS Agreement: 
• TRIPS is an acronym for Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights. It is an international legal agreement between all World Trade Organization (WTO) member countries. It went into effect on January 1, 1995. 

Q35. According to the Wildlife [Protection] Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild Buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. 

• All of the animals mentioned are scheduled protected animals under the Wildlife Act of 1972. 
• The gharial is critically endangered, and the water buffalo is endangered. Hence, they are classified as Schedule I. 
• Indian wild ass is classified as Endangered and is listed on Schedule I. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• There are six schedules provided in the Wildlife Protection Act based on the degree of protection. 
• Schedules 1 and 2 provide absolute protection, and offences under these are punishable by the harshest penalties. 
• Schedule 1 deals with endangered species. 
• Schedules 3 and 4: These include protected species, but the penalties for violations are lower than in the first two schedules. This list only includes species that are not endangered. 
• Schedule 5: This schedule contains huntable animals. 
• Schedule 6 lists the plants that are not allowed to be cultivated or planted. 

Q36. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• Fundamental Duties: 

• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 incorporated the fundamental duties into Part IV-A of our constitution. 
• Article 51 A of the constitution currently lists eleven fundamental duties. 
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the former Soviet Union. 
• Originally, there were ten duties; however, the eleventh Fundamental duty was added through the 86th Amendment Act of 2002. 
• The Swaran Singh Committee recommended that Fundamental Duties be included in the Indian Constitution. 
• Fundamental duties are not enforceable. 
• There is no legislative process in place to compel citizens to carry out their responsibilities. Hence, statement 1 is false. A legal duty must be carried out under the law. Hence, there is no relationship between legal and fundamental duties. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Q38. Consider the following pairs:

1. Radhakanta Deb- First President of the British Indian Association.
2. GazuluLakshminarasuChetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• The British Indian Association 
• It was established in Calcutta in October 1851.  
• The British Indian Association’s first president was Raja Radha Kanta dev, and its secretary was Debendranath Tagore. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched. 

• The Madras Mahajana Sabha  
• It was established in May 1884.  
• M. Veeraraghavachariar, S. Ramaswami Mudaliar, and P. Anandacharlu founded it. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched. 

• Indian Association  
• Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose founded the Indian Association in 1876. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched. 
• The Indian Association was the first openly nationalist organisation to be established in British India.  
• The objectives of this Association were “promoting by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of the people”. 

Q38. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

a) Liberty of thought
b) Economic liberty
c) Liberty of expression
d) Liberty of belief

The correct answer is Option 2.  

• The Indian Constitution’s preamble guarantees freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.  
• The preamble contained no mention of economic liberty. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• India is declared to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic in the preamble.  
• The Preamble’s stated goals are to secure justice, liberty, and equality for all citizens, as well as to promote fraternity to maintain the nation’s unity and integrity. 

Q39. With reference to ‘The Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:

1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the India Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• The Quality Council of India (QCI)  
• It was established jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry, represented by three premier industry associations, namely the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), and the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to establish and operate a national accreditation structure and to promote quality through the National Quality Campaign. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• QCI is a non-profit organisation with its own Memorandum of Association. 
• QCI is governed by a Council of 38 members, which includes the Chairman and Secretary-General. 
• The Council is comprised of an equal number of representatives from government, industry, and other stakeholders. 
• The Prime Minister appoints the Chairman of QCI based on the industry’s recommendation to the government. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The Ministry of Commerce and Industry’s Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal ministry for QCI. 

Q40. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

1. To supply credit to small business units.
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers.
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. 

• According to the RBI guidelines 
• The goals of small finance banks will be to increase financial inclusion by providing savings vehicles and providing credit to small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries, and other unorganised sector entities via high technology-low-cost operations. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct. 
• There is no explicit provision stating that SFBs were established to encourage the establishment of businesses in rural areas. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. 

Q41. With reference to ‘The Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development [APMCHUD], consider the following statements:

1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms’ – Policy Response and Governance Structure’.
2. India host all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is option 4 i.e Neither 1 nor 2. 

• APMCHUD:  
• The First APMCHUD (Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development) Conference was held in New Delhi in December 2006 under the thematic of “A vision for sustainable urbanisation in the Asia-Pacific by 2020”. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• The APMCHUD Conference is held every two years. 
• APMCHUD is an intergovernmental mechanism for collaboration and cooperation among Asia Pacific countries in the field of housing and development. 
• It was founded with the assistance and support of UN-Habitat. 
• This event is hosted by one of the member countries whose offer was accepted by the APMCHUD members at the previous conference. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 

Q42. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
b) the methods for strengthening executing leadership
c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
d) a band of dedicated party workers.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Democracy 
• It is a form of government in which citizens elect their representatives through voting. Because democracy requires people to make decisions through voting, the process involves people’s intelligence and character.  
• The object of government, according to John Stuart Mill, is the attainment of values and virtues in men and their self-development, the government must be of those whose self-development is sought.  
• In a democracy, the right to vote allows citizens to exercise their rights and ensures adherence to moral values or character traits such as justice and equality. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 

Q43. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘United Payments Interface [UPI]?

a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades
c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

The correct answer is option 1.  

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI) 
• It allows you to pay directly from your bank account to various merchants without having to type in your credit card information or net banking/wallet password. Hence, option 1 is correct. 
• UPI is a payment system that allows money to be transferred between two bank accounts via smartphone. 
• The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time instant payment system developed by NPCI to facilitate inter-bank transactions via mobile phone. 

