UPSC Prelims Mock Test – Environment 8

Here are 25 Questions, a part of our series on UPSC Prelims Mock Test.

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 apply to only those wetlands categorized as ‘wetlands of international importance’ under the Ramsar Convention.
2. Wetlands Rules, 2017 rules decentralize the management of wetlands to States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• The new Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules 2017 replaced the 2010 version of the wetland conservation rules. These rules shall apply to the following wetlands or
• wetlands complexes:
• Wetlands are categorized as ‘wetlands of international importance’ under the Ramsar Convention Wetlands as notified by the Central Government, State Government, and Union Territory Administration. (Statement 1 is not correct)
• Salient features of the Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 are as follows:
• The new rules decentralize wetlands management by giving states powers to not only identify and notify wetlands within their jurisdictions but also keep a watch on prohibited activities so that protection and conservation work can be done at the local level. (Statement 2 is correct)

Q2. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Regional 3R forum?

1. The Ha Noi 3R Declaration – Sustainable 3R Goals for Asia and the Pacific for
   2013-2023 is a legally binding document which focuses on waste management.
2. It is organized by the United Nations Centre for Regional Development (UNCRD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Regional 3R (Reduce, Reuse & Recycle) Forum was established in Tokyo, Japan in 2009, as a platform for broad cooperation on the promotion of the 3Rs in Asia. The Fourth Regional 3R Forum was held in Ha Noi, Vietnam, in 2013, and adopted the Ha Noi 3R Declaration – Sustainable 3R Goals for Asia and the Pacific for 2013-2023. It is a legally nonbinding and voluntary document that aims to provide a basic framework for Asia-Pacific countries to develop measures and programs to promote the 3Rs including a set of 3R indicators for monitoring specific progress.
• Statement 2 is correct: Members include central governments, international agencies, aid agencies, private sector entities, research bodies, NGOs, and other relevant parties. The United Nations Centre for Regional Development (UNCRD) is responsible for conducting the meeting of the 3R forum. India is a member country of this organization

Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Soil Conservation?

1. In mulching, the bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw.
2. In contour barriers, Stones, grass, and soil are used to build barriers along contours.
3. In a rock dam, rocks are piled up to fasten the flow of water to prevent gullies and
   further soil loss.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

• Soil erosion and depletion are the major threats to the soil as a resource. Both human and natural factors can lead to the degradation of soils. Factors that lead to soil degradation are deforestation, overgrazing, overuse of chemical fertilizers or pesticides, rain wash, landslides, and floods. Some methods of soil conservation are:
• Mulching: The bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Contour barriers: Stones, grass, and soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water. (Statement 2 is correct)

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. The purple frog is only found in the rainforests of western ghats in India.
2. Malabar Civet is only found in the Nilgiri Hills of western ghats in India.
3. Bonnet Macaque is only found in the Nilgiri Hills of western ghats in India.

Which one of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Option (d) is correct: The purple frog, also known as the Pignose frog, is only found in the rainforests of western ghats in India. It spends most of its life underground. Malabar Civet and Bonnet Macaque are also found in the Nilgiri Hills of western ghats in India

Q5. Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) was recently mentioned in the news, consider the following statements about FCPF:

1. It works with developed countries in order to support Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) efforts.
2. It consists of a Readiness Fund which is a results-based payments system to countries that have achieved verifiable emission reductions in their forest

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and indigenous people’s organizations, formed in 2008 to assist developing countries in reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, enhance and conserve forest carbon stocks, and sustainably managed forests commonly referred to as (REDD+).
• Statement 2 is not correct: The FCPF supports REDD+ efforts through two separate but complementary funds:
• FCPF Readiness Fund: It helps countries set up the stem building blocks to implement REDD+. This includes designing national
• REDD+ strategies, developing reference emission levels, designing measurements, reporting, and verification systems, and setting up national REDD+ management arrangements, including proper environmental and social safeguards.

Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In India, Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) are regulated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body that allows for the commercial release of Genetically Modified (GM) crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) are living organisms whose genetic material has been artificially manipulated in a laboratory through genetic engineering. This creates combinations of plant, animal, bacteria, and virus genes that do not occur in nature or through traditional crossbreeding methods
• statement 1 is correct: GMOs and the products thereof are regulated under the “Rules for the manufacture, use, import, export & storage of hazardous microorganisms, genetically engineered organisms or cells, 1989” (referred to as Rules, 1989) notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• Statement 2 is correct: In India, the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body that allows for the commercial release of GM crops. It works under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

Q7. With reference to the Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE) Program, consider the following statements:

1. Students who are enrolled in Higher Academic Learning are only eligible to participate in this Programme.
2. India is a member of Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

• The Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE) Program is an international science and education program that stresses on participatory approach and provides students and the public worldwide with the opportunity to participate in data collection and the scientific process and contribute meaningfully to our understanding of the Earth system and global environment.
• Statement 1 is not correct: GLOBE has created an international network of students at primary, middle, and secondary schools. levels studying environmental issues, making environmental measurements, and sharing useful environmental data with one another and the international science community.

Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Sustainable Energy for All (SE4All)?

1. It has three interlinked objectives to be achieved by 2030.
2. It empowers leaders toward the achievement of Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG6) which calls for universal access to sustainable energy by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – A

• The Sustainable Energy for All initiative is a multi-stakeholder partnership between governments, the private sector, and civil society. It was launched by the UN Secretary-General in 2011.
• Statement 1 is correct: It has three interlinked objectives to be achieved by 2030: Ensuring universal access to modern energy services Doubling the global rate of improvement in energy efficiency Doubling the share of renewable energy in the global energy mix
• statement 2 is not correct: As a global platform, Sustainable Energy for All (SE4All) empowers leaders to broker partnerships and unlocks finance to achieve universal access to sustainable energy to drive further, faster action towards the achievement of Sustainable Development Goal 7 (SDG7) which calls for universal access to sustainable energy by 2030.

Q9. Renewables Global Status Report (RGSR) is released by:

(a) International Renewable Energy Agency
(b) Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century (REN 21)
(c) UN General Assembly
(d) United Nations Framework Convention On Climate Change

Answer – B

• Option (b) is correct: REN21 was created in 2004 as an outcome of the Bonn 2004 International Conference on Renewable Energy. This “coalition of the willing” came together with one objective in mind, to support and accelerate the development of renewable energy. REN21 is the only global community of renewable energy actors from science, academia, governments, NGOs and industry. It provides up-to-date facts, figures and peer-reviewed analysis of global developments in technology, policies and markets to decision-makers.

Q10. With reference to the Wind energy, consider the following statements:

1. The National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE) has been established by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
2. A Wind Turbine Test Station has been established at Kayathar in Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: The National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE) was established in Chennai in the year 1998 as an autonomous R&D institution by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Government of India. It is a knowledge-based institution of high quality and dedication, offers services and seeks to find complete solutions for the kinds of difficulties and improvements in the entire spectrum of the wind energy sector by carrying out further research.
• Statement 2 is correct: It has a Wind Turbine Test Station (WTTS) at Kayathar in Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu with technical & partial financial support from DANIDA, the Government of Denmark.

Q11. With reference to the Ocean Thermal Energy Conservation, consider the following statements:

1. The process of harnessing the temperature differences between ocean surface waters and deep ocean waters is called Ocean Thermal Energy Conservation.
2. OTEC systems using seawater as the working fluid can use condensed water to produce desalinated water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is a process or technology for producing energy by harnessing the temperature differences (thermal gradients) between ocean surface waters and deep ocean waters. Energy from the sun heats the surface water of the ocean.
• Statement 2 is correct: In tropical regions, surface water can be much warmer than deep water. This temperature difference can be as used to produce electricity and desalinate ocean water. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) systems use a temperature difference (of at least 77° Fahrenheit) to power a turbine to produce electricity.

