UPSC Prelims 2022 Answer Key with explanation

As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2022 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1

UPSC Prelims 2022 Exam

The UPSC Prelims exam is a tough phase in the Civil Services Examination, serving as an entry point to desirable positions like Indian Administrative Services (IAS) and Indian Police Services (IPS). It is set to happen on June 5, 2022, with two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam is from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM

The Importance of Previous Year Question Papers

To do well in the UPSC Prelims, candidates need more than just a solid grasp of concepts; they should also know the exam pattern, question formats, and time management strategies. A highly effective method for achieving this is to study the previous year’s question papers. These papers offer valuable insights into the exam’s format, level of difficulty, and the kinds of questions typically posed.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2022 – Available on Edukemy’s Website

Candidates eagerly anticipating the UPSC Prelims question papers don’t need to look everywhere. Soon after the exam, you can find the General Studies Paper 1 question papers on Edukemy’s website. Aspirants can effortlessly get and save the UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Papers in PDF format from our platform.

Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions

Q1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

a) Asian Development Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
d) World Bank

Answer (b)

• “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility’’ are initiatives of the IMF.
• The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. It provides rapid and low-access financial assistance to any qualifying member country facing urgent balance of payments needs that, if not addressed, would result in an immediate and severe economic disruption. It can provide support to meet a broad range of needs, including those arising from commodity price shocks, natural disasters, conflict and postconflict situations, emergencies resulting from fragility, and food shocks. Like the RCF, the RFI is designed for situations where a full-fledged economic program is not necessary because the need is transitory and limited in nature, or not feasible because a country’s policy design or implementation capacity is limited.
• The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): The RCF is available to PRGT-eligible member countries that face an urgent balance of payments. The RCF is designed for situations where a full-fledged economic program is either not necessary because of the transitory and limited nature of the shock, or not feasible because of capacity constraints or domestic fragilities. For higher-income countries that are non-PRGT eligible, a similar Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is available. It provides concessional, rapid, and low-access financial assistance to qualifying LICs facing an urgent balance of payments need, without ex-post conditionality.
• Additional Info:
• There are three windows under the RFI: Regular window: for urgent BoP needs caused by a wide range of sources including domestic instability, exogenous shocks, and fragility.
• Large Natural Disaster window: for urgent BoP needs arising from natural disasters where damage is assessed to be equivalent to or exceeds 20 percent of the member’s GDP.
• Food Shock Window: for urgent BoP needs due to acute food insecurity, a sharp increase in the food or fertilizer import bill, or a shock to cereal exports.

Q2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements is correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency. If a domestic currency increases against a basket of other currencies inside a floating exchange rate regime, NEER is said to appreciate. If the domestic currency falls against the basket, the NEER depreciates. An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the local currency against the weighted basket of currencies of its trading partners

Q3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government
   securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to reduce the money supply in the economy to control inflation. Thus, RBI sells government securities so as to suck the excess of the money supply from the economy and to control the inflation.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India intervenes in the currency market to support the rupee as a weak domestic unit can increase a country’s import bill. There are a variety of methods by which RBI intervenes. It can intervene directly in the currency market by buying and selling dollars. If RBI wishes to prop up the rupee value, then it can sell the dollar, and when it needs to bring down the rupee value, it can buy dollars

Q4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support low-income countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• To address the problem of unsustainable debt levels, the G20 reached an agreement in November 2020 on a Common Framework for Debt Treatments.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club.The G20 recently announced the agreement in principle of a “Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI)”. The framework aims to address the problem of unsustainable debts faced by many countries in the aftermath of the Covid-19 pandemic. The agreement includes all members of the G20 and the Paris Club. Club.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative to support, in a structural manner, Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. The Common Framework considers debt treatment, on a case-by-case basis, driven by requests from eligible debtor countries. In response to a request for debt treatment, a Creditor Committee is convened. Negotiations are supported by the IMF and the World Bank, including through their Debt Sustainability Analysis. The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed to support, in a structural manner, low-income countries with unsustainable debt. It is a way to temporarily ease the financing constraints for these countries and free up scarce money that they can instead use to mitigate the human and economic impact of the COVID-19 crisis.

Q5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1. The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBS provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is correct: As IIBs are G-Secs, they can be tradable in the secondary market like other G-Secs. G-Secs helps the Government to reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing. Like other G-Secs, coupons on IIBs would be paid on a half-yearly basis. Fixed coupon rate would be paid on the adjusted principal. Since these bonds provide no risk of capital loss, they can offer a lesser rate of interest (coupon) as interest is directly proportional to risk.
• Statement 2 is correct: These instruments protect savings from inflation. It has been decided by the RBI to consider WPI for inflation protection in IIBs.Inflation-indexed bonds provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Extant tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds. Interest and inflation compensation both are taxable.

Q6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• After Walmart’s $16bn purchase of Flipkart in 2018, the rules for foreign-owned e-commerce firms were tightened further, with unexpected severity. Two restrictions predominate.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: First, foreign firms are prevented from holding inventory or selling their own goods, which both Amazon and Walmart do in other markets. They can offer their platforms only as “marketplaces” for other buyers and sellers.FDI policy in E-Commerce permits foreign direct investment in the marketplace model of e-commerce to the extent of 100% under the automatic route, however, FDI (foreign-owned e-commerce firms) is not permitted in an inventory-based model (owning products and selling them directly to buyers) of e-commerce.
• Statement 2 is correct: Second, the degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited, to prevent those sellers acting covertly on their behalf. The FDI policy further states that E-commerce entities providing a marketplace will not exercise ownership or control over the inventory i.e. goods purported to be sold. Such an ownership or control of the inventory will render the business into the inventory-based model. Inventory of a vendor will be deemed to be a controlled e-commerce marketplace entity if more than 25% of purchases of such vendors are from the marketplace entity or its group companies.

Q7. Which of the following activities constitute the real sector in the economy?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (a)

• Options 1 and 2 are correct: The real sector of an economy is the key section as activities of this sector persuade economic output and is represented by those economic segments that are essential for the progress of the GDP of the economy. For instance, farmers harvesting their crops or textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics ensure an increase of economic output and in turn progress of GDP. The sector is crucial for the sustainability of the economy because of its productive capability to meet nations’ aggregate demand.
• Options 3 and 4 are incorrect: The Financial sector is a section of the economy made up of firms and institutions that provide financial services to commercial and retail customers. The financial sector generates a good portion of its revenue from loans and mortgages. This sector comprises a broad range of industries including banks, investment companies, insurance companies, and real estate firms. Thus, a commercial bank lending money to a trading company or a corporate body issuing rupee-denominated bonds overseas constitutes financial sector activities and not real sector activities.

Q8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment

b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country based on the profits arising out of its investment

c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India

d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Answer (d)

• Indirect transfers: Its provisions deal with the taxation of transactions wherein even though the transfer of shares took place overseas, the underlying assets were in India. The amendments made in the ITA in 2012 clarified that if a company is registered or incorporated outside India, its shares will be deemed to be or have always been situated in India if they derive their value substantially from the assets located in India. As a result, the persons who sold such shares of foreign companies before the enactment of the Act (i.e., May 28, 2012) also became liable

Q9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acquiring new technology is a capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

• Statement 1 is correct: Capital expenditures (CapEx) are funds used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment.CapEx is often used to undertake new projects or investments by a company. Costs to upgrade or purchase software, invest in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital expenditure. As they are often employed to improve operational efficiency, increase revenue in the long term, or make improvements to the existing assets of a company.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: When a company borrows money to be paid back at a future date with interest it is known as debt financing Repayment of a loan is an example of capital expenditure. Equity financing is the process of raising capital through the sale of shares. It is an example of non-debt capital receipts. Capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. They also refer to incoming cash flows. For example, reliance can choose debt financing, which entails selling fixed-income products, such as bonds, bills, or notes, to investors to obtain the capital needed to grow and expand its operations. Both debt financing and equity financing are considered as part of capital receipts for the company, as capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. Funds from these would be used by the company for capital expenditures such as to grow or expand its operations

Q10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: Gross financial savings of households include monies saved in banks, provident funds, pension schemes, shares, insurance, and in the form of currency, among other categories. These savings form the pool of domestic finance for investments which are crucial to job creation and are currently critical as they will be crucial in deciding the pace of economic revival. Deposits with banks are the single largest form of households’ financial assets, followed by insurance funds, mutual funds, and currency. Therefore, any adverse movement in household savings will have a significant bearing on banks, insurance companies, and mutual/provident funds, who, in turn, are key investors in government securities.
• Statement 2 is correct: Internal debt constitutes over 93 percent of the overall public debt. Internal loans that make up the bulk of public debt are further divided into two broad categories – marketable and non-marketable debt

Q11. Consider the following statements:

1. Under the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the power to make laws on the Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 3 only

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is correct: The Sanyal Committee examined the law relating to contempt of courts in general, and the law relating to the procedure for contempt proceedings including the punishment thereof in particular. The committee submitted its report in 1 963, which inter alia defined and limited the powers of certain courts in punishing for contempt of courts and provided to regulate the procedure in relation thereto. The recommendations of The committee were generally accepted by the Government after having a wide consultation with the State Governments, Union Territory Administrations, and all other stakeholders. Pursuant to the recommendations made by the N Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was
• Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court and the High Courts of India have been empowered with the power to penalize for Contempt of Court under Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define Civil Contempt and/or Criminal Contempt

Q12. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers
   and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: An Advocate is a person authorized to appear in a Court litigation on behalf of a party and who possesses a law degree, enrolled with the Bar Council in accordance to the prescriptions laid by the Advocates Act, Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys are too recognized as lawyers and there’s no prohibition on their recognition as lawyers. A patent attorney or patent lawyer is also an advocate. This means that an individual who has a law degree and has enrolled in The State Bar Council is an advocate who can deal with patent litigation and is hence a patent attorney.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. The Bar The Council of India is a statutory body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates legal practice and legal education in India.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/ her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Article 368 of the Indian constitution, prior approval of the President is not required for the Constitutional Amendment Act. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
• Statement 2 is correct: As per the 1971 amendment of Article 368, it has been obligatory for the President to give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill and the President cannot exercise any veto power regarding this. The president cannot exercise his veto powers with respect to the Constitution Amendment Bill. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Constitutional Amendment Bill needs to be passed by both houses separately by a special majority and there is no provision of joint sitting.