Q44. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’ ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth.

The correct answer is Option 1.  

• The standard model of particle physics is a mathematical model that describes electromagnetism, nuclear forces (both strong and weak), and the Higgs mechanism. 
• String theory is used to understand quantum phenomena in the context of quantum physics. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• The basic structure of a black hole consists of a singularity hidden by an event horizon.  
• Within the event horizon, the escape velocity exceeds the velocity of light, and an object is trapped indefinitely. 

Q45. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’ often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. 

• Genome sequencing is the process of determining the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome—the sequence of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that comprise an organism’s DNA. 
• There are over 3 billion of these genetic letters in the human genome. 
• Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers in crop plants for disease resistance and drought tolerance. 
• Genome sequencing is a technique that will aid in genetic engineering, reducing the time required to develop new crop plant varieties.  
• It can be used to decipher host-pathogen relationships in crops. 
• Hence, Option 4 is correct. 

Q46. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

a) the executive and legislature work independently
b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient
c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature
d) the head of the government cannot be changed without the election.

The correct answer is option 3. 

• The Indian Constitution calls for parliamentary government at both the national and state levels. 
• Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system of government at the Union level, while Articles 163 and 164 deal with the States. 
• The executive must account to the legislature for its policies and actions. (Hence, option 3 is correct.) 
• In the Presidential form of government, the executive is not accountable to the legislature for its policies and actions, implying that the executive and legislature operate independent

Q47. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties
c) Rights, not Duties are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen
d) Duties, not Rights are important for the stability of the State.

The correct answer is option 1. 

• Fundamental Duties: 

• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 incorporated the fundamental duties into Part IV-A of our constitution. 
• Article 51 A of the constitution currently lists eleven fundamental duties. 
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the former Soviet Union. 
• Originally, there were ten duties; however, the eleventh Fundamental duty was added through the 86th Amendment Act of 2002. 
• The Swaran Singh Committee recommended that Fundamental Duties be included in the Indian Constitution. 

• Fundamental duties are not enforceable. 

• Fundamental Rights 

• Fundamental Rights are addressed in Articles 12-35 of Part III of the Indian Constitution. 
• Fundamental rights can be enforced in a court of law. 
• Rights and duties are inextricably linked and cannot be separated. Hence, option 1 is correct. 
• One cannot enjoy a right if others do not perform their responsibilities. 
• The state protects and enforces rights, and all citizens must be loyal to the state.

49. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel to, including the origin and the destination?

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• The Preamble 
• The Preamble to the Constitution faithfully reflects the framers’ minds and ideals.  
• The ideals embodied in the Objectives Resolution are faithfully reflected in the Preamble to the Constitution. 
• It summarises the Constitution’s aims and objectives. • It is a feature borrowed from the United States Constitution. • The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. 
• It cannot be enforced in a court of law. 
• So far, the Preamble has only been amended once, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Socialist, Secular, and Integrity were added as new words. 

Q50. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is option 2. 

• If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, you must pass through Nagaland (origin), Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh, and then either Tamil Nadu to Kerala (Kottayam-destination) or AP to Karnataka to Kerala (Kottayam-destination). So the minimum number of states through which you can travel within India, including the origin and destination, is seven. 

Q50. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is option 2. 

• If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, you must pass through Nagaland (origin), Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh, and then either Tamil Nadu to Kerala (Kottayam-destination) or AP to Karnataka to Kerala (Kottayam-destination). So the minimum number of states through which you can travel within India, including the origin and destination, is seven. 

Q51. Which of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatia Kingdom?

a) Kakinada
b) Motupalli
c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
d) Nelluru

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Motupalli  
• It was a well-known trading seaport in the Kakatiyas. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• The famous Venetian traveller Marco Polo visited the Kakatiya kingdom through this port and wrote about the prosperity and power in Andhra Desha in his travelogue. The port of Machilipatnam served as the Golconda Kingdom’s main seaport. 

Q52. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by world Resources Institute (WRI. and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. 

• Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) 

• The European Union (EU) established the Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, particularly least-developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing states (SIDS). Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The GCCA also provides partner countries with technical and financial assistance in integrating climate change into their development policies and budgets, as well as in implementing projects that address climate change on the ground, promoting climate-resilient, low-emission development. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• By fostering effective climate change dialogue and cooperation, the Alliance helps to ensure that poor developing countries most vulnerable to climate change increase their capacity to adapt to the effects of climate change, thereby supporting the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals. 
• There is no mention of WRI and WBCSD on the official partner’s page of GCCA, even though a lot of other institutions are mentioned like FAO, UNDP etc. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 

Q52. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Sautrantika and sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituts of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Correct Answer is 2 only. 

• The Buddhist sects are Sautrantikas and Sammtiyas. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• The term “Sautrantika” refers to a sutra follower. 
• Sautrantika is widely regarded as another school of Buddhism that arose within the Sarvastivada sect. 
• Sarvastivadin: While all Buddhists believe that everything empirical is impermanent, the Sarvastivadins believe that the dharma factors are eternally existing realities. This Buddhist sect believes that everything exists and exists continuously in the past, future, and present. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q54. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

The correct answers is 3 and 4 only. 

