UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz – 04th November 2023

Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge on the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!

Q 1. What is/are the importance of the ‘ United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’ ?  

1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships. 
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions. 
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification. 

How many of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All three  

(d) None 

Answer: (b) 

• It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships. 
• It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification. 
• The implementation of UNCCD is around five regional annexes: Africa (given a priority because there is where desertification is most severe), Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean, the Northern Mediterranean, and Central and Eastern Europe There is no such provision that the secretariat facilitates the allocation of the major portion of financial resources to the South Asia and North Africa regions. 

Q 2. Consider the following statements  

Statement-I: Latin America, and the Caribbean experience severe degradation, impacting at least 20% of their total land area. 

Statement-II: Degraded Land Area in India has been increased from 4.42% in 2015 to 9.45 % in 2019 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.  

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer: (b) 

Key Highlights of the UNCCD Data on Land Degradation 

• Land Degradation Trends: 
  • From 2015 to 2019, the world lost over 100 million hectares of productive land annually, which is twice the size of Greenland. 
  • Land degradation is worsening rapidly on a global scale. 
• Regional Variances: 
  • Eastern and Central Asia, Latin America, and the Caribbean experience severe degradation, impacting at least 20% of their total land area. 
  • Sub-Saharan Africa, Western and Southern Asia, Latin America, and the Caribbean have experienced land degradation rates faster than the global average. 
  • In sub-Saharan Africa and in Latin America and the Caribbean, 163 million hectares and 108 million hectares, respectively, have succumbed to land degradation since 2015. 
• Bright Spots: 
  • Some countries have shown progress in combating land degradation. For instance, In sub-Saharan Africa, Botswana reduced land degradation from 36% to 17% of its territory. 
  • The country has committed a total of 45.3 million hectares to LDN, including both measures to avoid further degradation as well as restoration interventions in selected land degradation hotspots. 
  • In the Dominican Republic, the proportion of degraded land has decreased from 49% to 31% between 2015 and 2019, with ongoing efforts to restore 240 000 hectares in the Yaque del Norte River basin and in cocoa production areas in San Franscisco de Macoris province. 
  • While Uzbekistan reported the highest proportion of degraded land (26.1%) in the Central Asia region, it also saw the largest decrease – from 30% to 26% compared to 2015. 
  • Between 2018-2022, Uzbekistan carried out saxaul planting to eliminate salt and dust emissions from the drained bottom of the Aral Sea. 
• India’s Statistics: 
  • Degraded Land Area in India has been increased from 4.42% in 2015 to 9.45 % in 2019. 

Q 3. Consider the following: 

1. Boron 
2. Zinc 
3. Copper 
4. Iron 

How many of the given above is/are micronutrients in plant? 

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Answer: (d) 

There are 7 essential plant nutrient elements defined as micronutrients [boron (B), zinc (Zn), manganese (Mn), iron (Fe), copper (Cu), molybdenum (Mo), chlorine (Cl)]. They constitute in total less than 1% of the dry weight of most plants. 

Q 4. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:  

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest. 
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds. 
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane. 
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) 1 and 3 only 
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 
(c) 2 and 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Answer: (a) 

• The area under rice cultivation in India, in 2013-14 was 44.13 million hectares while in 2015-16, it became 43.39 million hectares and is highest amongst all. Hence statement 1 is correct.  
• The annual area under Jowar ranges between 17 and 18 million hectares while the oilseed area is 28 million hectares (2013-14), 26.1 million hectares (2015-16) i.e area under the cultivation of Jowar is less than that of oilseeds. Hence statement 2 is not correct.  
• The area under sugarcane cultivation has not steadily decreased. The area under sugarcane cultivation 4.99 million hectares (2013-14), 5.066 million hectares (2014-15), 4.953 million hectares (2015-16). Hence statement 4 is not correct. The area under cotton cultivation is 11.96 million hectares (2013-14), 12.81 million hectares (2014-15), and 11.87 million hectares (2015- 16). Hence the area under cotton cultivation is more than sugar cultivation. Hence statement 3 is correct. 

Q 5. Consider the following statements  

Statement-I: The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the Speaker for a period of one year. 

Statement-II: There is  a provision for a one-hour discussion on the report of ethics committee. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.  

