UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz – 10th February 2024

Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!

Q 1. Consider the following statements   

1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015 
2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question – Indian Prime Minister recently launched the ‘Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana,’ aiming to install rooftop solar power systems in one crore households across the nation.

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was indeed launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference, also known as COP21, held in Paris in 2015.  The ISA was announced by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and French President François Hollande on November 30, 2015, as a coalition of solar resource-rich countries to address their special energy needs and promote solar energy on a global scale. The primary objective of ISA is to promote the use of solar energy and reduce dependence on fossil fuels.  It aims to facilitate cooperation among countries with high solar potential and create a platform for collaboration in the areas of solar energy research, development, and deployment.  Statement 2 is Incorrect The International Solar Alliance does not include all the member countries of the United Nations.  Participation in the ISA is open to countries lying fully or partially between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn (i.e., solar resource-rich countries). It is not an alliance of all UN member countries, but rather a coalition of countries with a specific geographic focus on promoting solar energy.

Q 2. Consider the following bodies: 

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 
2. The National Human Rights Commission 
3. The National Law Commission 

How many of the given bodies are constitutional bodies? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: A 

Why this question- The Indian government has established a high-level committee, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, to tackle the issue of certain Scheduled Caste (SC) communities receiving more benefits than the most disadvantaged ones.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): Established by the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 (not the Constitution). Statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Works for the educational, economic, and social development of Backward Classes.  Statement 2 is Correct The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): Established under Article 338 of the Constitution of India. Autonomous body entrusted with the protection and promotion of human rights in India. Investigates allegations of human rights violations and recommends remedial measures.  Some additional details about the NHRC: Established in 1993, inspired by the Paris Principles adopted by the United Nations General Assembly. Comprises a Chairperson and four Members, all appointed by the President. Has various divisions, including Special Rapporteurs and Regional Offices, to address specific human rights concerns. Plays a crucial role in upholding the rule of law, protecting vulnerable groups, and ensuring accountability for human rights violations.  Statement 3 is Incorrect The National Law Commission (NLC): Established by an executive order of the President, not mentioned in the Constitution. Non-statutory body under the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice. Makes recommendations for reform of the legal system and judicial process. Therefore, only the National Human Rights Commission derives its existence and powers directly from the Constitution, making it the sole constitutional body among the listed options.

Q 3. Concerning Laughing Gulls consider the following statements 

1. Mainly found along the Antarctica coast, in the Caribbean, and South America 
2. They are least concern as per IUCN status. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– Laughing gulls, migratory birds originating from North America, have been spotted in the country for the first time at the Chittari estuary in Kasaragod district.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Laughing Gull Overview  Distinctive Calls Recognized for its distinctive laughter-like calls, resembling human laughter.  Habitat Primarily a coastal species, with occasional sightings occurring far inland.  Distribution Mainly found along the Atlantic coast of North America, in the Caribbean, and northern South America.  Diet Opportunistic carnivores and scavengers, consuming fish, shellfish, crabs, mollusks, insects, bird eggs, and young birds.  Statement 2 is Correct Physical Features Medium-sized gulls with elongated wings and legs, exhibiting a graceful appearance in flight or on land. Possess stout and relatively long bills.  Life Cycle Require 2-3 years to attain adult plumage.  Conservation Status IUCN Status: Least Concern

Q 4. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Stamp Bill 2023: 

1. A stamp duty is a government-imposed tax designed for the registration of various documents, such as agreements or transaction papers, through the registrar office. 
2. The bill enhances the provisions for digital e-stamping by giving it a concrete definition. 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  D 

Why this question- The Indian government is considering the repeal of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, and introducing a new law for stamp duty.

