UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper with Answer Key – General Studies Paper 1

As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2021 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1

UPSC Prelims 2021 Exam

The UPSC Prelims exam is a tough phase in the Civil Services Examination, serving as an entry point to desirable positions like Indian Administrative Services (IAS) and Indian Police Services (IPS). It is set to happen on Oct 5, 2021, with two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam is from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM10to 4:30 PM

The Importance of Previous Year Question Papers

To do well in the UPSC Prelims, candidates need more than just a solid grasp of concepts; they should also know the exam pattern, question formats, and time management strategies. A highly effective method for achieving this is to study the previous year’s question papers. These papers offer valuable insights into the exam’s format, level of difficulty, and the kinds of questions typically posed.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2021 – Available on Edukemy’s Website

Candidates eagerly anticipating the UPSC Prelims question papers don’t need to look everywhere. Soon after the exam, you can find the General Studies Paper 1 question papers on Edukemy’s website. Aspirants can effortlessly get and save the UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Papers in PDF format from our platform.

Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions

Q1. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because

a) it is dipolar in nature
b) it is a good conductor of heat
c) it has a high value of specific heat
d) it is an oxide of hydrogen

Answer: (a)

• Because it can dissolve more things than any other liquid, water is known as the “universal solvent”. Each and every living thing on the planet needs this. It implies that water transports valuable chemicals, minerals, and nutrients wherever it goes, whether through the air, the earth, or our bodies.
• The chemical makeup and physical characteristics of water are what make it such a good solvent. Oxygen and hydrogen atoms are arranged polarly in water molecules, with hydrogen having a positive electrical charge and oxygen having a negative charge. This makes it possible for the water molecule to attract a wide range of other molecular species.
• Water can develop a strong attraction to another substance, such as salt (NaCl), to the point where it can interfere with the attractive forces holding the sodium and chloride in the salt complex together and dissolve it.

Q2. With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?

1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
2. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps.
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant color advantages in street lighting.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• The first statement is true. Sodium lamps emit light in all directions, whereas LED bulbs do not. The 180-degree bulb angle of LED lamps maintains light efficiency and enables area-target lighting.
• The second claim is untrue. As street lights, sodium lamps typically last less time than LED bulbs. High-pressure sodium lamps typically last for 24,000 hours on average. While the lifespan of an LED lamp is between 25,000 and 200,000 hours.
• The third statement is true. Due to their well-known warm yellow glow, sodium lamps provide almost monochromatic visible light. However, when it comes to street lighting, LED bulbs have substantial color advantages. Better illumination options are provided by LEDs’ range of color possibilities.

Q3. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of

a) genes introduced in genetically modified plants
b) development of India’s own satellite navigation system
c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
d) spread of viral diseases

Answer: (d)

• Many different cell types have the protein known as ACE2 (angiotensin-converting enzyme). By breaking down the bigger protein angiotensinogen, it is an enzyme that produces smaller proteins that later control cellular processes. Before entering cells and infecting them, the SARS-CoV-2 virus attaches to ACE2 with the help of the spike-like protein on its surface. As a result, ACE2 serves as a receptor and cellular entry point for the virus that causes COVID-19. Many scientists are concentrating their efforts on a particular protein that the COVID-19 virus uses to infect human cells in their search for cures.

Q4. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/ key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics?

a) Low-density polyethylene
b) Polycarbonate
c) Polyethylene terephthalate
d) Polyvinyl chloride

Answer – B

• Polycarbonate plastic is created using a chemical called bisphenol A (BPA). Hard plastic products like infant bottles, reusable water bottles, food containers, pitchers, dinnerware, and other storage containers are made of polycarbonate plastic. Epoxy resins are also made with BPA. The interior of metal including food cans, bottle caps, and water supply pipes is lined with epoxy resin. Epoxy linings are used to prevent food contamination or container material corrosion. After curing, small levels of BPA may still be present in polycarbonate items and epoxy linings and may leach into food and beverages. The main source of BPA exposure seems to be epoxy-lined cans and foods and drinks kept or cooked in polycarbonate containers

Q5. ‘Triclosan’, considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?

a) Food preservatives
b) Fruit-ripening substances
c) Reused plastic containers
d) Toiletries

Answer: (d)

• A common component used in consumer products is triclosan, which is added to lessen or stop bacterial contamination. It is a component of certain toothpaste, antibacterial soaps and body washes, and cosmetic products.
• According to several short-term animal experiments, thyroid hormone levels can drop after being exposed to large amounts of triclosan. Several short-term animal experiments show that thyroid hormone levels can drop after exposure According to other studies, triclosan exposure may be a factor in the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. To determine the degree of risk that triclosan poses for the emergence of antibiotic resistance, we currently lack sufficient data.

Q6. Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?

a) Distances among stellar bodies do not change.
b) The gravity of stellar bodies does not change.
c) Light always travels in a straight line.
d) The speed of light is always the same.

Answer: (d)

• Space distance is measured in terms of light years Light-years are used to measure astronomical distances because light travels at a constant speed throughout the cosmos and is extremely precise. Light moves at a speed of 670,616,629 mph (1,079,252,849 km/h) in a vacuum. You multiply this speed by the number of hours in a year to calculate the distance of a light-year (8,766). The answer is that 5,878,625,370,000 miles make up one light-year (9.5 trillion km).
• This can appear to be a very far distance at first, but the vastness of the universe dwarfs it. Astronomers can establish how far back in time they are looking by measuring in light-years. Everything we see in the night sky has time to travel through our eyes because light takes time to do so.

Q7. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

• Statement 1 is correct: Parliamentary sovereignty is the most important part of the UK constitution. It makes the UK’s Parliament the supreme legal authority that can create or end any law. Therefore, the UK constitution is often described as ‘partly written and wholly uncodified’. (Uncodified means that the UK does not have a single, written constitution.)
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976, curtails both directly and indirectly, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to review the constitutionality of laws. The Constitution of India is been formed on the principles of the rule of law, so the Legislature in India

Q8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated
   solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the
   Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s
   charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar, in his Report namely ‘Reorganization of the Machinery of Central Government’ in 1950 recommended for the grouping of ministries, improvement of the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the O&M Division. It was a 7-member drafting committee appointed on August 29, 1947.
• Statement 2 is correct: On the basis of the recommendations of ARC, DoPT was set under the Cabinet Secretary. Since the Cabinet Secretary falls under the PM’s charge, it can be concluded that DoPT was under the PM’s charge.

Q9. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

a) Article 15
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 29

Answer: (c)

• According to Article 21, the Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. The nine-judge Constitutional A bench of the Supreme Court in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union Of India And Ors (2017) has ruled that individual privacy is intrinsic to life and liberty and an inherent part of the fundamental rights enshrined in Article 21 of the Constitution.

Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies
   vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

Answer -B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Section 33(7) of the RPA,1951 one candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (In 1996, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, was amended which restricted the number of seats one candidate could contest in one election to two constituencies).
• Statement 2 is correct: In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India (ECI) bears the cost of elections/bye-elections in all the constituencies in Lok Sabha and assembly elections as well

Q11. The vegetation of the savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions?

1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 4 and 5
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 5

Answer – C

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The savanna landscape is typified by tall grass and short trees. Here it depends on grazing intensity and not the burrowing animals or termites. The savanna is the home of wild animals. Usually, there are two main groups of animals in the savanna – the grass-eating herbivorous animals (giraffes, dear, elephants) and the flesh-eating carnivorous animals (lion, tiger, leopard, Panther). There are hardly any burrowing animals or termites.
• Statement 2 is correct: Bush fires are common in Savannah because of the alternate wet and dry seasons which can modify the forest.
• Statement 3 is correct: Due to the presence of a large number of grass-eating herbivorous animals, grazing intensity is a major reason for the type of Savanna; so grazing herbivores do contribute to keeping a check on forests.
• Statement 4 is correct: Sudan’s type of climate is characterized by the alternate hot rainy season and cool dry season. Hence drought due to the seasonal nature of rainfall contributes to keeping the forests in check.