Q14. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister
   of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union The government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 74 of the Constitution of India states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Hence, The Constitution of India does not define any categorization of ministers.
• Statement 2 is correct: As per the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, the total number of ministers including the prime minister shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha

Q15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 3 only

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, a resolution for the ratification of the proclamation of an emergency must be passed by a special majority of both houses of the Parliament separately. If the proclamation of emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved/ the dissolution takes place during the period of one month without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 75 of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 61 of the Constitution, both the Houses of Parliament, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, have an equal say in the Impeachment of the President.

Q16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months
   of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. Hence, he/she can join any political party within 6 months of taking his/her seat in the House without the fear of disqualification.
• Statement 2 is correct: There is no time period mentioned in the law during which the Presiding officer has to decide on the disqualification plea

Q17. Consider the following statements:

1. The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his
   resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: According to Article 76 of The Constitution of India, the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which she/he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. Solicitor General of India, a statutory post assists the AG in the fulfillment of the official responsibilities. The Solicitor General does not participate in the meetings of Parliament as it is a statutory post assisting the Attorney General in fulfillment of the official responsibilities.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: There is no provision regarding the procedure and grounds for the removal of the Attorney General mentioned in the Constitution except that he/she holds office during the pleasure of the president. Conventionally (not mandatorily), he/she can resign when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

Q18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is Correct: The term “mandamus” means ‘we command’. It is generally a command that is issued by the court to a public servant asking him to perform his duties, which he has failed to do so. The writ of mandamus cannot be granted against a private individual or organization.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: The writ of mandamus can also be issued against a corporation, inferior court, or government body for failing to perform their duties in official committees.
• Statement 3 is correct: The term quo- warranto means ‘by what authority or by what warrant’. It is generally issued by a court to enquire about the legality or under what authority is he holding that office. It prevents the illegal holding of a public office by any person

Q19. With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it
   ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India has launched the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission to promote the digitization of healthcare and to create an open interoperable digital health ecosystem for the country. Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens and participation in healthcare in the institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in the Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE).
• Statement 3 is Correct: ABDM seeks to bridge the gap among multiple stakeholders who are part of the healthcare ecosystem by prescribing common health data standards, developing health facilities registry, healthcare professionals, etc. required for interoperability by enabling seamless data sharing across various healthcare providers who may be using different digital health systems

Q20. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting
   of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 2 and 4 only

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is Correct: The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker and whenever the office of the Deputy Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy. The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: Both the Speaker and The Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party ill he 10th Lok Sabha election. Since then, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. He also presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting

Q21. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

a) Cotton
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Wheat

Answer – B

• Methane and nitrous oxide are important greenhouse gases. They contribute to global warming. Important anthropogenic sources of biogenic methane are wet rice fields, cattle, animal waste, landfills and biomass burning. Paddy fields are anthropogenic sources of atmospheric nitrous oxide (N2O) and methane (CH4), which have been reckoned as 273 and 80-83 times more powerful than CO2 in driving temperature increase in 20 years. Paddies are a potential source of anthropogenic nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions. In paddies, both the soil and the rice plants emit N2O into the atmosphere. The rice plant in the paddy is considered to act as a channel between the soil and the atmosphere for N2O emission. Flooded rice cultivation has been identified as one of the leading global agricultural sources of anthropogenic methane (CH4) emissions. Furthermore, it has been estimated that global rice production is responsible for 11% of total anthropogenic CH4 emissions.

Q22. “System of Rice Intensification” of Cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in:

1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• System of Rice Intensification (SRI) was first developed in Madagascar in the 1980s. It promises to save 15 – 20% of groundwater and improve rice productivity.
• Option 1 is correct: Under SRI 2kgs seed is required to grow a nursery for one acre against 5kgs seed required in the traditional method.
• Option 2 is correct: By minimizing water use and alternating wet and dry conditions, SRI minimizes methane production.
• Option 3 is correct: A study carried out in Vietnam found that applying SRI methods can save around 23% of energy inputs while increasing energy outputs by 11%

Q23. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

a) Lake Victoria
b) Lake Faguibine
c) Lake Oguta
d) Lake Volta

Answer – B

• Lake Faguibine in northern Mali is dry and has been since the 1970s. The lake was once one of the largest in West Africa and used to be fed by annual flooding from the Niger River The Lake Faguibine System, four interlinked lakes 80 km west of Timbuktu, was historically one of Mali’s most fertile areas. But over seven years, droughts in the 1970s dried up the lakes. Then sand filled the channels connecting the lakes to the river Niger, with the result that when rain finally returned, the water could no longer reach the lakes. The region’s prosperity evaporated along with the water.

Q24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

a) Cauvery
b) Manjira
c) Pennar
d) Tungabhadra

Answer – C

• Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The village is majorly known for housing the spectacular gorge, famously known as the Grand Canyon of India. Gorges are formed when rivers erode through gigantic rock formations over thousands of years. The stunning gorge has been created by the waters of the famous river Pennar that streams from the Erramala hills in southern India. Penna (also known as Pinakini, Pennar, Penner, Penneru, Pennai). The swift-flowing waters of River Pennar cut through the granite rocks near the village of Gandikota, naturally eroding the rock and forming a deep valley. Gandikota got its name from ‘gandi’ the Telugu word for ‘gorge’. Pennar River streams from the Erramala hills. The spectacular gorge is famously adjudged as the Grand Canyon of India

Q25. Consider the following pairs:

Peak Mountains

1. Namcha Barwa Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer – B

• Pair 1 incorrectly matched– Namcha Barwa Himal, also known as Namjagbarwa Syntaxis or Namjagbarwa Group Complex, is the easternmost section of the Himalayas in southeastern Tibet and northeastern India. This section spans 180 km from the headwaters of the Siyom River on the international border NE into Tibet to the canyon of the Yarlung Tsangpo (the Brahmaputra in India), where the Himalayas are said to end, although high ranges (Hengduan Mountains on China–Myanmar border) actually continue another 300 km east. Namcha Barwa is considered as the Eastern point of the Himalayas. It is located on the extreme east of the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. The height of Namcha Barwa is around 7782 m. Brahmaputra River takes a U-turn on reaching Namcha Barwa.
• Pair 2 correctly matched- Nanda Devi is the second-highest mountain in India and the highest entirely within the country (Kangchenjunga being on the border of India and Nepal). It is part of the Kumaon Himalayas and is located in the state of Uttarakhand, between the Rishiganga Valley on the west and the Goriganga valley on the east. The peak, whose name means “Bliss-Giving Goddess”, is regarded as the patron goddess of the Garhwal and Kumaon Himalayas.
• Pair 3 incorrectly matched. Nokrek is not situated in Sikkim Himalaya. Nokrek is the highest peak in the West Garo Hills of Meghalaya.

Q26. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
c) Region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
d) The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea

Answer – A

• The Levant, (from the French lever, “to rise,” as in sunrise, meaning the east), historically, the region along the eastern Mediterranean shores, roughly corresponding to modern Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and certain adjacent areas. Levant, originally meant ‘the East’ or ‘Mediterranean lands east of Italy’. It is borrowed from the French levant ‘rising’, referring to the rising of the sun in the east, or the point where the sun rises

Q27. Consider the following countries:

1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan?
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer – C

• Afghanistan, officially the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan is a landlocked country in southern Central Asia. It borders Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north, Iran to the west, and Pakistan to the east and south. Afghanistan is completely landlocked—the nearest coast lies along the Arabian Sea, about 300 miles (480 km) to the south—and, because of both its isolation and its volatile political history, it remains one of the most poorly surveyed areas of the world. It is bounded to the east and south by Pakistan (including those areas of Kashmir administered by Pakistan but claimed by India), to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan. It also has a short border with Xinjiang, China, at the end of the long, narrow Vākhān (Wakhan Corridor), in the extreme northeast.