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement I is Correct Stamp Duty Overview  Definition  A stamp duty is a government-imposed tax designed for the registration of various documents, such as agreements or transaction papers, through the registrar.  Amount Determination  Typically, the specified amount for stamp duty is either fixed based on the nature of the document or calculated as a percentage of the agreement value stated in the document.  Applicable Transactions  Stamp duties can be levied on a range of transactions, including bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes, bills of lading, letters of credit, policies of insurance, transfer of shares, debentures, proxies, and receipts.  Legal Validity  Documents stamped with the requisite duty are considered valid evidence in a court of law, emphasizing the legal significance of stamp duties.  Appropriation Process  While stamp duties are levied by the Central Government, their appropriation occurs at the state level within their respective territories, as stipulated by Article 268 of the Constitution.  Statement II is Incorrect Indian Stamp Bill, 2023  Introduction  The Indian Stamp Bill, 2023 is a draft legislation crafted by the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, with the objective of replacing the outdated Indian Stamp Act, 1899 and aligning it with contemporary stamp duty practices.  Need for Reform  The 1899 Act contained obsolete provisions and lacked considerations for digital e-stamping. Additionally, it lacked uniform legislation across Indian states regarding stamp duties.  Key Provisions  The bill introduces provisions for digital e-stamping, defining it as an electronically generated impression indicating the payment of stamp duty through electronic means. Inclusions of provisions for digital signatures, authenticating electronic records through electronic methods or procedures. Proposals to increase penalties, including raising the maximum penalty from Rs 5,000 to Rs 25,000 for violations and imposing a daily penalty of Rs 1,000 for repeated offenses.

Q 5. Consider the following statements regarding Sapinda Marriages: 

1. Sapinda Marriages are not defined properly under the Hindu Marriage Act. 
2. The HMA prohibits marriage within three generations on the father’s side and five generations on the mother’s side.
3. The exception under HMA permits sapinda marriages if there is a well-established custom within the community, tribe, group, or family. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: A 

Why this question- In the 2024 case of Neetu Grover v. Union of India & Ors, the Delhi High Court dismissed a challenge to the constitutionality of Section 5(v) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Understanding Sapinda Marriage  Definition and Criteria  Sapinda marriages involve individuals related within a specific degree of closeness, as defined under Section 3 of the Hindu Marriage Act (HMA).  Individuals are considered sapindas if they share a lineal ascendant or have a common lineal ascendant within the limits of sapinda relationship.  Statement 2 is Incorrect Lineal Ascendant Regulations  The HMA prohibits marriage within three generations on the mother’s side and five generations on the father’s side.  This restricts unions with siblings, parents, and grandparents on the mother’s side and extends further on the father’s side.  Section 5(v) of HMA 1955  Violation of Section 5(v) for sapinda marriages without an established custom result in the marriage being declared void. The marriage is considered invalid from the outset.  Statement 3 is Correct  Exceptions to Prohibitions  The exception under Section 5(v) permits sapinda marriages if there is a well-established custom within the community, tribe, group, or family.  The custom must be continuously and uniformly observed for a long time and adhere to specified conditions.

Q 6. Consider the following statements regarding Mosquitofish 

1. Initially introduced in India in 2000 to combat mosquito spread, Mosquitofish, specifically Gambusia species were introduced. 
2. The introduction of Mosquitofish can jeopardise the original ecosystem  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: B 

Why this question– In recent times, local water bodies in Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and Punjab have seen the introduction of mosquitofish as a strategy to tackle the growing mosquito issue.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Background – Surge in Mosquito-borne Diseases  Climate and Habitat Changes Global shifts in climate and habitats have led to a rise in mosquito-borne diseases, affecting over 500 million people in 150+ countries.  India’s Public Health Challenge In India, around 40 million individuals annually face the impact of these diseases, posing a persistent public health challenge for decades.  The Mosquitofish Approach  Mosquitofish Characteristics   Originating from the southeastern United States, Mosquitofish are known for their larvae-eating appetite, consuming up to 250 larvae per day.  Introduction in India Initially introduced in India in 1928 during British rule to combat mosquito spread, Mosquitofish, specifically Gambusia species, were intended to control larvae but turned invasive.  Statement 2 is Correct Negative Impacts of Mosquitofish  Invasive Nature   Adaptable and highly tolerant to environmental changes, Mosquitofish became highly invasive and are now considered among the hundred most detrimental invasive alien species.  Disruption of Native Ecosystem  Aggressive feeding habits lead to the consumption of not only mosquito larvae but also native fish eggs, posing a threat to local species and biodiversity.  Loss of Unique Species The introduction of Mosquitofish jeopardizes the existence of endemic fish species, potentially resulting in a loss of biodiversity and ecosystem resilience.  Significant Steps   The World Health Organization ceased recommending Gambusia for mosquito control in 1982. In 2018, the National Biodiversity Authority of India designated G. affinis and G. holbrooki as invasive alien species.

