Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development
- This prestigious award, presented by a trust in her name, includes a citation as well as a monetary prize.
- The 2022 Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development was jointly awarded to FAO and WFP
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: C
Why this question- The 2022 Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development was jointly awarded to the Indian Medical Association and the Trained Nurses Association of India. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Established in 1986, the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is dedicated to the memory of the former Prime Minister. This prestigious award, presented by a trust in her name, includes a monetary prize of Rs 25 lakh along with a citation. The accolade is conferred upon individuals or organizations actively contributing to global peace and development, leveraging scientific discoveries to enhance freedom and improve humanity. The recipients are recognized for their efforts in shaping a new international economic order. The prize underscores a commitment to the values championed by Indira Gandhi, fostering a legacy of positive impact on the world stage. Statement II is Incorrect The 2022 Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development was jointly awarded to the Indian Medical Association and the Trained Nurses Association of India. |
2. Consider the following statements regarding Northeast Monsoon
- El-Nino Causes Weak Northeast Monsoon
- The Winter Monsoon is a large-scale monsoon phenomenon that primarily impacts the Southern Peninsula and northeast India
- Kerela receives 48% of its rainfall during the Northeast Monsoon months
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: D
Why this question- The northeast monsoon is expected to further intensify briefly over Kerala due to the influence of twin cyclonic circulations over the Bay of Bengal. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Positive indicators such as El Nino, positive IOD, and MJO in phases 2-4 with amplitude greater than one are generally associated with favorable NEM rainfall. Statement 2 is Incorrect The Winter Monsoon is a relatively small-scale monsoon phenomenon that primarily impacts the Southern Peninsula. This seasonal weather pattern is specifically referred to as the winter monsoon. Several factors contribute to the onset of the Northeast Monsoon Change in Wind Following the complete withdrawal of the Southwest monsoon around mid-October, there is a swift transition in the wind pattern from south-westerly to north-easterly direction. Cyclonic Activities-The period from October to December, post the Southwest monsoon season, marks the peak time for cyclonic activity in the North Indian Ocean region, covering the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. Winds associated with low-pressure systems, depressions, or cyclones influence the winter monsoon, impacting the rainfall. Global Climate Parameters-Northeast Monsoon (NEM) rainfall is influenced by global climate parameters like El Nino/La Nina, Southern Oscillation Index (SOI), Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD), and Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO). Positive indicators such as El Nino, positive IOD, and MJO in phases 2-4 with amplitude greater than one are generally associated with favorable NEM rainfall. Additionally, La Nina and positive SOI during the latter part of the season also support good NEM activity. Statement 3 is Incorrect Regions that are prominently affected by the Northeast Monsoon Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Karaikal, Yanam, coastal Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, north interior Karnataka, Mahe, and Lakshadweep. Tamil Nadu, in particular, receives approximately 48% of its annual rainfall during these months, playing a crucial role in agricultural activities and reservoir management in the state. |
3. With reference to Onattukara sesame consider the following statements
- Onattukara sesame is a GI product from Karnataka
- Onattukara Ellu and its oil are renowned for their distinctive health advantages
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Why this question– The Onattukara Vikasana Agency, the registered proprietor of GI-tagged sesame seeds, intends to expand sesame cultivation from the existing 600 hectares to 2,000 hectares. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Onakuttara sesame is associated with the state of Kerala in India. The term “Onakuttara” refers to the region of Onattukara in Kerala, and sesame seeds from this region have gained recognition, particularly for their quality and unique characteristics. It’s worth noting that Onakuttara sesame seeds have been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, emphasizing their association with a specific geographical origin, which, in this case, is the Onattukara region in Kerala. The GI tag helps protect and promote the distinct identity and qualities of agricultural and natural products from specific regions. Statement 2 is Correct Onattukara Ellu and its oil are renowned for their distinctive health advantages. The notably elevated antioxidant content in Onattukara Ellu plays a crucial role in combating free radicals that can harm the body’s cells. Additionally, the substantial presence of unsaturated fat in Onattukara Ellu contributes to its heart-healthy properties, making it particularly beneficial for individuals with cardiovascular conditions. Moreover, this traditional ingredient is known for its potential to enhance overall well-being and promote a balanced and nutritious diet. The unique combination of antioxidants and unsaturated fats underscores the holistic health benefits associated with the consumption of Onattukara Ellu and its oil. |
