Prepare thoroughly for the UPSC Prelims with our comprehensive collection of topic-wise questions focusing on Indian Polity and Governance, specifically tailored to explore the intricate nuances of Political Dynamics. Dive deep into the complexities of Indian politics, understanding the ever-evolving landscape of political structures, processes, and dynamics. With a meticulous selection of questions covering a wide spectrum of topics, including political institutions, ideologies, movements, and more, this resource ensures holistic preparation to excel in the UPSC Prelims. Gain invaluable insights, enhance your analytical skills, and boost your confidence with targeted practice. Stay ahead of the curve with our UPSC Prelims Topic Wise Questions – Indian Polity and Governance – Political Dynamics, designed to empower aspirants to tackle the challenges of the exam effectively. Unlock your full potential and embark on your journey towards success with our expertly crafted study material.
Q1. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India? (1995)
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission.
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States.
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by Election Commission
Ans. (a)
Statement (a) is indeed correct regarding the commencement of the election process in India. The recommendation for elections is made by the government, and the notification for elections is issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI operates under the authority of the Constitution, particularly Article 324, and subsequently enacted legislation such as the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Article 324 of the Constitution vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, the Office of the President of India, and the Office of the Vice-President of India in the Election Commission.
Q2. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India? (1995)
1. The National Development Council
2. The Governer’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. The Inter-State Council
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 4
Ans. (a)
The National Development Council, Governor’s Conference, and Zonal Councils indeed serve as extra-constitutional and extra-legal mechanisms for securing cooperation and coordination between the states in India.
The National Development Council, established in 1952, is a non-statutory, extra-constitutional body presided over by the Prime Minister. It comprises Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers, or representatives of all states and Union territories.
Similarly, the Governor’s Conference functions as an extra-constitutional device for securing cooperation and coordination among states in India. During this conference, various key issues and policies related to states and union territories are discussed, fostering collaboration and coordination.
Q3. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with (1995)
(a) de-nationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the North-East
(d) the problem of the Chakmas
Ans. (b)
The Dinesh Goswami Committee focused on electoral reforms and made several proposals in 1990. These proposals included:
- Fresh delimitation based on the 1981 Census.
- Provision for rotation of reserved seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
- Janod Banon transfer of officials and staff involved in elections.
- Use of electronic voting machines.
- Granting power of prosecution to the Election Commission against any individual who commits an electoral offense under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- Empowering the Election Commission to appoint Special Courts for the trial of offenses committed under the RP Act, 1951.
- Introduction of state funding for elections.
Q4. Which of the following are the states in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit? (1995)
(a) West Bengal and Kerala
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
Ans. (*)
None of the given options is correct. The Lokayuktas of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan indeed have complete and exclusive authority to inquire into allegations or complaints against various high-ranking officials, including the State Chief Minister, State Deputy Chief Minister, Ministers of the state Government, Leader of Opposition, and government officials up to the rank of Additional Secretary.
Q5. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved a two-party system? (1996)
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan
(d) Myanmar
Ans. (b)
Bangladesh indeed had more or less evolved into a two-party system. The country’s political landscape has been characterized by a fading two-party system, wherein two dominant political parties, the center-left Awami League (AL) and the center-right Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP), have historically held significant influence over Bangladesh politics. Achieving electoral success under the banner of another party has been extremely difficult due to the dominance of these two major parties.
Q6. In which one of the following countries will the no-confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the legislature be valid only when the legislature is able to find simultaneously a majority to elect successor government? (1997)
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Italy
(d) Portugal
Ans. (b)
Indeed, Germany has a provision for a no-confidence motion, but with a unique condition. This motion can bring down the government only if the legislature can simultaneously find a majority to elect a successor government. This condition ensures stability and continuity in governance. Additionally, Germany employs a constructive vote of no confidence, a variation on the motion of no confidence. Under this system, parliament can withdraw confidence from a head of government only if there is a positive majority for a prospective successor, further ensuring stability in the government.
Q7. State funding of elections takes place in (1997)
(a) USA and Canada
(b) Britain and Switzerland
(c) France and Italy
(d) Germany and Austria
Ans. (d)
State funding of elections indeed occurs in Germany and Austria. In Germany, party finance is regulated through statutory reports, with up to 35 parties required to file annual reports with the administration of the German parliament.
Similarly, party funding in Austria has been subject to public regulation and public subsidies since 1975.