Q 7. Consider the following statements regarding Laureus World Sports Award 

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award 
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far 
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: B 

Why this question- The ongoing 6th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) is taking place from January 19th to January 31st, 2024, spanning four cities in Tamil Nadu – Chennai, Trichy, Madurai, and Coimbatore.

Source: PIB

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct American golfer Tiger Woods was indeed the first recipient of the Laureus World Sports Award in the year 2000. Statement 2 is Incorrect While Formula One drivers have been prominent winners throughout the years, they haven’t been the most frequent recipients of the award.  Tennis players, with Federer leading the way, have bagged the most Laureus World Sports Awards.  Statement 3 is Correct   With a record of five Laureus World Sportsman of the Year awards, Roger Federer stands out as the most decorated athlete in the award’s history.

Q 8. With reference to Eravikulam National Park consider the following statements 

1. Eravikulam National Park is situated in the Idukki district of Kerala. 
2. Renowned for the rare blooming of the “Neelakurinji” flower, occurring once every three years 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: B 

Why this question– Eravikulam National Park (ENP), the native environment of the Nilgiri tahr, is set to temporarily close during the calving season of the species.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct Eravikulam National Park Overview  Location Situated along the Western Ghats in the Idukki district of Kerala.  Establishment Declared as a National Park in the year 1978.  Geographical Coverage Spans an expansive area of 97 sq. km.  Highest Peak Home to Anamudi, the highest peak south of the Himalayas, reaching 2695 meters. Positioned on the southern side of the park.  Statement 2 is Incorrect Unique Natural Phenomenon Renowned for the rare blooming of the “Neelakurinji” flower, occurring once every twelve years.  Climate Experiences heavy rainfall during the southwest (June/July) and retreating (October/November) monsoons. Recognized as one of the wettest areas globally.  Vegetation Dominated by rolling grasslands. Upper regions feature patches of shola forests.  Flora Noteworthy plant species include Actinodaphne bourdilloni, Microtropis ramiflora, Pittosporum tetraspermium, Sysygium aronottianum, and Chrysopogon Zelanieus. Shola grasslands boast a rich array of balsams and orchids, including the supposedly extinct Brachycorythis wightii.  Fauna Diverse wildlife includes Nilgiri Tahr, Gaur, Sloth Bear, Nilgiri Langur, Tiger, Leopard, Giant Squirrel, and wild dogs. Hosts half of the world population of the endangered Nilgiri Tahr. Home to the Atlas moth, the largest of its kind globally.  Avian and Insect Life Supports 140 bird species, with 10 exclusive to the Western Ghats. Records over 100 butterfly varieties.

Q 9. Consider the following statements regarding Martand Sun Temple 

1. Martand Sun Temple is a Hindu temple situated near coastal Odisha. 
2. Believed to have been demolished by Sultan Sikandar Shah Miri, who ruled Kashmir from 1389 to 1413 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  D 

Why this question- Recently, individuals associated with an obscure Hindutva group unlawfully entered the Martand Sun Temple, which is under the protection of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).

Source: NH

Explanation:  Statement I is Incorrect Martand Sun Temple  Location and Dedication Hindu temple situated near Anantnag in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir. Devoted to the Sun God, with “Martand” being a Sanskrit synonym for Surya.  Historical Background Constructed by King Lalitaditya Muktapida during the 8th Century CE. King Lalitaditya Muktapida was the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty.  Statement II is Correct Features of Martand Sun Temple  Architectural Fusion Unique blend of local Kashmiri style with influences from Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek architectures.  Construction and Layout Built entirely from stone on a plateau. Spans 32,000 square feet with a large courtyard featuring 86 fluted columns. Main shrine strategically positioned to receive direct sunlight, especially during sunrise and sunset.  Main Shrine (Vimana) Stands at around 60 feet. Intricate carvings depict various Hindu deities. Central shrine designed to capture sunlight on the installed idol.  Additional Shrines 84 smaller shrines surround the main Sun Temple. Aligned along the complex’s perimeter.  Demolition History Believed to have been demolished by Sultan Sikandar Shah Miri, who ruled Kashmir from 1389 to 1413.