4. Consider the following statements regarding Krishnaraja Sagar Dam
- The dam was constructed in 1932 across the Krishna River
- It was constructed by Sir M. Vishweshwaraiah on whose birthday Engineers Day is celebrated
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Why this question– Recently, the cumulative storage in Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS), Kabini, Hemavathi, and Harangi stood at 59.07 thousand million cubic feet (tmcft), which is 51.56% of the gross capacity of 114.57 tmcft. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Constructed in 1932 across the Kaveri River, the Krishna Raja Sagar Dam was commissioned to serve the districts of Mysore and Mandya in Karnataka Statement 2 is Correct Named after the then ruler of the Mysore Kingdom, Krishnaraja Wodeyar IV, this engineering marvel is credited to one of India’s greatest engineers, Sir M. Vishweshwaraiah. Celebrated as Engineers Day on his birthday, September 15th, the dam not only stands as a testament to his ingenuity but also fulfills crucial roles. The reservoir, a key creation of Sir M. Vishweshwaraiah, serves as the primary source of drinking water for Mysore city and a significant portion of Bangalore. Additionally, the water released from this dam plays a vital role in meeting the water needs of the state of Tamil Nadu. |
5. Consider the following statements regarding Argentina
- Argentina is the second-largest country in South America.
- Iguazu Falls, one of the largest waterfall systems in the world, is located in Argentina
- Argentina is a leading player in Lithium production
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
Why this question- An outsider named Javier Milei caused a big surprise by winning Argentina’s presidential election. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Argentina, the second-largest country in South America following Brazil, is situated with the Andes Mountains and Chile to its western border. East of the Andes lies the Pampas, a flat and fertile grassland that characterizes the country’s interior. The eastern frontier of Argentina is marked by the expansive Atlantic Ocean. Further, neighboring nations include Bolivia to the northwest and Paraguay to the north. Known for its diverse geography, Argentina encompasses varied landscapes, including the iconic Pampas, the mountainous Andes region, and a vast coastline along the Atlantic. The country is renowned for its rich cultural heritage, vibrant cities like Buenos Aires, and its significant contributions to literature, arts, and sports. Statement 2 is Correct The spectacular Iguazu Falls, one of the largest waterfall systems in the world, is located on the border between Argentina and Brazil Statement 3 is Correct Latin America currently supplies about 35% of the world’s lithium, according to the International Energy Agency, with Chile (26%) and Argentina (6%) leading the way. The region is estimated to hold more than half of global lithium reserves, mainly located in Argentina (21%) and Chile (11%). At present, Argentina has two lithium extraction projects, one in the northern province of Catamarca and another in neighboring Salta. Both operations are predicted to double production in 2024 and an additional 10 projects are currently under construction. |
6. Consider the following statements regarding Jamdani Sarees
- Jamdani Sarees are woven prominently in Bangladesh
- The art of creating fine “Parsi Gara” on the loom is synonymous with jamdani
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Why this question– At the trade fair, crowds of visitors gather around international booths showcasing dry fruits and Jamdani sarees. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Jamdani, a delicate muslin fabric, is prominently crafted in South Rupshi, located in Bangladesh’s Narayanganj district near the Shitalakhwa River. Historical jamdani production garnered support through imperial warrants from the Mughal emperors and is a traditional artistry carried out by artisans on handlooms. The Mughal empire thrived on the production of Jamdani, with Jamdani sarees gaining global recognition. However, due to its intricate handcrafted process, involving labor-intensive efforts, the production cost of Jamdani is relatively high. Statement 2 is Correct The art of creating fine “Parsi Gara” on the loom is synonymous with jamdani, employing a discontinuous weft weaving technique where artisans manually weave denser threads into the fine warp threads to incorporate motifs into the fabric. Initially crafted in Dhaka using only cotton, the early Jamdani sarees boasted luxurious, lightweight, and soft characteristics, with the fabric’s quality improving with finer weaves. While traditional Jamdani is still produced today, it has evolved to include variations made from pure silk or a cotton-silk blend. Although renowned for its use in sarees, Jamdani is also employed for scarves and handkerchiefs. Believed to be a fusion of muslin techniques by Bengali Muslims from the 14th century and ancient Bengali cloth-making methods dating back possibly 2,000 years, Jamdani is considered the most expensive product woven on Dhaka looms due to its intricate and time-consuming craftsmanship. Legend has it that Jamdani patterns, predating written history by thousands of years, predominantly feature geometric, botanical, and floral designs. In its early history, only aristocrats and royal families could afford such luxuries due to the meticulous and exquisite methodology involved in its creation. |