• The Mediterranean Sea is surrounded by 21 different countries. Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey are the countries involved. The Mediterranean Sea is linked to the Atlantic Ocean by the Strait of Gibraltar, a narrow passageway. 

Q55. With reference to the ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs 4,00,000 crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF): 
• The National Infrastructure Investment Fund (NIIF) is a collaborative investment platform for international and Indian investors looking for investment opportunities in infrastructure and other high-growth sectors of the country. 
• It was established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Regulations as a Category II Alternate Investment Fund (AIF). Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• It was India’s first infrastructure-specific investment fund, established in February 2015 by the Government of India. 
• The fund’s total corpus is Rs. 40000 Crore. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 

Q56. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

a) anyone resident in India.
b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
d) any citizen of India

The correct answer is option 2. 

• Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) 
• The World Bank established the Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) to address countries’ infrastructure needs. 
• The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a global, open platform that assists in the planning and structuring of complex infrastructure public-private partnerships (PPPs) to mobilize private sector and institutional investor capital. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• It is intended to provide a new way for institutions to collaborate on complex projects that no single institution could handle on its own. 

Q57. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

a) anyone resident in India.
b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
d) any citizen of India

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Eligibilities for Lok Sabha Member 
• Anyone who is 25 years old or older is eligible to run for a Lok Sabha seat.  
• The candidate must be a registered constituency elector and an Indian citizen. Hence, Option 3 is correct.  
• She/he can, however, run for any seat in any state if she/he is a registered voter in that state.  
• The candidate cannot be nominated if they have been convicted of a crime and are in prison, or if they are out on bail pending the outcome of their appeal.  
• Every candidate must make a security deposit of Rs 25,000 for the Lok Sabha election when filing a nomination.  
• Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have to pay only half the amount, Rs 12,500, as the deposit. 

Q58. Considered the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

The Correct Answer is 3 only. 

• The Indian Himalayan Region spans 12 Indian states (namely Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, two districts of Assam namely Dima Hasao and Karbi Anglong and Darjeeling and Kalimpong in West Bengal). Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• The Western Ghats are found in six different states: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Pulicat Lake is India’s second-largest brackish water lake, spanning two states: Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Q60.With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations program working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and bask sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only

The Correct Answers is 1 and 3 only. 

• UN-Habitat  

• The United Nations General Assembly has mandated UN-Habitat. 

• UN-Habitat has been a global leader in promoting socially and environmentally sustainable human settlements, as well as adequate housing for all. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• UN-Habitat works with governments, intergovernmental organisations, UN agencies, civil society organisations, foundations, academic institutions, and the private sector to achieve long-term results in addressing urbanisation challenges. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• Un-Habitat was founded in 1978. 
• UN-Habitat contributes to the UN system’s overall goal of reducing poverty and promoting access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Q61. With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education:

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• The National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF)  
• It is a competency-based framework that organises all qualifications based on skills, aptitude, and a series of knowledge levels.  
• Levels are defined as learning outcomes that a learner must have, regardless of whether they are obtained through informal, formal, or non-formal learning, and are graded from one to ten. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• In India, the NSQF was announced on December 27th, 2013. 
• Specific outcomes expected from NSQF are: 

• Mobility between general education and vocational education through degree alignment with the Framework. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The transition from the informal to the formal labour market through Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL). 
• A national quality assurance framework to ensure that training is consistent and standardized across the country. 
• NSQF international equivalence to facilitate global mobility of skilled workforce from India.

Q62. In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to

a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
b) Introduction of double government i.e.; Central and State governments.

c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• The Montage-Chelmsford reforms 1919 

• In 1918, Lord Chelmsford, Viceroy, and Edwin Montagu, Secretary of State, introduced constitutional reforms that led to the passage of the Government of India Act of 1919. 
• The Provincial Legislative Councils were expanded, with the majority of members elected. 
• Under the Dyarchy system, provincial governments were given more authority. 
• Under Dyarchy, some subjects, such as finance and law and order, remained directly under the Governor’s control and were referred to as ‘reserved’ subjects. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• Other subjects, such as education, public health, and local self-government, were to be controlled by ministers accountable to the legislatures and were referred to as ‘transferred’ subjects. 

Q63. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:

1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training,
   Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment
   opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• National Career Service  

• On July 20, 2015, the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India launched National Career Service, a five-year Mission Mode Project. 
• The project is being carried out by the Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• NCS offers Indian citizens a one-stop shop for career-related and employment services. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• It works to bridge the gap between candidates seeking training and career guidance, job seekers and employers, and training and career counselling organisations. 
• Its three essential pillars for reaching out to the people are as follows: NCS portal, which is a well-designed ICT-based portal, Establishment of Model Career Centres across the country, as well as interconnection with all states through employment exchanges. 

Q64. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?

a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) 

• The RBI unveiled a new programme called Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) to address large firms’ bad loans. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) unveiled the Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) — for “reworking the financial structure” of large corporate entities “facing genuine difficulties” — to put real assets back on track and strengthen lenders’ ability to deal with stressed assets. 
• According to the RBI’s S4A notification, the Scheme envisions the bifurcation of outstanding debt into sustainable debt and equity/quasi-equity instruments, as well as determining the sustainable debt level for a stressed borrower.

