Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
Q 1. Consider the following statements regarding Flood Management and Border Areas Programme (FMBAP) Scheme
- Flood Management Programme and River Management and Border Areas are the two centrally sponsored components of this scheme.
- For special category states the funding pattern is 90% by the centre and 10% by the states.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- The Union Cabinet has greenlit the extension of the centrally sponsored “Flood Management and Border Areas Programme (FMBAP)” scheme proposed by the Department of Water Resources. |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Components of FMBAP Flood Management Programme (FMP) Targets flood control, anti-erosion, drainage development, and anti-sea erosion projects. Funding distribution based on state categorization: 90% (Centre) – 10% (State) for Special Category States, 60% (Centre) – 40% (State) for General/Non-Special Category States. River Management and Border Areas (RMBA) Receives 100% central assistance. Focuses on flood control, anti-erosion works, and protection of security installations on border rivers. Encourages joint water projects with neighboring countries Statement II is Correct Funding Pattern Special Category States 90% (Centre) – 10% (State) for FMP. General/Non-Special Category States 60% (Centre) – 40% (State) for FMP. Key Feature Encourages the implementation of flood-plain zoning as an effective flood management measure. Flood-plain zoning designates flood-prone areas, guiding permissible developments to minimize flood-related damage. |
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Green Anaconda
- The green anaconda holds the title of the largest snake globally, in length and Black anaconda is at top in terms of weight.
- These are indigenous to South America, and are found east of the Andes and inhabit countries like Colombia, Venezuela.
- According to the IUCN Red List, the green anaconda is categorized as Vulnerable.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- A National Geographic expedition in the Amazon rainforest has identified the world’s largest snake |
| Source: TN |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About Green Anaconda Size and Weight The green anaconda holds the title of the largest snake globally, considering both length and weight. It can achieve lengths of up to 30 feet (9 meters) and weigh an impressive 227 kilograms Statement 2 is Correct Species and Distribution There are two species of green anaconda: the southern green anaconda and the northern green anaconda. Indigenous to South America, they are found east of the Andes and inhabit countries like Colombia, Venezuela, Peru, Brazil, Trinidad, and northern Paraguay. Species and Distribution There are two species of green anaconda: the southern green anaconda and the northern green anaconda. Indigenous to South America, they are found east of the Andes and inhabit countries like Colombia, Venezuela, Peru, Brazil, Trinidad, and northern Paraguay. Habitat Green anacondas primarily dwell in tropical rainforests. They exhibit a preference for shallow, slow-moving waters, including streams, rivers, and flooded grasslands. Statement 3 is Incorrect Constrictor Behavior As constrictors, green anacondas lack venom and rely on constriction to subdue their prey. They coil their bodies around the prey, applying pressure until it ceases to breathe. The snake then opens its jaws widely to swallow the prey whole. Adaptations to Aquatic Life Well-suited for aquatic life, green anacondas have eyes and nostrils positioned on the top of their heads, aiding in swimming and breathing. Physical Appearance These anacondas display an olive-green hue with dark oval spots along their spines and similar spots featuring yellow centers along their sides. This coloration provides effective camouflage in the lush, watery surroundings. Conservation Status According to the IUCN Red List, the green anaconda is categorized as “Least Concern.” |
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government
- The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– A parliamentary committee expressed apprehensions regarding the inadequate management of plastic waste in the nation, referencing findings from a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). |
| Source: TOI |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Both the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) are established through statutory enactments (Acts) rather than executive orders. National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT was established by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. This Act was passed by the Parliament of India and received the President’s assent, making it a legislative enactment. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB): The CPCB, similarly, was established by an Act of Parliament. It was created under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Later, its responsibilities were expanded to include air pollution through the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Both the NGT and the CPCB derive their legal basis from Acts of Parliament, highlighting their statutory nature rather than being established solely through executive orders. Statement 2 is Correct National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT is a specialized judicial body in India that deals with matters related to environmental protection, conservation of forests, and other natural resources. It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Therefore, the NGT has been established by an Act of Parliament, not by an executive order. The primary purpose of the NGT is to provide effective and expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation. It aims to handle cases related to the violation of environmental laws and policies. One of the key objectives of the NGT is to provide environmental justice and to reduce the burden of litigation on the higher courts by specifically dealing with environmental matters. It is meant to be a forum for speedy resolution of environmental disputes. