Prepare for the UPSC Prelims effectively with a curated selection of topic-wise questions covering Indian Polity and Governance, specifically focusing on Miscellaneous topics. Explore a diverse range of subjects crucial for understanding the dynamics of governance in India. From constitutional amendments to administrative reforms, this resource offers comprehensive coverage of essential areas often overlooked. Dive deep into lesser-known aspects of Indian governance, enhancing your understanding and analytical skills. Our meticulously crafted questions ensure thorough preparation, enabling you to tackle any challenge with confidence. Whether you’re revising key concepts or exploring new territories, these topic-wise questions provide invaluable insights to boost your exam readiness. Stay ahead of the curve and ace the UPSC Prelims with our UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Questions – Indian Polity and Governance – Miscellaneous.
Q1. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is: (2000)
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (d)
Madhya Pradesh holds the highest number of Lok Sabha seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs) among all states. Out of its total 29 Lok Sabha seats, 6 are specifically reserved for Scheduled Tribes.
Q2. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote? (2003)
(a) Ireland
(b) India
(c) New Zealand
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
New Zealand holds the distinction of being the earliest nation to grant women the right to vote. From 1893 AD onward, it became the first self-governing country globally where all women were entitled to vote in Parliamentary elections. However, women were not permitted to stand for election to parliament until 1919 AD. Subsequently, in 1922, Ireland extended equal voting rights to both men and women.
Q3. The Constitution (88th Amendment) Act is related to (2005)
(a) empowering the center to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on basis of the Population Census 2001
(d) the demarcation of new boundaries between states
Ans. (a)
The Constitution (88th Amendment) Act pertains to empowering the center to levy and appropriate service tax. This amendment specifically mentions that it empowers the center to levy tax on services as specific items of taxation, through the addition of a new entry in the Union list of the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution. The Constitution (88th Amendment) Act, 2003 came into effect on January 15, 2004.
Q4. Consider the following statements. (2005)
1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.
2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
Ans. (d)
Statement (1) accurately identifies the Federal Assembly as the national legislature of the Russian Federation, in accordance with the Constitution of the Russian Federation (1993). It succeeded the Supreme Soviet of Russia.
However, Statements (2) and (3) are incorrect. The Federal Assembly indeed consists of two houses: the State Duma, which serves as the lower house, and the Federation Council, which serves as the upper house. Both houses are indeed located in Moscow.
Q5. Consider the following statements. (2005)
1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representative of the US Congress.
3. George W Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Statement (2) accurately describes the Origination Clause, also known as the ‘Revenue Clause,’ which is Article 1, Section 7, Clause 1, of the US Constitution. This clause mandates that all bills for raising revenue must originate in the US House of Representatives, although the US Senate can propose or concur with amendments, similar to other bills.
However, Statements (1) and (3) are incorrect. The US Constitution was indeed created on September 17, 1787 AD, but it came into effect on March 4, 1789. George W. Bush served as the 43rd President of the United States from 2001 to 2009. Additionally, there have been 46 Presidents, including the current one, Joe Biden, whose term began in 2021.
Q6. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to (2005)
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between state
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border states
Ans. (a)
The provisions outlined in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India are specifically designed to safeguard the interests of Scheduled Tribes.
The Fifth Schedule pertains to the administration and control of scheduled areas as well as the welfare of Scheduled Tribes residing in any state other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. This provision is enshrined under Article 244(1) of the Constitution.
On the other hand, the Sixth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It aims to protect the rights of the tribal population in these states and is outlined in Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
Q7. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements: (2017)
1. A property transaction is not treated as benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Statement (2) accurately describes the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act). This legislation indeed prohibits all benami transactions and empowers the government to recover property held benami without providing any compensation.
However, both Statements (1) and (3) are incorrect. According to this act, a property transaction can be deemed as a benami transaction even if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. Additionally, an appellate mechanism has been established in the form of the Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Tribunal.
In an effort to address the shortcomings of the original act and combat black money, the Government of India decided to amend the legislation. This amendment was subsequently passed by the parliament as the “Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016” in July 2016.
Q8. Consider the following events. (2018)
1. The first democratically elected Communist Party government formed in a state in India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’ was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4-1-2-3
(b) 3-2-1-4
(c) 4-2-1-3
(d) 3-1-2-4
Ans. (b)
- In 1955, the Imperial Bank of India was renamed as the State Bank of India.