Q12. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Of the total freshwater 69% resides in glaciers, 30% underground, and less than 1% is located in lakes, rivers, and swamps. Thus, the amount of water in rivers and lakes is less than the amount of groundwater.
• Statement 2 is correct. Of the total freshwater, 69% resides in glaciers and 30% underground. Polar ice caps and glaciers have more water than groundwater

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. The tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Moringa Oleifera is a medium-sized evergreen tree that is native to Africa and Asia. Also known as The Moringa Tree, the Drumstick Tree or The Miracle Tree. This is non-leguminous tree.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Tamarind, (Tamarindus India), an evergreen tree of the pea family (Fabaceae), native to tropical Africa.
• Statement 3 is correct. Tamarind is collected mostly as a minor forest produce in India.
• Statement 4 is correct. India exports tamarind and moringa seeds to the US, Germany, China, Canada, South Korea, and other European countries.
• Statement 5 is correct. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used for biofuel. The oil from the Moringa tree is considered to be a more sustainable biodiesel feedstock than jatropha oil.

Q14. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of

a) brown forest soil
b) fissure volcanic rock
c) granite and schist
d) shale and limestone

Answer: (b)

Black Cotton Soil

• Black soils are derivatives of Deccan trap lava and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.
• Black soil in India is formed by the weathering of fissure volcanic rock.
• The Deccan trap, which is the source of the black soils is a basaltic province formed during the hot spot volcanism when the Indian plate was above the Reunion island about 66 million years ago.
• Climatic condition along with the parent rock material is an important factor for the formation of black soil. Black soils are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock. These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.

Q15. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:

1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

• The first statement is true. Recombinant vector vaccines are developed through genetic engineering. Genetic engineering uses methods to introduce altered DNA and RNA into host species, altering the phenotype of the host organism in the process. Recombinant DNA production, gene cloning, and gene transfer are examples of genetic engineering techniques.
• The second claim is true. Viral or bacterial vectors are used to create recombinant vaccines. They serve as entrance points into the host organisms.

Q16. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:

1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial
   replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

• The first statement is true. The idea behind mitochondrial replacement treatment (MRT), a type of reproductive in vitro fertilization (IVF), is to replace a woman’s damaged mitochondrial DNA (mt-DNA) with a healthy copy from a donor. MRT uses a variety of procedures, such as polar body transfer, pronuclear transfer, and spindle transfer (ST) (PBT).
• A crucial method of MRT used after fertilization is the pronuclear transfer procedure, in which two zygotes are developed in vitro.
• Prenatal diagnostic and pre-implantation genetic diagnosis are forms of selective reproduction, as is the maternal spindle transfer (MST) procedure, which is used prior to fertilization (PGD)
• The second claim is true. In animals, mitochondria are the only organelle that both houses a gene and contains DNA in circular form, together with the nucleus. Very few mitochondria and mitochondrial genes can be found in sperm. Therefore, the mitochondrial genes in the offspring are passed down from the mother. As a result, a father who has a mitochondrial gene deficiency cannot pass the illness on to his children.

Q17. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of

a) clonal propagation of crop plants
b) developing genetically modified crop plants
c) production of plant growth substances
d) production of biofertilizers

Answer: (b)

• Genetically engineered crop plants are developed with the assistance of Bollgard1 and Bollgard2. Bollgard Cotton has built-in defenses against devastating Bollworm infestations and contains an insecticidal protein from a Bacillus thuringiensis, a naturally occurring soil microbe (Bt).
• The first biotech crop technology approved for commercialization in India in 2002 is Bollgard Bt cotton (single-gene technology). The enhanced double-gene Cry1Ac and Cry2Ab technology found in Bollgard II technology offers defense against bollworms and Spodoptera caterpillars.

Q18. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?

1. Area of the hole in the lid
2. Temperature of the flame
3. Weight of the lid

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Q19. Consider the following:

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

• The first statement is true. Synthetic culture media can be used to cultivate bacteria. Researchers have constructed a synthetic genome that is four times bigger and much more complicated than any that has ever been produced by rewriting the DNA of the bacterium Escherichia coli.
• The second claim is true. In artificial culture media, fungi can grow. Aspergillus fumigatus, Alternaria, Penicillium notatum, and
• Cladosporium herbarium were four significant fungi for allergology that were cultivated on a pure synthetic media. The third statement is untrue. Because viruses have no internal metabolic machinery and must replicate entirely within the host cell,they cannot be cultured in artificial culture conditions.

Q20. Consider the following statements:

1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a
   retrovirus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• Adenoviruses are a family of widespread viruses that affect your brain system, intestines, urinary tract, eyes, and airways. Fever, coughing, sore throats, diarrhea, and pink eye are all frequently brought on by them. Children are more likely than adults to contract infections, but everyone can.
• The first claim is untrue. While retroviruses are made of single-stranded DNA, the adenovirus genome is a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA.
• The second claim is true. Adenoviruses are the cause of the common cold. Retroviruses are the source of HIV. Because it has reverse transcriptase, HIV is considered a retrovirus. A member of the lentivirus family, it is a D-ty

Q21. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments
   made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the
   unauthorized colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2

d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. Many countries may not prove that there’s an agreed “right” to city. Therefore, the first statement may be wrong.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, transform, govern and enjoy cities, towns and human settlements that are just, inclusive, safe, sustainable, and democratic, defined as common goods for enjoying life with dignity and peace. The right to the city further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim, defend, and promote this right

Q22. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such The accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate and is locked up in jail In Police custody, the accused is lodged in police station and the police has physical custody of the accused.
• Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure governs the provisions for custody in India. As per rules, the first thing that happens to a suspect when arrested is that he is taken into police custody, following which he is to be taken before a magistrate. From there, he may either be remanded to judicial custody or be sent back into police custody.
• Statement 2 is correct. During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation is necessary under the facts produced before the court. However, during police custody, the police officer in charge of the case may interrogate the suspect

Q23. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with suspension of the sentence. It is a privilege/concession but not a right of any convicted prisoner. Parole is to be granted only on a sufficient cause such as cases of severe illness or death of any member of the prisoner’s family. The granting authority for parole is the deputy home secretary of the state government. Parole may be denied to a prisoner even when he makes out the sufficient cause for release on parole Furlough is seen as a matter of right for a prisoner, tobe granted periodically irrespective of any reason. It is granted merely to enable the prisoner to retain family and social ties, the ill effects of prolonged time spent in prison. Both Parole and Furlough can be denied if the competent authority is of the opinion that releasing the inmate would not be in the interest of society.
• Statement 2 is correct: States have separate prison/parole rules because “Prison and persons detained” is a state subject of the 7th schedule of the Constitution. The management and administration of prisons fall exclusively in the the domain of state governments and are governed by the Prisons Act, of 1894, and the Prison Manuals of the respective state governments

Q24. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer: (a)

• The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. The ministry deals with forest and livelihood objectives at the national level.
• Forest Rights Act,2006?
• The Act recognizes and vests the forest rights and occupation in Forest land in Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD) who have been residing in such forests for generations. Forest rights can also be claimed by any member or a community who has for at least three generations (75 years) prior to the 13th day of December 2005 primarily resided in forest land for bona fide livelihood needs.
• It strengthens the conservation regime of the forests while ensuring the livelihood and food security of the FDST and OTFD. The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of Individual Forest Rights (IFR) or Community Forest Rights (CFR) or both that may be given to FDST and OTFD

Q25. Legislation that confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India?

a) Article 14
b) Article 28
c) Article 32
d) Article 44

Answer: (a)

• Article 14 of the Indian Constitution says that the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the
• concept of ‘Rule of Law’. This concept has the following three elements or aspects:
• Absence of arbitrary power
• Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary law of the land The constitution is the result of the rights of the individual.
• Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion. It provides that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. Further, no person attending any educational institution recognized by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to attend any religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consent.
• Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated. Under this article,the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights of the citizens. It confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen.
• Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that the “State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”.

