Dive deep into UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Questions on Indian Polity and Governance, spotlighting Local Government intricacies. Explore vital concepts, regulations, and structures through targeted practice questions. Covering Panchayati Raj institutions, Municipalities, and Urban Governance, this resource optimizes UPSC preparation. Whether you’re a seasoned aspirant or a newcomer, this curated selection enhances analytical skills and deepens local governance understanding. Strengthen your knowledge base for optimal exam performance.
Q1. In the new Panchayat Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provisions? (1999)
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among others
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability
Ans. (d)
The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992, passed in 1993, introduced several new provisions that deviated from the past. However, it does not include a provision for regular remuneration to Panchayat members.
Q2. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the (2000)
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed men and women in rural area.
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural reason.
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country.
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person equality before law and equal protection without discrimination.
Ans. (c)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 played a crucial role in establishing robust and dynamic Panchayati Raj Institutions across the country. This amendment introduced a new Part IX to the Indian Constitution titled “The Panchayats,” encompassing provisions from Article 243 to 243 O. Additionally, it incorporated a new 11th Schedule, outlining 29 subjects within the functions of the Panchayats.
Q3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list. (2000)
| List I (Local bodies) | List II (States in 1999) |
| A. Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level | 1. Andhra Pradesh |
| B. Mandal Praja Parishad | 2. Assam |
| C. Tribal Councils | 3. Mizoram |
| D. Absence of Village Panchayats | 4. Meghalaya |
Code
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (d)
The correct matching is:
A-2 (Mandal Praja Parishad at Andhra Pradesh) B-1 (Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level is found in the state of Assam) C-3 (Tribal Councils is in Mizoram) D-4 (Absence of Village Panchayats is in Meghalaya)
Q4. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that (2000)
(a) he obtains permission from the principal of his college.
(b) he is a member of a political party.
(c) his name figures in the voters’ list.
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India.
Ans. (c)
Under the given conditions, the crucial requirement that must be fulfilled is that the name of the candidate should appear in the voter’s list.
Q5. In which one of the following areas does the State Government not have control over its local bodies? (2001)
(a) Citizens’ grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters
Ans. (a)
Citizens’ grievances represent an area where State Governments do not exercise direct control over their local bodies. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances serves as the nodal agency responsible for policy initiatives concerning public grievances redress mechanisms and citizen-centric initiatives. Its primary role involves undertaking citizen-centric initiatives in the realms of administrative reforms and public grievances within the government. This aims to empower the government machinery to provide quality public services to citizens.
Q6. The 9th Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by (2003)
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment
Ans. (a)
The 9th Schedule of the Indian Constitution indeed contains laws related to land reforms and was added by the First Amendment Act of 1951. This constitutional provision was introduced to safeguard laws that may be in conflict with the constitutionally guaranteed Fundamental Rights. It was established through the inclusion of Article 31B, alongside Article 31A, by the government to shield legislation pertaining to agrarian reform and the abolition of the Zamindari system.
Q7. Assertion (A) The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India. Reason (R) Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. (2004)
In the context of above two statement(s), which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
Statement A is true: The Central Rural Sanitation Programme, initiated in 1986, was among India’s initial endeavors to ensure safe sanitation in rural regions. This program primarily aimed at providing subsidies to individuals for constructing sanitation facilities.
Statement R is false: The Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution indeed comprises 47 subjects, but rural sanitation is not explicitly listed among them.
Q8. With reference to the Government of India various programmes, what is Nirmal Gram Puraskar? (2006)
(a) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for the single girl child in families in villages
(b) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for female sportspersons from villages who represent their states in any game
(c) It is an incentive scheme for schools in the villages for computer education
(d) It is an incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj Institutions
Ans. (d)
Nirmal Gram Puraskar is indeed an incentive scheme aimed at encouraging Panchayati Raj Institutions to uphold hygiene and cleanliness standards. Launched in October 2003, with the first award conferred in 2005, it was designed to promote sanitation coverage in rural areas, thereby enhancing the health and quality of life for rural residents.
Until 2011, the Nirmal Gram Puraskar was administered by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation (MoDWS), and it was awarded by the Government of India at various levels of Panchayati Raj Institutions, including Gram Panchayat, Block Panchayat, and district Panchayat.
Q9. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within (2009)
(a) one month
(b) three months
(c) six months
(d) one year
Ans. (c)
If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections must be conducted within six months. Each Panchayat has a clear term of five years, and elections must be held before the term expires. However, a Panchayat can be dissolved earlier under specific grounds. In such cases, elections must take place within six months of its dissolution.
Q10. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set-up in which one among the following? (2009)
(a) Kolkata
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Ans. (b)
In India, the first Municipal Corporation was established in Chennai, the capital of Tamil Nadu. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 regarding financial decentralization laid the groundwork for the development of local self-government institutions. Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 is often revered as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government, earning him the title of the father of local self-government in India.