Additionally, several other countries, including the United Kingdom, Denmark, Finland, Italy, Norway, the United States of America, and the Netherlands, also have provisions for state funding of elections.
Q8. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panchsheel”? (1997)
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each others territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each others internal affairs
Ans. (a)
Indeed, non-alignment is not a principle of “Panchsheel.” The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence, commonly known as Panchsheel, were mentioned in the preamble of the Sino-Indian Agreement in 1954. These principles, as stated in the agreement, include:
- Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
- Mutual non-aggression.
- Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.
- Equality and cooperation for mutual benefit.
- Peaceful coexistence.
Q9. Consider the following statements: (1995)
Assertion (A) The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Reason (R) Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
A is false, but R is true. The Women’s Reservation Bill, also known as the Constitution (108th Amendment) Bill 2010, is indeed a pending bill in the Parliament of India. This bill proposes to amend the Constitution of India to reserve one-third of all seats in the Lower House of Parliament of India, the Lok Sabha, and in all state legislative assemblies for women. The reservation of 33% of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does indeed require a Constitutional Amendment.
Q10. In which one of the following countries are 75% of seats in both Houses of Parliament filled on the basis of the first-past post system and 25% on the basis of Proportional Representation system of elections? (1997)
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) France
(d) Russia
Ans. (c)
France does not use the first-past-the-post system for its parliamentary elections. Instead, it utilizes a two-round system, also known as runoff voting, for its legislative elections. Under this system, if no candidate receives an absolute majority of votes in the first round, a second round of voting is held between the top two candidates.
France is indeed a unitary semi-presidential republic with a bicameral legislature, consisting of the National Assembly and the Senate.
Public officials in France’s legislative and executive branches are either elected by the citizens (directly or indirectly) or appointed by elected officials.
Q11. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended (1997)
(a) the constitution of state level election commission.
(b) list system of election to the Lok Sabha
(c) governmental funding of parliamentary elections
(d) a ban on the candidature of independent candidates in the parliamentary elections
Ans. (b)
The Dinesh Goswami Committee did indeed recommend a change in the voting pattern and a shift to a proportional representation system known as the list system for elections to the Lok Sabha. In 1990, Dinesh Goswami headed a committee that made several recommendations, including advocating for changes in the voting pattern. This included a shift from the present voting system to a proportional representation system using the list system.
Q12. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions relating Anti-defection Act? (1998)
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans. (d)
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India does indeed contain provisions relating to the Anti-defection Act. It was introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. The Tenth Schedule provides for the disqualification of a member of a legislature if they defect from their party to another party. It comprises 8 paragraphs outlining the various provisions related to anti-defection.
However, the second schedule of the Constitution contains provisions about the salaries, allowances, and other privileges of the President, Vice-President, Governors of States, Speakers and Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Q13. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the Election Law by the representation of the People Amendment Act 1996. (1999)
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction.
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok-Sabha.
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Statements (1), (2), and (4) are indeed correct regarding the recent amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the People Amendment Act 1996.
- Any conviction for the offense of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of India does indeed entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction.
- There is indeed an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha.
- No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
However, Statement (3) is incorrect. According to Section 33 of the 1996 (Amendment) Act, a candidate cannot stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
Q14. Which article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education? (2001)
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 350 (A)
(d) Article 351
Ans. (c)
Article 350A of the Indian Constitution indeed provides that it shall be the endeavor of every state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. Additionally, the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.
Q15. Match List I with List II and select the correct ante using the codes given below the lists. (2001)
| List I (Publisher) | List II (Publications) |
| A. Ministry of Industry | 1. Report on Currency and Finance |
| B. Central Statistical Organisation | 2. Economic Survey |
| C. Reserve Bank of India | 3. Wholesale Price Index |
| D. Ministry of Finance | 4. National Accounts Statistics |
Codes
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (b)
The correct matching is:
A-3: Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is published by the Office of Economic Advisor (Ministry of Commerce and Industry). B-4: The annual National Accounts Statistics are released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in its annual publication, “National Accounts Statistics” (NAS). C-1: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) releases the Report on Currency and Finance (RCF) every year. D-2: Ministry of Finance, Government of India, conducts the Economic Survey every year.
Additionally, the Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman, tabled the economic survey report 2021-22 in Lok Sabha.
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India. (2003)
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
3. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more states.