Q26. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer: (a)

• The establishment of an independent judiciary indicates the federal character of Indian polity. The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states.
• Key features of Federalism
• There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
• Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation, and administration. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the Constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed. The fundamental provisions of the Constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both levels of government. Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers

Q27. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
b) A politically organized people of a definite territory possessing the authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights, and safeguard their means of sustenance
c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition, and government
d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority, and an independent judiciary

Answer: (a)

• According to Max Weber, a State is a human community that claims the monopoly of the legitimate use of physical force within a given territory. It alone has the prerogative of making laws. The lawmaking power derives from sovereignty, which is the most distinctive characteristic of the State. The state possesses a government that has the authority to enforce a system of rules over the people living inside it. That system of rules is commonly composed of a constitution, statutes, regulations, and common law.

Q28. With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only with the previous consent of the President and also of the person to be so appointed. Such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine. He will also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers, and privileges of a judge of the Supreme Court.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 226 Of the Constitution, the High Court can review its own judgment being a Court of Record. The Kerala High Court has iterated the legal proposition that High Courts as Courts of Record could review their own orders. A Division Bench of Chief Justice S Manikumar and Shaji P Chaly were confronted with an appeal against a review petit

Q29. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only ‘one citizenship and one domicile’.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Exp:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution provides for only a single citizenship, that is, Indian citizenship. There is no separate state citizenship and when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. In 2010, the Uttarakhand High Court declared that there is no separate domicile for each State and there is only one domicile for the entire country.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Citizenship Act offers other categories of citizenship like Citizenship by Registration (Section 5) and Citizenship by Naturalisation (Section 6). In India, both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President. This is different from the USA, where only a citizen by birth (and not a naturalized citizen) is eligible for the office of the President.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: A foreigner, who has been earlier granted Indian citizenship, can be deprived of his citizenship on the basis of, whether the registration or certificate of naturalization was obtained by “means of fraud, false representation or the concealment of a material fact; or that citizen has shown himself by act or speech to be disloyal or disaffected towards the Constitution of India as by law established; or that citizen has, during any war in which India may be engaged, unlawfully traded or communicated with an enemy; or that citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for a continuous period of seven years”, that person’s citizenship can be canceled.

Q30. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

a) A committed judiciary
b) Centralization of powers
c) Elected government
d) Separation of powers

Answer: (d)

• Separation of powers: It is the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government. It minimizes the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the government since the sanction of all three branches is required for the making, executing, and administering of laws. The constitutional demarcation precludes the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. In the liberal approach which is inherent in democracy, all forms of power are rooted in the will of the people. Separation of powers should be secured between the legislature and the executive.
• The judiciary should be separated from these. Any concentration or combination of these powers can be dangerous for Liberty. The Executive should not exercise the legislative or judicial powers because this may threaten the freedom and liberty of individuals. The Legislative should never exercise the executive or judicial powers as this may lead to arbitrariness and hence, end the liberty. The Judiciary should not exercise the executive or legislative powers because then a judge would behave like a dictator. Constitutional Provisions Ensuring Separation of Power
• Article 50: The state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive.
• Article 121 and 211: Judicial conduct of a judge of the Supreme Court and the High Courts cannot be discussed in the Parliament and the
• State Legislature.
• Article 122 and 212: The validity of proceedings in Parliament and the Legislatures cannot be called into question in any Court.
• Article 361: The President or the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office

Q31. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?

1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre-dominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause an increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such
   the phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
4. The practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in
   conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 4 only
d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture is a nature-based system that promotes multi-cropping and integrated farming systems. Example: Agroforestry. Chemical farming is more suitable for monoculture cropping due to the use of crop-specific inputs like irrigation, chemical fertilizer, and harvesting methods.
• Statement 2 is correct: Chemical fertilizers will make the soil less fertile over time, which can lead to serious problems like soil salinization. However such problems are not seen in permaculture farming as it relies on organic fertilizers.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Chemical farming is based on the intense use of inputs like Chemical fertilizers and irrigation that make the soil less fertile over time, thus restricting its practice in semi-arid regions. Thus, conventional farming is not suitable for semi-arid regions.
• Statement 4 is correct: Mulching is an important component of Permaculture systems for promoting maximum efficiency

Q32. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements:

1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. More than 80 percent of palm oil is grown in Southeast Asia, with Indonesia and Malaysia leading the world in the production of the commodity. Oil palms were introduced to Malaysia and Indonesia in the mid-20th century from Africa, and large-scale production followed. The growth has been rapid and widespread, and the natural forest and all that live in it face a dire future. Palm oil is derived from the oil palm tree – A native to West Africa (and not Southeast Asia). It grows best in tropical climates with abundant water.
• Statement 2 is correct. Palm oil and its derivatives are present in at least 70% of cosmetic products, according to Croda, a global specialty ingredients supplier to the beauty and personal care industry. This goes to show that palm-derived ingredients are preferred by manufacturers for their functional benefits.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. It can be used in compression ignition engines, i.e., diesel engines without any modifications. Generally, RBD palm oil is used to produce biodiesel due to the low FFA content (0.1-0.5%) and thus minimizes the impact of saponification reaction. Darnoko and Cheryan (2000) studied the transesterification of RBD palm oil with methanol catalyzed by KOH.

Q33. With reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus directly. Among the following, which one is such a river that joins the Indus directly?

a) Chenab
b) Jhelum
c) Ravi
d) Sutlej

Answer: (d)

• Starting at the pinnacle of the world with glaciers, the Indus River supplies the flora and fauna of temperate forests, plateaus, and dry rural areas.InconjunctionwiththeriversChenab, Jhelum, Sutlej, Ravi, Beas, and two tributaries from Afghanistan and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, the Indus creates the Sapta Sindhu (Seven Rivers) delta of Pakistan.
• Option a is incorrect: Chenab River moves into the lands of Punjab in the vicinity of Akhnur and is subsequently connected with the Jhelum. It creates the border between the Rechna and the Jech Doabs. The Chenab joins Satluj in Pakistan.
• Option b is incorrect: The Jhelum joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
• Option c is incorrect: The Ravi River runs as a portion of the boundary between India and Pakistan for a particular distance prior to moving into Pakistan and meeting the Chenab River. The Ravi joins the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu.
• Option d is correct: Satluj is joined by the Chenab in Pakistan. Thus, Satluj receives the collective drainage of the Ravi, Chenab, and Jhelum rivers. It joins the Indus a few kilometers above Mithankot.

Q34. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are the names of

a) glaciers
b) mangrove areas
c) Ramsar sites
d) saline lakes

Answer: (d)

• Didwana is a town in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan. It has a famous Didwana saltwater lake in Rajasthan.
• Kuchaman Lake is located in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan.
• Hence, it can be considered that all four – Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are saline lakes.

Q35. Consider the following rivers:

1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara

Which of the above rises from the Eastern Ghats?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Brahmani, known as South Koel in its upper reaches, rises in the Ranchi district of Jharkhand at an elevation of about 600 m.
• Statement 2 is correct: Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats include the Baitarani River, Budhabalanga River, Rushikulya River, Vamsadhara River, Palar River, Nagavali River, Champavathi River, etc. The Nagavali River originates in the Eastern Ghats near Lakhbahal, located at an altitude of 1,300 meters in the Kalahandi district of the Indian state Odisha. Langulya is another name for the Nagavali River.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Subernarekha River rises near Nagri village in the Ranchi District of Jharkhand at an elevation of 600 m. It flows for a length of 395 km before outfalling into the Bay of Bengal.
• Statement 4 is correct: Vamsadhara River rises in the Eastern Ghats of Orissa State and enters Srikakulam District Bhamini Mandal and finally falls into the Bay of Bengal near Kalingapatnam

Q36. Consider the following statements:

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licenses for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licenses for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the International Seabed Authority (and Not the Global Ocean Commission) that considers applications for exploration and exploitation of deep-sea resources from contractors, assesses the environmental impact assessments and supervises mining activities. With the establishment of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea in 1982 and the entry into force of the ISA in 1994, exploration activities for mineral resources in the area began to be regulated under exploration contracts. Originally, exploration activities were predominantly undertaken by national agencies, until 2010, when private companies became involved and a polymetallic-nodule-mining industry was born.
• Statement 2 is correct: India was the first country to receive the status of a ‘Pioneer Investor ‘in 1987 and was given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) for nodule exploration. India’s exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules from the seabed in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) have been extended by five years. These rights are over 75000 sq. km of area in international waters allocated by the International Seabed Authority for developmental activities for polymetallic nodules.