Q11. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular state? (2010)
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
Ans. (b)
State Finance Commissions are indeed tasked with making recommendations to the Governor of a state regarding the principles for determining the taxes and duties that can be allocated to the Panchayats within that state.
Q12. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Ad 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Ra Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? (2011)
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans. (c)
Statements (2) and (3) are correct.
The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 indeed aims to bolster Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country and provides for State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections, as well as the establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Statement (1) is not correct because District Planning Committees fall under the provision of Article 243ZD, which was introduced through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Q13. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of inclusive governance? (2012)
1. Permitting the non-banking financial companies to do banking.
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts.
3. Increasing the government spending on public health.
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Statements (2), (3), and (4) accurately reflect the principles of inclusive governance, showcasing the government’s focus on strengthening two districts as planning centers across centrally sponsored schemes, the widespread establishment of District Planning Committees in alignment with constitutional mandates in almost all states, and the pivotal role played by agricultural extension District Planning Committees in engaging grassroots stakeholders for promoting inclusive growth. Additionally, the provided information underscores the comprehensive nature of inclusive governance programs, spanning sectors such as education, healthcare, water and sanitation, rural infrastructure, women and child development, public distribution, rural industrialization, and agricultural extension, thereby fostering holistic development at the grassroots level.
Q14. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? (2012)
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the scheduled areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the scheduled areas.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Statements (1) and (2) are correct. The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, aims to extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution related to Panchayats to the scheduled areas. According to this Act, every Gram Sabha is empowered to safeguard and preserve the traditions, customs, cultural identity, community resources, and customary dispute resolution methods of the people residing in the scheduled areas.
Statement (3) is incorrect because the recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level are indeed made mandatory prior to granting prospecting licenses or mining leases for minor minerals in the scheduled areas.
Q15. The government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (2013)
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognise traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Ans. (c)
The objective of the PESA Act, 1996, is not to create autonomous regions. Instead, it was enacted to address the issue that the provisions of the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts did not automatically extend to the Scheduled Areas designated under the 5th Schedule. The primary purpose of the PESA Act was to establish institutions of local self-governance in these Scheduled Areas and to recognize the traditional rights of the tribal communities residing there.
Q16. Under the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both? (2014)
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tehsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Ans. (d)
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 indeed recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling communities, encompassing a broad spectrum of individual and community rights. These rights include the right to reside in the forest, community rights, the right to access minor forest produce, and the right to convert traditional forest land holdings (patas) into land titles, among others. Section 6 of the Act grants the Gram Sabha the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of these rights. It’s important to note that ownership rights are conferred only for land actively cultivated by the concerned family, and no new lands are granted. Additionally, the rights of forest dwellers extend to extracting minor forest produce, accessing grazing areas, and other related activities within the forest.
Q17. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? (2015)
1. People’s participation in development
2 .Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralisation
4. Financial mobilisation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
The term ‘Panchayati Raj’ in India signifies the system of rural local self-government, established in all states by Acts of the respective State Legislatures to foster grassroots democracy and rural development. Constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, this Act introduced a new Part IX and an Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. The fundamental objectives of the Panchayati Raj system include promoting people’s participation in development through the organization of Gram Sabhas and establishing Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels, with reserved seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), women, and minorities. Additionally, the system aims for democratic decentralization by devolving powers and responsibilities to Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice, as well as granting financial powers to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.
Q18. Consider the following statements (2016)
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Only statement (2) is correct: a candidate for the seat of Member or Sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat must indeed be a registered voter in the electoral roll of that Gram Panchayat.
Statement (1) is incorrect: a candidate can be disqualified if they are less than 21 years of age, not less than 25 years.
Q19. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in (2017)
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
Ans. (b)
Local self-government can indeed be best understood as an embodiment of democratic decentralization. The primary aim of democratic decentralization is to fundamentally alter traditional perspectives on governmental power structures, emphasizing the decentralization of authority. Democratic decentralization entails the meaningful devolution of authority to local governance units that are both accessible and accountable to the local populace. In such a system, citizens enjoy full political rights and liberties, ensuring their active participation in decision-making processes at the local level.
Q20. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? (2018)
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
Statements (1), (2), and (4) are indeed correct.
- The MPLADS (Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme) was launched on December 23, 1993, as a Local Area Development Scheme.
- The features of this scheme include allowing all works aimed at fulfilling locally felt infrastructure and development needs, with a focus on creating durable assets within the constituency of the Member of Parliament.
- Under the MPLADS, the District Authority is responsible for coordinating and supervising works at the district level, with an obligation to inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation each year.
Statement (3) is incorrect. MPLADS funds are non-lapsable, meaning they do not expire and can be carried forward for utilization in subsequent years.
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