- The first democratically elected Communist Party government was formed in the state of Kerala in India. The ministry was led by EMS Namboodiripad from 1957 to 1959. It was the first democratically elected communist government in the world after San Marino (1945-1957).
- JRD Tata, the founder of the Tata Group, originally launched Tata Airlines in 1932, which later became Air India. However, Air India was nationalized by the Government of India in 1953.
- In 1961, India invaded and annexed Goa, and the region was incorporated as a Union Territory. Daman and Diu were also merged with Goa.
- The Reserve Bank of India acquired a controlling stake in the Imperial Bank of India in 1955, which was subsequently renamed the State Bank of India.
Q9. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? (2019)
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Ans. (b)
The Indian Constitution provides autonomy to tribal areas in matters of governance under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules. These rights are fortified by the landmark Samatha vs State of Andhra Pradesh and others judgment, where the Supreme Court of India declared that the transfer of tribal land to private mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule.
Q10. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance electricity etc.? (2019)
1. Ad Hoc Committees setup the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC)
5 . NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans. (a)
Statements (1) and (2) are correct regarding the review of independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc. The Parliament of India may establish ad-hoc committees to examine the working of regulators. For example, the terms of reference of the Joint Parliamentary Committee on the allocation of the 2G spectrum include reviewing the policy on spectrum pricing and the grant of telecom licenses. Similarly, in India, there are 24 department-related standing committees that comprise members from both Houses of Parliament. For example, in 2011, the standing committee on Information Technology had listed the functioning of TRAI for examination.
Statements (3), (4), and (5) are incorrect as the Finance Commission and NITI Aayog are advisory bodies and do not review the functioning of any regulator. The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC) was set up to review financial legislations, but it does not review independent regulators.
Q11. Consider the following statements. (2019)
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Statements (2) and (3) are accurate. According to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, Minor Forest Produce (MFP) encompasses all non-timber forest products of plant origin, including bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, lac, tendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tubers, etc. This legislation is designed to acknowledge and confer forest rights and land occupation to forest dwellers, enabling them to own minor forest produce.
Statement (1) is incorrect because the Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill 2018 allows the felling and transit of bamboo grown in non-forest areas. However, bamboo cultivated on forest lands remains classified as a tree and is subject to existing legal restrictions.
Q12. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? (2019)
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans . (c)
Statement (3) is accurate regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017. The amendments came into effect from April 1, 2017. According to the act, women employees are entitled to 26 weeks of paid maternity leave. Additionally, under Section 11(A) of the act, employers are required to permit women employees to visit the baby room up to four times a day.
Q13. Consider the following statements: (2020)
1. Aadhar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data.
3. Aadhar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Statements (2) and (4) are accurate. The Supreme Court’s recent judgment highlights that allowing body corporates and individuals to seek Aadhaar authentication, based on a contract between the individual and such entities, would infringe upon the right to privacy. As a result, this provision has been deemed unconstitutional. Meanwhile, the state government is actively pursuing the mandatory use of Aadhaar authentication for accessing benefits, subsidies, or services for schemes funded by the Consolidated Fund of the State, following a circular issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India.
However, Statements (1) and (3) are incorrect. The recent Supreme Court ruling states that Aadhaar authentication data cannot be retained beyond six months. Additionally, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) clarified that Aadhaar is not necessary to purchase an insurance policy, consistent with the Supreme Court’s 2018 judgment that Aadhaar is not mandatory for buying insurance products.
Q14. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is (2020)
(a) the final goal of a stateless society.
(b) class struggle.
(c) abolition of private property.
(d) economic determinism.
Ans. (a)
One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is the ultimate aim of achieving a stateless society. In Gandhi’s vision of ‘Ramarajya,’ the state embodies a social order liberated from political constraints, comprising self-governing individuals. Similarly, Karl Marx proposed that the proletariat (working class) would seize control of the state and the means of production, leading to the elimination of class distinctions and conflicts, ultimately resulting in the gradual disappearance of the state.
Q15. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens? (2020)
1. Person with an annual income of less than ₹ 1,00,000.
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than ₹2,00,000.
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹3,00,000.
4. All Senior Citizens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)
Statements (1) and (2) accurately describe the provisions of the Legal Services Authorities Act in India. The act was enacted in 1987, establishing the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), which offers free legal assistance to disadvantaged segments of society. Under this act, NALSA typically extends its services to individuals with an annual income below 1 lakh, although there are specific income ceilings for different states. However, Statements (3) and (4) are incorrect, as there is no dedicated provision for free legal aid exclusively for members of the Other Backward Classes (OBCs), nor is free legal assistance universally available for all senior citizens.