Q28. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is correct: Monazite is a primarily reddish-brown phosphate mineral that contains rare-earth elements. Due to variability in composition, monazite is considered a group of minerals. Monazite usually occurs in small, isolated crystals or grains that are resistant to weathering and become concentrated in soils.
• Statement 2 is correct: In addition to the rare earth elements, thorium (Th) can be extracted from monazite ore. Thorium is a slightly radioactive metal, identical to uranium. Monazite is a major source of rare earths and thorium.It yields a number of rare-earth elements, such as neodymium and praseodymium. Both of these are in demand internationally for making high-performance rare-earth magnets (components of power wind turbines, electric vehicles and robotics)
• Statement 3 is not correct: The Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constituted unit of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has estimated the presence of 11.93 million tonnes of monazite resources in the beach sand mineral placer deposits along the coastal tracts of India. Though monazite is found in most coastal areas of India. It is questionable to be found along the entire coast. The main mines are found along the coasts of southern India in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and in Orissa.
• Statement 4 is correct: Monazite is a mineral mainly containing rare earths and thorium prescribed substance to be handled by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). Accordingly, Indian Rare Earths Ltd. (IREL) wholly owned by the Govt. of India, under the administrative control of the Dept. of Atomic Energy (DAE) utilizes monazite mainly for the production of rare earth compounds, and thorium, as needed in the Department of Atomic Energy

Q29. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the :

a) First half of the month of June
b) Second half of the month of June
c) First half of the month of July
d) Second half of the month of July

Answer -B

• In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year is called the summer solstice. In technical terms, this day is referred to as the summer solstice, the longest day of the summer season. The maximum amount of sunlight received by the Northern Hemisphere during this time is usually on June 20, 21 or 22. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5-degree north latitude. This will happen around 9:02 am on Monday (Indian Standard Time).

Q30. Consider the following pairs:

Wetland Lake Location

1. Hokera Wetland Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer – B

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab. Hokera wetland is about 10 km from Srinagar. It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Renuka Wetland is the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh. It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched. Rudrasagar Lake, also known as Twijilikma, is a lake located in Melaghar, Tripura, India. The Government of India’s Ministry of Environment and Forest has identified Rudrasagar as one of the wetlands of National Importance for Conservation and sustainable use based on its bio-diversity and socio-economic importance. The lake is designated as a Ramsar site. A lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti.
• Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Sasthamkotta is located in the Kollam district of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala

Q31. Consider the following:

1. Aarogya Setu
2. COWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on to open-source digital platforms?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – D

• Open-source software (OSS) is computer software that is released under a license in which the copyright holder grants users the rights to use, study, change, and distribute the software and its source code to anyone and for any purpose.
• “Closed source” software has source code that only the person, team, or organization who created it and maintains exclusive control over. But Open-source software is software with source code that anyone can inspect, modify, and enhance.
• Some examples of public services being delivered through systems that use FOSS building blocks, include Aadhaar, GSTN, and the DigiLocker.Many other solutions launched by the government including Digilocker, Diksha, Aarogya Setu, and the Covid-19 vaccination platform CoWIN has also been built on top of opensource digital platforms

Q32. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:

1. Web 3-0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks.
3. Web 3-0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is correct: In Web 3.0 people will control their own data. Presently, only centralized repositories are the ones that own user data and profit from it. Web 3.0 allows individuals to not only own and control their data but also to get reimbursed for their online time. Users can engage in the management of internet protocols directly, rather than using free tech platforms in exchange for their personal data, which is the case with platforms like Facebook and Instagram.
• Statement 2 is correct: Web 3.0 will be permissionless and democratic. People can maintain blockchain-based social networks in Web 3.0.
• Statement 3 is correct: It shall be operated by users collectively rather than corporations. Web3 will mean that sharing photos, communicating with friends and buying things online will no longer by synonymous with Big Tech companies but be done through a multitude of small competing services on the blockchain. It means that all the value that’s created can be shared amongst more people, rather than just the owners, investors, and employees.

Q33. With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:

1. SaaS buyers can customize the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)—also known as cloud-based software—is now mainstream. SaaS is a way of delivering applications over the Internet—as a service. Instead of installing and maintaining software, you simply access itvia the Internet, freeing yourself from complex software and hardware management. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) allows access to software on a subscription basis using external servers, thus it is a software licensing model.
• Statement 1 is correct: SaaS buyers can customize the user interface (UI) to change the look and feel of the program, as well as modify specific areas, such as data fields, to alter what data appears. They have provided flexibility to be modified for specific business uses but also for individual users.
• Statement 2 is correct: SaaS allows users to access the software through a web browser from multiple locations. They can have remote desktop software and can work from home. SaaS allows each user to access programs via the Internet using mobile devices without the need to install the software on his/her computer

Q34. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?

a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Answer – C

• The Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) was developed by the Soviet Union in 1960s. The system is used to launch nuclear warheads from space. In 2021, Frank Kendal III (the US Secretary of Air Force) stated that the Chinese government is developing and testing FOBS. The idea behind FOBS is, a warhead is put into a stable orbit and it deorbits over the target. If the target and the launch position is lined up and the warhead keeps going around, it will complete a circle
• The “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” was deployed by China in launching a long March rocket recently. In the Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS), a warhead is put into a stable orbit and it deorbits over the target. If the target and the launch position is lined up and the warhead keeps going around, it will complete a circle This technique allows
  propulsion of an extremely maneuverable, nuclear-capable glider into orbit, allowing it to speed towards its target at hypersonic speed. The flight path of the warhead from the system does not reveal the target location till the payload hits the destination

Q35. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

a) Cloud Services
b) Quantum Computing
c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
d) Wireless Communication Technologies

Answer – B

• A qubit is a quantum bit, the counterpart in quantum computing to the binary digit or bit of classical computing. In classical computing, the information is encoded in bits, where each bit can have the value zero or one. In quantum computing the information is encoded in qubits. A qubit is a two-level quantum system where the two basis qubit states are usually written as 0 and 1. As it exhibits superposition, a qubit can be in state 0 or 1 or (unlike a classical bit) both in a linear combination of both states

Q36. Consider the following communication technologies:

1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered communication Short-Range devices/technologies?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

A short-range radio device, is intended to cover radio transmitters that provide either unidirectional or bidirectional communication. Short-range devices often benefit from a relaxed regulatory regime compared with other radio communications equipment. Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services. The definition ‘Short Range Device’ may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:

• Access control (including door and gate openers)
• Alarms and movement detectors
• Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
• Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones
• Industrial control
• Local Area Networks
• Medical implants
• Metering devices
• Remote control
• Radiofrequency identification (RFID)
• Road Transport Telematics.

Q37. Consider the following statements:

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is correct: Biofilms are ubiquitous and they form on virtually all surfaces immersed in a natural aqueous environment, e.g., water pipes, living tissue, tooth surfaces, implanted medical devices, dental implants, etc.
• Statement 2 is correct: Diverse microorganisms are able to grow on food matrixes and along food industry infrastructures. Biofilm can form on food and food processing surfaces. For example Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, etc. Salmonella enterica contaminates food and may induce massive outbreaks and even death in children and the elderly.
• Statement 3 is correct: Biofilm can cause chronic infections, It is a structured consortium of bacteria embedded in a self-produced polymer matrix consisting of polysaccharides, protein, and DNA. Bacterial biofilms show increased tolerance to antibiotics and disinfectant chemicals as well as resisting phagocytosis and other components of the body’s defense system. Bacterial biofilms are serious global health concerns due to their ability to tolerate antibiotics (exhibiting antibiotic resistance), host defense systems and other external stresses; therefore, it contribute to persistent chronic infections

Q38. Consider the following statements in respect to probiotics:

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: Probiotics are live microorganisms (bacteria and yeasts can form an important part of the human mycobiome as probiotics.) that are intended to have health benefits when consumed or applied to the body. They can be found in yogurt and other fermented foods, dietary supplements, and beauty products. Common probiotic bacteria can include Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium. The most common yeast found in probiotics is Saccharomyces boulardii.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Probiotics live naturally in your body. L. acidophilus is a probiotic bacteria that naturally occurs in the human gut. The most common place linked to beneficial microbes is your gut (mostly large intestines), but there are other places like the mouth, urinary tract, skin, lungs, etc where these probiotics are found. Probiotics occur naturally in fermented foods and cultured milk, but we can also find manufactured probiotic supplements.
• Statement 3 is correct: Yogurt is a well-known food source of probiotics. Certain strains of bacteria in yogurt have ß-D-galactosidase, which is an enzyme that helps break down lactose in dairy products into the sugars glucose and galactose. There is evidence that probiotics can alleviate symptoms of lactose intolerance. This can occur by increased hydrolysis (breaking down or digestion) of lactose (milk sugar) in the dairy product and in the small intestine. It can also be achieved by manipulation of the colonic metabolism. Thus Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars

Q39. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

1. The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik. V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: India has majorly relied on the viral vector vaccine Covishield for its vaccination drive. Over 88% of the doses given out so far have been of Covishield, the OxfordAstraZeneca vaccine manufactured locally under license by the Serum Institute of India. Unlike mRNA vaccines, Serum Institutes Covishield uses the viral vector platform. In the vaccine, a chimpanzee adenovirus – ChAdOx1 – has been modified to enable it to carry the COVID-19 spike protein into the cells of humans. A similar technique was used for making Ebola vaccines. This virus is basically incapable of infecting the receiver, but can very well teach the immune system to prepare a mechanism against such viruses.
• Statement 2 is correct: Sputnik V, the world’s first registered vaccine is based on the human adenoviral vector-based platform.
• Statement 3 is correct: Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine. This destroys the pathogen’s ability to replicate but keeps it intact so that the immune system can still recognize it and produce an immune response