7. Consider the following statements regarding the China-Myanmar Economic Corridor (CMEC)
- It seeks to enhance connectivity between China’s southwestern Yunnan province and the Western Indian Ocean
- The CMEC is envisaged on the lines of China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) but is independent from BRI.
- The CMEC involves the development of various infrastructure projects, including transportation, energy, and economic zones
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Why this question- The Special Envoy of China informed the President of Sri Lanka that there is a “priority” to extend the China-Myanmar Economic Corridor (CMEC) to Sri Lanka. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect It seeks to enhance connectivity between China’s southwestern Yunnan province and the eastern Indian Ocean. Similar to the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) linking Xinjiang to Karachi and Gwadar, the China-Myanmar Economic Corridor (CMEC) stretching to the Bay of Bengal is shaping the evolving economic landscape on India’s eastern side. Additionally, the China-Nepal Economic Corridor (CNEC), introduced by Xi Jinping during his Nepal visit last year, establishes a link from Tibet to Nepal, extending toward the Gangetic plain. Together, these three corridors underscore China’s economic ascent and its significant impact on the Indian subcontinent and its adjacent regions. Statement 2 is Incorrect The CMEC is a part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), a massive global infrastructure development strategy aimed at enhancing trade and investment connectivity between countries. Statement 3 is Correct The CMEC involves the development of various infrastructure projects, including transportation, energy, and economic zones. This includes the construction and upgrading of roads, railways, and ports. One of the key projects within the CMEC is the development of the Kyaukphyu SEZ in Myanmar’s Rakhine State. The SEZ aims to become a major economic hub with deep-sea port facilities. The corridor includes the China-Myanmar Oil and Gas pipelines, which connect the Kyaukphyu port in Myanmar to Kunming in China’s Yunnan Province. These pipelines are crucial for China’s energy security, providing an alternative route for oil and gas imports. |
8. With reference to World Coal Association consider the following statements
- World Coal Association is a specialized agency of the UN for the sustainable utilisation of coal
- The World Coal Association (WCA) is an international non-profit organization headquartered in London, UK
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Why this question– After 38 years, the World Coal Association (WCA) has undergone a rebranding, now known as FutureCoal – The Global Alliance for Sustainable Coal. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Formerly known as the World Coal Institute (WCI), it rebranded in November 2010. The WCA engages in lobbying efforts, conducts workshops, and disseminates coal-related information to international decision-makers involved in energy and environmental policy. It actively contributes to discussions on global energy issues and participates in forums such as the United Nations Commission on Sustainable Development, the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, and the International Energy Agency (IEA) Working Party on Fossil Fuels. Additionally, the WCA is involved in the promotion of clean coal technologies and is a participant in the Carbon Sequestration Leadership Forum. Statement 2 is Correct The World Coal Association (WCA) is an international non-profit organization headquartered in London, UK, established to advocate for the global coal industry |
9. Consider the following statements
- New Development Bank has been set up by APEC
- The headquarters of the New Development Bank is in Shanghai
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: D