Q37. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?

a) Sugarcane
b) Sunflower
c) Pearl millet
d) Red gram

Answer: (a)

• Option a is correct: Sugarcane is the least water-efficient crop. Among the given options, its water requirement is 1800-2200 mm/season which is the highest.
• Option b is incorrect: Sunflower’s water requirement was estimated at 672.4 mm/ season.
• Option c is incorrect: Pearl millet is a drought-tolerant crop. Water requirement: 350 mm/ season.
• Option d is incorrect: Red gram uses about 250- 400 mm/season of water.

Q38. Consider the following statements:

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans are warmer than the
   western sections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

• Trade winds cause the accumulation of warm tropical waters on the western side of the oceans.
• Statement 1 is correct: Warmer water is transported westward in the ocean by the Northeast trade winds in the Northern hemisphere of the tropical zone (as the figure given below shows). So, in tropical zones, the western section of the ocean is warmer than the eastern sections due to trade winds.
• Statement 2 is correct. Similarly, the Westerlies play an important role in carrying the warm, equatorial waters and winds to the western coasts of continents (that is eastern section of the Oceans in the temperate zone). Thus, in temperate zones, westerlies make the eastern section of the ocean warmer than the western sections

Q39. In the context of India’s preparation for ClimateSmart Agriculture, consider the following statements:

1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change,
   Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for semi-arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is correct: Rajapakar is a ClimateSmart Village (CSV), a part of a project led by the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS). Built on the principles of CSA, this program provides technological, organizational and systemic support to farmers in association with institutions to help them cope with climate change, in 36 sites across 20 countries. CCAFS Climate-Smart Villages (CSVs) have effectively brought together international knowledge and local action to assist farmers in producing more food sustainably while reducing greenhouse gas emissions and boosting climate change resistance.
• Statement 2 is correct: In order to effectively promote development and guarantee food security in a changing climate, agricultural systems must be transformed and reoriented. This strategy is known as climate-smart agriculture (CSA). The governance and management of the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS) are based on lessons learned by CGIAR headquartered in France.
• Statement 3 is correct: With a wide range of collaborators around the world, ICRISAT, a CGIAR Research Center, undertakes agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. It is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization. ICRISAT is headquartered in Patancheru near Hyderabad, Telangana, India, with two regional hubs and six country offices in sub-Saharan Africa. It is a member of the CGIAR Consortium. CGIAR is a global research partnership for food food-secure future.

Q40. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result, the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees”. This is the most likely description of

a) coniferous forest
b) dry deciduous forest
c) mangrove forest
d) tropical rainforest

Answer: (d)

• Statement 4 is correct: Tropical rainforests are perfect habitats for bacteria and other microorganisms due to their hot and humid climate. These creatures break down debris on the forest floor swiftly because they are active all year round. Other biomes, like the deciduous forest, benefit from the addition of nutrients to the soil caused by leaf litter decomposition.

Q41. Under the Indian Constitution, the concentration of wealth violates

a) the Right to Equality
b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
c) the Right to Freedom
d) the Concept of Welfare

Answer: (b)

• PART IV (DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY)- Article 39 says that:
• The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing—
• (a) that the citizens, men, and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
• (b) that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
• (c) that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
• (d) that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Q42. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

a) Legal right available to citizens only
b) Legal right available to any person
c) Fundamental Rights available to citizens only
d) Neither Fundamental Rights nor legal rights

Answer: (b)

• The Right to Property is a legal right available to any person. Article 300-A provides that no person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law.
• The Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment, 1978, deleted Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 from Part III, the chapter on Fundamental Rights in the Constitution

Q43. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950?

a) A Democratic Republic
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer: (b)

• Though India became a free nation on August 15, 1947, it declared itself a Sovereign, Democratic, and Republic state with the adoption of the Constitution on January 26, 1950.
• With the enactment of the 42nd Amendment of 1976, the words “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted. The Preamble now reads “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic”.

Q44. Constitutional government means

a) a representative government of the nation with a federal structure
b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d)

• Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means government conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors, and which therefore help to constrain the unfettered exercise of power by separating or dividing it. The contemporary political systems that combine constitutionalism and democracy share a common basis in that they accord to the will of the majority of the people as expressed in free elections. In all such systems, political parties are key institutions, for they are the agencies by which majority opinion in a modern mass electorate is mobilized and expressed.

Q44. Constitutional government means

a) a representative government of the nation with a federal structure
b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d)

• Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means government conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors, and which therefore help to constrain the unfettered exercise of power by separating or dividing it. The contemporary political systems that combine constitutionalism and democracy share a common basis in that they accord to the will of the majority of the people as expressed in free elections. In all such systems, political parties are key institutions, for they are the agencies by which majority opinion in a modern mass electorate is mobilized and expressed.

Q46. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements is not correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1996, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the National Awards–Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Sri. National awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as prefixes or suffixes to the name of the recipient in any manner.
• Article 18(1) abolishes all titles. It prohibits the State from conferring titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen. Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give title or honor on a man of merit.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 to be awarded to citizens of India in recognition of their distinguished contribution in various spheres of activity. The government suspended the practice of granting the Padma Awards for two years in 1977. It was again suspended during mid-1992 when 2 PILs were filed in the High Courts of India They are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order) and Padma Shri (distinguished service).
• Statement 3 is incorrect: A maximum of 3 people can be awarded the Bharat Ratna. The total number of Padma awards to be conferred each year is limited to 120. But the count excludes posthumous awards and any nonresident Indian or Overseas Citizen of India or foreign-based winners.

Q47. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1:
The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as the 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 2:
Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1
c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad is the 2020 Tree City of the World.
• Statement 2 is correct: Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests. It was given for its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests.

Q48. Consider the following statements in respect to the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)

Q49. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• Tokyo hosted the 32nd Summer Olympics in“United by Emotion” which served as the official Games motto for Tokyo 2020.
• “A New World” served as the Rio Olympics’ official tagline in 2016. The second claim is true. There are 339 events in 41 different sports at the Tokyo Olympics. At the Tokyo Olympics, baseball, softball, karate, skateboarding, sport climbing, and surfing will be six new sports

Q50. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:

1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• The first claim is untrue.
• The ICC World Test Championship semifinalist teams will be chosen based on the percentage of points earned rather than the number of games they have won.
• The second claim is untrue.
• New Zealand entered

Q51. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.

Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• Statement 1 is correct: RBI Governor and Deputy Governors are appointed by the Central Government. Section 8(1)(a) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, provides that there shall be one Governor and not more than four Deputy Governors to be appointed by the Central government on the central board of RBI.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: RBI Act, 1934- The Central Government may from time to time give such directions to the Bank as it may, after consultation with the Governor of the Bank, consider necessary in the public interest. The Constitution of India does not provide any provision for the central government’s right to issue directions to the RBI in Public interest.
• Statement 3 is correct: According to the RBI Act, the Governor shall have powers of general superintendence and direction of the affairs and the business of the RBI. He/she may exercise all powers and do all acts and things which may be exercised or done by the RBI.

Q52. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:

1. All casual workers are entitled to Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is correct: An employer cannot differentiate between contractual and permanent employees; the Supreme Court has ruled that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act. “As per Section 2(f) of the EPF Act, the definition of an employee is an inclusive definition, and is widely worded to include any person engaged either directly or indirectly in connection with the work of an establishment, and is paid wages,” a bench of SC said.
• Statement 2 is correct: Employees in India are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment according to Minimum Wages Rules, Casual workers have all those rights that are enjoyed by regular workers since the definition of employee includes casual labor as per Supreme Court guidelines.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Payment of Wages (Amendment) Act 2017 provides that the government may specify that the employer of any industrial or other establishment shall pay wages to every employee only by cheque or by crediting the wages in his bank account“.