Q 10. Consider the following statements  

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium 
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium. 
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: C 

Why this question- In a recent analysis, researchers from the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) have determined that the radioactive discharges originating from Indian nuclear plants have been minimal.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct Thorium is more abundant in the Earth’s crust compared to uranium.  Thorium is often found in monazite sands and other minerals, making it more widely distributed globally.  In contrast, uranium is relatively less abundant.  Statement 2 is Correct When thorium-232 (Th-232) absorbs a neutron, it transmutes into uranium-233 (U-233), which is fissile and can undergo nuclear fission to release energy.  The energy potential of thorium is significant, and it can potentially produce more energy per unit mass than natural uranium.  Thorium fuel cycles have some advantages, including the potential for reduced nuclear waste production and increased proliferation resistance.  Statement 3 is Correct  Thorium-based nuclear fuel cycles can produce less long-lived and toxic radioactive waste compared to uranium-based cycles.  The waste generated from thorium reactors tends to have a shorter half-life, making it less hazardous over time.  Additionally, thorium reactors can potentially be designed to burn more of their fuel, further reducing the volume and toxicity of the waste.

Q 11. Consider the following statements regarding Free Movement Regime 

1. India introduced the FMR as part of the Act East policy, allowing visa-free cross-border movement into Indian Territory up to 100km 
2. Apprehensions about the influx of Chin, Naga, and Rohingya communities is a major concern for India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

• 1 only 
• 2 only 
• Both 1 and 2 
• Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: B 

Why this question– The ongoing discussions in the northeastern states have been sparked by India’s recent initiatives to reevaluate the Free Movement Regime (FMR) agreement with Myanmar.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Free Movement Regime (FMR)  Historical Context Origins of Boundary The Treaty of Yandaboo in 1826 defined the India-Myanmar boundary, separating communities with shared ethnicity and culture. Impact of Treaty The border created divisions among communities like the Nagas, Kuki-Chin-Mizo, disrupting their shared heritage without consensus.  Establishment of FMR Act East Policy  In 2018, India introduced the FMR as part of the Act East policy, allowing visa-free cross-border movement up to 16 km. Border Pass Requirement Residents require a one-year border pass for stays up to two weeks, aiming to enhance local trade, education, healthcare, and diplomatic ties.  Statement 2 is Correct Considerations for Revisiting FMR Security Concerns Illegal Infiltration Apprehensions about the influx of Chin, Naga, and Rohingya communities, impacting local demographics and resources. Trafficking and Smuggling Porous borders facilitate drug and arms movement, posing internal security threats. Insurgency Activities  FMR misuse by groups like Kuki National Organisation and Kangleipak Communist Party-Lamphel in Manipur.  Socio-economic and Regional Issues Cultural Identity Impact Migration raises concerns about preserving indigenous cultures. Environmental Consequences Unregulated cross-border movement contributes to deforestation and resource extraction. Regional Dynamics China’s influence in Myanmar adds complexity to border security.

Q 12. Consider the following statements regarding Payment Banks: 

1. In 2014, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established Payments Bank following the suggestions of the Urjit Patel Committee 
2. The primary objective is to promote financial inclusion by providing banking and financial services to unbanked and under-banked areas 
3. They cannot accept more than ₹2 lakh in deposits per account 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: A 

Why this question- From March 2024 onwards, Paytm Payments Bank Ltd has been prohibited by the Reserve Bank of India from receiving new deposits and conducting credit transactions.