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB): The CPCB is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India. It was created by the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and later its responsibilities were expanded to include air pollution as well through the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. The main functions of the CPCB include promoting cleanliness of streams and wells, prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution, and improving the quality of air in the country. The board formulates standards for the quality of air and water and works towards their enforcement. While the CPCB is involved in regulatory and policy-related aspects of pollution control, it does not have the judicial functions that the NGT possesses. The NGT is a specialized tribunal meant to hear and decide on environmental disputes, ensuring faster resolution and reducing the burden on higher courts. |
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India
- Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did
- Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries
- Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centers
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- The ‘Annual NeSDA Way Forward Report 2023’ by DARPG reveals Jammu & Kashmir’s dominance with 1,117 e-services on the NeSDA Way Forward Dashboard |
| Source: ET |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect This statement is not a specific aim of the “Digital India” plan. The primary focus of the Digital India initiative is to harness digital technologies to enhance the delivery of government services, promote digital literacy, and bridge the digital divide in the country. While the growth of India’s digital economy is encouraged, the statement doesn’t accurately reflect the core objectives of the Digital India program. Statement 2 is Incorrect This statement is not a direct aim of the Digital India plan. Digital India aims to promote domestic technology infrastructure and innovation, and while it recognizes the importance of data, the emphasis is on utilizing data for the benefit of Indian citizens and businesses. The statement seems to suggest a focus on attracting overseas data centers, which is not a primary objective of the Digital India initiative. Statement 3 is Correct This statement accurately reflects one of the key aims of the Digital India plan. The initiative seeks to ensure that the benefits of digital technology reach every part of the country, including rural areas. Connecting villages to the Internet and providing Wi-Fi in schools, public places, and tourist centers are strategies to bridge the digital divide and enhance digital access for all citizens. |
Q5. With reference to Solar Maximum consider the following statements
- The starting of solar cycle, marked by the hemisphere flip, is known as the Solar Maximum
- As the sun approaches the solar maximum, observable phenomena include brilliant explosions, dark sunspots, loops of plasma, and swirls of super-hot gas
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– A recent visualization by the European Space Agency (ESA) depicts increasing activity on the sun’s surface as it approaches the solar maximum anticipated for this year. |
| Source: SPACE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Overview of Solar Maximum The sun, a massive sphere of hot, electrically-charged gas, undergoes a natural solar cycle approximately every 11 years. This cycle involves the movement of charged gas, generating a powerful magnetic field around the sun. The magnetic field winds up over the 11-year period until it becomes dense enough to cause a flip in the hemispheres – the north becoming the south and vice versa. The midpoint of this cycle, marked by the hemisphere flip, is known as the Solar Maximum. During the Solar Maximum, there is a notable increase in the number of sunspots observable on the sun’s surface. In contrast, the Solar Minimum, marking the cycle’s beginning and end, features fewer sunspots. Statement 2 is Correct Visual Characteristics of Solar Maximum As the sun approaches the solar maximum, observable phenomena include brilliant explosions, dark sunspots, loops of plasma, and swirls of super-hot gas. Impacts of Solar Maximum The heightened solar activity during the Solar Maximum can lead to extreme space weather events such as solar flares and eruptions. These events have the potential to disrupt radio communications and the power grid. Astronauts may face serious health consequences due to increased solar radiation during this phase. |
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Energy Sector of India
- India targets 500 GW of non-fossil energy, including 450 GW of renewable energy by 2045
- India aims for net zero emissions by 2070.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- Climate Analytics has released a report titled “Tripling Renewables by 2030,” breaking down the regional implications of achieving a 1.5ºC-aligned renewables rollout. |