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer: (c) 

Lok Sabha’s Ethics Committee 

• About: 
  • The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the Speaker for a period of one year. 
• Procedure for Complaints: 
  • Any person can complain against a Member through another Lok Sabha MP, along with evidence of the alleged misconduct, and an affidavit stating that the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or vexatious”. 
  • If the Member himself complains, the affidavit is not needed. 
  • The Speaker can refer to the Committee any complaint against an MP. 
  • The Committee does not entertain complaints based only on media reports or on matters that are sub judice. The Committee makes a Prima Facie inquiry before deciding to examine a complaint. It makes its recommendations after evaluating the complaint. 
  • The Committee presents its report to the Speaker, who asks the House if the report should be taken up for consideration. 
  • There is also a provision for a half-hour discussion on the report. 

Q 6. Which among the following do/does not belong/ belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies?  

(a) EDGE  
(b) LTE  
(c) DSL  
(d) Both EDGE and LTE 

Answer: (c) 

DSL does not belong to the GSM family of wireless technologies. GSM stands for Global System for Mobile Communication. It is a digital cellular technology used for transmitting mobile voice and data services. 

DSL, in full digital subscriber line, networking technology that provides broadband (high-speed) Internet connections over conventional telephone lines. 

7.Consider the following statements regarding tilapia parvovirus (TiPV) 

1. Tilapia parvovirus (TiPV) is affecting farm-bred tilapia, a freshwater fish species which is endemic to India 
2. India is the First country to report the occurrence of TiPV. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Incorrect 

• Considered as “a poor-man’s fish”, Mozambique tilapia was introduced to Indian fresh water bodies in the 1950s and it is called Jilabi in Tamil-(Therefore statement 1 is incorrect).  
• Capable of surviving in low-oxygen levels in water, the fish has turned invasive across the country.  
• Nile tilapia introduced in the 1970s is a little bigger and is cultured on a large-scale. 
• Tilapia parvovirus (TiPV) affecting farm-bred tilapia, a freshwater fish species, and causing a huge mortality rate has been reported for the first time in India  

Statement 2 is Incorrect 

India’s first tilapia parvovirus case is reported in Tamil Nadu but this is not the first ever reported case. The TiPV was first reported in China in 2019 and Thailand in 2021.India is the third country to report the occurrence of TiPV 

8. Consider the following statements regarding Marsquakes 

1. Marsquakes are caused by tectonic plate movements on the surface of Mars. 
2. Most of the marsquakes have been detected thus far are associated with a region called Cerberus Fossae.
3. The InSight mission (Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport) was an ESA lander mission that landed on Mars in 2018. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B. Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Incorrect 

• Mars lacks the geological process called plate tectonics that generates earthquakes on our planet. 

Marsquakes are formed by a variety of geological processes, including: 

• Magma movement: Magma is molten rock that lies beneath the surface of Mars. As magma moves, it can cause the ground to shake. This is the most common cause of marsquakes. 
• Fault movement: Faults are cracks in the Martian crust. When faults move, they can cause the ground to shake. This is similar to how earthquakes are formed on Earth. 
• Meteorite impacts: When meteorites strike Mars, they can cause the ground to shake. This is similar to how earthquakes are formed on Earth when large asteroids or comets impact the planet. 
• Shrinking crust: As Mars cools, its crust shrinks. This can cause cracks to form in the crust, which can lead to marsquakes. 
• However, Mars is still geologically active, and the processes listed above can all cause marsquakes. 
• It is important to note that marsquakes are typically much smaller than earthquakes on Earth. This is because Mars’s crust is thicker and stronger than Earth’s crust.  
• However, the largest marsquakes ever detected have had magnitudes of up to 5.0, which is comparable to some earthquakes that occur on Earth. 

Statement 2 is correct 

Cerberus Fossae is a giant fracture system located on the eastern edge of Elysium Planitia on Mars. It is about 1,200 kilometres long and up to 30 kilometres wide. Cerberus Fossae is thought to have formed by the extension of the Martian crust, and it is one of the most geologically active regions on Mars. 

The InSight mission has detected more marsquakes in Cerberus Fossae than in any other region on Mars. These marsquakes are thought to be caused by the movement of magma (molten rock) beneath the surface. The magma is thought to be rising from a mantle plume, which is a column of hot material that rises from deep within the planet. 