Q16. Consider the following pairs. (2020)
| International Agreement/Set-up | Subject |
| 1. Alma-Ata Declaration | Healthcare of the people |
| 2. Hague Convention | Biological and chemical weapons |
| 3. Talanoa Dialogue | Global climate change |
| 4. Under 2 Coalition | Child rights |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Pairs (1) and (3) are indeed correctly matched. The Alma-Ata Declaration, adopted in 1978, emphasized the importance of primary health care in achieving global health goals. The Talanoa Dialogue, launched at COP23, aims to enhance countries’ Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) for climate action by 2020.
However, Pairs (2) and (4) are not accurately matched. The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction, signed on December 1, 1983, is indeed a multilateral treaty developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law (HCCH) to facilitate the prompt return of children who have been internationally abducted by a parent.
The Under 2 Coalition, signed in Sacramento, California, on May 19, 2015, is a coalition of subnational governments committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions, rather than aiming for emissions mitigation.
Q17. At the national level which ministry is the nodal Agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b ) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Ans. (d)
At the national level, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs serves as the nodal agency responsible for ensuring the effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. This legislation, enacted in 2006, focuses on securing the rights of forest-dwelling communities concerning land and other natural resources.
Q18. With reference to Anti-defection Law in India, consider the following statements. (2022)
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a
defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Nether 1 nor 2
Ans. ( b)
Statement (2) is indeed correct regarding the Anti-defection Law in India. The law does not specify a time period within which the presiding officer must decide on a disqualification plea. Consequently, petitioners seeking disqualification must await the presiding officer’s decision before any further legal recourse can be pursued.
However, Statement (1) is not entirely accurate. According to the Anti-Defection Law, a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified from being a member of the House if they join any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which they take their seat in the House. This means that such a member may indeed join any political party within six months of taking their seat in the House without incurring disqualification.
Q19. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022)
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Ans. (a)
Statement (a) accurately reflects the implications of the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The Fifth Schedule provides autonomy to tribal areas in governance matters, alongside the Sixth Schedule. These rights were affirmed by the Supreme Court in the landmark Samatha vs State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors judgment, which declared the transfer of tribal land to private mining as null and void under the Fifth Schedule. Additionally, the Fifth Schedule contains provisions concerning the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
Q20. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ means? (2023)
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Ans. (c)
In essence, “Due Process of Law” refers to the fair application of the law. It is a legal principle aimed at ensuring fairness and protecting the rights of individuals in legal proceedings. Under due process, the government is obligated to adhere to established procedures and treat all individuals fairly and equally when applying and enforcing the law. This principle serves as a safeguard against arbitrary actions by the government and helps uphold the fundamental principles of justice and equality before the law.
Q21. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country’? (2023)
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
Ans. (c)
Statement (c) indeed best reflects the chief purpose of the Constitution of a country. The primary goal of a constitution is to establish the framework for the functioning of a government and to define and limit its powers. It outlines the structure of government, delineates the rights and freedoms of individuals, establishes the separation of powers, and sets up a system of checks and balances to prevent the abuse of power.
Q22. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements: (2023)
1. Within a state, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned states are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the states.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Indeed, statements (1) and (2) are correct. As per the Indian Constitution (Part C of the Fifth Schedule), the term “Scheduled Areas” refers to those areas that the President may declare as such by order. These areas are typically administered at the district level and can encompass clusters of villages within a block. However, statement (3) is inaccurate because the Governor of the state doesn’t bear the special responsibility concerning Scheduled Areas. Instead, it’s the duty of the Governor to submit reports to the President on the administration of these areas, either annually or as requested by the President.
Q23. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: (2023)
| Action | The Act under which it is covered |
| 1. Unauthorised wearing of police or military uniforms. | The Official Secrets Act, 1923 |
| 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties. | The Indiana Evidence Act, 1872 |
| 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others. | The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 |
How many of the above pairs(s) is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Indeed, pairs (1) and (3) are accurately matched. Section 6 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923, prohibits unauthorized use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents. Additionally, the 2019 amendment to the Arms Act, 1959, introduced new offenses, including celebratory fire. However, pair (2) is incorrect because Section 7 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923, deals with the prohibition of interfering with officers of the police or members of the Armed Forces of the Union.
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