Q12. Thane Creek Flamingo Sanctuary was recently mentioned in the news, consider the following statements about the sanctuary:

1. MOEFCC has notified areas around the Thane Creek Flamingo Sanctuary as an
   Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ).
2. The Thane Creek area is recognized as an “Important Bird Area” by the Bombay Natural History Society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC) has notified areas around the Thane Creek Flamingo Sanctuary (TCFS, Maharashtra) as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ). Eco-sensitive Zone or ecological fragile Areas are areas within 10 km of Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Thane Creek Flamingo Sanctuary is the second marine sanctuary of Maharashtra after the Malvan Sanctuary and lies along the western bank of Thane Creek.

Q13 Which of the following statements is/are not correct about Bandipur Tiger Reserve?

1. It is located in the tri-junction area of the states of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
2. It is located between river Kabini in the north and Tungabhadra in the south.
3. The Bandipur tiger reserve has the single largest Asiatic Elephant population in the world

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is not correct: Bandipur Tiger Reserve was established in 1973 under Project Tiger. In 1985, by including adjacent areas from Venugopala Wildlife Park, it was enlarged and named Bandipur National Park. It is situated in two contiguous districts (Mysore and Chamarajanagar) of Karnataka and is located at the tri-junction area of the States Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It forms a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The park is located between the Kabini river in the north and the Moyar river in the south. The Nugu River runs through the park. The highest point in the park is on a hill called Himavad Gopalaswamy Betta.

Q14. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, which of the following Biosphere Reserves is not recognized in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) by UNESCO?

(a) Manas
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Nokrek
(d) Panna

Answer – A

• India has 18 Biosphere Reserves. The number of internationally designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) has become 12, with the latest inclusion of the Panna Biosphere Reserve in 2020. WNBR is a part of UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) program which is composed of 686 Biosphere Reserves from 122 countries.
• Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve (KBR) was included in the UNESCO-designated WNBR in 2018. It is in Sikkim and is the highest biosphere reserve in the country which includes the third-highest mountain peak in the world, Kanchenjunga (8586 m). It includes a range of ecoclines, varying from sub-tropical to the Arctic, as well as natural forests in different biomes that support an immensely rich diversity of forest types and habitats.
• Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve was included in the WNBR list in 2004. It is located in the Himalayan Mountains in the northern part of the country and includes the Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Park, which is a World Heritage site. The Valley of Flowers National Park is renowned for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and outstanding natural beauty. Together they encompass a unique transition zone between the mountain ranges of the Zanskar and Great Himalayas.
• Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve was included in the WNBR list in 2001. It is located in the vast delta of the Ganges, south of Kolkata and bordering Bangladesh in the east. The core area (Sunderban National Park) has been designated as a World Heritage Site. Entire Eastern India is dependent on the fishery resources from Sunderbans. Sunderban is the largest contiguous mangrove area (along with Bangladesh) in the world. It represents the largest mangrove diversity in the world with 81 mangrove plant species and it provides habitat for the threatened Royal Bengal Tiger (Panthera tigris).

Q15. Consider the following pairs:

National Park/Wetland: Confluence of Rivers

1. Bhitarkanika National Park : Gambhir and Banganga rivers
2. Nanda Devi National Park: Uttarakhand
3. Blackbuck National Park: Parvalia and Alang rivers
4. Harike Wetland: Beas and Sutlej rivers

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Answer – B

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Bhitarkanika lies in the estuarine confluence of the Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra, and Patasala rivers. It has three protected areas: Bhitarkanika National Park, Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, and Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Nanda Devi National Park or Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, established in 1982, is a national park situated around the peak of Nanda Devi (7816 m) in the state of Uttarakhand in northern India. The National Park was inscribed a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1988. The latter was expanded and renamed to Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks in 2005.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Blackbuck National Park declared as National Park in 1976, is an area of open grassland in Gujarat. The sanctuary has been declared primarily for Blackbucks. A small wetland in the southern part of the park attracts birds like Pelicans, Flamingos, Ducks, Coots, White storks, Painted storks Sarus cranes, etc.