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Payments Bank  Background Formation Based on Recommendations In 2014, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established Payments Bank following the suggestions of the Nachiket Mor Committee. Scale and Risk Focus Designed to operate on a smaller scale with minimal credit risk.  Statement 2 is Correct Objectives Financial Inclusion Primary objective is to promote financial inclusion by providing banking and financial services to unbanked and under-banked areas. Targeted Beneficiaries  Aimed at assisting the migrant labor force, low-income households, small entrepreneurs, etc.  Payments Bank in India Currently, India has six Payment Banks: Airtel Payment Bank, India Post Payment Bank, Fino, Paytm Payment Bank, NSDL Payment Bank, and Jio Payment Bank.  Features Differentiated and not universal banks, operating on a smaller scale. Minimum paid-up capital requirement of Rs. 100,00,00,000. Promoters must contribute a minimum of 40% to the paid-up equity capital for the first five years.  Statement 3 is Incorrect  Activities Allowed Cannot accept more than ₹2 lakh in deposits per account. Not permitted to lend directly but can sell loan products and promote third-party loan products. Authorized for personal payments and cross-border remittances on current accounts. Issuance of debit cards is allowed.

Q 13. With reference to Acid Rain consider the following statements: 

1. Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) and Carbon dioxide (CO2) combine with water and oxygen in the atmosphere, forming acid rain. 
2. EANET is a global initiative to combat the acid rain phenomena in the world. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: C 

Why this question– Arising from fossil fuels, Acid Rain stands as a multifaceted environmental concern, characterized by numerous causes and far-reaching consequences.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Acid Rain  Definition Acid Rain Overview: Acid rain, or acid deposition, encompasses any form of precipitation containing acidic components, like sulfuric or nitric acid, that descends to the ground in wet or dry forms. Variety of Forms: It includes rain, snow, fog, hail, and even acidic dust.  Formation of Acid Rain Chemical Processes: Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen Oxide (NOx) combine with water and oxygen in the atmosphere, forming sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3), respectively. Dissolution in Water: These acids dissolve in water droplets, giving rise to acid rain, snow, or fog. Acidic pH: The typical pH of acid rain ranges from 4.2-4.4, making it more acidic than regular rain with a pH of approximately 5.6.   Statement 2 is Incorrect Causes of Acid Rain Fossil Fuel Combustion: Burning sulfur-containing fossil fuels releases sulfur dioxide (SO2), while higher-temperature combustion results in nitrogen oxides (NOx). Prevalence in Vehicles: Common in vehicles like automobiles and prevalent in industrial processes and power plants burning coal. Natural Sources: Volcanic eruptions and lightning contribute to sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere.  Forms of Acid Rain/Deposition Wet Deposition: Acidic acids from the atmosphere mix with rain, snow, fog, or hail and fall to the ground. Dry Deposition: Acidic particles and gases deposit without moisture, posing threats to various surfaces, including water bodies, vegetation, and buildings.

Q 14. Consider the following statements regarding Nano DAP 

1. Seed treatment and foliar application of Nano DAP at critical growth stages contribute to increased nutrient availability, resulting in higher crop yields 
2. Nano DAP comprises 8% Nitrogen and 16% Phosphorus by volume, providing a balanced nutrient profile 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  A 

Why this question- In the interim budget presentation, the Finance Minister of India recently declared the broadening of Nano DAP’s application to encompass various crops across all agro-climatic zones.

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement I is Correct Nano DAP: Revolutionizing Crop Nutrition  Overview Nano DAP is an innovative liquid fertilizer containing nanoparticles of Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), serving as a vital source of nitrogen and phosphorus, two key primary nutrients crucial for crop growth.  Key Features Nutrient Composition: Nano DAP comprises 8% Nitrogen and 16% Phosphorus by volume, providing a balanced nutrient profile. Physical Form: Unlike traditional granular DAP, Nano DAP is presented in liquid form, offering unique advantages in terms of surface area to volume ratio. Particle Size: With a particle size less than 100 Nanometres (nm), Nano DAP boasts a superior surface area, enhancing nutrient availability  Statement II is Correct Advantages of Nano DAP Higher Crop Yield: Seed treatment and foliar application of Nano DAP at critical growth stages contribute to increased nutrient availability, resulting in higher crop yields. Quality Food: Harvested food produce exhibits improved nutritional quality, particularly in terms of protein and nutrient content. Reduced Fertilizer Usage: Enhanced efficiency allows for potential replacement of conventional DAP by 50%, making Nano DAP a sustainable and resource-efficient option. Environment Friendly: Precision application minimizes environmental impact, reducing soil, air, and water pollution, contributing to sustainable agriculture. Cost-Effective: Nano DAP is more economically viable than its conventional counterpart, with a 500 ml bottle equivalent to a 50-kg bag of traditional DAP. Import Reduction: The widespread adoption of Nano DAP is expected to significantly decrease the dependency on imported fertilizers, promoting self-sufficiency in agriculture