Q53. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?

a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate
b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects

Answer: (b)

• Recession- It is a situation which is characterized by the negative growth rate of GDP in two successive quarters. Some of the indicators of a recession include a slowdown in the economy, a fall in investments, fall in the output of the economy, etc. In an Economic Recession, the Government can:
• Decrease interest rate to make more room for borrowing Increase Government Spending Cut Tax rates to increase the spending capacity of people Private investors are incapable of making massive investments on various infrastructural projects like road-bridge-dam construction, power plants, transport and communications, etc. It is imperative that the government undertakes such projects. The greater the public expenditure, the higher is the level of economic development.

Q54. Consider the following statements: Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

1. The price of its substitute increases
2. The price of its complement increases
3. The good is an inferior good and the income of the consumers increase
4. Its price falls

Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

The main influences on buying plans that change demand are:
Prices of related goods

• Income
• Expectations
• Number of buyers
• Preferences

The following are the relations between the demand and price of the products, with changing economic conditions:

1. The demand for a good increases, if the price of one of its substitutes rises. The demand for a good decreases, if the price of one of its substitutes falls.
2. The demand for a good increases, if the price of one of its complements falls. For example, ice cream and fudge sauce.
3. The demand for an inferior good decreases if income increases. The demand for a normal good increases if income increases.
4. If the Price of the good falls, then its demand increases

Q55. With reference to urban cooperative banks in India consider the following statements:

1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by state governments
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The recent Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act 2020 enables the RBI to get all the powers, including those hitherto exclusively with the registrar of the cooperative societies. However, the powers of the registrar continue to be with him but the powers of RBI override those of the registrar.
• Statement 2 is correct: UCBs are permitted to raise equity share capital, preference shares, and debt instruments. The UCBs, it said, could raise share capital by issuing equity to persons within their area of operation enrolled as members and also through additional equity shares to the existing members.
• Statement 3 is correct: The applicability of banking laws to cooperative societies since March 1, 1966, ushered in a ‘duality of control’ over UCBs between the Registrar of Cooperative Societies/Central Registrar of Cooperative Societies and the Reserve Bank of India. Banking-related functions (viz. licensing, area of operations, interest rates, etc.) were to be governed by RBI and registration, management, audit and liquidation, etc. governed by State Governments as per the provisions of respective State Acts. So the control of the RBI was partial and it shared the control with the registrar of cooperative societies of States, giving rise to the much-discussed dual control and the difficulties it posed to the central bank

Q56. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following?

1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is correct: Bond yield is the return an investor gets on that bond or on a particular government security. It depends on the price of the bond which is impacted by its demand. The major factors affecting the yield are the monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India, especially the course of interest rates, the fiscal position of the government and its borrowing program, global markets, the economy, and inflation. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve can impact the investments flowing in India. The investments by foreign players in government securities can be affected by this. This will lead to a change in demand of government securities thereby impacting its yield.
• Statement 2 is correct: The actions of the Reserve Bank determine the liquidity and also the cost of funds available in the economy through its various inflation management tools. The cost of funds will directly impact the demand of government securities in the market and thereby influencing its yield.
• Statement 3 is correct: Inflation and short-term rates determine the purchasing capacity of the people in the economy. Therefore, this also has an impact on the demand and price of government -securities thereby influencing the yield

Q57. Consider the following:

1. Foreign currency convertible bonds.
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions
3. Global depository receipts
4. Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4

Answer: (a)

• Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: ‘Foreign Currency Convertible Bond’ (FCCB) is a bond issued under the Issue of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds and Ordinary Shares(Through Depository Receipt Mechanism) Scheme, 1993, as amended from time to time.
• An Automatic Route for the Issue of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) is allowed. Foreign Portfolio Investment is any investment made by a person resident outside India in capital instruments where such investment is (a) less than 10 percent of the post-issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian company or (b) less than 10 percent of the paid-up value of each series of capital instruments of a listed Indian company. It is the percentage that defines whether it is a direct or institutional investment.
• Foreign investment in Indian securities has been made possible through the purchase of Global Depository Receipts, Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds, and Foreign Currency Bonds issued by Indian issuers that are listed, traded and settled overseas.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: A Non-Resident An external (NRE) account is a rupee-dominated account opened by an NRI to facilitate deposit of foreign currency earnings. It is not an FDI

Q58. Consider the following statements: The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily

1. Improves the competitiveness of domestic exports in foreign markets
2. Increases the foreign value of domestic currency
3. Improves the trade balance

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

• Statement 1 is correct: A key effect of devaluation is that it makes the domestic currency cheaper relative to other currencies. There are two implications of a devaluation. First, devaluation makes the country’s exports relatively less expensive for foreigners. Second, the devaluation makes products more expensive for domestic consumers, thus discouraging imports. This may help to increase the country’s exports and decrease imports, and may therefore help to reduce the current account deficit.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: Devaluation of a currency decreases the foreign value of the domestic currency

Q59. Which one of the following effects of the creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewelry, gold, etc.
c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
d) Loss of revenue to the state exchequer due to tax evasion

Answer: (d)

• Black money includes all funds earned through illegal activity and otherwise legal income that is not recorded for tax purposes. Black money proceeds are usually received in cash from underground economic activity and, as such, are not taxed. The government has taken a number of measures to bring back the black money stashed abroad ‘The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015’.

Q60. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?

a) Repayment of public debt
b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Answer: (d)

• Deficit financing means generating funds to finance the deficit which results from excess expenditure over revenue. The gap is being covered by borrowing from the public by the sale of bonds or by printing new money. Deficit financing is inherently inflationary. Since deficit financing raises aggregate expenditure and, hence, increases aggregate demand, the danger of inflation looms large. Printing new currency notes increases the flow of money in the economy. This leads to an increase in inflationary pressures which leads to a rise of the prices of goods and services in the country. And since inflation is revealed with a lag, it is often too late before governments realize, they have over-borrowed. Higher inflation and higher government debt provide grounds for macroeconomic instability.

Q61. Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?

a) Congress grass
b) Elephant grass
c) Lemongrass
d) Nutgrass

Answer: (c)

• Statement 3 is correct. Lemongrass contains the FDA-registered essential oil citronella. The most popular natural insect repellent, it can be obtained in candles, sprays, and lotions. Plant lemongrass near seating areas and along walkways to help repel insects with its potent scent. Lemongrass is a tall herb that is abundantly found in tropical and sub-tropical areas of Asia, Africa, and Australia. China and India account for the maximum production of Lemongrass

Q62. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

Answer: (b)

• Option 1 is incorrect: Copepods are a group of small crustaceans found in nearly every freshwater and saltwater habitat. Copepods are major secondary producers in the World Ocean
• Option 2 is correct: Cyanobacteria, also called blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms found naturally in all types of water. These organisms are primary producers who use sunlight to make their own food.
• Option 3 is correct: Diatoms are photosynthesizing algae. Diatoms are one of the major primary producers in the ocean

Q63. Consider the following animals :

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is correct: Hedgehogs are tiny mammals with low-lying bodies and short limbs. Hedgehogs will curl up into a ball when scared or irritated so a predator will feel the full force of their razor-sharp spines and leave the hedgehog alone.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Marmots are a genus of moderately big ground squirrels. Upon seeing a predator, the yellow-bellied marmot whistles to warn the others in the area, after which it typically hides in a nearby rock pile until there is no more threat. Since they hibernate underground in the winter, these herbivores are not visible during the summer, when they are active and frequently spotted in groups. Of the squirrel family, they are the heaviest.
• Statement 3 is correct: Uniquely, pangolins have thick, overlapping scales covering them. If under threat, a pangolin will immediately curl into a tight ball and will use their sharp-scaled tails to defend themselves

Q64. With reference to the New York Declaration on Forests, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies, and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 5
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 5

Answer: (a)