| Source: DTE |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Indian Initiatives towards Clean Energy Transition Ambitious Targets India targets 500 GW of non-fossil energy, including 450 GW of renewable energy by 2030. Complementary policies, legislative mandates, missions, fiscal incentives, and market mechanisms support these goals. Statement II is Correct Net Zero Target India aims for net zero emissions by 2070. Updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) reflect a goal of 50% cumulative electric power from non-fossil sources by 2030. Energy Conservation Amendment Bill, 2022 Passed in August 2022, the bill mandates non-fossil fuel sources, including green hydrogen, green ammonia, biomass, and ethanol for energy and feedstock Grants power to the Central Government to establish carbon markets. |
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015:
- The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN, and it will go into effect in 2017
- The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2ºC or even 1.5ºC above pre-industrial levels
- Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- Climate Analytics has released a report titled “Tripling Renewables by 2030,” breaking down the regional implications of achieving a 1.5ºC-aligned renewables rollout. |
| Source: DTE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect While the Paris Agreement was indeed signed by a large number of countries during the UNFCCC (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change) meeting in Paris in 2015, the agreement did not automatically go into effect in 2017. Instead, it entered into force on November 4, 2016, much earlier than the suggested 2017 date. The agreement required ratification by at least 55 countries representing at least 55% of global greenhouse gas emissions, and these conditions were met before 2017. Statement 2 is Correct The primary goal of the Paris Agreement is to limit the increase in global average temperature to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 degrees Celsius. This is to prevent the most severe impacts of climate change. The agreement emphasizes the importance of nationally determined contributions (NDCs) from each participating country to achieve these temperature goals. Statement 3 is Incorrect While developed countries did acknowledge the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities” in the context of historical contributions to climate change, the specific commitment of $1000 billion a year from 2020 is not a provision of the Paris Agreement. The agreement does call for financial support to assist developing countries in both mitigation and adaptation efforts, but the $1000 billion figure is not a specific commitment outlined in the agreement. Financial commitments and contributions are part of ongoing discussions and negotiations within the UNFCCC framework. |
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding INSAT-3DS mission
- INSAT-3DS will be launched using the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle F14 (GSLV F14)
- It is partially funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), it belongs to the Third Generation Meteorological Satellites in Geostationary Orbit
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– On February 17, 2024, the Indian Space and Research Organisation (ISRO) is poised to launch the GSLV-F14/INSAT-3DS mission, aiming to bolster weather forecasting and disaster warning capabilities. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Key Highlights of GSLV-F14/INSAT-3DS Mission Launch Vehicle Details INSAT-3DS will be launched using the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle F14 (GSLV F14). GSLV-F14 is a three-stage launch vehicle. The first stage (GS1) utilizes a solid propellant motor, while the second stage (GS2) and third stage (GS3) are earth-storable and cryogenic propellant stages, respectively. GSLV-F14 marks the 16th flight of GSLV and the 10th flight with the indigenous cryo stage. Statement 2 is Incorrect Payloads of INSAT-3DS INSAT-3DS comprises four essential payloads: Imager Payload: Capable of generating Earth images in six wavelength bands. Sounder Payload: Offers data on atmospheric vertical profiles, including temperature and humidity, with a 19-channel configuration. Data Relay Transponder (DRT): Receives global meteorological, hydrological, and oceanographic data, relaying it back to user terminals. Satellite-Aided Search and Rescue (SA&SR) Transponder: Relays distress signals for global search and rescue operations in the Ultra High-Frequency band. Mission Objectives and Significance INSAT-3DS is designed to enhance meteorological observations, improve weather forecasting, and strengthen disaster warning capabilities. Fully funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), it belongs to the Third Generation Meteorological Satellites in Geostationary Orbit. The satellite will monitor land and ocean surfaces, complementing the services of existing INSAT-3D and INSAT-3DR satellites. INSAT-3DS aims to provide accurate weather forecasts, contribute to disaster management, and facilitate data collection for emergency response. The satellite will play a crucial role in satellite-aided search and rescue services, bolstering India’s capabilities in emergency situations. |
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti
- Constituted by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India in 2021, Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti functions as a High Powered Committee for the Promotion of Hindi Language.
- Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti is entrusted to provide guidance to the Ministry on matters related to the revitalization of language teaching, research, and its extension across various institutions in the country
- Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit University (SLBSNSU), New Delhi, provides secretarial assistance and space for the committee
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Chairman of Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti recently emphasized the promotion of Indian languages in education. |
| Source: HT |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti: Promoting Indian Languages Establishment: Constituted by the Ministry of Education, Government of India in 2021, Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti functions as a High Powered Committee for the Promotion of Indian Languages. Mandate: The committee is tasked with exploring and recommending pathways for the holistic and multi-disciplinary growth of Indian languages, aligning with the objectives outlined in the National Education Policy-2020. Statement 2 is Correct Advisory Role: Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti is entrusted to provide guidance to the Ministry on matters related to the revitalization of existing language teaching, research, and its extension across various institutions in the country. Sub-Committees/Study Groups: To efficiently carry out its assigned tasks, the committee has the authority to appoint sub-committees and study groups. Events and Coordination: The committee may organize seminars, workshops, conferences, and webinars to emphasize the importance of promoting Indian languages. It is also authorized to interact and coordinate with relevant Central/State Government institutions involved in language teaching, research, and promotion. Statement 3 is Correct Secretarial Assistance: Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit University (SLBSNSU), New Delhi, provides secretarial assistance and space for the committee, covering associated expenditures in compliance with Government of India rules. Consultants and Experts: SLBSNSU is responsible for appointing consultants, experts, scholars, officials, and young professionals on a short-term basis, as well as conducting various events based on the committee’s recommendations. The Ministry of Education (MoE) finances these activities under relevant budget heads. |
Q10. With reference to Electoral Bonds consider the following statements
- These can be purchased from the State Bank of India (SBI), and could be donated to registered political parties for encashment within 14 days.
- Removal of donation limits facilitated crony capitalism in the donation ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– The Supreme Court of India struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme, citing a breach of the right to information. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Electoral Bonds Scheme Overview of Electoral Bonds Electoral bonds, akin to promissory notes, were introduced in 2018 for political funding in India. Purchased from the State Bank of India (SBI), these bonds could be donated to registered political parties for encashment within 15 days. The scheme aimed at enhancing transparency in electoral funding, aligning with the government’s vision of a cashless-digital economy. Statement 2 is Correct Amendments in 2022 An additional 15-day period was introduced during general elections for Legislative Assemblies. This amendment raised concerns regarding the impact on the electoral process and transparency. Concerns Raised Contradiction of Transparency Critics argued that the scheme lacked transparency, with anonymity benefiting the ruling party and posing risks to free and fair elections. Potential for Extortion The sale of bonds through a government-owned bank raised concerns about the government’s knowledge of funding sources, potentially leading to extortion or bias. Compromising Right to Know Exemption of political parties from disclosing donations contradicted citizens’ right to know, a vital aspect of a representative democracy. Crony Capitalism Removal of donation limits facilitated crony capitalism, allowing well-resourced corporations to unduly influence elections. |
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Quasars
- The quasars have zero to very feeble luminosity owing to very dense nature which does not the light to pass and reflect.
- A quasar is an exceptionally active and luminous form of an active galactic nucleus
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- A group of astronomers from around the world has identified J0529-4351 as the brightest and fastest-growing quasar ever found. This quasar is characterized by a supermassive black hole, approximately 17 billion times the mass of the Sun |
| Source: TL |
| Explanation: Statement I is Correct Understanding Quasars: A Brief Overview Definition A quasar is an exceptionally active and luminous form of an active galactic nucleus (AGN). AGN refers to a supermassive black hole that is actively feeding at the center of a galaxy. Formation Quasars are believed to develop in regions of the universe with significantly higher matter density than average. They are a subset of AGNs, and not all AGNs are classified as quasars. Characteristics Quasars rank among the most brilliant, potent, and dynamic celestial entities in the known universe Statement II is Incorrect Formation Process Active galaxies feature a central supermassive black hole consuming substantial amounts of matter. Infalling matter forms a spiraling accretion disk around the black hole. High-speed gas clouds in the disk generate heat through friction, reaching temperatures in the millions of degrees. Brightness is emitted as a result, and some material is ejected in a luminous, magnetically collimated jet. Luminosity The nucleus of an active galaxy with a quasar can shine so intensely that it remains observable across vast cosmic distances. The brightest quasars can surpass the combined brightness of all stars within their host galaxies. Visibility Many quasars have been identified billions of light-years away, making them visible at extraordinary distances. |