Q 15. Consider the following statements regarding Seaweeds 

1. Seaweeds are microscopic, unicellular marine algae. 
2. Abundant seaweed resources are concentrated along the coasts of Tamil Nadu and Gujarat, as well as around Lakshadweep, Andaman & Nicobar Islands 
3. Seaweed aids in carbon dioxide absorption, presenting a potential solution to combat climate change 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: B 

Why this question- The Koteshwar (Kori Creek), Kutch, Gujarat, hosted the National Conference on the Promotion of Seaweed Cultivation in a recent gathering.

Source: PIB

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Introduction to Seaweeds Seaweeds are macroscopic, multicellular marine algae, exhibiting a spectrum of colors including red, green, and brown.  Recognized as the ‘Medical Food of the 21st Century,’ they thrive in various marine environments, from intertidal regions to deep-sea habitats and estuaries.  Distribution and Habitat Seaweeds predominantly inhabit intertidal zones, shallow and deep sea waters, as well as estuaries. Notable formations include kelp forests, acting as vital underwater nurseries for diverse marine life.  Statement 2 is Correct Seaweed Species in India India hosts approximately 844 reported seaweed species in its waters. Cultivated species like Gelidiella acerosa, Gracilaria spp., Sargassum spp., Turbinaria spp., and Cystoseira trinodis contribute to the production of valuable substances like agar, alginates, and liquid seaweed fertilizer.  Major Seaweed Beds in India Abundant seaweed resources are concentrated along the coasts of Tamil Nadu and Gujarat, as well as around Lakshadweep, Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Notable beds exist in Mumbai, Ratnagiri, Goa, Karwar, Varkala, Vizhinjam, and Pulicat.  Statement 3 is Correct Significance of Seaweeds Bio-indicator Seaweeds serve as bio-indicators, absorbing excess nutrients and signaling chemical damage in marine ecosystems. Food Source  Rich in vitamins, minerals, and dietary fiber, seaweed is utilized in various food products, from sushi to snacks. Bioproducts  Seaweed extracts find applications in cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, and bioplastics, offering sustainable alternatives. Carbon Capture  Seaweed aids in carbon dioxide absorption, presenting a potential solution to combat climate change. Livelihoods Seaweed farming empowers coastal communities, providing income with minimal investment and quick returns.

Q 16. Consider the following statements regarding Gentoo Penguins 

1. These are exclusively found in the Northern Hemisphere, particularly on the Arctic Peninsula and certain Sub-Arctic islands. 
2. These are characterized by IUCN as Vulnerable due to Climate Change impacts. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: D 

Why this question– In a recent incident, more than 200 Gentoo penguins were discovered deceased in the Falkland Islands, Antarctica, as a result of the H5N1 Avian Influenza Virus spreading.

Source: DTE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Key Facts About Gentoo Penguins: Understanding a Unique Species  Scientific Name: Pygoscelis papua Distinctive Features: Characterized by a white band above each eye, a black throat, a prominent brush tail, and a mostly deep orange or red bill. Distribution: Exclusively found in the Southern Hemisphere, particularly on the Antarctic Peninsula and various sub-Antarctic islands, with a significant presence in the Falkland Islands.  Statement 2 is Incorrect Habitat: Typically situated along shorelines, strategically positioning themselves for efficient foraging and nesting while staying close to their nests. Threats: Predators: Vulnerable to predation by various marine and avian species. Human Impact: Historical practices such as egg collection and harvesting of skins and blubber. Environmental Changes: Changing conditions and competition with humans for prey may impact population sizes. Conservation Status: Least Concern on the IUCN Red List.