Why this question- Recently, Chinese President Xi Jinping called for an immediate ceasefire and the suspension of hostilities by all parties engaged in the Israel-Palestinian conflict. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect The New Development Bank (NDB) has not been set up by APEC (Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation). The NDB was established by the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) countries. The idea for the bank was first proposed by India at the 2012 BRICS summit, and it was officially created at the 2014 BRICS summit in Fortaleza, Brazil. The NDB aims to support infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies. APEC, on the other hand, is a separate forum for economic cooperation that includes countries around the Pacific Rim, but it is not associated with the establishment of the NDB. Statement II is Correct The headquarters of the New Development Bank (NDB) is located in Shanghai, China. The NDB was established by the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) countries, and its main purpose is to provide financial and technical assistance for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies. The choice of Shanghai as the headquarters reflects China’s significant role in the establishment and operation of the bank. |
10..Consider the following statements
- The weightage of food in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
- The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which the CPI does
- Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
Why this question- The Finance Ministry noted that while inflationary pressures have eased, the ongoing concerns are price increases, potential impacts on the rupee’s value, and the balance of payments situation. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct In the Consumer Price Index (CPI), the weightage assigned to food is generally higher compared to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). CPI reflects the average price changes observed by consumers for a basket of goods and services, and since food is a significant part of household expenses, it holds a higher weight in CPI calculations. In contrast, WPI focuses on the average price changes at the wholesale level and considers a broader range of goods, which may distribute the weight differently. Statement 2 is Correct The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) primarily focuses on tracking changes in the prices of goods at the wholesale level, such as commodities and manufactured products. It does not encompass the prices of services. On the other hand, the Consumer Price Index (CPI) includes a broader range of goods and services, providing a more comprehensive representation of the average price changes experienced by consumers. Therefore, CPI captures changes in both the prices of goods and services, making it a more inclusive measure of inflation from the perspective of end consumers. Statement 3 is Incorrect The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) primarily uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its key measure of inflation to guide monetary policy decisions. The CPI is considered a more direct measure of changes in the cost of living for consumers. |
11. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA)
- Established as a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- The provisions of the Hague Convention specifically pertain to children under the age of 18
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Why this question– The court mandates that States and Union Territories initiate a bi-monthly drive to identify children in the orphaned, abandoned, and surrendered category in institutions. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect CARA was Established as a statutory body under the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) serves as the pivotal entity for overseeing the adoption process of Indian children. Its core responsibilities encompass the regulation and monitoring of both domestic and international adoptions. CARA holds the significant designation of being the Central Authority for managing inter-country adoptions, aligning with the guidelines outlined in the Hague Conventions on Inter-Country Adoptions, ratified by the Government of India in 2003. In its capacity, CARA focuses on facilitating the adoption of orphaned, abandoned, and surrendered children, collaborating with affiliated and recognized adoption agencies. As a central agency, CARA plays a crucial role in ensuring the welfare and ethical considerations in the adoption procedures, safeguarding the rights and interests of the children involved. Statement 2 is Incorrect The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction is a multilateral treaty established on December 1, 1983. This international agreement is designed to facilitate the swift return of a child who has been taken away from their “habitual residence” country. The provisions of the Convention specifically pertain to children under the age of 16. |
12. With reference to The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) consider the following statements
- OECD members endorse protectionism viz-a viz free-market economic principles
- The Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) is coordinated by the OECD