Q40. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer – C

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The large solar flare is projected to strike satellites in the Earth’s upper atmosphere. Thus it affects GPS navigation, mobile phone transmissions, and satellite TV. The flares might potentially disrupt power grids and electrical networks in various regions of the planet.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar flares can temporarily alter the upper atmosphere creating disruptions. Tsunami is a purely seismic phenomenon. Earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and other underwater explosions (including detonations, landslides, glacier calvings, meteorite impacts and other disturbances) above or below water all have the potential to generate a tsunami and not solar flares. Hence, it does not cause Tsunamis. It only affects the upper atmosphere.
• Statement 4 is correct: Strong M-class and X-class solar flares and can trigger coronal mass ejections — a large release of plasma and the magnetic field from the sun. The high-energy particles emitted by the flare could also cause certain atoms in the Earth’s atmosphere to glow, leading to auroras in Central Europe as well as North America. The phenomenon could only be seen if the weather is clear.
• Statement 5 is incorrect: There is no causal link between the coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and the deadly forest fires. There is a common misconception that solar storms are associated with extreme geological and atmospheric effects on Earth. The sun cannot produce solar flares or CMEs that physically burn the landscape, if it did, I doubt complex life would have had much of a chance at evolving over the last few billion years if our planet was constantly being sterilized.
• Statement 6 is correct: The scientists found that solar flares and storms heated and expanded the atmosphere and that these effects could extend to the satellites’ orbits. The density of atmospheric gases increases, slowing the satellites and causing them to lose altitude by a few kilometers per day.
• Statement 7 is correct: Solar flares allow interference with the short-wave radios that are being used, emitting more rays and allowing people to get more of a sunburn during this time frame

Q41. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

a) Database created by coalition organizations of Research organizations
b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
d) Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Answer (a)

• The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.” It monitors 32 countries, accounting for more than 80 percent of global emissions. It is a collaboration of two organizations, Climate Analytics and New Climate Institute. It aggregates the country’s actions to the global level and evaluates climate change mitigation targets, policies, and action

Q42. Consider the following statements:

1. “The Climate Group” is an international nonprofit organization that drives climate action by
   building large networks and running them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global
   initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is correct: Climate Group is an international non-profit founded in 2003, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam, and Beijing. It has grown its network to include over 500 multinational businesses in 175 markets worldwide. It collaborates with commercial and political leaders from all over the world to combat climate change. The organization runs programs aimed at minimizing greenhouse gas emissions and utilizing renewable energy.
• Statement 2 is not correct: EP100 is a global initiative led by the international non – profit Climate Group, bringing together over 120 ene gy smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Climate Group’s global EP100 initiative brings together a growing group of energy-smart companies committed to improving their energy productivity and doing more with less greenhouse gas emission. By integrating ambitious energy targets into business strategy, leading companies are driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emissions reduction goals.
• Statement 4 is correct: Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd., the world’s largest manufacturer of tractors has signed up to EP100. The Indian-based company has committed to doubling their energy productivity by 2030, a core requirement for any business signing on to the campaign. Recently, Dalmia Cement and JSW Cement – two leading Indian cement companies committed to the Climate Group’s flagship business initiatives RE100, EV100 and EP100. Dalmia Cement committed to EV100, while they are already members of RE100 and EP100. JSW Cement committed to all three campaigns in one go.
• Statement 5 is not correct: The Under2 The coalition, for which we are the Secretariat, is made up of over 260 governments globally, representing 1.75 billion people and 50% of the global economy. It is the world’s largest network of state and local governments devoted to cutting emissions in accordance with the Paris Agreement.

Q43. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation, and evaporation.
b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, mollusks, birds, reptiles, and mammals thrive.
c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Answer – D

• Tropical rainforests are frequently referred to be the “lungs of the planet” because they typically breathe oxygen in and carbon dioxide out. Because of their tremendous and long-lasting capacity to filter contaminants from the water that flows through them, natural wetlands are frequently referred to as “earth’s kidneys.” Heavy metals in aquatic environments, such as lakes and rivers have been studied extensively because of their toxicity, persistence, and tendency to bioaccumulate. Many studies have shown that aquatic plants are sinks for heavy metals in aquatic ecosystems. Because of their capacity to accumulate heavy metals, several species of aquatic macrophytes such as H. verticillate and water hyacinth have been used to remove heavy metals from wastewater. The ability of aquatic plants to actively and passively absorb huge amounts of metals from water and/ or sediment through multiple organs such as roots stems, and leaves makes these plants suited for heavy metal modifications in the aquatic environment

Q44. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2 only

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is correct: WHO’s new guidelines recommend air quality levels for six pollutants — particulate matter (PM), ozone (O₃), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) sulfur dioxide (SO₂), and carbon monoxide (CO) — that are not just health hazards but they also give rise to other damaging pollutants. The recommendation for PM 2.5 is that the annual average should not exceed 5 micrograms per cubic meter or 15 micrograms per cubic meter in a day.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Ozone is one of the main components of photochemical smog at ground level. It is created when pollutants like nitrogen oxides (NOx) from industry and car emissions and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from vehicles, solvents, and industry react with sunlight (photochemical reaction). Ozone levels are typically highest during the afternoon hours of the summer months when the. influence of direct sunlight is the greatest. Inclement weather is unpleasant, especially with cold wind and rain. So, Ozone pollution will be low during inclement weather.
• Statement 3 is not correct: While particles with a diameter of 10 millimeters or less, or PM10, can enter and lodge deep inside the lungs, particles with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, or PM2.5, are much more harmful to human health. The lung barrier is permeable, and PM2.5 can get into the bloodstream.
• Statement 4 is correct: The health of people can be significantly impacted by excessive ozone in the air. Breathing issues, asthma attacks, lowered lung function and lung illnesses can all be brought on by it.

Q45. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan Forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota. One of the most sought-after edible mushrooms, such is known for it spongy, honeycombed head and savory flavour but all of that comes at a high price.
• Statement 2 is correct: Gucchi mushrooms are mostly grown in Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jammu & Kashmir in India, where they develop in clusters on logs in rotting wood. The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially and grow in conifer forests across temperature regions.
• Statement 3 is not correct: There are only a few brief weeks in the spring when fresh morel mushrooms are available. Locals gather it from the wild environments in the northwest Himalayas

Q46. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

1. Its fibers can be blended with wool and cotton fibers to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is correct: PET fibers make them highly resistant to deformation, so they impart excellent resistance to wrinkling in fabrics. They are often used with other fibers such as rayon, wool, and cotton, reinforcing the inherent properties of those fibers while contributing to the ability of the fabric to recover from wrinkling.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The low softening temperature of PET—approximately 70 °C (160 °F) makes it dangerous to human health and country liquor and country-made foreign liquor cannot be sold in such bottles.
• Statement 3 is correct: Polyethylene terephthalate is the most widely recycled plastic. For instance, PET bottles and containers are commonly melted down and spun into fibers for fiberfill or carpets.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. The emission of greenhouse gases is one of the major disadvantages associated with the disposal of PET by incineration process. Polyethylene, like other plastics, is not inert and is known to release additives and other degradation products into the environment throughout its lifetime

Q47. Which of the following is not a bird?

a) Golden Mahseer
b) Indian Nightjar
c) Spoonbill
d) White Ibis

Answer – A

• Mahseer roughly translates as mahi fish and Sher tiger; it is also referred to as tiger among fish. It is a large cyprinid and known to be the toughest among the freshwater sport fish. Golden Mahseer lives in fast-moving waters, inhabiting hill streams with rocky and stony substrates. They can be found in temperatures between 5°C and 25°C. The Golden Mahseer inhabits the Himalayan foothills, and the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra basins can also be found down south in the Balmore, Cauvery, Tambra Parini, and Kosi Rivers.

Q48. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Answer – A

• Nitrogen fixation is a chemical process by which molecular nitrogen (N2), with a strong triple covalent bond, in the air is converted into ammonia (NH3) or related nitrogenous compounds, typically in soil or aquatic systems but also in industry. Rhizobium is a rod-shaped nitrogen-fixing bacteria live symbiotically within the roots of several leguminous plants such as alfalfa, sweet clover, sweet pea, lentils etc.
• The amaranth plant is a grain and green crop plant, because it is not a pulse crop and do not nitrogen-fixing mechanism. The purslane plant is one of the few vegetables that are rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which are important to support healthy arteries and can help prevent strokes, heart attacks, and other forms of heart disease. It also does not have a nitrogen-fixing mechanism at the root zone.