Q65. Consider the following statements :

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries;
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• Climatic and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) 
• In 2012, the governments of Bangladesh, Mexico, Sweden, Ghana, Canada, and the United States joined forces with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to launch efforts to treat short-lived climate pollutants as a collective and urgent challenge. 
• They formed the Climate & Clean Air Coalition to advocate for immediate action on climate change, food security, public health, and energy efficiency. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• Following carbon dioxide, the most significant contributors to the man-made global greenhouse effect are short-lived climate pollutants such as methane, tropospheric ozone, black carbon, and hydrofluorocarbons. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• They contribute up to 45% of current global warming. 
• If no action is taken to reduce emissions of these pollutants, they are expected to cause half of the warming by human activity. 

Q66. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’. sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a the difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)  
• The difference in sea surface temperature between two poles or areas (hence a dipole) in the Indian Ocean, namely an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia and a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• The IOD influences the climate of countries surrounding the Indian Ocean Basin, such as India and Australia, and is a significant contributor to rainfall variability in this region. 
• The IOD is a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon, similar to El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO), but occurring in the equatorial Indian Ocean. 
• The IOD is thought to be linked to ENSO events via an extension of the Walker Circulation to the west and associated Indonesian throughflow (the flow of warm tropical ocean water from the Pacific into the Indian Ocean).  
• Hence, negative IOD events are frequently associated with La Nina, while positive events are associated with El Nino. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Q67. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
b) Chambal River
c) Pulicat Lake
d) DeeporBeel

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• A gharial (freshwater crocodile) sanctuary was established along the Chambal River, with over 5,000 gharials (Gavialis gangeticus) born during the most recent hatching season (June-July) at the National Chambal Sanctuary on the border of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• In addition to gharials, 400 mugger crocodiles (Crocodylus palustris) hatched from eggs at the sanctuary and will be released into the river soon. 
• Scientists believe that the Red-crowned turtle and birds such as the Indian skimmer are more endangered than gharials along this stretch of the Chambal. 

Q67. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
b) Chambal River
c) Pulicat Lake
d) DeeporBeel

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• A gharial (freshwater crocodile) sanctuary was established along the Chambal River, with over 5,000 gharials (Gavialis gangeticus) born during the most recent hatching season (June-July) at the National Chambal Sanctuary on the border of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• In addition to gharials, 400 mugger crocodiles (Crocodylus palustris) hatched from eggs at the sanctuary and will be released into the river soon. 
• Scientists believe that the Red-crowned turtle and birds such as the Indian skimmer are more endangered than gharials along this stretch of the Chambal. 

Q69. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at

a) Ajanta
b) Badami
c) Bagh
d) Ellora

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Important paintings of Ajanta are: 

• Scenes from the Jataka stories of the life of the Gautama Buddha, the Buddha’s former lives as a bodhisattva, etc. 
• Paintings of various Bodhisattvas in tribhanga pose in Cave 1: 
• Vajrapani (protector and guide, a symbol of Buddha’s power), 
• Manjusri (manifestation of Buddha’s wisdom) and 
• Padmapani (Avalokitesvara) (symbol of Buddha’s compassion). 
• The Dying Princess in Cave.no 16. 
• Therefore, the painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at Ajanta.

Q70. Consider the following pairs : Traditions Communities

1. Chaliha Sahib Festival Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj JaatYatra Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari Santhais

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above

The correct answer is 1 only. 

• Chaliha Sahib 
• It is a Sindhi festival regarding Jhulelal. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. 

• Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra 
• It is a Nanda Devi-related festival in Uttarakhand. Gonds are not native to this state. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched. 

• Wari-Warkari 
• It is a pilgrimage for the Warkari sect related to the Pandharpur god Vithobain Maharashtra, and it is a part of the Bhakti movement rather than a festival of a particular tribal group. Besides, Santhals are not native to this state. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q71. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?

1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land e
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3. 

• Methods for Minimizing Water Stress and Improving Water Resources: 
• Using surface residue covers increases infiltration and reduces runoff. 
• A residue cover absorbs most of the energy of raindrops that fall on it, and by the time this rainwater reaches the soil below, its ability to disintegrate soil aggregates and detach fine particles is greatly reduced. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
• Using impermeable and permeable contour barriers at discrete intervals downslope in conjunction with reduced, preferably zero, tillage, as in conservation agriculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The incorporation of lime, either alone or in combination with gypsum, will reduce toxic concentrations of aluminium and/or manganese to non-toxic levels, allowing the crop to access more soil moisture, increase productivity, and aid in water conservation. However, according to the UPSC official answer key, 1 and 3 are correct. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 

Q72. Consider the following statements :

The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 3 only. 

• Soil Health Card (SHC) 
• This is a scheme promoted and implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India’s Department of Agriculture and Co-operation. 
• It provides the farmer Soil nutrient status of his/her holding and advice on fertiliser dosage and soil amendments that she/he should apply to maintain soil health in the long run. 
• SHC is a printed report that will contain the status of his soil concerning 12 parameters, namely: 

• N, P, K (Macro-nutrients); 
• S (Secondary- nutrient); 
• Cu, Mn, Bo, Zn, Fe (Micro-nutrients); and 
• pH, EC, OC (Physical parameters). 

• Based on the soil nutrient status, the SHC will recommend fertiliser and soil amendments for the farm. Hence, statement 3 is correct, while statements 1 and 2 are incorrect/irrelevant. 