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Why this question– The OECD report indicates that economically developed countries failed to mobilize $100 billion annually for addressing the climate mitigation needs of developing nations. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is an international body comprising 38 nations dedicated to promoting democracy and market economies. Typically, OECD members are democratic countries that endorse free-market economic principles. Established on December 14, 1960, by 18 European nations, the United States, and Canada, the OECD’s headquarters are located in Paris, France. The primary objective of the OECD is to shape policies that advance prosperity, equality, opportunity, and well-being globally. It achieves this goal through the publication of economic reports, statistical databases, analyses, and forecasts pertaining to worldwide economic growth. Additionally, the organization is actively involved in global efforts to combat bribery and financial crime. The OECD administers a “black list” comprising nations identified as uncooperative tax havens. Alongside its member countries, the OECD maintains collaborative relationships with non-member economies, including India, to further its objectives and initiatives. Statement 2 is Correct The Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA): It is an international assessment that measures 15-year-old students’ reading, mathematics, and science literacy every 3 years. First conducted in 2000, the major domain of study rotates between reading, mathematics, and science in each cycle. PISA also includes measures of general or cross-curricular competencies, such as collaborative problem-solving. PISA is coordinated by the OECD. |
13. Consider the following statements
- The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
- The Emissions Gap Report is released by IQ Air
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: C
Why this question- UNEP has issued the 2023 Emissions Gap Report, titled “Broken Record,” emphasizing the world’s failure to reduce emissions despite reaching new temperature highs. |
Source: IE |
Explanation: Statement I is Correct The ‘Common Carbon Metric,’ supported by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), has been developed for assessing the carbon footprint of building operations globally. The Common Carbon Metric is a standardized methodology that allows for the measurement and comparison of greenhouse gas emissions associated with the operational phase of buildings. It provides a common framework for assessing and reporting the carbon performance of buildings, considering factors such as energy use, water consumption, and other relevant parameters. The goal of this metric is to promote consistency and comparability in evaluating the environmental impact of building operations, facilitating informed decision-making, and encouraging sustainable practices in the construction and operation of buildings worldwide. Statement II is Incorrect The Emissions Gap Report is not released by IQ Air. The Emissions Gap Report is an annual publication by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). It assesses the gap between the current progress of countries in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and the goals set to limit global warming, providing insights into the collective efforts needed to address climate change. IQ Air, on the other hand, is a company that focuses on air quality monitoring and solutions. They are known for providing air quality data and products but are not associated with the release of the Emissions Gap Report. |
14. Consider the following statements regarding Tantalum
- Tantalum is highly corrosive and dense
- Pure tantalum is ductile, allowing it to be elongated into thin wires without fracturing
- Tantalum cannot be used in the electronic industry due to its low melting point
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Why this question- A team of researchers from IIT Ropar, has uncovered tantalum, a rare metal with exceptional properties, in the sands of the Sutlej River in Punjab |
Source: IE |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Key Insights into Tantalum: A Rare and Versatile Metal Discovery Tantalum, an uncommon metal boasting an atomic number of 73, was initially identified in 1802 by Swedish chemist Anders Gustaf Ekenberg. Distinctive Properties Exhibiting a grey hue, tantalum is both dense and remarkably resistant to corrosion, developing an oxide layer upon exposure to air. Statement 2 is Correct Pure tantalum is ductile, allowing it to be elongated into thin wires without fracturing. Highly resistant to chemical attacks below 150°C, it remains unaffected except by hydrofluoric acid, acidic solutions with fluoride ions, and free sulfur trioxide. Tantalum boasts an exceptionally high melting point. Statement 3 is Incorrect Applications of Tantalum Electronic Sector Crucial for portable electronic devices, tantalum capacitors enable the efficient storage of more electricity in compact sizes. Recognized among 30 critical minerals for India, as identified by a committee of experts within the Ministry of Mines. Utilized in manufacturing components for chemical plants, nuclear power plants, aircraft, and missiles. Platinum Substitute Serving as a cost-effective alternative to platinum due to its high melting point. Medical Applications Inert to bodily fluids, tantalum is employed in crafting surgical equipment and implants, including artificial joints, according to the US Department of Energy. Cutting-Edge Material Tantalum carbide (TaC) composite with graphite stands as one of the toughest materials, applied in high-speed machine tool cutting edges. |
15. Consider the following statements regarding Sea Buckthorn
- Sea buckthorn is a shrub known for yielding orange-yellow edible berries.