Q16. Consider the following matches:

Wildlife Sanctuary State

1. Chandra Prabha: Odisha
2. Lakhari Valley: Uttar Pradesh
3. Pachmarhi: West Bengal
4. Mahananda: Madhya Pradesh

How many pairs given above are/are not correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Answer – D

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the eastern region of Uttar Pradesh. The forest is named after the Chandraprabha River, meaning ‘The Luminescence of Moon’. A variety of wild animals like Black Duck, Cheetal, Sambhar, Nilgai, Wild Boar, Porcupine Indian Gazelle, etc., are found here.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Lakhari Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the state of Odisha and was established in the year 1985. The place receives a huge amount of rainfall every year due led to its proximity to the Bay of Bengal. The sanctuary is full of rich tropical forests, valleys, hills, water sources, etc. It is one of the elephant-populated sanctuaries in India.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Madhya Pradesh in the biogeographical region of the Deccan Peninsula and the Biotic Province of Central India. UNESCO designated it a biosphere reserve in 2009.

Q17. With reference to wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1. National Parks are focused on a particular species for conservation, while Wildlife Sanctuaries may be created for a community of species.
2. Human interaction is allowed up to some extent in National Parks, whereas it is
   completely prohibited in Wildlife sanctuaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer -D

• Protected areas are those in which human occupation or at least the exploitation of resources is limited. There are several kinds of protected areas, which vary by level of protection depending on the enabling laws of each country or the regulations of the international organizations involved.
• India has a network of 981 Protected Areas covering about 5.03% of its total geographic area. India has systematically designated its Protected Areas in four legal categories: National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Difference Between National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries: National Parks are not focused on a particular species, whereas Wildlife Sanctuaries may be created for a particular species like the turtle’s sanctuary at Bhitarkanika (Odisha). Boundaries of wildlife sanctuaries are not sacrosanct. However, the national parks have clearly marked Main boundaries (fixed by legislation). Boundaries of wildlife sanctuaries are not sacrosanct. However, the national parks have clearly marked boundaries (fixed by legislation). (Statement 1 is not correct)

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):

1. The government has been promoting organic farming under the dedicated scheme of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
2. ZBNF can reduce methane emissions significantly through multiple aerations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZNBF) means raising crops without using any fertilizers and pesticides or any other external materials. The word Zero Budget refers to the zero cost of production of all crops. ZBNF guides the farmers towards sustainable farming practices thus helping in retaining soil fertility, ensuring chemical-free agriculture and ensure a low-cost
  of production (zero cost) and thereby enhancing the farmer’s income
• Statement 1 is correct: The concept was promoted by agriculturist & Padma Shri awardee Subhash Palekar, in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation. The government has been promoting organic farming under the dedicated scheme of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) which encourages all kinds of chemical-free farming systems including Zero Budget Natural Farming

Q19. Consider the following:

1. Jiwamrita/Jeevamrutha
2. Bijamrita
3. Acchadana/Mulching

Which of the above are the main elements and models of Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZNBF)?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• The zero-budget farming model brings down farm expenditure to a great extent and ends dependence on farm loans. It also reduces dependence on purchased inputs as it encourages the use of its own seeds and locally available natural fertilizers, and farming is done in synchronization with nature. Four main elements and models of ZNBF:
• Bijamrita: The seeds are treated with formulations prepared using cow dung and cow urine from native cow species. The seeds sown in the field may be affected by fungus and other seed born/soil-borne diseases. The seed treatment using “Bijamrita” protects the seeds from diseases Jiwamrita/Jeevamrutha: Jiwamrita is prepared using cow dung and cow urine. It is used as an input for the plants. It is a fermented microbial culture obtained from cow dung, urine, jaggery, pulse flour, and uncontaminated soil. This fermented microbial culture when applied to soil, adds nutrients to the soil besides acting as a catalytic agent to promote the activity of microorganisms and earthworms in the soil. This culture stimulates microbial activity in the soil and enhances nutrient availability for the plants protects the crops against soil pathogens and increases the carbon content of the soil.