Q73. Consider the following pairs :

Commonly used/ consumed materials Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them

1. Lipstick – Lead
2. Soft drinks – Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food – Monosodium glutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. 

• The Maggi ban: 

• Due to the presence of MSG (monosodium glutamate), India’s favourite two-minute noodles lost 80% of their market share, according to a UP food inspector. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. 

• Monosodium Glutamate 

• ​ It is an excitatory neurotransmitter, which means it stimulates nerve cells for them to relay its signal. 

• According to scientists, it causes excessive nerve cell stimulation and glutamate build-up in the brain. 
• Hence, MSG has been classified as an excitotoxin. 

• Vegetable oil containing bromine 

• It is a food additive used as a density stabiliser in certain soft drinks and fruit-flavoured beverages. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• Bromine can irritate the skin and mucous membranes (the moist lining of the nose, mouth, lungs, and stomach). 
• The Campaign for Safe Cosmetics and the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) discovered lead and other toxic metals in an unexpected number of lipsticks. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. 

Q74. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs)are used to create digital displays in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
3. Transparent/displays are possible using OLEDs

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of the above statements is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3. 

• Organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs)  

• Its displays with plastic substrates have the following appealing characteristics:  

• They are ultrathin and light, and they can also be fabricated on flexible plastic to take advantage of the substrate’s flexibility. 
• Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can also be manufactured. 
• Transparent displays are also an option. Hence, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. 
• The main challenge in producing such displays is protecting OLEDs from oxygen and moisture. 

Q75. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 only. 

• Suryanarayana Temple 

• It is also known as Arasavalli Sun Temple. 
• It is located in Arasavalli, Andhra Pradesh 
• It is dedicated to Sun God. 
• The Creator of the temple was the ruler Devendra Sarma, (7th century AD) 
• The temple is built in such a way that, the sun’s light fall on the feet of the lord in the earlier parts of the day. 

• Omkareshwar Temple 

• It is located in Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh. 
• It is dedicated to Lord Shiva. 
• It is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas. 

• Narmada Kund temples, the origin of Narmada River 

• It is located in Amarkantak, Madhya Pradesh. 
• It is the origin of the Narmada River. 
• It was built by Kalachuri Maharaja Karnadeva (1041–1073 AD.). 
• The ancient temples of the Kalachuri period are in the south of Narmadakund, just behind it. 

• Therefore, Suryanarayana Temple is dedicated to the Sun. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 

Q76. Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50
   percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• In India, elections for the Lok Sabha or State Assembly are held using a first-past-the-post system, which means that the winning candidate may or may not receive a majority (50%+1) of the votes cast. 
• In addition, the Indian constitution has adopted the system of territorial representation for electing members to the Lok Sabha or State Assembly. 
• A constituency is a geographical area that an MP or MLA represents in this system. 
• Only one representative is elected from each constituency. 
• Hence, such a constituency is referred to as a single-member constituency. 
• In this system, the candidate with the most votes is declared elected. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• Before the tenth Lok Sabha, both the Deputy Speaker and the Speaker were usually members of the ruling party.  
• Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been agreement that the post of Deputy Speaker is held by the main opposition party, while the Speaker is held by the ruling party (or ruling alliance). 
• This means that it is an ‘informal consensus’ among political parties rather than a constitutional provision. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 

Q77. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is 2, 3 and 4 only. 

• India’s agriculture sector has gradually reduced its contribution to the Indian economy. 
• Agriculture, India’s traditional occupation, now accounts for about 15% of GDP, down from 29% in 1991. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• The economy’s opening has resulted in a 150 per cent increase in foreign direct investment (FDI) and foreign exchange reserves (by 20 times). 
• Foreign investment, which includes both direct and indirect investment, has increased from approximately US $ 100 million in 1990-91 to approximately US $ 150 billion in 2003-04. Hence, statements 3 and 4 are correct. 
• During the reform period, India is regarded as a successful exporter of IT software, auto parts, textiles, and engineering goods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q78. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

a) Production of biolarvicides
b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
c) Reproductive cloning of animals
d) Production of organisms free of diseases

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Cloning is the process of creating a replica of an entire organism, any other living part, or a cell. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• On July 5, 1996, Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at the Roslin Institute in Edinburgh used Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology for the first time to clone the sheep “Dolly,” the first mammal to be cloned.  
• The recent news about buffalo cloning using adult somatic cells from proven males or quality females at the Central Institute for Research on Buffaloes (CIRB) has sparked a revolution by multiplying superior buffalo germplasm in-country. 

Q79. Consider the following statements:

1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI.helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NCPI has launched RuPay, a card Payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)  

• It is an umbrella organisation that operates retail payment and settlement systems as well as promotes financial inclusion in India. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• It is a joint venture between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). 
• It was established under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007, to develop a strong Payment and Settlement Infrastructure in India. 
• Some of its initiatives are: 

• RuPay  
• It is an indigenously developed payment system aimed at meeting the expectations and needs of Indian consumers, banks, and merchants. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS) has been introduced to enable access to these funds at the doorstep and drive financial inclusion in India. 
• The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) has been referred to as a revolutionary product in the payment system, and Bharat Bill Payment System provides a one-stop bill payment solution for all recurring payments with 200+ Billers across India in the categories of Electricity, Gas, and Water, Telecom, DTH, Loan Repayments, Insurance, FASTag Recharge, Cable, and so on. 