• Statement 1 is correct: The New York Declaration on Forests was endorsed at the 2014 Climate Summit by more than 150 governments, companies, indigenous peoples, and civil society organizations committed to doing their part to achieve the Declaration’s goals and follow its accompanying action agenda.
• Statement 2 is correct: The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) emphasizes ten goals which include halting natural forest loss The targets also include restoring 350 million hectares of degraded landscapes and forestlands, improving governance, increasing forest finance, and reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation as part of a post-2020 global climate agreement.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a voluntary and non-binding international declaration to take action to halt global deforestation.
• Statement 4 is correct: It has presently over 200 endorsers – including national governments, subnational governments, companies, indigenous groups, financial institutions and NGOs. These endorsers have committed to doing their part to achieve the NYDF goals and follow its accompanying action agenda.
• Statement 5 is incorrect: India is not its signatory

Q65. Magnetite particles suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d)

• Option 1 is correct: The automotive industry uses ceramic or ferrite magnets to make vehicles safer. One of the most impressive uses is in the Anti-lock Braking System (ABS) of vehicles. This use of magnets in motor vehicles can generate magnetic particles.
• Option 2 is correct: Engines of motor vehicles can generate magnetic particles as they use high-powered magnets which generate magnetic flux
• Option 3 is correct: In the Microwave, a magnetic stirrer is used which can generate magnetic particles.
• Option 4 is correct: Power Plants release metal content along with ash. Use of coal in power plants is a major source of combustion-associated magnetite fine particles.
• Option 5 is correct: The telephone line produces low-frequency, low-energy electromagnetic fields which are the potential source of magnetite particles.

Q66. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

a) Catfish
b) Octopus
c) Oyster
d) Pelican

Answer: (c)

• Statement 3 is correct. Oysters are small organisms, found cemented to rocks or other hard substrates. Oysters are filter feeders, which means they consume food by moving a lot of water through their bodies. The beating of cilia pumps water through the oyster’s gills. Plankton, algae, and other particles get caught in the gill mucus. These particles are subsequently carried to the oyster’s mouth and esophagus where they are consumed before being taken to the stomach where they are digested

Q67. In the case of one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?

a) Carbon cycle
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Phosphorus cycle
d) Sulphur cycle

Answer: (c)

• Option c is correct: Carbon and Nitrogen cycles are the gaseous cycles. Here, the main reservoir of nutrients is the atmosphere or the hydrosphere. In the sulfur cycle, the nutrient is released by the weathering of rocks, erosional runoff and decomposition of organic matter. The sulphur cycle is mostly sedimentary but two of its compounds hydrogen sulfide (H2S) and sulphur dioxide (SO2) add a gaseous component to its normal sedimentary cycle.
• In the Phosphorus cycle, nutrients are released mainly by weathering of rocks since the Phosphorus main

Q68. Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2, and 4 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer : (c) Exp:

• Statements 1, 3, and 5 are correct, while Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect: Jellyfish feed on phytoplankton and zooplankton. Detritivores are often invertebrate insects such as mites, beetles, butterflies and flies; mollusks such as slugs and snails; or soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes and woodlice

Q69. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP has been developed for

a) Assessing the carbon footprint of the building operations around the world
b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading

c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
d) Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of tim

Answer: (a) Exp:

• Statement 1 is correct. The formula used to specify measurement, reporting, and verification for GHG emissions related to the operation of different types of buildings in specific climate areas is known as the Common Carbon Metric. It excludes value-based analyses of the measures, such as benchmarking or weighing. The carbon footprint of an entity is the total amount of greenhouse gases that are generated by that entity.

Q70. Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationships with other organisms?

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Some organisms coexist and share resources like food and shelter. The word symbiosis refers to this partnership.
• The first statement is true. The invertebrate class Cnidaria frequently has a symbiotic relationship with the single-celled dinoflagellate algae known as zooxanthellae.
• The second claim is true. Some fungi are found living inside plant roots. The fungus receives nutrients from the plants in exchange for water and specific nutrients from the plants. Algae and fungi coexist as lichen in a symbiotic relationship.
• The third statement is true. Additionally, protozoa develop symbiotic relationships with other creatures. Protozoan symbiosis mainly includes: a strong mutualistic relationship between a protozoan and a single-celled symbiont (such as bacteria, cyanobacteria, or single-celled algae), or between a protozoan and a multicellular organism (ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants)

Q71. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio in the banks
b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
c) Increase in the banking habits of the people
d) Increase in the population of the country

Answer – C

• The multiplier effect is an economic term, referring to the proportional amount of increase, or decrease, in final income that results from an injection, or withdrawal, of capital in effect. It measures the impact that a change in economic activity—like investment or spending—will have on the total economic output of something. The money created by the Federal Reserve is the monetary base, also known as high-powered money. Banks create money by making loans. A bank loans or invests its excess reserves to earn more interest. A one-dollar increase in the monetary base causes the money supply to increase by more than one dollar.
• An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks, an increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks, and an increase in the population of the country will not increase the money multiplier.

Q72. With reference to the Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?

1. Expansionary policies
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
4. Higher purchasing power
5. Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (a) Exp:

• Demand-Pull Inflation- This type of inflation is caused by an increase in demand and when the demand in the economy outgrows the supply in the economy. This kind of inflation can be described as “too much money chasing too few goods”.
• Expansionary policies: When the government spends more freely, money in the market is increased. It leads to increased demand for goods and fuels demand-pull inflation.
• Fiscal Stimulus: It also increases the money in the market leading to increased demand for the goods and fuels demand-pull inflation
• Higher Purchasing Power: When consumers earn a higher income, they feel confident and spend more. This leads to more demand and fuels Demand-pull inflation Inflation-indexing wages and rising interest rates do not increase or cause demand-pull inflation

Q73. With reference to India, consider the following statements :

1. Retail investors through demat accounts can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in the primary market.
2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading
   the platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd’. is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is correct: The RBI has allowed retail investors with online access to the government securities market – both primary and secondary – directly through the Reserve Bank. The facility of buying government securities directly through RBI is called RBI Retail Direct. Under it, retail investors can open and maintain a Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account with the RBI through the dedicated online portal. The account can be opened singly or jointly with another retail investor. The gilt account is opened by the bank for individuals who wish to invest in government securities and treasury bills. Banks in effect maintain a Demat account for these instruments in the name of the individuals.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching is an electronic trading platform operated by the Reserve Bank of India to facilitate the issuing and exchange of government securities and other types of money market instruments.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: CDSL is promoted by BSE which later divested its stakes among nationalized banks.

Q74. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider the following statements :

1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on
   subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• Statement 1 is correct. WaterCredit is a powerful solution and the first to put microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. WaterCredit helps bring small loans to those who need access to affordable financing and expert resources to make household water and toilet solutions a reality.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Watercredit is an initiative of Water.org. Water.org is a global nonprofit organization working to bring water and sanitation to the world.
• Statement 3 is correct. It helps people get access to safe water and sanitation through affordable financing, such as small loans

Q75. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of the following?

1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

Answer: (b)

• A lender of last resort (LoR) is an institution, usually, a country’s central bank, which offers loans to banks or other eligible institutions that are experiencing financial difficulty or are considered highly risky or near collapse.

Q76. R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of

a) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry
b) Ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International Importance’ under the Ramsar
c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
d) ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer: (a)

• R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). The R2 Standard was originally developed to prevent the misuse and improper recycling of electronic waste. The Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI) institute defines the R2 Standard as, “the premier global environmental, worker health and safety standard for the electronics refurbishing and recy

Q77. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment.
3. They may release sulfur dioxide as a pollutant.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Copper smelting does not release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment.
• Statement 2 is correct: The slag produced can contain significant concentrations of a number of potentially toxic elements including arsenic, lead, cadmium, barium, zinc, etc. The slag can release these potentially toxic elements into the environment under natural weathering conditions and cause pollution of soils, surface waters and groundwater. As slag is considered chemically inert, it is mixed with cement and is used to construct roads and railroad beds. It is also used for sandblasting. Moreover, it is also added to roofing shingles.
• Statement 3 is correct. Copper smelters are the largest source of sulphur oxides (SOx) and trace elements. Suspended particles have a pollution scope of 2-3 km, while Sulphur dioxide has a range of as much as 15 km.