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
- IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments
- IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments
- CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The fourteenth session of the Conference of the Parties (CoP) to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS 14) has concluded in Samarkand, Uzbekistan. |
| Source: DTE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) is an international organization, but it is not a specialized agency or organ of the United Nations. However, IUCN has a unique relationship with the United Nations and is often recognized as an official observer at UN General Assembly meetings. It collaborates with various UN agencies and works towards shared conservation goals. On the other hand, the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is indeed an international agreement between governments. CITES aims to regulate and control the international trade of endangered species to ensure their conservation and prevent overexploitation. While both IUCN and CITES operate in the realm of environmental conservation, they have distinct structures and functions, with IUCN being an independent organization and CITES being an international treaty. Statement 2 is Correct The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) is a global environmental organization that operates thousands of field projects worldwide. These projects aim to improve the management and conservation of natural environments, including biodiversity, ecosystems, and wildlife. IUCN collaborates with various stakeholders, including governments, NGOs, and local communities, to address environmental challenges and promote sustainable practices. Statement 3 is Correct The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is an international agreement between governments. It is legally binding on the countries (States) that are parties to the convention. However, CITES does not replace or supersede national laws. Instead, it complements and reinforces national legislation related to the trade and conservation of endangered species. Member countries are responsible for enacting and enforcing domestic laws that align with the provisions of CITES to ensure effective protection of wildlife and prevent illegal trade. |
Q13. Consider the following statements regarding Odysseus Spacecraft
- Odysseus marks the First private attempt to land on the lunar surface.
- It is an integral part of NASA’s Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative and the broader Artemis campaign
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– Odysseus, the private Nova-C lunar lander by Intuitive Mission, has been launched to the Moon aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket from NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida. |
| Source: TOI |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Odysseus Lunar Mission Overview Private Lunar Attempt Odysseus marks the second private attempt following the Peregrine lander’s unsuccessful mission. Rocket Utilizes SpaceX’s Falcon 9, a two-stage rocket designed for Earth’s orbit transportation of people and payloads. Payloads and CLPS Initiative Carries six payloads for NASA as part of the Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative. Aims to test new technologies and scientific instruments during the lunar mission. Statement 2 is Correct Key Technologies Tested LIDAR-based sensor and an electrostatic dust-removal system for spacesuits are among the pivotal technologies being tested. Moon Landing Date Scheduled to land on the Moon on February 22, 2024. Historical Significance Aims to achieve the distinction of being the first American spacecraft to land on the Moon in over 50 years since Apollo 17 in 1972. NASA Initiatives Integral part of NASA’s Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative and the broader Artemis campaign. |
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding El Nino and La Nina
- Typically, a surface low-pressure system forms in northern Australia and Indonesia, while a high-pressure system develops off the coast of Peru in normal conditions.
- El Nino is the warm phase, characterized by warmer water spreading from west to east in the equatorial Pacific Ocean
- A recent study indicates that an extraordinary El Nino event, prolonged by the influence of climate change, initiated an unusual pattern during the winter season of 2022-23 in India