- Recently Uttarakhand has obtained its fourth Geographical Indication (GI) tag, for the “Ladakh Sea Buckthorn.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Why this question– Ladakh has obtained its fourth Geographical Indication (GI) tag, this time for the “Ladakh Sea Buckthorn.” |
Source: AIR |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct About Sea Buckthorn Sea buckthorn, a shrub known for yielding orange-yellow edible berries, is prevalent in India’s Himalayan region, particularly in arid zones like the cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti. The cultivation of Sea Buckthorn brings numerous ecological, medicinal, and economic advantages. Beyond its vibrant berries, the plant is recognized for its hardiness in challenging climates, contributing to soil conservation and biodiversity in regions where it thrives. Moreover, the berries are rich in nutrients, making them a valuable resource for medicinal applications and dietary supplements. Economically, the cultivation of Sea Buckthorn presents opportunities for income generation, promoting sustainable practices in these environmentally sensitive areas. Statement 2 is Incorrect Ladakh has obtained its fourth Geographical Indication (GI) tag, this time for the “Ladakh Sea Buckthorn.” |
16. Consider the following statements regarding Civil Aviation
- The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) operates as an independent office under the Ministry of External Affairs
- International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO), a specialized agency of the United Nations established in 1944
- The DGCA is headquartered in Mumbai
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Why this question- Air India has been fined ₹10 lakh by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) for not providing hotel accommodations to passengers affected by flight delays. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About DGCA The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) operates as an attached office under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India. As the primary regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation, the DGCA focuses on safety-related issues. Its responsibilities encompass the regulation of air transport services to, from, and within India, along with the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety standards, and airworthiness standards Statement 2 is Correct Additionally, the DGCA plays a crucial role in coordinating its regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO), a specialized agency of the United Nations established in 1944. The ICAO has set the groundwork for global standards and procedures for peaceful air navigation. India, as one of its 193 member states, actively participates in these international aviation efforts. The ICAO’s headquarters are situated in Montreal, Canada. Statement 3 is Incorrect The DGCA itself is headquartered in New Delhi, with regional offices strategically located across different parts of India. The Director General of Civil Aviation serves as the head of the DGCA, overseeing its operations and regulatory activities in the aviation sector. |
17. With reference to the Kadalundi mudflat consider the following statements
- Kadalundi mudflat are located in the state of Karnataka
- These mudflats play a crucial role in the ecosystem by offering essential prey, including polychaetes and crustaceans
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Why this question– The mudflat ecosystem in Kadalundi is diminishing swiftly, primarily attributed to both natural forces and human activities. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About Kadalundi Mudflat Kadalundi mudflat is located in the state of Kerala In the early 2000s, Kadalundi boasted approximately 8 hectares of nutrient-rich mudflats, a size that has drastically contracted to just about 1 hectare in recent times. These mudflats play a crucial role in the ecosystem by offering essential prey, including polychaetes and crustaceans. Consequently, they serve as a magnet for a diverse array of migratory birds originating from distant places such as Siberia, Ladakh, Mongolia, and Scotland. Mudflats, also known as tidal flats, are coastal wetlands formed through the deposition of mud by tides or rivers. Typically found in sheltered areas like bays, bayous, lagoons, and estuaries, these mudflats provide vital habitats for various marine species and serve as critical feeding grounds for numerous migratory bird species during their journeys. The significant reduction in the expanse of mudflats in Kadalundi raises concerns about the potential impact on the biodiversity and ecological balance of the region. Statement 2 is Correct These mudflats play a crucial role in the ecosystem by offering essential prey, including polychaetes and crustaceans. Consequently, they serve as a magnet for a diverse array of migratory birds originating from distant places such as Siberia, Ladakh, Mongolia, and Scotland. Mudflats, also known as tidal flats, are coastal wetlands formed through the deposition of mud by tides or rivers. |