Q49. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

b) Development of building materials using plant residues

(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas

d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/ protected areas

Answer – A

• Biorock technology greatly accelerates coral settlement, growth, healing, survival, and resistance to environmental stresses such as high temperature, sediment, and pollution. All other marine organisms examined also benefit. The late architect developed the ground-breaking technique known as “biorock technology” in 1976 to create marine-based natural construction materials. Growing limestone breakwaters to safeguard islands and coastal areas from erosion and sea level rise, as well as fish and shellfish mariculture, have both been made possible with the use of rock technology. It is a special technique that enables coral reefs and other marine ecosystems, such as salt marshes, mangroves, and oyster reefs, to live and regenerate

Q50. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
b) Development of gardens Using genetically modified flora
c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Answer – C

• Miyawaki, an afforestation technique developed by the Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s is used to grow urban forests. With this method, small plots of land are transformed into miniature forests by compressing the layers of a forest—shrubs, trees, and canopies. The method involves planting two to four trees per square metre. Miyawaki forests grow in two to three years and are self-sustaining. They help lower temperatures in concrete heat islands, reduce air and noise pollution, attract local birds and insects, and create carbon sinks. As a result, after three years the plantation becomes maintenance-free, grows 10 times quicker, and is about 30 times denser

Q51. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer – C

• The Government of India Act 1919 was passed on the basis of the Montagu-Chelmsford or Montford Reforms. Subjects were divided into two lists: ‘reserved’ which included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., and ‘transferred’ subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc.
• Option 1 is correct: Law and order was a reserved subject under the Government of India Act, 1919
• Option 2 is incorrect: local government was a transferred subject under the Government of India Act, 1919.
• Option 3 is correct: Land Revenue was a reserved subject under the Government of India Act, 1919
• Option 4 is correct: Police was a reserved subject under the Government of India Act, 1919

Q52. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

a) Clothing
b) Coins
c) Ornaments
d) Weapons

Answer – B

• Coins were called by popular names such as: anna, cash, shingle, dokdo, doudou, dub, escudo, fanam, faruqi, karshapara, kas, kon, mohur, Naya paisa, pagoda, Panam, pice, pie, rupia, Suvarna, tanga, and tanka. The Fanam coins were the regular unit of currency in medieval Travancore and appear to have been extensively used for trading in the region of South India. The words Fanam and Panam literally mean money and are still used as a synonym for wealth in Kerala in the native language of Malayalam. These small gold coins weighed as little as 0.3 grams and had a diameter of less than a centimeter.

Q53. Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer – D

• Barindra Kumar Ghosh- AnushilanSamiti
• Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee- AnushilanSamiti
• Rash Behari Bose- Ghadr Party
• Hindustan Republican Association/Army or HRA (later renamed Hindustan Socialist Republican Association or HSRA). The HRA was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee and Sachin Sanyal. The first revolutionary groups in Bengal were organized in 1902 in Midnapore (under Jnanendranath Basu) and in Calcutta (the Anushilan Samiti founded by Promotha Mitter, and including Jatindranath Banerjee, Barindra Kumar Ghosh and others.) Rash Behari Bose was one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian National Movement, especially during the extremist phase. He was one of the masterminds behind the Delhi conspiracy case, participated in the Ghadar movement, and established the Indian Independence League while in Japan

Q54. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right
   to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.
• Statement 2 is correct: The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: (i) any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and (ii) the new constitution-making body and the The British government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.

Q55. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer – b

• Option 1 is incorrect: The Nettipakarana is a Buddhist scripture. Nettipakarana is a guide to help those who already understand the teaching present it to others. The Netti methods were taught by the Buddha’s disciple Kaccana (also Katyayana or Kaccayana) as approved by the Buddha and it was recited at the First Buddhist Council.
• Option 2 is correct: The Parishishtaparvan also known as the Sthaviravalicharitra is a 12th-century Sanskrit maha kavya by Hemachandra that details the histories of the earliest Jain teachers.
• Option 3 is incorrect: The Avadānaśataka (A Hundred Glorious Deeds) are Jataka Stories (Buddhist tales). The emergencies of the Avadana may have been compiled between the second Century A.D to the 11th Century A.D. The earlier products of Avadana texts like Avadana-stake, Divyavadana etc., which are of Hinayanic character and the later Avadanas like Suvarnavarnavadana, Kalpadrumavadanamala, Vratavadanamala are earmarked as Mahayanic in character. Avadanas are noncanonical Buddhist texts about previous lives and karma, for example, Divyavadana(4th century) and Avadanashataka (2nd century) written in Sanskrit. The stories are thematically o ruth of the doctrine of karma (action) and the power of religious dĀna (giving), faith, and devotion.
• Option 4 is correct: Trishashthilkshana Mahapurana is a major Jain text composed largely by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of Rashtrakuta ruler Amoghavarsha and completed by his pupil Gunabhadra in the 9th century CE. Mahapurana consists of two parts. The first part is Adi Purana written by “Acharya” Jinasena. The second part is Uttarapurana which is the section composed by Gunabhadra.

Q56. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

A historical person Known as

1. Aryadeva Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) None of the pairs
b) Only one pair
c) Only two pairs
d) All three pairs

Answer – C

• Pair 1 is incorrect: Āryadeva (3rd century), a disciple of Nāgārjuna is a central figure in the development of early Indian Madhyamaka philosophy. The Madhyamaka School of Buddhism, the followers of which are called Mādhyamikas was one of the two principal schools of Mahāyāna Buddhism
• Pair 2 is correct: Dignaga was the early 6th century Indian Buddhist Monk and was also the founder of Indian logic, Hetu Vidya. He was born in Simhavakta near Kanchipuram. Sri Ranganathamuni, popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham.
• Pair 3 is correct: Nathamuni founded a Sanskrit Tamil school at Srirangam (Tamil Nadu state), which continues to be a great Vaishnavite center in South India. Nathamuni is also the author of Yogarahasy

Q57. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of the north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer – b

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The first Mongol invasion of India took place in the reign of Sultan Shams-ud-din lltutmish. Changez Khan reached Indus during the reign of Iltutmish in 1221 AD, chasing the Khwarizmi prince Jalaluddin.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Mongols attacked at the worst time possible for Alauddin Khilji – when he was busy laying siege to Chittor. This time the Mongols traveled light. An army of 12,000 under Targhi’s leadership moved to Delhi in a swift attack; many governors could not send their troops to Delhi in time. Alauddin Khilji was forced to retreat to Siri for about two months. The Mongols attacked and pillaged not only the surrounding areas but Delhi itself. Alauddin Khilji continued to hold the fortress at Siri; Targhi withdrew the siege after a few months and left the area. Barani, a contemporary historian at that time, attributed this “marvel” to the prayers of the Sufi mystic Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Mongols did not annex the northwest part of the kingdom of Muhammadbin-Tughlaq. The next major Mongol invasion took place after the Khiljis had been replaced by the Tughlaq dynasty in the Sultanate. In 1327 the Chagatai Mongols under Tarmashirin, who had sent envoys to Delhi to negotiate peace the previous year, sacked the frontier towns of Lamghan and Multan and besieged Delhi. The Tughlaq ruler paid a large ransom to spare his Sultanate from further ravages. Muhammad bin Tughluq asked the Ilkhan Abu Sa’id to form an alliance against Tarmashirin, who had invaded Khorasan, but an attack didn’t materialize. Tarmashirin was a Buddhist who later converted to Islam. Religious tensions in the Chagatai Khanate was a divisive factor among the Mongols.

Q58. With reference to Indian history, which of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

a) Arab merchants
b) Qalandars
c) Persian calligraphists
d) Sayyids

Answer – D

• The Sayyids claim descent from the Prophet through his daughter Fatima. They Commanded special respect in Muslim society. Even the Timur protected the life of Sayyids during his invasion of India. Although his policy was one of general slaughter. The sayyids put on a pointed cap (kula) and they were known as ‘Kulah Daran’ during the Delhi

Q59. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The Dutch established their factories/ warehouses on the East Coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The first factory established by the Dutch was in Masulipatnam in 1605, whereas Gajapati’s rule lasted till the middle of the 16th century. Kapilendra, the minister of Bhanudeva IV (1414- 1435), usurped the throne in 1435 and laid the foundation of the Gajapati rule in Odisha. After Pratapa Rudra’s death (1540), his successors could hardly hold the empire intact, and the end of the Suryavamsi (Gajapati) dynasty came soon after (1542), whereas the Dutch East India The company was formed in 1602 through a charter.
• Statement 2 is correct: Albuquerque acquired Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 with ease; the principal port of the Sultan of Bijapur became “the first bit of Indian territory to be under the Europeans since the time of Alexander the Great”.
• Statement 3 is correct. The rulers of Vijayanagara appointed chieftains called Nayaks to rule independently in their areas. Darmala Venkatadri Nayaka was in charge of what is Chennai today. He gave land to the British on which they established settlements of British factory workers and merchants.

Q60. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following is correct?

1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is correct: According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, a person can be enslaved for fines of court decree which Kautilya’s Arthashastra is defined as “Dandapranita”. There are several types of enslavement that is given in Arthashastra. One of the prime methods of enslavement was to have a person as a slave as a result of judicial punishment for some sort of criminal demeanor.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, children born to a slave and master when a slave gives birth to a child, both the mother and child shall be recognized as free and were no longer considered to be slaves.
• Statement 3 is correct: If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son

Q61. Consider the following statements:

1. The tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial
   borrowing (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

• Tight monetary policy implies the Central Bank (or authority in charge of Monetary Policy) is seeking to reduce the demand for money and limit the pace of economic expansion. Central banks engage in tight monetary policy when the economy is accelerating too quickly or inflation is rising too fast and usually involves increasing interest rates.
• Statement 1 is correct: The tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve means hiking the federal funds rate–the rate at which banks lend to each other–increases borrowing rates and slows lending. Rate increases make borrowing less attractive as interest payments increase. It affects all types of borrowing including personal loans, mortgages, and interest rates on credit cards. Central Banks enact monetary policy to keep inflation, unemployment, and economic growth stable and positive. When the economy overheats central banks raise interest rates and take other contractionary measures to slow things down – this can discourage investment and depress asset prices. Thus, the tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight by the investors.
• Statement 2 is correct: The sudden stops and reversal of capital flows will lead to depreciation pressures on emerging market currencies like the rupee. When foreign investors invest in equities, bonds, and other financial assets in EMEs, they measure financial returns in the US dollar and other foreign currencies. Capital flight can drive up interest costs as there is a reduced money supply in the system. Thus, it would lead to an increase in the interest cost of firms that have external commercial borrowings.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Devaluation of domestic currency does not affect the ExternalCommercial Borrowings as it is denominated in the foreign currency and not in the domestic currency

Q62. Consider the following States:

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
a) Only one State
b) Only two States
c) Only three States
d) All four States

Answer (c)

• As per the Tea Board under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura, Kerela, and Karnataka are the states generally known as tea-producing States. Thus, option c is correct.