Q 17. Consider the following statements regarding Brainoware 

1. Brainoware represents a cutting-edge computing system that combines brain tissues with electronics 
2. Brainoware pioneers the integration of brain organoids with microelectrodes, forming an ONN that directly involves living brain tissue in the computing process. 
3. Addressing the challenge in traditional neural networks, Brainware integrates biological neural networks where memory and data processing occur together, reducing time and energy demands 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: B 

Why this question- In a recent breakthrough, scientists have successfully fused brain-like tissue with electronics, giving rise to Brainware—an ‘organoid neural network (ONN)’ proficient in voice recognition and adept at solving intricate mathematical problems.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Introduction Brainoware represents a cutting-edge computing system that combines brain-like tissue with electronics, introducing an unconventional approach to information processing.  Statement 2 is Correct Integration of Brain Organoids and Microelectrodes Organoid Neural Network (ONN): Brainoware pioneers the integration of brain organoids with microelectrodes, forming an ONN that directly involves living brain tissue in the computing process. Brain Organoids: These 3D tissues, derived from human embryonic stem cells, simulate the structure and function of the human brain, self-organizing and reflecting developmental processes.  Distinguishing Features of ONNs Biological Neurons: ONNs differ from artificial neural networks, utilizing biological neurons capable of adaptation and learning from their environment. Operational Mechanism: Characterized by a three-layered architecture – Input, Reservoir, and Output.  Statement 3 is Correct  Operational Mechanism of Brainoware Input Signals Processing: ONNs process electrical stimulation as input signals, unique in utilizing biological neurons for this function. Reservoir: Acting as a black-box, the reservoir converts signals into mathematical entities for efficient computer processing, eliminating constant data transfer. Output Readout: The modified conventional computer hardware interprets Brainoware’s neural activity, providing tangible results.

Q 18. With reference to C-CARES web portal consider the following statements 

1. C-CARES, established by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing, aims to revolutionize record-keeping and streamline processes for subscribers and pensioners of the Central government. 
2. CMPFO, an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Coal, administers Provident Fund and Pension schemes for social security within the coal sector 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– The C-CARES web portal of the Coal Mines Provident Fund Organization (CMPFO) was recently launched by the Ministry of Coal (MoC).

Source: PIB

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect About C-CARES web portal The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), a Research and Development organization under MeitY, has developed the C-CARES web portal. C-CARES, established by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing, aims to revolutionize record-keeping and streamline processes for subscribers and pensioners of the Coal Mines Provident Fund Organization (CMPFO).  Statement 2 is Correct CMPFO, an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Coal, administers Provident Fund and Pension schemes for social security within the coal sector. Currently, CMPFO provides services to approximately 3.3 lakh Provident Fund subscribers and 6.1 lakh pensioners in the coal sector. C-CARES offers a range of functionalities tailored to the needs of CMPF subscribers and coal companies. These functionalities include online settlement of claims, paperless working, ensuring timely and accurate settlement of claims, reducing processing time, and facilitating effective grievance redressal. The introduction of C-CARES signifies a digital transformation that aligns with the broader vision of Digital India.

Q 19. Consider the following statements regarding eNAM: 

1. eNAM is an online trading platform dedicated to only agricultural commodities in India. 
2. Traders, buyers, and commission agents can obtain licenses from state-level authorities with a required physical presence or possession of a shop in the market yard. 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  C 

Why this question- The increased participation of states in enabling the trade of agricultural commodities on eNAM has led to a surge in trading activities among different markets within the state and at the inter-state level.

Source: FE

Explanation:  Statement I is Correct eNAM: Overview  Introduction eNAM is an online trading platform dedicated to agricultural commodities in India. Launched on April 14, 2016, it operates with complete funding from the Government of India. The Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) oversees e-Nam implementation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare.  Objective Aims to provide improved marketing opportunities for farmers through competitive and transparent price discovery, coupled with online payment facilities for buyers.  Market Integration Connects existing APMC (Agriculture Produce Marketing Committee) / Regulated Marketing Committee (RMC) market yards, sub-market yards, private markets, and unregulated markets. Establishes a central online platform for nationwide agricultural commodity price discovery.  Statement II is Incorrect Key Features Enables farmers to showcase products in local markets while allowing traders from any location to quote prices. Offers a single-window platform for APMC-related services, covering commodity arrivals, quality, prices, buy-and-sell offers, and e-payment settlements.  License Procurement Traders, buyers, and commission agents can obtain licenses from state-level authorities without a prerequisite of physical presence or possession of a shop in the market yard.  Quality Standards Ensures harmonization of quality standards for agricultural products. Facilitates access to Soil Testing Laboratories in selected markets for farmer convenience.  Stakeholder Benefits Designed for the benefit of various stakeholders, including farmers, mandis, traders, buyers, FPOs (Farmer Producer Organizations), processors, and exporters.