18. Consider the following statements regarding The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act
- FCRA rules 2022 expanding the number of compoundable offences from 7 to 25
- Under The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act renewal of NGO registration is valid for 15 years
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Why this question– Shanghai-based American, facing charges and denying them is also implicated in a First Information Report filed by the CBI, alleging a violation of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About FCRA Rules 2022 In July 2022, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) implemented modifications to FCRA rules, expanding the number of compoundable offenses from 7 to 12. The amendments also elevated the threshold for contributions from overseas relatives not mandating government intimation from Rs 1 lakh to Rs 10 lakh and extended the timeframe for reporting the opening of bank accounts Statement 2 is Incorrect About FCRA (The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act) The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) was enacted in 1976 to address concerns of foreign interference during the Emergency period. It regulates foreign donations to individuals and associations to ensure alignment with democratic values. The 2010 and 2020 amendments aimed to consolidate laws and tighten restrictions on foreign contributions, including limiting administrative expenses. FCRA registration is essential for receiving foreign donations, covering diverse areas such as culture, education, and religion. Prohibitions include involvement in fictitious entities, religious conversion, communal tension, sedition, and certain professions receiving foreign funds. Registration is valid for five years, with renewal required, and non-compliance may lead to cancellation and a three-year re-registration ban for NGOs. |
19. Consider the following statements regarding The Enforcement Directorate (ED)
- The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is a financial investigation agency in India, operating under the Ministry of Commerce.
- ED is empowered to enforce the Prevention of Money Laundering Act
- ED’s jurisdiction covers all of India except Jammu and Kashmir and Nagaland
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
Why this question- The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has issued a new summons to a Shanghai-based American millionaire through the Ministry of External Affairs regarding the NewsClick case |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is a financial investigation agency in India, operating under the Ministry of Finance. Established in 1956, it initially focused on violations of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act Statement 2 is Correct Over time, it evolved to enforce the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). The agency’s structure includes a Director of Enforcement, Special Directors, Deputy Directors, and Assistant Directors. The ED’s statutory functions involve enforcing COFEPOSA, FEMA, PMLA, and the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act Statement 3 is Incorrect It conducts searches, seizures, and arrests, attaching properties of economic offenders. The agency’s jurisdiction covers all of India, with actions taken based on complaints and investigations, addressing offenses related to money laundering and foreign exchange violations. |
20. With reference to LVM3 consider the following statements
- LVM-3 is a three-stage launch vehicle with a cryogenic uppermost stage
- The PSLV is known for its reliability and can carry up to 6 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Why this question– ISRO stated that the cryogenic upper stage of the LVM3 M4 launch vehicle, used for India’s Chandrayaan-3 moon mission, re-entered the Earth’s atmosphere uncontrollably. |
Source: TH |
Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct The LVM-3 is a three-stage launch vehicle: First Consists of two S200 boosters strapped to the sides, powered by hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene solid fuel. Second Stage-Powered by Vikas Engines using liquid fuel (nitrogen tetroxide or unsymmetrical dimethylhydrazine). Uppermost Stage- powered by a cryogenic engine, combusting liquified hydrogen with liquified oxygen. This stage enables the rocket to lift up to 8 tonnes in low earth orbit. Notable LVM-3 missions include OneWeb India-2 Mission OneWeb India-1 Mission Chandrayaan-2 Mission GSAT-29 Mission GSAT-19 Mission CARE Mission The LVM-3 has been instrumental in launching a variety of missions, showcasing its versatility in handling different payloads and mission objectives Statement 2 is Incorrect The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) operates three classes of launch vehicles, including the PSLV, GSLV, and SSLV. The PSLV is known for its reliability and can carry up to 3.8 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit. The GSLV is designed for heavier payloads and higher orbits, with the most powerful configuration being the LVM-3. |
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