Q63. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

1. Statement 1 is incorrect: Credit Rating Agencies form an essential part of the financial markets. They are regulated by SEBI and not by RBI under the powers derived from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999. The SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 provide for eligibility criteria for registration of credit rating agencies, monitoring, and review of ratings, requirements for a proper rating process, avoidance of conflict of interest, and inspection of rating agencies by SEBI, amongst other things.
2. Statement 2 is correct: ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited) was set up in 1991 by leading financial/investment institutions, commercial banks, and financial services companies as an independent and professional investment Information and Credit Rating Agency with its shares listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National Stock Exchange.
3. Statement 3 is correct: Brickwork Ratings (BWR) is a SEBI-registered Indian Credit Rating Agency. It has also been accredited by RBI and offers rating services on Bank Loans, NCD, Commercial Paper, Fixed deposits, Securitized paper, Security
   receipts, etc. Brickwork Ratings has Canara Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank, as its promoter and strategic partner.

Q64. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB) which of the following statements is correct?

1. The Governor of the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends the selection of a head for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• The Banks Board Bureau is a self-governing autonomous body of the Central Government. The Central Government notified the amendment to the Nationalised Banks (Management and Miscellaneous Provisions) Scheme, 1980 providing the legal framework for the composition and functions of the Banks Board Bureau on March 23, 2016. The Bureau accordingly started functioning from April 01, 2016, as an autonomous recommendatory body.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Banks Board Bureau comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio members i.e. Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises, Secretary of the Department of Financial Services, and Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert members, two of whom are from the private sector. The Chairman is selected by the central government and the RBI governor does not head it.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Banks Board The bureau recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks and other key personnel if required. It also develops strategies for raising capital and improving the performance of PSBs

Q65. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: Issuing convertible bonds can help companies minimize negative investor sentiment that would surround equity issuance. Further, issuing convertible bonds can also help provide investors with some security in the event of default. A convertible bond protects investors’ principal on the downside, but allows them to participate in the upside should the underlying company succeed. Convertible bonds tend to offer a lower coupon rate or rate of return in exchange for the value of the option to convert the bond into a common stock. Investors will generally accept a lower coupon rate on a convertible bond, compared with the coupon rate on an otherwise identical regular bond, because of its conversion feature. This enables the issuer to save on interest expenses, which can be substantial in the case of a large bond issue.
• Statement 2 is correct: The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices as equity prices can differ widely from the given interest and the difference in that can be used as a hedge for inflation. As indexation will ensure that prices are adjusted with inflation over a period of time. With the help of indexation, bondholders will be able to lower their long-term capital gains (as their investment will be adjusted with inflation) even when converting bonds into equity, which brings down their taxable income.

Q66. Consider the following:

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

Indian is a member of which of the above?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (d)

• India is a member of all the Organizations.
• Option 1 is correct. On 24 October 2014, twenty-one countries signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) regarding the AIIB in Beijing, China: Bangladesh, Brunei, Cambodia, India, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Mongolia, Nepal, Oman, Pakistan, Philippines, Qatar, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Uzbekistan and Vietnam. The AIIB is a multilateral development bank that aims to improve economic and social outcomes in Asia. India is a member since 2016
• Option 2 is correct. India became a full member of the MTCR after a “deal” was struck with Italy. This marks the first entry into any multilateral export control regime for India. MTCR is a multilateral export control regime whose members have an informal political understanding to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. India became a member of the MTCR in 2016.
• Option 3 is correct. The SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization, created in 2001 in Shanghai (China). India became a member in 2017. The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan).

Q67. Consider the following statements:

1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest-growing economies in the world in recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time, Vietnam’s low labor costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global
   manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is correct: According to a forecast by PricewaterhouseCoopers in February 2017, Vietnam may be the fastest-growing of the world’s economies, with a potential annual GDP growth rate of about 5.1%, which would make its economy the 10th-largest in the world by 2050.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Vietnam is a Marxist–Leninist one-party state based on democratic centralism. Vietnam is a one-party communist state, not a multi-party parliamentary democracy.
• Statement 3 is correct: Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. Poverty rates declined sharply from over 32 percent in 2011 to below 2 percent today. Thanks to its solid foundations, the economy has proven resilient through different crises, the latest being COVID-19. Vietnam was one of only a few countries to post GDP growth in 2020 when the pandemic hit. Vietnam is projected to be the fastest-growing internet economy in Southeast Asia in the next 10 years.
• Statement 4 is correct: Thanks to an abundance of low-wage labor, Vietnam’s manufacturing sector grew at a compound annual growth in the last decade. As the rest of East Asia developed and wages there rose, global manufacturers were lured by Vietnam’s low labor costs and stable exchange rate. Vietnam has low labor costs and stable exchange rates which attract global investments.
• Statement 5 is Incorrect: According to the Asian Development Bank Report, e-services including digital financial services are at a very nascent stage in Vietnam. Vietnamese fintech companies raised a total of US$375 million in the first nine months of 2021, putting the country at the 3rd position in fintech investment amount across ASEAN, is behind only Singapore and Indonesia. Countries like the Philippines, Singapore and Indonesia are the forefront in e-commerce productivity.

Q68. In India which one of the following is responsible for maintaining for price stability by controlling inflation?

a) Department of Consumer Affairs
b) Expenditure Management Commission
c) Financial Stability and Development Council
d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer (d)

• The Reserve Bank of India is India’s central bank has the key function of keeping check on inflation by use of monetary policy in the forms of qualitative and quantitative measures. The Reserve Bank of India is responsible for maintaining price stability and controlling inflation. It is the responsibility of the MPC in India, but RBI itself plays a large role in the MPC and also carries out task of monetary policy committee.

Q69. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

• Non–fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with a unique identification code and metadata that distinguish them from each other.
• Statement 1 is correct. NFTs typically contain references to digital files such as photos, videos, and audio. Because NFTs are uniquely identifiable, they differ from cryptocurrencies, which are fungible. The market value of an NFT is associated with the digital file it references. Anything that can be converted into a digital form can be an NFT. Everything from your drawings, photos, videos, GIF, music, in-game items, selfies, and even a tweet can be turned into an NFT, which can then be traded online using cryptocurrency.
• Statement 2 is correct. Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other. NFTs can also function to represent individuals’ identities, property rights, and more.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency. This differs from fungible tokens like cryptocurrencies, which are identical to each other and, therefore, can serve as a medium for commercial transactions

Q70. Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs States

1. Ghataprabha Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above ate not correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pair
c) Only three pair
d) All four pair
Answer (a)

• Ghataprabha- Karnataka
• Gandhi Sagar- Madhya Pradesh
• Indira Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
• Maithon- Jharkhand

Q71. In India, which one of the following Compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

a) Central Statistics Office
b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
c) Labour Bureau
d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Answer (c)

• Labour Bureau compiles Statistics on Industrial Disputes, Closures, Retrenchments and Lay-offs in India based on the voluntary returns received every month from the Labour Departments of the States and Union Territories and the Regional Labour Commissioners

Q72. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

1. CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India.
2. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is correct. The Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted with the responsibility of carrying out the Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.
• Statement 2 is correct. It is entrusted with the task of monitoring captive mines. Work such as permission for the opening and reopening of coal mines… has been entrusted to CCO.
• Statement 3 is correct. Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957- the Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central government’s Notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. Ensuring that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time is not the function of Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO).

Q73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which is one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

a) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people.
b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer – A

• Statement (a) is correct: The Governor can make regulations for the peace and good governance of a scheduled area after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council. Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non tribal members or among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.
• Statement (b) is incorrect: The Tribal Advisory Council is an advisory body.
• Statements (c) and (d) are incorrect

Q74. Consider the following statements

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded
   by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is not correct: On June 25, 2015, the India Sanitation Coalition was established at the FICCI in New Delhi. The International Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society organizations, media, donors/bilateral/ multilateral, experts, etc. to work in the sanitation space to advance sustainable sanitation through a partnership model. These include supporting the unlocking of WASH financing with a focus on the private sector, forging partnerships with allied organizations to lead the discourse on sustainable sanitation; convening, curating and disseminating best practices in sanitation advocacy — space, and providing inputs into the policy aspects of sanitation through participation at allied forums.It is not funded by WHO.
• Statement 2 is correct. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. As a hub for the generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector. The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) was appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its urban development plans. Since then, it has worked closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast-urbanizing India, and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the future

Q75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, of 1986?

a) Central Water Commission
b) Central Ground Water Board
c) Central Ground Water Authority
d) National Water Development Agency

Answer (c)

• Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and control of groundwater development and management in the country.

Q76. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June, and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The United Nations Credentials Committee is a committee of the United Nations General Assembly.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. A Credentials The committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Committee reports to the Assembly on the credentials of representatives. The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly thereon (Rule 28 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly). The credentials of representatives and the names of members of the delegation of each Member State are submitted to the Secretary-General and are issued either by the Head of the State or Government or by the Minister for Foreign Affairs (Rule 27 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).