Q78. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements :

1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power
3. Its use causes Sulphur emissions into the environment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is correct: Furnace oil is a dark viscous residual fuel obtained by blending heavier components of crude oil. It is a product of oil refineries.
• Statement 2 is correct: Applications of Furnace oil:
• Marine engines and slow-speed engines for power generation,
• Drying tea leaves,
• Gas turbines for power generation,
• Feedstock for fertiliser manufacturing,
• Thermic fluid heaters and hot air generators.
• Statement 3 is correct: Sulphur is a natural component in crude oil that is present in gasoline and diesel unless removed. Furnace oil has high component of sulphur leading to its emission when burned.

Q79. What is blue carbon?

a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
d) Carbon present in the atmosphere

Answer: (a)

• Blue carbon is the term for carbon captured by the world’s ocean and coastal ecosystems. Our oceans and coasts provide a natural way of reducing the impact of greenhouse gases on our atmosphere, through sequestration. Seagrasses, mangroves, and salt marshes along our coast “capture and hold” carbon, acting as something called a carbon sink. The ability of these vegetated ecosystems to remove carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere makes them significant net carbon sinks, and they are now being recognized for their role in mitigating climate change.

Q80. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?

1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

• Lichens have specific requirements for their habitats. These requirements are: water, air, nutrients, light, and substrates. Lichens occur from sea level to high alpine elevations, in many environmental conditions, and can grow on almost any surface.
• Mosses are non-flowering plants that produce spores and have stems and leaves but don’t have true roots. The individual plants are usually composed of simple leaves that are generally only one cell thick, attached to a stem that may be branched or unbranched and has only a limited role in conducting water and nutrients. Fern is a member of a group of vascular plants (plants with xylem and phloem). They grow in soils. Ferns require indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid atmosphere.
• A mushroom or toadstool is the fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus, typically produced above ground, on soil, or on its food source.

Q81. With reference to the history of ancient India Bhavabhuti Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous

a) Jain monks
b) Playwrights
c) Temple architects
d) Philosophers

Answer: (b)

• Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India is noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. The works attributed to the poet Bhavabhuti were Mahaviracharita (depicting the early life of Rama), Malatimadhava a play based on the romance of Malati and Madhava and Uttararamacharita (depicts Rama’s coronation, the abandonment of Sita and their reunion).
• Hastimalla was a 13th-century Kannada poet and writer in the Hoysala Empire. He wrote Purvapurana.
• Kshemeshvara (990 – c. 1070 CE) was an 11th-century Sanskrit poet from Kashmir in India. One of the import

Q82. Consider the following statements :

1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all
   women above the age of 21.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1918, Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy, produced their scheme of constitutional reforms, known as the Montagu-Chelmsford (or Mont-Ford) Reforms, which led to the enactment of the Government of India Act of 1919. The Act introduced reforms at the Central as well as Provincial levels, which also included voting rights for some women, among others.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government of India Act 1935 gave women a separate electorate (and did not reserve seats for women in the legislature). It provided separate electorates to depressed classes and laborers also

Q83. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

Answer: (a) Exp:

• Statement A is correct: On 8th August 1942, Mahatma Gandhi gave the clarion call to end British rule and launched the Quit India Movement at the session of the All-India Congress Committee in Mumbai. Gandhiji gave the call “Do or Die” in his speech delivered at the Gowalia Tank Maidan, now popularly known as August Kranti Maidan.
• Statement b is incorrect: More Indians were added to the Viceroy’s executive council by the Government of India Act 1919. The first time, an Indian was added in this council by the Government of India act 1909.
• Statement c is incorrect: Congress resigned from ministries in 7 provinces in 1939 as they decided not to support war as India could not be party to a war for democratic freedom while that freedom was being denied to India.
• Statement d is incorrect: Yes, Cripps proposed a dominion status to India but this was not related to 8 August 1942

Q84. Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian Religious lyrics in English?

a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer: (c)

“Songs From Prison: Translations Of Indian Lyrics Made In Jail” was a collection of songs and lyrics by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, written during his imprisonment in Yerwada Jail, Poona

Q85. With reference to medieval India, one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?

a) Paragana – Sarkar – Suba
b) Sarkar – Paragana – Suba
c) Suba – Sarkar – Paragana
d) Paragana – Suba – Sarkar

Answer: (a)

• The Mughals in India had an elaborate administrative setup. The emperor was the head of the central administration aided by different officials like Mir Bakshi, Diwan etc. The empire was divided into provinces called subas. The entire Suba was divided into Sarkars (districts), each being looked after by a military officer called the chief Shiqdar. Each Sarkar was divided into smaller units called Parganas. There was a Shiqdar (military officer), Amin or Munsif (Civilian Judge), one Fotahdar (treasurer), and two Karkuns (clerks or writers) in each Pargana

Q86. Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female Schools which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?

a) Annie Besant
b) Debendranath Tagore
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer: (c)

• In 1849, the Hindu Female School was founded by J.E.D. Bethune. In 1856, the British government took charge of the Hindu Female School and later renamed it Bethune School. Pandit Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar was made the secretary

Q87. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillion are remembered as

a) Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
b) Members of the Interim Government in 1946
c) Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
d) Officers of the Indian National Army

Answer: (d)

• Prem Kumar Sehgal, Shah Nawaz Khan, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were the second-tier commanders of the Indian National Army (INA) whose trials were held in 1945 at the Red Fort in Delhi. This was the first trial of INA Prisoners of war.

Q88. With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State.
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of the Vijayanagara Empire.
3. The Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer: (a)

• Statement 1 is correct: The Nizamat of Carnatic (Arcot) was one of the subas (dependency) of the Mughal Deccan and was under the legal purview of the Nizam of Hyderabad. Later, Arco emerged from Hyderabad.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Mysore kingdom, which was founded and ruled for the most part by the Hindu Wodeyar family, initially served as a vassal state of the Vijayanagar Empire.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Most of Rohilkhand’s borders were established by Ali Mohammed Khan and largely came into existence as a check to the power of Oudh State.

Q89. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River.
b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River.
c) Pandu-Lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River.
d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river.

Answer: (a)

• Option a is correct: Ajanta Caves are Buddhist rock-cut cave temples and monasteries, located near Ajanta village, north-central Maharashtra state, western India, are celebrated for their wall paintings. The temples are hollowed out of granite cliffs on the inner side of a 70-foot (20-metre) ravine in the Wagurna River valley 65 miles (105 km) northeast of Aurangabad.
• Option b is incorrect. Sanchi lies in an upland plateau region just west of the Betwa River.
• Option c is incorrect. Pandu-lena Caves is an ancient rock-cut sculpture complex located at Gomai River. Pandu-leni Cave is also known as Nasik Caves, Tirthankar Leni, Panch Pandav or Pandav Leni Jain Cave. The “Pandavleni” name sometimes given to the Nasik, Caves has nothing to do with the characters Pandavas, characters in the Mahabharata epic

Q90. Consider the following statements:

1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: 21 February is declared as an International Mother Language Day by UNESCO. The idea to celebrate International Mother Language Day was the initiative of Bangladesh. It was approved at the 1999 UNESCO General Conference and has been observed throughout the world since 2000.
• Statement 2 is correct: In 1948, the then government of Pakistan declared Urdu to be the sole national language of Pakistan, even though Bengali or Bangla was spoken by the majority of people combining East Pakistan and West Pakistan. The East Pakistan people protested and demanded that Bangla to be at least one of the national languages, in addition to Urdu. The contentious nature of the official language question came to the fore during the first session of the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. A member from East Bengal, Dhirendranath Datta, moved a motion to include Bengali as one of the languages of the Constituent Assembly along with English and Urdu. The motion was rejected.
• Bengali was eventually granted official status under the 1956 Constitution.