Q80. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
d) Security of National Highways

The correct answer is option 2. 

• M-STrIPES  

• The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has improved the monitoring of tigers in the country’s tiger reserves (TRs) by introducing the Monitoring System for Tiger-Intensive Protection and Ecological Status (M-STrIPES).  
• M-STrIPES, an android-based monitoring software, will be used in all of the country’s TRs. 
• Intensive Protection and Ecological Status is a software-based monitoring system launched across Indian tiger reserves by the Indian government. 
• This app was developed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority and the Wildlife Institute of India in 2010. 
• M-STrIPES allows patrol teams to keep a better tab on suspicious activity while also mapping the patrolling, location, routes and timings of forest officials. 
• The system’s objective is to strengthen patrolling and surveillance of the Endangered Bengal tiger. 

Q81. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its
   foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to
   overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is option 1. 

• Goods and Services Tax (GST) 

• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a value-added tax that is levied on the majority of goods and services sold for domestic consumption. 
• While consumers pay the GST, it is remitted to the government by the businesses that sell the goods and services. 
• GST is levied on the supply side, which means it applies to the ‘supply’ of goods or services. 
• GST is based on the principle of destination-based consumption taxation; it will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities, resulting in the creation of an Indian single market. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• It is a dual GST, with the Centre and the States levying tax on a common base at the same time. The GST levied by the Centre is known as Central GST (CGST), while the GST levied by the States is known as State GST (SGST). 
• The GST Bill was first introduced in India in 2014 as the 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill, and it was approved in 2016 and renumbered in the statute as the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. 
• Because of crude oil imports and the OPEC cartel that manipulates its prices, GST is unlikely to ‘dramatically’ reduce the current account deficit. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• Similarly, GST is unlikely to significantly increase the size of our economy because the IMF predicts a 1-1.5% increase in growth rate. We will not be able to overtake China soon because it will necessitate currency depreciation and labour exploitation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. 

Q82. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

a) European Union
b) Gulf Cooperation Council
c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) 

• On June 28, 2007, India and the EU began negotiations in Brussels, Belgium, on a broad-based Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA). Hence, option 1 is correct. 
• Both India and the EU expect to promote bilateral trade by removing trade barriers in goods and services, as well as barriers to investment in all sectors of the economy.  
• Both parties believe that a comprehensive and ambitious agreement that is consistent with WTO rules and principles would open new markets and expand opportunities for Indian and EU businesses. 
• Trade in Goods, Trade in Services, Investment, Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, Technical Barriers to Trade, Trade Remedies, Rules of Origin, Customs and Trade Facilitation, Competition, Trade Defense, Government Procurement, Dispute Settlement, Intellectual Property Rights & Geographical Indications, Sustainable Development are all covered by the negotiations. 

Q83. Consider the following statements:

1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. 

• Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) 

• The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) was one of ten agreements reached by WTO members (including India) at the Bali Ministerial meeting in December 2013. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The TFA aims to accelerate global trade by reforming customs procedures and eliminating red tape. 
• India agreed to sign the TFA by July 31, 2014, to ease customs procedures and boost commerce. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The ratification will supplement India’s ongoing reforms to simplify and improve transparency in cross-border trade in goods, and it will also help India boost economic growth by lowering trade costs and supporting its integration into the global economy. 
• The TFA’s implementation has the potential to generate $1 trillion in global economic activity, creating 21 million new jobs and lowering the cost of doing international trade by 10 to 15%. 
• TFA entered into force in February 2017 following ratification by two-thirds of WTO members. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. 

Q84. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India4

a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Chabahar Port 

• In 2003, the Chabahar port project was signed. 
• Chabahar Port is located in the province of Sistan and Baluchistan in southeastern Iran, on the Gulf of Oman. 
• In December 2018, India took over the Port’s operations. 
• Gives India better access to Afghanistan by avoiding Pakistan. Hence, option 3 is correct. 
• It will serve as the gateway to the International North-South Transport Corridor, which will connect Russia, Europe, Central Asia, Iran, and India via road, rail, and sea routes. 
• If necessary, India can conduct humanitarian operations from this port. 
• Because this port is only 170 kilometres from China’s Gwadar port in Pakistan, it will be of strategic importance to the Indian Navy and defence establishment. 
• This enhances connectivity, energy supplies and trade. 

Q85. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

1. Service providers
2. Data Centres
3. Body corporate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. 

• In India, Section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the “IT Act”) empowers the Central Government to appoint the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to report such incidents. 
• The Union Government under section 70B of the IT Act, 2000 established and notified rules of CERT-In in 2014.  
• According to Rule 12(1)(a), it is mandatory for service providers, intermediaries, data centres and corporate bodies to report cyber security incidences to CERT-In within a reasonable time of occurrence of the incident. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 

Q86. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

a) Fundamental Right
b) Natural Right
c) Constitutional Right
d) Legal Right

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Constitutional rights  

• ‘The right to vote’ is a constitutional right in India. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• Constitutional rights are those rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution and conferred on Indian citizens that do not fall under the purview of Part III. 
• The Indian Constitution guarantees the right to vote in Article 326 of the Indian Constitution. To exercise this right, every citizen must be at least 18 years old.  
• In 1950, the concept of ‘Universal Suffrage’ guaranteed full voting rights to Indian citizens. 
• The 61st constitutional amendment, passed in 1988, reduced the voting age for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies elections from 21 to 18 years.  
• Constitutional rights, unlike fundamental rights, do not apply to everyone.  
• They are applicable in certain circumstances. If a law is found to be incompatible with constitutional rights, the law is declared null and void.  
• Fundamental rights are the fundamental rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Constitution, regardless of caste, creed, religion, gender, or place of birth. Some Fundamental Rights, however, include foreigners. 