Q77. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their
territories in the polar region.
c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies In the North Pole and South Pole.
d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer (a)

• Polar Code is International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters. The Polar Code covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles. It is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL). The Polar Code covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles. The Polar Code entered into force on 1 January 2017.

Q78. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements :

1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status in the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organizations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observes in the UN General The assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

• Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member states, international organizations, and other entities Permanent Observer Status. However, The UN Charter and the General Assembly Rules of Procedure have no provisions related to granting permanent observer status and is based on practice only.
• Statement 2 is correct: The General Assembly decided that observer status would be confined to States and intergovernmental organizations whose activities cover matters of interest to the Assembly.
• Statement 3 is correct: Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters. A list of non-member States, entities and organizations can receive a standing invitation to participate as observers in the sessions and the work of the General Assembly. Permanent Observers have free access to most meetings and relevant documentation.

Q79. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has an overseas office in Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

Answer (d)

• Statement 1 is correct: The Tea Board of India is a statutory body created under the Tea Act, 1953 and it was established for the purposes of regulating the Indian tea industry and protecting the interests of tea producers in India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce. The Board is constituted of 31 members (including the Chairman) drawn from Members of Parliament, tea producers, tea traders, tea brokers, consumers, and representatives of Governments from the principal tea-producing states, and trade unions. The Board is reconstituted every three years.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Tea Board of India’s Head Office is situated in Kolkata.
• Statement 4 is correct: The Tea Board of India has overseas offices in Moscow, Dubai, Hamburg, London, and New York. Moscow office. The Moscow office of the Tea Board of India operates under the Embassy of India, and its area of activity includes Russia and the CIS countries, which comprise 50% of Indian tea exports. All these foreign offices of the Board are designed to undertake various promotional measures to boost up export of Indian tea. These offices also act as liaison offices for interaction between importers of Indian tea of the respective regions as well as Indian Exporters

Q80. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing:”?

a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/program

Answer – A

• Greenwashing is when a company purports to be environmentally conscious for marketing purposes but actually isn’t making any notable sustainability efforts. It is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound. Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly

Q81. Consider the following statements :

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface
   and thus cause a warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth

Q82. Consider the following statements:

1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in northwestern Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from the South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia
   live in the Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer (c)

• Bidibidi became the World’s second-largest refugee settlement in the World and the biggest in Africa.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is located in the West Nile Area of Uganda and is home to over 270,000 South Sudanese refugees — the second largest refugee settlement in the world.
• Statement 2 is correct: Bidibidi is home to more than 270,000 refugees mostly from South Sudan. The Uganda Government and other NGOs have worked to create a settlement rather than a camp to host and contain the influx of the growing number of asylum seekers from South Sudan.
• Statement 3 is correct: Dadaab refugee (Kenya) the complex consists of three camps. The three Dadaab camps are Dagahaley, Ifo and Hagadera. The first two are located in Lagdera (Dadaab) district while Hagadera is located in the neighboring Fafi district. The first camp was established in 1991, when refugees fleeing the civil war in Somalia started to cross the border into Kenya. A second large influx occurred in 2011, when some 130,000 refugees arrived, fleeing drought and famine in southern Somalia. Humanitarian assistance at the camp has waned in the last few months following Kenya’s announcement that it will close the camps in June 2022

Q83. Consider the following countries

1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 5
d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer (c)

• Organization of Turkic States (then called the Cooperation Council of Turkic-speaking States – Turkic Council) was established in 2009 as an intergovernmental organization, with the the overarching aim of promoting comprehensive cooperation among Turkic States. Its four founding member states are Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Turkey. During the 7thSummit held in Baku in October 2019, Uzbekistan joined as a full member

Q84. Consider the following statements:

1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar-powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Rajasthan tops the list of solar park installations in the country followed by Karnataka and then Andhra Pradesh. Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan, with a capacity of 2245 MW, is the world’s largest solar park.
• Statement 2 is correct: Cochin International Airport, India’s first airport built under a public-private-partnership (PPP) model, becomes the first airport in the world that operates completely on solar power. This plant is the first Megawatt scale installation of a Solar PV system in the State of Kerala
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Andhra Pradesh is now home to India’s largest floating solar power plant. State-run NTPC started operations at India’s largest floating solar PV project at its Simhadri thermal station in Visakhapatnam.

Q85. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not
   exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the
   convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or landlocked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline
   from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

• Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is an international agreement that establishes a legal framework for all marine and maritime activities. Every State has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baselines determined in accordance with this Convention.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 17 under section 3 of United Nations Conventions (UNCLOS) ships of all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the rights of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
• Statement 3 is correct: The 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) defines an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). It is an area that shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines. The EEZ is measured from the breadth of the territorial sea.

Q86. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with the Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around the South China Sea.
b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the East China Sea.
c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defense capabilities.
d) Though the International Court, of Justice, declared them as no man’s land, some Southeast Asian countries claim them.

Answer (b)

• Senkaku Islands are a group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea. Japan and China claim the uninhabited islands, known as the Senkaku in Japan and Tiaoyu in China, as their own, but Japan has administered them since The Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands were formally claimed by Japan in 1895. After Japan’s defeat in World War II, the island chain was controlled by the US until 1971 before its return. Since then, Japan has administered the island chains. China began to reassert claims over the Senkaku/ Diaoyu Islands in the 1970s, citing historic rights to the area. However, Japan does not recognise Chinese claims

Q87. Consider the following pairs:

Country Important reason for being in the news recently

1. Chad Setting up of permanent military base by China
2. Guinea Suspension of Constitution and Government by Military
3. Lebanon’s Severe and prolonged economic depression
4. Tunisia Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer – C

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: China established its first, and so far only, an overseas military base in the eastern African nation of Djibouti in 2017. The facility is strategically located near the Bab el-Mandeb Strait linking the Indian Ocean and the Red Sea. A permanent Chinese military installation in Equatorial Guinea is the culmination of nearly a decade’s investment in Africa – and will not be the last of such bases on the continent’s Atlantic coast.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Guinean special forces in September 2021 staged a coup, capturing President Alpha Conde and announcing a nationwide curfew “until further notice” as well as the replacement of governors by the military. After putting Guinea back under military rule for the first time in over a decade, the junta said Guinea’s governors were to be replaced by regional commanders. A nightly curfew was put in place, and the country’s constitution and National Assembly were both dissolved.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Lebanon’s severe and prolonged economic depression is, according to the World Bank, ‘likely to rank in the top 10, possibly top 3, most severe crisis episodes globally since the mid-nineteenth century.
• Pair 4 is correctly matched: Tunisian President Kais Saied on March 2022 announced that he was dissolving the suspended parliament. The decision came after 124 of 217 members of parliament held an online meeting despite the suspension. Tunisian President Kais Saied slammed what he called a “failed coup attempt” after lawmakers convened online and voted to repeal presidential decrees that gave him near-total power

Q88. Consider the following pairs:

The region often mentioned Country in the news

1. Anatolia Turkey
2. Amhara Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado Spain
4. Catalonia Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer (b)

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Anatolia also called Asia Minor, the peninsula of land that today constitutes the Asian portion of Turkey. Because of its location at the point where the continents of Asia and Europe meet, Anatolia was, from the beginnings of civilization, a crossroads for numerous peoples migrating or conquering from either continent.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Amhara Region is a regional state in northern Ethiopia and the homeland of the Amhara people. Its capital is Bahir Dar which is the seat of the Regional Government of Amhara. Amhara is bordered by Sudan to the west and northwest and by other regions of Ethiopia: Tigray to the north, Afar to the east, Benishangul-Gumuz to the west and southwest, and Oromia to the south.
• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique (not Spain). The region is an ethnic stronghold of the Makonde tribe, with the Makua and Mwani as leading ethnic minorities.

• Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the northeastern corner of Spain (not Italy). Catalonia was formerly a principality of the crown of Aragon and it has played an important role in the history of the Iberian Peninsula. From the 17th century, it was the center of a separatist movement that sometimes dominated Spanish affairs

Q89. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer – A

• Statement 1 is correct: According to the Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972, any wild animal that is hunted—aside from vermin—belongs to the State Government. If the animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National Park that The central Government has designated, the animal—or any animal-related item—belongs to the Central Government. The Bombay High Court declared in a major decision in 2012 that wild animals, including the tiger, should be recognized as “government property for all purposes.”
• Statement 2 is correct: The law governing the subject of wildlife, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State. This provision is applicable to wild animals listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which includes leopards. Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing

Q90. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

a) Ant
b) Cockroach
c) Crab
d) Spider

Answer (a)

• Such groups of ants are found across the American continents and the West Indies. These ants are known as fungus growers because they maintain an obligate mutualism with fungi cultured inside their nests, which is the only food source for the larvae and an important resource for the adult ants as well

Q91. Consider the following pairs:

Site of Ashoka’s major Location in the State of Rock Edicts

1. Dhauli Odisha
2. Erragudi Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched:
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer (b)

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Dhauli Rock edict is located in Haul Hills, close to 10 kms from Bhubneshwar in Odisha. The edicts are engraved on a large peace of rock, written in Pali. The rock the edict is located near the historical sight of the Kalinga war which is said to have transformed Samrat Ashok
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Erragudi or Yerragudi rock edict is located in Kurnool district in Andhra Pradesh. The inscriptions were one of the important treasures of Mouryan king Ashoka (269-231 BCE) falling under major and minor rock inscriptions.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Jaugada is the second place in Odisha where there is a major Ashokan rock edict. Ashoka’s inscription in Jaugada is on a rock face about 30 feet long and 15 feet high. The rock edict inscriptions, engraved in Prakrit language in Brahmi script, have information about the better administrative policies based on Ashoka’s humanitarian consideration.
• Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Kalsi is a small town located in between Chakrata and Dehradun on the banks of Yamuna River in Uttarakhand. The site of Ashoka’s inscriptions at Kalsi is singularly unique as it is the only place in North India where the great Mauryan emperor has inscribed the set of the 14 rock edicts.