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
All the given statements are indeed correct regarding the political parties in India:
- Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- The provisions of Part IV-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (relating to registration of political parties) are required to get registered with the Election Commission.
- A registered party is recognized as a National Party only if it fulfils any one of the following three conditions: a. The party wins 2% of the seats in the Lok Sabha (as of 2011 seats) from at least three different States. b. At a General Election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in four States and additionally wins 4 Lok Sabha seats from any state or states. c. A party gets recognition as a State Party in four or more States.
During the 1999 general elections, there were indeed six national and 48 State Level parties recognized by the Election Commission. However, as of 2021, the total number of parties registered had significantly increased to 2858. Among these, there were 8 national parties, 54 state parties, and 2797 unrecognised parties.
Q17. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence? (2003)
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former President
(c) Governor of a state within his state
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (c)
As per Indian Protocol, the correct order of precedence from the highest rank to the lowest rank is as follows:
- President
- Vice-President
- Prime Minister
- Governors of States within their respective States
- Former Presidents
- Deputy Prime Minister
- Chief Justice of India
- Speaker of Lok Sabha
So, among the options provided, the Governor of a state within his state ranks highest in the order of precedence.
Q18. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (2003)
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasi-judicial body established under an Act of Parliament.
(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media person so as to easy access to information from government sources.
(c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers.
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country.
Ans. (c)
Statement (c) is indeed not correct. According to the data provided by the Government, a total of 1,05,443 newspapers/periodicals are registered with the Registrar of Newspapers for India. Uttar Pradesh tops the list with more than 16,000 registrations, followed by Maharashtra with more than 14,000 registrations. Therefore, the statement mentioning Uttar Pradesh as having more than 16,000 registrations is accurate, but the statement attributing the same to Maharashtra with more than 14,000 registrations is incorrect.
Q19. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (2003)
(a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali.
(b) The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year.
(c) The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947.
(d) The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the National Anthem of India.
Ans. (a)
Statement (a) is indeed not correct. The National Song “Vande Mataram” is a poem written in highly Sanskritized Bengali by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in the 1870s, which he included in his 1882 Bengali novel “Anandamath.” The poem was indeed first sung by Rabindranath Tagore in the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress. Therefore, the statement accurately describes the origins and initial rendition of the National Song “Vande Mataram.”
Q20. Consider the following events. (2004)
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2, 1,4,3
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans. (a)
The correct matching is:
A-2: Fourth general elections were held in India between 17th and 21st February 1967 to elect members of the 4th Lok Sabha.
B-1: Haryana was constituted on 1st November 1966, as a result of the partition of the former state of Punjab into two separate states namely, Punjabi-speaking Punjab and Hindi-speaking Haryana.
C-4: The former Chief Minister of Mysore State D. Devaraj Urs is credited with renaming the Mysore State as Karnataka on 1st November 1973.
D-3: Meghalaya and Tripura attained statehood on 21st January 1972, with a Legislative Assembly of its own, as per the North-East Re-organisation Act, 1971.
Q21. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence? (2004)
(a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Supreme Court-Members of Parliament- Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Attorney General of India Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Judges of the Supreme Court Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court-Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Members of Parliament
Ans. (b)
The correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence is:
- Judges of the Supreme Court
- Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
- Attorney General of India
- Members of Parliament
The Order of Precedence is indeed a protocol list in which the functionaries and authorities are recorded by rank and office in the Government of India. The order is established by the President of India and is maintained by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Q22. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? (2014)
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eight Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans. (d)
Yes, the statement accurately describes the provisions of the 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India, which indeed contains provisions regarding anti-defection. It is commonly referred to as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ and was inserted by the 52nd Amendment of the Constitution in 1985. The 10th Schedule contains provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection, aiming to curb the practice of legislators switching parties for personal gains or political motivations.
Q23. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? (2020)
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy.
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism.
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth.
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy.
Ans. (d)
Yes, the statement accurately highlights the role of bureaucracy in the implementation of public policy in India. Bureaucracy, as the permanent executive, plays a crucial role in drafting and implementing policies, regardless of changes in government. Even when a new government is elected and seeks to introduce new policies, the bureaucracy is responsible for participating in the policy-making process and ensuring the efficient implementation of those policies. This reflects the characteristic of bureaucracy as an agency for the implementation of public policy in the Indian context.
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