Q91. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:

1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.It is the only circular temple built in India.
2. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
3. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

• Statement 1 is correct: According to an inscription dated to 1323 CE (Vikram Samvat 1383), the Temple was built by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (r. c. 1055 – 1075). It is said that the temple was the venue of providing education in astrology and mathematics based on the transit of the Sun.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: This circular temple is one of the very few such temples in India. It is not the only circular temple built in India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chausath Yogini Temple is also known as Ekattarso Mahadeva Temple. This temple is so named because of the presence of a multitude of shiva lingas inside its cells.
• Statement 4 is correct: Many of these curious visitors have compared this temple with the Indian parliament building (Sansad Bhawan) as both are circular in style. So, many have drawn conclusions that this temple was the inspiration behind the Parliament building

Q92. Which one of the following ancient towns is well known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channeling water into connected reservoirs?

a) Dholavira
b) Kalibangan
c) Rakhigarhi
d) Ropar

Answer: (a)

• The city of Dholavira was located on Khadir Beyt in the Rann of Kutch, where there was fresh water and fertile soil. Being the 6th largest of more than 1,000 Harappan sites discovered so far, and occupied for over 1,500 years, Dholavira not only witnesses the entire trajectory of the rise and fall of this early civilization of humankind, but also demonstrates its multifaceted achievements in terms of urban planning, construction techniques, water management, social governance and development, art, manufacturing, trading, and belief system.

Q93. In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located?

1. Broach
2. Chicacole
3. Trichinopoly

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

• In January 1618, the English factories in the dominions of the Mughal Empire numbered five in all: Agra, Ahmadabad, Burhanpur (in Khandesh), Broach, and Surat.

Q94. From the decline of the Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India?

1. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 5
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 5 and 6
Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is correct: During 300 to 700 AD, the Gupta kingdom emerged as a great power and achieved the political unification of a large part of the Indian subcontinent. The Puranas mention Magadha, Allahabad and Oudh as the
  Gupta dominions.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Paramara dynasty ruled Malwa and the surrounding areas in west-central India between the 9th and 14th centuries.
• Statements 3, 4, and 6 are correct: The decline of the Gupta empire resulted in the emergence of numerous ruling dynasties in different parts of northern India. The prominent among them were the Pushyabhutis of Thanesar, the Maukharis of Kanauj and the Maitrakas of Valabhi.The political scene in Peninsular India was no different. South India too witnessed the rise of two important kingdoms under the Chalukyas and the Pallavas respectively during 550–750 AD.
• Statement 5 is not correct: The Yadavas initially ruled as feudatories of the Western Chalukyas. Around the middle of the 12th
  century, as the Chalukya power waned, the Yadava king Bhillama V declared independence.

Q95. According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in the Vijayanagara Empire were experts in which of the following areas?

1. Wrestling
2. Astrology
3. Accounting
4. Soothsaying

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

• Women in general occupied a high position in Vijayanagara society and instances of the active part they took in the political, social and literary life of the country are not rare, besides being trained in wrestling, handling swords and shields, music, and other fine arts, some of them at any rate, received a fair amount of literary education. Nuniz writes: “he (the king of Vijaynagar) has also women who wrestle, and others who are astrologers and soothsayers, and he has a woman who write all the accounts of expenses that are incurred inside the gates and others whose duty it is to write all the affairs of the kingdom and compare their books with those of the writers outside; he has women also for music, who play instruments and sing. Even the wives of the king are well-versed in music…it is said that he has judges, as well as bailiffs and watchmen who every night guard the palace, and these are women.”

Q96. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.
b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here.
c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.
d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here.

Answer: (c) Exp:

• The original song ‘Jana Gana Mana’ (National Anthem) was written in Bengali but in a The idea of translating the song from Bengali to English came to Rabindranath Tagore while he was visiting the Besant Theosophical College on the invitation of Irish poet James H. Cousins. He penned down the English translation during his stay at Madanapalle, a small town in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh.

Q97. Consider the following pairs:

(Historical place) (Well-known for)

1. Burzahom: Rock-cut shrines
2. Chandraketugarh: Terracotta art
3. Ganeshwar: Copper artifacts

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: It can be eliminated as the Burzahom site (Jammu and Kashmir) is a Neolithic site. Rock-cut shrines were not found in the Neolithic period.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Major findings of this site include Buddhist stupas and images, decorative designs belonging to the Pala period, coins of the Gupta and Kushana periods, different kinds of beads, terracotta seals, bricks and plaques depicting scenes from Jataka tales and figurines of Sunga, Maurya, Kushana and Gupta periods.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Ganeshwar-Jodhpura Chalcolithic culture was first discovered in the 1970’s post the excavation at Jodhpur and Ganeshwar respectively. The site of Ganeshwar yielded a lot of copper objects such as arrowheads, spearheads, chisels, fish hooks, and razor blades; ornaments like rings, hairpins, bangles, antimony rods, double spiral headed pin amongst others.

Q98. Consider the following statements:

1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince.
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of the Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

• Statement 1 is correct: In the year 1221, the great Mongol conqueror Chengiz Khan stood victorious at the western bank of the Indus River with 50,000 soldiers, having just defeated Jalal-ad-Din, the Shah of Khwarezm. At that time Northern India was ruled by Shams ud-Din Iltutmish, the third sultan of the Turkic Mamluk dynasty, which was founded by Qutb al-Din Aibak in 1206.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The period of Mahmud bin Tughlaq was 1325 to 1351. During the reign of Nasurud-din Muhammad Shah(1394-1412), The last Tughlaq ruler, Taimur invaded India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Deva Raya II (1422- 1446) was the greatest ruler of the Sangama dynasty. Vasco da Gama landed in Calicut in 1498 during the reign of Tuluva Narsa Nayaka in 1498.

Q99.Consider the following statements:

1. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order.
2. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there.
3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

• Statement 1 is correct: St. Francis Xavier was one of the founders of the Jesuit order. He was a Spanish saint.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Xavier traveled to Sancian (Shangchuan) Island, near Canton, but was not able to access the mainland because borders had been closed to foreigners. Before he could find a way inside the country, illness incapacitated Xavier. He died on the island on December 3, 1552, at the age of 46. His body was then taken to Goa.
• Statement 3 is correct: Each year, 3rd December, marks the anniversary of St. Francis Xavier’s death, when thousands gather at the Basilica of Bom Jesus. This annual festival, known as the Feast of St. Francis Xavier or Lord of Goa Festival, is the biggest of all the Christian festivals in Goa celebrated each year.

Q100. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim the right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim the right to the property.
3. The Mitakshara system deals with matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 3 only

Answer: (b)

• Statement 1 is not correct: Mitakshara and Dayabhaga terms were used to denote regions. It is not related to the caste system.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to the Mitakshara Law School, a joint family refers only to the male member of a family and extends to include his son, grandson and great-grandson. They collectively have co-ownership/Coparcenary in the Joint Family. Thus, a son by birth acquires an interest in the ancestral property of the joint family. Under the Dayabhaga law school, the son has no automatic ownership right by birth but acquires it on the demise of his father.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The Dayabhaga system prevails in West Bengal and allows both the male and female members of the family to be coparceners. Mitakshara system, on the other hand prevails all over India except West Bengal and allows only the male members to be coparceners.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

FAQ 1: What is the pattern of the UPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper 1 consists of objective-type multiple-choice questions. It covers diverse subjects such as History, Geography, Polity, Economics, Environment, and Current Affairs. The total marks for the paper are 200, and it is designed to test candidates’ knowledge and understanding of a wide range of topics.

FAQ 2: How many questions can candidates expect in the UPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2021 typically comprises 100 to 150 questions. The exact number may vary each year. Candidates need to answer all the questions within a specified time limit, usually two hours.

FAQ 3: Is there negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: Yes, there is negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper 1. For each incorrect answer, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question are deducted. However, there is no negative marking for unanswered questions.

FAQ 4: What is the role of the UPSC Prelims 2021 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2021 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1 is a crucial resource for candidates. It provides the correct answers to all the questions asked in the exam. Candidates can use the answer key to estimate their probable scores and identify areas where they need improvement. It also serves as a valuable tool for self-assessment.

FAQ 5: How can candidates access the UPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key is usually made available on the official UPSC website after the examination. Candidates can download the answer key and compare it with their responses to calculate their expected scores. Additionally, coaching institutes and educational websites often release unofficial answer keys shortly after the exam for quick reference, but candidates are advised to rely on the official answer key for accurate information.

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