Q92. Consider the following pairs:

King Dynasty

1. Nanuka Chandela
2. Jayashakti Parmara
3. Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched:
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer – B

• Pair 1 is correct: In the first quarter of the 9th century CE, the Chandella dynasty was founded by Nannuka, who was the ruler of a small kingdom and established his capital at Kharjjuravahaka (Khajuraho). The Chandela or Chandel was Indian Rajput clan of Central India. They were popularly termed as Chandelas or Jejakabhukti dynasty in Indian history.
• Pair 2 is incorrect: Jayashakti and Vijayashakti (c. 865−885 CE): Vakpati’s sons Jayashakti (Jeja) and Vijayashakti (Vija) consolidated the Chandella power. Jaishakti, the elder brother who ruled first, was also called Jai Jak and from this name, the region ruled by the Chandelas acquired the name of Jaijikbhukti. He was succeeded on the throne by his younger brother, Vijayshakti.
• Pair 3 is correct: The Pratiharas were also known as the Gurjara−Pratiharas, as they originated from the Gurjaras who were primarily pastoralists and fighters. Nagabhata II (reigned c. 793–833) was Vatsaraja’s successor, he reorganized Pratihara power and attacked Kannauj. However, soon afterward he was defeated by the Rashtrakuta king Govinda III (reigned 793–814). Nagabhatta II was succeeded by his son Ramabhadra, who ruled briefly and was succeeded, by his son Mihira Bhoja.
• Pair 4 is incorrect: Dantidurga was the founder of the dynasty called, Rashtrakuta dynasty (8th century AD). The capital of the Rastrakutas was Manyakheta or Malkhed near Sholapur. Dhruva-I, Krishna-I and Amoghavarsha were the other important rulers of this dynasty. Bhoja I / Mihir Bhoja (c.836−885 CE) Grandson of Nagabhatta II, who had a long reign of over 46 years and proved to be the most successful and popular ruler of Pratiharas.

Q93. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics.
d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Answer – B

• The Sangam age refers to that period in the early history of south India when large numbers of poems in Tamil were composed by a number of authors. . The term Sangam refers to an assembly or “meeting together” of Tamil poets.
• Statement a is incorrect: Sangam poems contain several incidental references to material culture, often as part of the poem’s setting or in similes and allusions.
• Statement b is correct: There is mention of the Arashar (kings), Vaishiyar (traders), and Velalar (farmers). The Brahmanas are also mentioned, some of them closely associated with the courts of kings and patronized by ruling elites.
• Statement c is incorrect: Sangam Poems are pervaded with a warrior ethic. Puram in Sangam literature are the War Poems that deal with the outer life of people. Speak of public celebration of the feats of the heroes even the death of heroes in wars.
• Statement d is incorrect: Sangam literature reflects a belief in sacred or magical forces called ananke that was supposed to inhabit various objects. The job of carrying out rites an rituals to control the ranks was that of groups such as the pariyans, tuitions, panas and vegans.

Q94. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

a) Akbar
b) Humayun
c) Shajahan
d) Aurangzeb

Answer (a)

• The book has been dated between the 11th and 14th century AD and is generally regarded as one of the longest texts in Sanskrit (after the Mahabharata) and an important text of Yoga. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of Akbar.

Q95. The world’s second tallest statue in the sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja

a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

Answer (a)

Ramanuja

• He was born in Tamil Nadu in the eleventh century. He was deeply influenced by the Alvars. He firmly believed that intense devotion to Vishnu was the best means to attain salvation. He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita.
• Vishishtadvaita is formed by the two words: visit meaning qualified and advaita meaning oneness of the individual soul and the Supreme God. In other words, it means qualified oneness wherein the soul, even when united with the Supreme God, remained distinct.
• The new strand of bhakti that developed in North India subsequently was greatly inspired by Ramanujam’s doctrine.

Q96. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somanath Temple at Verval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratistha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by resident S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- A

• Statement 1 is correct. Somnath is a magnificent temple the location of Somanatha was earlier referred to as Prathasa Pattana, a well-known Tirtha or place of pilgrimage in Saurashtra. It is situated on the west coast of Kathiawar and is at present under Junagadh. It was associated with the nearby confluence of three rivers and it adjoined the port of Veraval. One of the 12 holy Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva is in Jyotirlinga here in Somnath. The site, which was part of the erstwhile princely state of Junagadh was also connected to Lord Krishna. The political history of the shrine is traced back to a thousand years when in 1024 CE, during the reign of the Chalukya king Bhima I it was attacked by Turkik ruler Mahmud of Ghazni.
• Statement 2 is correct. A description of the temple by Al-Biruni, an Arab traveler, was so glowing that it prompted a visit in 1024 by Mahmud of Ghazni.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. India’s Iron Man and First Deputy Prime Minister Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel on November 13, 1947, promised to rebuild the temple. Today’s Somnath Temple is built on its original place in seventh place. In 1951, India’s first President Dr. Rajendra Prasad proposed to purify Jyotirling, he said, “This temple of Somnath is a symbol of victory over construction on destruction”. Then President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, did the PranPratistha at the existing temple on 11 May 1951.

Q97. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.
b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Answer – D

• Ptreg cells generation is influenced by a specific type of TCR signaling, and costimulation, and through cooperation with other signals, such as TGF-β, IL-2, and ATRA. These conditions suggest that pTreg cell differentiation could be restricted to precise locations such as mucosal surfaces where they may regulate immune responses to harmless antigens such as commensal microbiota and prevent allergic inflammation. Supporting these ideas, “studies using Rag-1-deficient T-B monoclonal mice sufficient or deficient in FOXP3 demonstrated that TCR transgenic pTreg cells were sufficient to establish mucosal tolerance and control allergic inflammation induced by the model antigen recognized by the TCR”

Q98. Consider the following statements:

1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products that enter the environment are unsafe for
   humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

Answer – D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Naturally occurring nanoparticles can be found in volcanic ash, ocean spray, fine sand and dust, and even biological matter (e.g. viruses).
• Statement 2 is correct: The cosmetics are formulated by using different types of metal and metal oxide nanoparticles such as silver nanoparticles (AgNPs), gold nanoparticles (AuNPs) and titanium dioxide nanoparticles (TiO2 NPs), zinc oxide nanoparticles, (ZnO NPs), iron oxide nanoparticles, (Fe2O3 NPs) and carbon-based NPs.
• Statement 3 is correct: One of the crucial issues that have to be addressed in the near future, before the massive fabrication of nanomaterials,is their toxicity to humans and impact on the environment. Plastic soup at the ocean bottom and finding microplastic in blood are some examples.

Q99. Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

1. Assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. Distinguish among species that look alike.
3. Identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

Answer – D

• DNA barcoding is a method of species identification using a short section of DNA from a specific gene or genes.
• Option 1 is incorrect: Geologists use the Carbon Dating method Carbon-14 to measure the age of plant and animal remains from the more recent past.
• Option 2 is correct: DNA barcodes allow non-experts to objectively identify species. The unique pattern of bars in a universal product code (UPC) identifies each consumer product, a “DNA barcode” is a unique pattern of DNA sequence that can potentially identify each living thing.
• Option 3 is correct. cpDNA and mtDNA barcoding protocols are being used more and more in the food industry and food supply chains for food labeling, not only to support food safety but also to uncover food piracy in freshly commercialized and technologically processed products. DNA barcoding helps to identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Q100. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulfur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/ are the cause(s) of acid rain?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer (b)

• The pollutants, Sulphur dioxide, and nitrogen oxide which are released by the burning of coal and petroleum products combine with moisture in ‘the air and rainwater and produce Sulphuric acid and nitric acid respectively and fall along with the rain called acid rain.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

FAQ 1: What is the pattern of the UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper 1 consists of objective-type multiple-choice questions. It covers diverse subjects such as History, Geography, Polity, Economics, Environment, and Current Affairs. The total marks for the paper are 200, and it is designed to test candidates’ knowledge and understanding of a wide range of topics.

FAQ 2: How many questions can candidates expect in the UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2022 typically comprises 100 to 150 questions. The exact number may vary each year. Candidates need to answer all the questions within a specified time limit, usually two hours.

FAQ 3: Is there negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: Yes, there is negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper 1. For each incorrect answer, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question are deducted. However, there is no negative marking for unanswered questions.

FAQ 4: What is the role of the UPSC Prelims 2022 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2022 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1 is a crucial resource for candidates. It provides the correct answers to all the questions asked in the exam. Candidates can use the answer key to estimate their probable scores and identify areas where they need improvement. It also serves as a valuable tool for self-assessment.

FAQ 5: How can candidates access the UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key is usually made available on the official UPSC website after the examination. Candidates can download the answer key and compare it with their responses to calculate their expected scores. Additionally, coaching institutes and educational websites often release unofficial answer keys shortly after the exam for quick reference, but candidates are advised to rely on the official answer key for accurate information.

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