Q20. UNNATEE (Unlocking National Energy Efficiency potential) was recently mentioned in the news, consider the following statements about UNNATEE:

1. UNNATEE is developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
2. It describes a plain framework and implementation strategy to establish a clear linkage between energy supply-demand scenarios and energy efficiency opportunities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Statement 1 is correct: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has developed a national strategy document for accelerating energy efficiency in India. The strategy document is titled UNNATEE (Unlocking National Energy Efficiency Potential).
• Statement 2 is correct: This document describes a plain framework and implementation strategy to establish a clear linkage between energy supply-demand scenarios and energy efficiency opportunities. The document offers a comprehensive roadmap to address India’s environmental and climate change mitigation action through energy efficiency measures. PwC India has assisted BEE in executing this assignment. This document has been prepared after extensive discussion with various departments, organizations, and authorities.

Q21. With reference to Lighting a Billion Lives (LaBL), consider the following statements:

1. It is a campaign that promotes the use of Solar Lamps.
2. LaBL was launched by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Lighting a Billion Lives (LaBL) is an initiative that aims to replace kerosene-based lighting with cleaner, more efficient and more reliable solar lighting devices. It is based on an entrepreneurial model of energy service delivery which seeks to provide high-quality and cost-effective solar lamps, disseminated through micro solar enterprises set up in un-electrified or poorly electrified villages. It is launched by the Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).

Q22. Consider the following statements with reference to the Urban Services Environmental Rating System (USERS):

1. The aim of USERS is to develop an analytical tool to measure the performance of Green Buildings in Urban local bodies.
2. It is funded by the World Bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Urban Services Environmental Rating System (USERS) Project aims to develop an analytical tool to measure the performance with respect to basic services delivery like water supply, sewerage, and solid waste in local bodies.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The project is funded by the United Nations Development Program (UNDP) and is implemented by Tata Energy Research Institute

Q23. Which of the following was/were the achievements of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the ‘Earth Summit’?

1. Agenda 21
2. The Rio Declaration and its 27 universal principles
3. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Option (d) is correct: The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the ‘Earth Summit’, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from 3-14 June 1992. This global conference held on the occasion of the 20th anniversary of the first Human Environment Conference in Stockholm, Sweden, in 1972, brought together political leaders, diplomats, scientists, representatives of the media, and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) from 179 countries for a massive effort to focus on the impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment. A ‘Global Forum’ of NGOs was also held in Rio de Janeiro at the same time, bringing together an unprecedented number of NGO representatives, who presented their own vision of the world’s future in relation to the environment and socio-economic development.

Q24. Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts?

(a) Social justice and empowerment
(b) Inclusive Growth
(c) Globalization
(d) Carrying capacity

Answer – D

• Option (d) is correct: The concept of sustainable development received its first major international recognition in 1972 at the UN Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm. The term was popularised later in “Our Common Future”, a report of the World Commission on Environment and Development (Brundtland Report), which defined sustainable development as a “development which meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs”.

Q25. Consider the following statements with respect to the Green Credit Scheme:

1. It places responsibility on the Forest Department to grow forests under the Compensatory Afforestation Scheme.
2. It allows the forest to be traded as a commodity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEF&CC) has approved the introduction of the Green Credit Scheme. It will allow the Forest Department to outsource the responsibility of reforesting to non-government agencies.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Green Credit Scheme allows agencies (private companies, village forest communities, etc.) to identify land and grow plantations. After three years, the land would be eligible to be considered compensatory forest land if it meets the criteria set by the Forest Department. An industry needing forest land could then approach the agency and pay it for parcels of such forested land and this would then be transferred to the Forest Department and be recorded as forest land. In simpler words, it will allow forests to be traded as a commodity.

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