The marsquakes in Cerberus Fossae are relatively small, with most of them having magnitudes of less than 4.0. However, the InSight mission has also detected a few larger marsquakes in the region, including a magnitude 4.7 marsquake in 2020. 

The marsquakes in Cerberus Fossae are important for scientists because they provide information about the internal structure of Mars and the processes that are driving its geological activity. The marsquakes also provide information about the potential for volcanic eruptions in the region. 

In addition to the marsquakes, Cerberus Fossae is also home to a number of other geological features, including: 

• Lava flows 
• Calderas (collapsed volcanic craters) 
• Cones 
• Fissures 

The lava flows in Cerberus Fossae are some of the youngest on Mars, and they suggest that the region has been volcanically active in the recent past. The calderas and cones in Cerberus Fossae are also evidence of volcanic activity. The fissures in Cerberus Fossae are thought to be the source of the magma that is causing the marsquakes in the region. 

Statement 3 is Incorrect 

The InSight mission (Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport) was a NASA lander mission that landed on Mars on November 26, 2018. The mission was designed to study the interior structure of Mars, including its crust, mantle, and core. 

InSight was the first mission to study the interior of Mars in detail. It was equipped with three main instruments: 

• The Seismic Experiment for Interior Structure (SEIS): This instrument was designed to measure seismic waves, which are vibrations that travel through the ground. SEIS could detect seismic waves caused by marsquakes, meteorite impacts, and the movement of magma beneath the surface. 
• The Heat Flow and Physical Properties Package (HP3): This instrument was designed to measure the amount of heat that is flowing from the interior of Mars to the surface. This information could be used to learn about the composition of the Martian interior and the processes that are driving its geological activity. 

The Rotation and Interior Structure Experiment (RISE): This instrument was designed to measure the rotation of Mars and the tiny changes in its orientation. This information could be used to learn about the structure of the Martian core and the distribution of mass within the planet. 

9.Consider the following statements regarding Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) 

1.Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is a program initiated by the World Food Programme 

2.India has several Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) Sites Including Kuttanad below-sea level farming system 

3.Pokkali is a unique drought tolerant rice variety 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Incorrect 

Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is a program initiated by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. 

Statement 2 is Correct 

India has several Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) recognized by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. These GIAHS sites in India showcase the rich agricultural heritage and traditional farming practices that have sustained local communities and preserved biodiversity for generations. Here are a few examples of GIAHS sites in India: 

• Kuttanad, Kerala: Kuttanad is known as the “Rice Bowl of Kerala.” It is a low-lying, waterlogged region with a unique below sea level farming system that combines paddy farming with prawn and fish farming. This integrated farming system has been recognized as a GIAHS site due to its sustainability and cultural significance. 
• Wayanad, Kerala: Wayanad is another GIAHS site in Kerala. It is characterized by its traditional shifting cultivation system called “Kandhagari,” which involves the rotation of crops like rice, millets, and tubers. This system has helped maintain biodiversity and is deeply rooted in the culture of the indigenous communities. 
• Koraput, Odisha: The Koraput region in Odisha is known for its unique agricultural practices. The traditional mixed farming system, which includes diverse crops, fruit trees, and livestock, helps maintain the ecological balance. This region has been recognized as a GIAHS site. 
• North Sikkim, Sikkim: North Sikkim is famous for its traditional agricultural practices, including rice-duck farming and the cultivation of traditional crop varieties like “Sailung” rice. These practices contribute to biodiversity conservation and sustainable agriculture. 
• Punjab: The rice-wheat cropping system in Punjab has also been recognized as a GIAHS site. While this region is known for modern agriculture, it also showcases traditional practices like diversifying cropping patterns and using water-saving technologies. 

These GIAHS sites in India reflect the diversity of the country’s agricultural heritage and the importance of preserving traditional farming practices for food security, biodiversity conservation, and cultural heritage. They serve as models of sustainable agriculture that can inspire and inform agricultural practices in India and around the world. 

Statement 3 is Incorrect 

Pokkali is a unique saline tolerant rice variety 

10. Consider the following statements regarding Minimum Support Price 

1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane 
2. The FRP is a minimum price that government is required to pay to farmers for their sugarcane 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  C 

Explanation: 

Statement I is Correct 

The MSP is recommended by the CACP on the basis of a number of factors, including the cost of production, market prices, and the need to ensure a reasonable margin of profit for farmers. The MSPs are announced by the Government of India before the sowing season for each crop, and they serve as a floor price for farmers. 