Q87. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (ELISA)’ project?

a) To detect neutrinos
b) To detect gravitational waves
c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (ELISA) 

• The European Space Agency is leading the evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) mission. 
• The ELISA project’s goal is to detect and accurately measure gravitational waves. Hence, option 2 is correct. 

• LISA would be the first dedicated gravitational wave detector in space. 
• These gravitational waves are produced by supermassive black holes found at the centres of many galaxies. 
• Elisa will also collect data from thousands of compact binary star systems in the Milky Way

Q88. What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?

1. To enable the famous foreign campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• Vidyanjali Yojana 

• Vidyanjali Yojana is a school volunteer programme sponsored by India’s Ministry of Human Resource Development.  
• It was established to improve the quality of education provided in government schools with the assistance of the private sector and the community. Hence, option 2 is correct. 
• Considering the problems associated with teaching quality Hence of various issues confronting government public schools, the Vidyanjali Yojana’s goal is to meet those resource requirements. 
• Yojana allows individuals to participate in government reforms and assist the government in addressing issues such as quality education and teacher shortages across India. 
• The programme is being piloted across 21 states, including Indian states such as Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat, Goa, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Telangana, Tripura, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh. 

Q89. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’ ?

a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and , the government’s education system and local communities.
b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological Power.
d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health- care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programs and vocational training for them.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Unnat Bharat Abhiyan  

• The Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is the Ministry of Human Resource Development’s flagship programme (MHRD).  
• It aims to connect Higher Education Institutions with at least five villages or local communities to address development challenges using appropriate technologies so that these institutions can contribute to the economic and social well-being of these village communities by leveraging their knowledge base. Hence, option 2 is correct. 

Q90. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a ‘ fivemember body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

The correct answer is 3 Only. 

• Election commission 

• The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body in India that is in charge of administering Union and State election processes. 
• The body is in charge of elections to India’s Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies, as well as the offices of the President and Vice President. 
• Articles 324 to 329 of the constitution deal with the commission’s and members’ powers, functions, tenure, eligibility, and so on.  
• The election commission has three election commissioners, one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 

• The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.  
• They serve for a fixed term of six years, or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes first.  
• They have the same status and benefits as Supreme Court Judges. 
• The Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed from office through a procedure similar to that of a Supreme Court judge appointed by Parliament. 
• The election commission determines the election schedule for both general elections and bye-elections. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. 
• It also resolves disputes involving splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Hence, only statement 3 is correct. 
• It creates the electoral roll and issues the Electronic Photo Identity Card (EPIC). 
• It recognises political parties and assigns election symbols to them, as well as resolving related disputes. 
• It publishes the Model Code of Conduct for Political Parties and Candidates in Elections. 
• It establishes campaign spending limits for all political parties. 

Q91. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection. A c t , 1972, what does it imply?

a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and how it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Several wild animal and bird species are listed in various schedules of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.  
• The Act protects wild animals, birds, and plants, as well as matters related to, ancillary to, or incidental to them.  
• It is divided into six schedules that provide varying degrees of protection. Animals listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Act have the highest level of protection in India. Option 1 is correct because the tiger is also covered in Schedule 1. 

Q92. In India, Judicial Review implies

a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
c) the power of the Judiciary to review- all the legislative enactments before they – are assented to by the President.
d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Judicial Review 

• The most widely accepted definition of judicial review is the power of the courts or Judiciary to consider the constitutionality of executive and legislative acts. Hence, option 1 is correct. 
• It declares executive and legislative acts unconstitutional if they violate or are inconsistent with the fundamental principles of the Constitution. 
• Article 13(2) of the Indian Constitution states that the Union or States shall not make any law that takes away or abridges any of the fundamental rights, and any law made in violation of the aforementioned mandate shall be void to the extent of the contravention. 
• The scope of judicial review before Indian courts has evolved in three dimensions – firstly, to ensure fairness in administrative action, secondly, to protect the constitutionally guaranteed fundamental rights of citizens, and thirdly, to rule on questions of legislative competence between the centre and the states. 

Q93. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
a) 1 – 2 – 3
b) 2 – 1 – 3
c) 3 – 2 – 1
d) 3 – 1 – 2

The correct answer is 3-2-1. 

• Second Round Conference 

• In September 1931, the Second Round Conference convened. 
• Gandhi stood in for the Indian National Congress, while Sarojini Naidu stood in for Indian women. 
• Other attendees included Madan Mohan Malaviya, Ghanshyam Das Birla, Muhammad Iqbal, Sir Mirza Ismail Diwan of Mysore, S K Dutta, and Sir Syed Ali Imam. 

• Quit India Movement 

• The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Revolution (August Kranti), was launched on August 8, 1942, during World War II, at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee or, more simply, by Gandhiji (Mahatma Gandhi), demanding an end to British rule in India. 