Q 20. Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India 

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code 
2. Organising village Panchayats 
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas 

How many of the statements given above are Gandhian Principles? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: B 

Why this question-The Uttarakhand Cabinet recently gave its approval to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) draft report. The draft is anticipated to be presented as a bill for enactment in the state assembly on February 6, 2024.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect The concept of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is not inherently a Gandhian principle. Instead, it is a constitutional directive that falls under the broader framework of the Directive Principles of State Policy.  The UCC is mentioned in Article 44 of the Directive Principles and suggests that the state shall endeavor to secure for the citizens of India a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. The idea behind a Uniform Civil Code is to replace personal laws based on religious practices with a common set of laws applicable to all citizens, irrespective of their religious affiliations.  While the UCC directive is not explicitly rooted in Gandhian philosophy, it reflects the broader constitutional goal of promoting social justice, equality, and a unified legal framework for citizens. Gandhi, during his lifetime, did not specifically address the issue of a Uniform Civil Code.  His focus was more on socio-economic issues, rural development, and non-violent civil disobedience.  The UCC debate is often associated with efforts to harmonize diverse personal laws and promote gender justice, but its direct connection to Gandhian principles is not as evident as with other issues.  Statement 2 is Correct This statement aligns with Gandhian principles. Mahatma Gandhi emphasized the idea of decentralization and self-governance, giving power to local communities.  The establishment and organization of village Panchayats reflect the Gandhian vision of grassroots-level administration and decision-making.  Gandhi believed in the concept of “Sarvodaya,” the welfare of all, and considered Panchayats as essential units of self-governance.  Statement 3 is Correct  This statement is also in line with Gandhian Principles. Mahatma Gandhi was a strong advocate of rural development through the promotion of cottage industries.  He believed in the economic empowerment of villages and self-sufficiency through small-scale, decentralized industries.  The emphasis on cottage industries aimed to generate employment locally, reduce dependence on large-scale industrialization, and uplift the economic conditions of rural communities.

FAQs on Weekly Current Affairs

Q: What are weekly current affairs, and why are they important?

A: Weekly current affairs refer to the most significant events and developments in the world during the past week. They are important because they help individuals stay informed about what’s happening globally, enabling them to make informed decisions and engage in discussions on relevant topics.

Q: How can I stay updated with weekly current affairs?

A: You can stay updated with weekly current affairs by reading newspapers, watching news broadcasts, following credible news websites, or subscribing to news apps and newsletters. Weekly news summaries and quizzes can also help you stay informed.

Q: What types of topics are typically covered in weekly current affairs?

A: Weekly current affairs cover a wide range of topics, including politics, economics, science, technology, sports, culture, and more. They may include international and national news, as well as regional and local stories that have garnered significant attention.

Q: Are there any recommended sources for reliable weekly current affairs updates?

A: Reliable sources for weekly current affairs include established news organizations like BBC, CNN, The New York Times, and The Guardian, as well as trusted magazines and websites dedicated to current affairs analysis, such as The Economist and Foreign Affairs.

Q: How can I use weekly current affairs to enhance my knowledge and engage in meaningful discussions?

A: To make the most of weekly current affairs, consider participating in discussions, forums, or social media platforms that focus on these topics. Additionally, you can use the knowledge gained from weekly current affairs to engage in debates, contribute to informed decision-making, and expand your overall awareness of global issues.

In case you still have your doubts, contact us on 9811333901. 

For UPSC Prelims Resources, Click here

For Daily Updates and Study Material:

Join our Telegram Channel – Edukemy for IAS

• 1. Learn through Videos – here
• 2. Be Exam Ready by Practicing Daily MCQs – here
• 3. Daily Newsletter – Get all your Current Affairs Covered – here
• 4. Mains Answer Writing Practice – here

Visit our YouTube Channel – here