The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops, which are as follows: 

• Cereals: Paddy, wheat, maize, jowar, bajra, and ragi. 
• Pulses: Gram, tur, moong, urad, and lentil. 
• Oilseeds: Groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, sesamum, sunflower, safflower, and Niger seed. 
• Commercial crops: Copra, sugarcane, and cotton. 

In addition to MSPs, the CACP also recommends a Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.  

Statement II is Incorrect  

• The FRP is a minimum price that sugar mills are required to pay to farmers for their sugarcane.  
• The FRP is recommended by the CACP on the basis of the cost of production of sugarcane and the need to ensure a reasonable margin of profit for farmers. 

The MSPs and FRP play an important role in protecting farmers from price shocks and in ensuring remunerative prices for their produce. The MSPs and FRP are also an important tool for the Government of India to implement its agricultural policies 

11. Consider the following statements: 

1. Microbial rhodopsin’s, are proposed to be major light capturers in the ocean 
2. High BOD levels in water indicate a healthy habitat for aquatic organisms. 
3. Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings is the correct sequence of food chain in oceans 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: A 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Correct 

• According to the study, microbial rhodopsin’s are suggested to be significant light-capturing proteins in the ocean.  
• These proteins play a crucial role in the adaptation of marine microorganisms, such as microalgae, to changing ocean conditions, especially in regions with nutrient-poor surface waters due to ocean warming.  
• Microbial rhodopsin’s enable these microorganisms to capture and utilize light as an alternative energy source, which is essential for their survival and contributes to their ability to produce food and capture carbon dioxide, even in challenging environmental conditions 

Statement 2 is Incorrect 

• BOD stands for Biochemical Oxygen Demand.  
• It is a critical water quality parameter used to measure the amount of dissolved oxygen that microorganisms require to decompose organic matter in water.  
• BOD is often used as an indicator of the level of organic pollution in a water body.  
• High BOD levels in water indicate a significant presence of organic materials, such as sewage or industrial effluents, which can deplete the dissolved oxygen in the water as microorganisms break down these organics.  
• This oxygen depletion can harm aquatic ecosystems and negatively impact water quality. Therefore, monitoring BOD is crucial for assessing and managing water pollution and its effects on the environment. 

Statement 3 is Incorrect 

• The food chain is defined as the relation between organisms of different trophic levels which are connected to each other for food or energy.  
• In a food chain the flow of energy or food is unidirectional and in a linear sequence.  
• First, plants capture solar energy and then, food is transferred from the producers to decomposers. 
• Diatoms are single celled photosynthesising algae found in seas and oceans. 
• Animals like crab, shrimps, lobsters, etc., are crustaceans and they eat diatoms. 
• Herrings are fish and they eat crustaceans. 

Thus, Diatoms → Crustaceans → Herrings forms the correct food chain. 

Q 12. Consider the following statements regarding Protection of Women from Sexual Harassment (POSH) Act, 2013 

1. Every employer is required to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee at each office or branch with 50 or more employees 
2. JS Verma Committee recommended Setting up of an employment tribunal instead of an internal complaints committee (ICC) in the Sexual Harassment at the Workplace Act. 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  D 

Explanation: 

Statement I is Incorrect  

Every employer is required to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee at each office or branch with 10 or more employees. 

Statement II is Correct 

JS Verma Committee recommendations on Sexual Harassment at the Workplace Act: 

• Employment Tribunal: Setting up of an employment tribunal instead of an internal complaints committee (ICC) in the Sexual Harassment at the Workplace Act. 
• Power to Form Own Procedure: To ensure speedy disposal of complaints, the committee proposed that the tribunal should not function as a civil court but may choose its own procedure to deal with each complaint. 
• Expanding Scope of Act: Domestic workers should be included within the purview of the Act. 
• Responsibility of Employer: The Verma panel said an employer should be held liable if: he or she facilitated sexual harassment. 
• When the employer fails to forward a complaint to the tribunal The company would also be liable to pay compensation to the complainant. 
• The panel opposed penalizing women for false complaints as it can potentially nullify the objective of the law. 