• Royal Indian Navy Mutiny 

• On February 18, 1946, a group of non-commissioned officers and sailors known as Ratings in the Royal Indian Navy rebelled against British officers. The mutiny began with a strike by the ratings in response to financial, food, and racial discrimination.  

• Hence, the correct sequence is 3-2-1. 

Q94. Consider the following statements:

1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given- above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• Tax to GDP 

• Decade 2001-2011: Consistent decline following the subprime mortgage crisis (2007-2010) and then recovery. 
• Decades 2006-2016: Except for the 2008-2010 recession, there has been steady growth. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.​​ 

• Fiscal Deficit to GDP 

• Decade 2001-2011: Decline between 2009-11. 
• Decade 2006-2016: Steadily declining from 2011 to 2016. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect. 

Q95. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?

a) Corbett National Park
b) KunoPalpur Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Sariska National Park

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Asiatic Lion Reintroduction Project 

• An expert committee from the environment ministry has approved the Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh as a second home for Asiatic lions. Hence, option 2 is correct. 

• The Asiatic lion’s last wild population can be found in the Gir Forest National Park region of Gujarat. 
• Epidemics, natural disasters, and other anthropogenic factors all pose threats to a single population. 
• In the interest of the genetic stability of these species, the Supreme Court ruled in 2013 in favour of translocating Asiatic lions to Kuno Palpur wildlife sanctuary. 
• However, the Gujarat government will not share lions until 33 studies mandated by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) are completed. 

Q96. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• Proclamation of President rule 

• Article 356 states that the President’s Rule can be imposed on any Indian state if the constitutional machinery fails.  
• There are two kinds of this: a). If the President receives a report from the state’s Governor or is otherwise convinced or satisfied that the state’s situation is such that the state government cannot carry on governance under the provisions of the Constitution, b). President’s Rule can be imposed if any state fails to comply with all directions given by the Union on matters it is empowered to. 
• The state governor administers the state on behalf of the President, with the assistance of the chief secretary of state or advisors appointed by the President. Hence The removal of the State Council of Ministers is unquestionably the result of the proclamation. Hence, option 2 is incorrect. 
• During the president’s rule, the state executive is fired, and the state legislature and local governments are suspended or dissolved. Hence, dissolution is not a ‘necessary’ result. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct. 

Q97. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is 1 and 4 only. 

• Right to equality (Articles 14 - 18) 

• The right to equality ensures that everyone is treated equally before the law. 
• It prohibits discrimination on a variety of grounds. 
• In terms of public employment, it treats everyone equally. 
• Removal of untouchability and titles. 

• Right against exploitation (Articles 23-24) 

• Article 23 forbids the buying and selling of men, women, and children for immoral purposes. 
• Article 24 forbids any form of forced labour or beggary; beggary is a practice in which the worker is forced to work for free. Hence, options 1 and 4 are correct. 

• Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29-30) 

• Article 29 protects minorities’ interests by stating that any citizen/section of citizens with a distinct language, script, or culture has the right to preserve it. 
• Article 29 states that no discrimination will be tolerated based on religion, race, caste, language, or any combination of these factors. 
• According to Article 30, all minorities, regardless of religion or language, have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. 

Q98. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

a) Sumatra
b) Borneo
c) Java
d) Sri Lanka

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Great Nicobar  

• Wonderful Nicobar is located to the south of India’s Nicobar Islands.  
• It is the Nicobar Islands’ largest island. Sumatra is located to the south of Great Nicobar.  
• Sumatra is the closest island to Great Nicobar.  
• The distance between the two locations is 1,192 kilometres. Hence, option 1 is correct.  
• The distance between Great Nicobar and Borneo is 2,398 kilometres. The distance between Great Nicobar and Java is 1,817 kilometres. The distance between Great Nicobar and Sri Lanka is 1437 kilometres. 

Q99. Out of the’ ‘following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :

a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline

The correct answer is Option 3.  

• The parliamentary system 

• Cabinet Government is another name for the parliamentary system.  
• It establishes the executive’s collective responsibility to the legislature.  
• Because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible specifically to the House of People, parliamentary democracy is a mechanism for ensuring the Government’s collective responsibility to the people. Hence, option 3 is correct.  
• In the end, it is through these powers (over budget, motions, etc.) that Parliament enforces the Executive’s responsibility to itself and the people.  
• Despite the adoption of the British model of parliamentary or Cabinet government, a hereditary monarch was not installed because India had declared itself a republic in which political sovereignty is vested in the people. 

Q100. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

The correct answer is Option 4.  

• Federalism in India 

• India has a federal system, but it leans more toward a unitary government. 

• It is sometimes referred to as a quasi-federal system because it combines elements of both a federal and a unitary system. 
• ‘India, that is Bharat, shall be a union of states,’ states Article 1 of the Indian Constitution. 
• The term “federation” does not appear in the constitution. 
• Elements of federalism were introduced into modern India by the Government of India Act of 1919, which divided powers between the centre and the states: three lists are provided in the Constitution’s Seventh Schedule, namely the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Hence, option 2 is correct. 
• The constitution’s supremacy. In India, the constitution is the supreme law. Independent judiciary – the constitution calls for a separate and independent judiciary. Hence, option 1 is correct.  
• Based on population, states are given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31 for each state. Hence, option 3 is correct.  
• Unlike the American federation, the Indian federation is not the result of a state-by-state agreement. Hence, option 4 is incorrect. 

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