The Verma panel also said that the time-limit of three months to file a complaint should be done away with and a complainant should not be transferred without her consent. 

Q 13.Consider the following statements regarding Graphite 

1. Graphite has an octagonal crystal structure in which carbon atoms are arranged in layers or sheets 

2. Graphite is a Bad conductor of both electricity and heat 

3. India’s First Graphene Innovation Centre is coming up in Kerala 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Incorrect and Statement 2 is Incorrect  

• Graphite has a hexagonal crystal structure in which carbon atoms are arranged in layers or sheets.  
• These layers are known as graphene layers, and they are weakly bonded together through van der Waals forces, allowing the layers to easily slide past each other.  
• This specific arrangement of carbon atoms imparts several remarkable properties to graphite: 
• Lubrication:  
  • The weak interlayer forces between graphene layers give graphite its exceptional lubricating properties.  
  • The layers can easily slide over one another, reducing friction and making graphite an effective lubricant in various applications. 
• Conductivity:  
  • Graphite is an excellent conductor of electricity due to the presence of delocalized electrons within its hexagonal carbon lattice.  
  • This property makes it suitable for various electrical and electronic applications, such as electrodes in batteries and electrical contacts. 
• Thermal Conductivity:  
  • Graphite is also a good conductor of heat.  
  • Its high thermal conductivity makes it valuable in applications like heat exchangers and as a material for making crucibles and other high-temperature equipment. 
• Use in Pencils:  
  • One of the most common uses of graphite is in pencils.  
  • The “lead” in pencils is not actually lead but a mixture of graphite and clay.  
  • The layers of graphite in the pencil “lead” leave a mark on paper when they shear off, making it an ideal material for writing and drawing. 
• High-Temperature Applications:  
  • Graphite is often used in high-temperature environments due to its excellent heat resistance and thermal stability.  
  • It is employed in industries like metallurgy, foundries, and the manufacturing of refractory materials. 
• Batteries and Fuel Cells:  
  • Graphite serves as an essential component in various battery types and fuel cells.  
  • It can be used in lithium-ion batteries as an anode material and in fuel cells for hydrogen storage. 
• Green Technology:  
  • Graphite plays a vital role in green technology applications. 
  • For instance, it is used in the production of graphene, a revolutionary material with numerous potential applications in areas such as electronics, sensors, and energy storage. 

Statement 3 is Correct 

• India’s First Graphene Innovation Centre is coming up in Kerala. 
• It is a joint venture of Digital University of Kerala, Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET) and Tata Steel Limited 
• An Innovation Centre, designed to nurture innovative concepts, offers a secure environment for idea generation and collaboration.  
• The India Innovation Centre for Graphene, with a budget of Rs 86.41 crore, is set to be established in Thrissur. 
•  Funded by the Union Government (Rs 49.18 crore) and private enterprises (Rs 11.48 crore), it will leverage the state government’s support for essential infrastructure, aiming to attract investors for graphene product development. 

Q 14. Consider the following statements regarding Jagannath Temple 

1. It was constructed by a famous king of Ganga Dynasty Ananta Varman Chodaganga Deva dating back to 12th century 
2. It is known as the “Black Pagoda” and one of the four pilgrimage sites of Char Dham Pilgrimage 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 

2. 2 only 

3. Both 1 and 2 

4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Correct 

• It was constructed by a famous king of Ganga Dynasty Ananta Varman Chodaganga Deva dating back to 12th century 
• The Jagannath Temple is an important Hindu temple dedicated to Jagannath, a form of Vishnu – one of the trinities of supreme divinity in Hinduism. 
• Puri is in the state of Odisha, on the eastern coast of India.  
• King Indradyumna of Avanti has built the main temple of Jagannath at Puri.  
• The present temple was rebuilt from the tenth 10th century onwards, on the site of pre-existing temples in the compound but not the main Jagannatha temple, and begun by Ananta Varman Chodaganga, the first king of the Eastern Ganga dynasty. 
• The temple is one of the 108 Abhimana Kshethram of Vaishnavate tradition. 

Statement 2 is Incorrect  

• It is known as the “White Pagoda” and one of the four pilgrimage sites of Char Dham Pilgrimage 
• Sun Temple Konark is referred to as Black Pagoda 

15.Consider the following statements  

1. Muthuvan tribe is a schedule tribe belonging to the Annamalai hills. 
2. The Nilgiri Tahr Project is a conservation project launched by the Central government in 2022.  
3. The project aims to protect and conserve the Nilgiri tahr, the state animal of Tamil Nadu, which is a critically endangered species.  

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Correct 

• The Muthuvans are an indigenous people who live in the Western Ghats mountains on the border between the states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu in India.  
• They are also known as the Mudugars.  
• The Muthuvans are a Scheduled Tribe, which means that they are one of the most disadvantaged groups in India and are entitled to special government programs and protections. 
• The Muthuvans have a rich culture and heritage.  
• They are animists and spirit worshippers, and they believe that the spirits of their ancestors reside in the forest.  
• The Muthuvans are also known for their traditional knowledge of medicinal plants and their expertise in hunting and gathering. 
• The Muthuvans are a close-knit community, and they have their own unique system of governance.  
• Each village is headed by a Kani, who is responsible for the administration of the village and the resolution of disputes. 
• The Muthuvans are primarily farmers, and they cultivate a variety of crops, including ragi, cardamom, and lemon grass. They also gather wild fruits and vegetables from the forest.  
• The Muthuvans are also skilled artisans, and they produce a variety of handicrafts, including baskets, mats, and jewellery. 

Some additional facts about the Muthuvan tribe: 

• The Muthuvans speak their own language, Muthuvan, which is a Dravidian language. 
• The Muthuvans have a unique system of marriage called the cross-cousin marriage system. 
• The Muthuvans are divided into two main groups: the Malayalam Muthuvans and the Pandi Muthuvans. 
• The Muthuvans have a rich oral tradition, and they have a number of folktales, songs, and dances. 
• The Muthuvans are also known for their traditional medicine, which is based on the use of medicinal plants. 

Statement 2 is Incorrect 

• The Nilgiri Tahr Project is a conservation project launched by the Tamil Nadu government in 2022.  
• The project aims to protect and conserve the Nilgiri tahr, the state animal of Tamil Nadu, which is an endangered species. 
• The project has nine components: 
  • Bi-annual synchronized surveys across the divisions 
  • Tranquilization, collaring, and monitoring of Tahr individuals 
  • Re-introduction and monitoring of Nilgiri tahr 
  • Shola Grassland restoration pilot in Upper Bhavani 
  • Eco-tourism programmes 
  • Awareness and education programs 
  • Capacity building of forest staff 
  • Research on Nilgiri tahr 
  • Veterinary care for Nilgiri tahr 
• The project is being implemented in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and the Nilgiri Wildlife Association.  

Q 16. With reference to Cyclones consider the following statements 

1. The eye of tropical cyclone is generally the most violent part of the cyclone 
2. Twin Cyclone system has two vortexes in the northern hemisphere and each of these is a mirror image of the other. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 

2. 2 only 

3. Both 1 and 2 

4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Incorrect 

• Cyclones are of two types, tropical cyclone and temperate cyclone.  
• The centre of a tropical cyclone is known as the ‘eye’, where the wind is calm at the centre with no rainfall. 
• However, in a temperate cyclone, there is not a single place where winds and rains are inactive, so the eye is not found. 

Statement 2 is Incorrect 

• This system has a vortex in the northern hemisphere and another in the southern hemisphere, and each of these is a mirror image of the other. 
• The interplay of the wind and the monsoon system combined with the Earth system produces these synchronous cyclones. 
• The twin tropical cyclones are caused by what are called equatorial Rossby waves. 
• Rossby waves are huge waves in the ocean with wavelengths of around 4,000–5,000 kilometres. 

Rossby waves are named for famous meteorologist Carl-Gustaf Rossby who was the first to explain that these waves arose due to the rotation of the Earth 

Q 17. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Penal code 

1. The IPC was introduced on October 6, 1860, during British colonial rule in India. It was drafted by Thomas Babington Macaulay, a British colonial administrator, and enacted by the Legislative Council of India. 
2. The IPC is applicable throughout India, except in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. 

      Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  C 

Explanation: 

Statement I is correct  

The IPC was introduced on October 6, 1860, during British colonial rule in India. It was drafted by Thomas Babington Macaulay, a British colonial administrator, and enacted by the Legislative Council of India. The IPC was heavily influenced by English common law principles and was an attempt to provide a uniform and comprehensive legal code for India. Over the years, the IPC has been amended numerous times to keep it in line with changing societal norms and legal requirements. The code has been amended through various acts of the Indian Parliament. 

Statement II is Incorrect  

The IPC is applicable throughout India, except in the state of Jammu and Kashmir, which had its own separate penal code until the revocation of Article 370 in August 2019. 

● The IPC is divided into several chapters, each dealing with different categories of offenses, such as offenses against the person, property, and the state. Influences. 

 ● The IPC drew inspiration from earlier legal systems, including Hindu, Islamic, and customary laws. It also incorporated principles of justice, equity, and good conscience 

Q 18.Consider the following statements regarding Unlawful Activities and Prevention Act. 

1. The UAPA was enacted in 1967 and has been amended several times to address emerging threats and concerns related to national security and terrorism. 
2. It does not include any provision of detention. 
3. It allows for longer periods of detention without filing charges compared to other criminal laws. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Correct 

•  The UAPA was enacted in 1967 and has been amended several times to address emerging threats and concerns related to national security and terrorism. 
• The primary objective of the UAPA is to prevent unlawful activities that threaten the sovereignty and integrity of India. It provides the government with powers to deal with activities directed against the country. 

Statement 2 is Incorrect   

• The UAPA allows for the detention and prosecution of individuals involved in or supporting unlawful activities, including terrorism.  
• It provides for preventive detention in certain cases. 

Statement 3 is Correct 

The UAPA includes stringent provisions related to arrest, detention, and bail. It allows for longer periods of detention without filing charges 

Q 19. Consider the following statements regarding National Co-operative Exports Limited. 

1. The Ministry of Commerce, Government of India, has set up a NCEL under Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act 2002 
2. NECL covers agriculture and allied activities as well as handloom and handicraft items by enrolling a large number of co-operatives under its fold. 
3. All cooperative societies from the level of primary to apex, are eligible to be its member 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: B 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

•  The Ministry of Cooperation, Government of India, has set up a NCEL under Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act 2002. 
• It is an umbrella body for cooperative sector exports and has an authorized share capital of Rs 2,000 crore, with Rs 500 crore as the initial paid-up share capital. 

Statement 2 is correct   

• It (NECL) covers agriculture and allied activities as well as handloom and handicraft items by enrolling a large number of co-operatives under its fold with a target to double its revenue by 2025 from the current Rs 2,160 crore. 

Statement 3 is correct  

• All cooperative societies from the level of primary to apex, who are interested in exports are eligible to become its member. 
• Its chief promoter is the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Limited (GCMMF). The other promoters are: IFFCO, KRIBHCO, NAFED, and NCDC. 

This society will focus on exporting the surpluses available in the Indian cooperative sector by accessing wider markets beyond the geographical contours of the country. 

Q 20. With reference to Marine Cloud Brightening consider the following statements 

1. Marine cloud brightening is a specific form of cloud brightening or cloud seeding that focuses on modifying low-lying marine stratocumulus clouds. 
2. It is a proposed geoengineering technique aimed at addressing climate change by decreasing the reflectivity (albedo) of these clouds. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 

2. 2 only 

3. Both 1 and 2 

4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Correct  

• Marine cloud brightening is a specific form of cloud brightening or cloud seeding that focuses on modifying low-lying marine stratocumulus clouds. 
• The primary objective of marine cloud brightening is to increase the reflectivity of marine stratocumulus clouds over the ocean.  
• By making these clouds more reflective, they can bounce more sunlight back into space, which could help to cool the Earth’s surface and mitigate the effects of global 

Statement 2 is Incorrect   

• It is a proposed geoengineering technique aimed at addressing climate change by increasing the reflectivity (albedo) of these clouds. 
• This technique typically involves releasing tiny salt particles (aerosols) into the atmosphere. These particles act as cloud condensation nuclei, encouraging the formation of smaller water droplets in the clouds, which increases their reflectivity. 

Marine cloud brightening is considered a form of solar radiation management (SRM) within geoengineering, aimed at reflecting more solar radiation away from the Earth. It is seen as a potential tool to counteract rising global temperatures and the effects of climate change. 

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