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- A recent study indicates that an extraordinary La Nina event, prolonged by the influence of climate change, initiated an unusual pattern during the winter season of 2022-23 in India. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Normal Climatic Conditions in the Pacific Ocean Near the equator in the Pacific Ocean, the Sun heats the water, creating warm surface conditions. Typically, a surface low-pressure system forms in northern Australia and Indonesia, while a high-pressure system develops off the coast of Peru. Trade winds blow east to west over the Pacific Ocean, transporting warm surface waters westward. This results in convective storms, particularly affecting Indonesia and coastal Australia. Statement 2 is Correct El Nino and La Nina Overview El Nino and La Nina are opposing climate trends that deviate from normal conditions and occur every two to seven years on average. These events, collectively referred to as the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle, have global effects on weather, wildfires, ecosystems, and economics. El Nino is the warm phase, characterized by warmer water spreading from west to east in the equatorial Pacific Ocean. La Nina is the cold phase, marked by cooler water spreading east-west. Statement 3 is Incorrect Impact of La Nina on Air Quality in India Study Findings Conducted by researchers at the National Institute of Advanced Studies (Bengaluru) and the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (Pune). El Nino and La Nina events strongly influence monsoon rainfall in India, impacting weather globally. The study reveals the first connection between La Nina and air quality in Indian cities, linked indirectly to climate change. Deviation in Winter 2022 Normally, northern Indian cities, especially Delhi, experience high PM2.5 concentrations during October to January. Winter 2022 showed a significant deviation, with Delhi experiencing a 10% reduction, while Mumbai and Bengaluru saw increases of 30% and 20%, respectively. The researchers attribute this anomaly to a particularly strong La Nina event. Cumulative Effects of La Nina Not all La Nina events produce noticeable changes in wind circulation over India, but this strong event impacted air quality. The impact on air circulation became evident in the third year of La Nina, suggesting a cumulative effect. The study does not yet clarify whether El Nino would produce an opposite effect on air quality over India. How La Nina Impacted Air Quality in India Changing Wind Direction In the winter of 2022, wind circulation changed from the typical north-westerly direction to north-south. This deviation caused pollutants from Punjab and Haryana to bypass Delhi, flowing over Rajasthan and Gujarat to southern regions. Altered Wind Circulation near Mumbai Wind currents usually alternate between land-to-sea and sea-to-land directions every few days. In 2022, persistent north-south winds for over a week or 10 days led to increased pollutant accumulation in Mumbai. |
Q15. With reference to TN-SHORE consider the following statements
- TN-SHORE (Neithal Meetchi Iyakkam) is initiated to restore coastal resources in 14 districts of Tamil Nadu.
- It provides coastal communities with alternative livelihood opportunities, including ecotourism, waste management, and circular economy solutions
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question– In the 2024-2025 State Budget, the Tamil Nadu government introduced TN-SHORE, a new initiative aimed at revitalizing coastal resources and safeguarding endangered species |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Key Highlights of TN-SHORE Scheme Overview TN-SHORE (Neithal Meetchi Iyakkam) is initiated to restore coastal resources in 14 districts, covering 1,076 km, with an estimated cost of Rs 1,675 crore. Objectives Aimed at enhancing coastal biodiversity, providing coastal protection, improving the livelihoods of coastal communities, and controlling pollution in coastal areas. Statement 2 is Correct Blue Economy Integration Emphasizes the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, job creation, and improved livelihoods, aligning with the concept of the Blue Economy. Ecological Focus Focuses on the restoration of critical ecosystems like mangroves, coral reefs, and salt marshes, essential for marine health and the coastal economy. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) Aligns with SDG 14 (Life Below Water), contributing to global efforts for the sustainable use and preservation of marine resources. Community Engagement Involves active participation of local communities, particularly the youth, in the conservation and management of coastal resources. Alternative Livelihoods Provides coastal communities with alternative livelihood opportunities, including ecotourism, waste management, and circular economy solutions. Cultural and Natural Heritage Preservation Contributes to the preservation of the cultural and natural heritage of coastal areas, ensuring the sustainable development of these regions. |
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Rhodamine-B
- The Tamil Nadu government has recently prohibited the sale and manufacturing of cotton candy within the state.
- Generally, Rhodamine-B is not prohibited in food due to its food friendly nature.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: C
| Why this question- The Tamil Nadu government has recently prohibited the sale and manufacturing of cotton candy within the state |
| Source: IT |
| Explanation: Statement I is Correct The Tamil Nadu government has recently prohibited the sale and manufacturing of cotton candy within the state Rhodamine-B: Harmful Water-Soluble Dye Nature and Appearance Rhodamine-B is a water-soluble chemical compound. Initially green in powder form, it transforms into a vibrant fluorescent pink upon contact with water. Industrial Usage Widely employed in the textile, paper, leather, and paints industries as a coloring agent, contributing to the red and pink spectrum. Legal Implications According to the Food Safety Standards Act (2006), utilizing Rhodamine-B in the preparation, packaging, importing, selling, or serving food during public events, including weddings, is a punishable offense. Statement II is Incorrect Toxicity and Health Concerns Considered an industrial dye, Rhodamine-B is prohibited in food worldwide due to its toxic nature. Regular consumption can lead to damage in cerebellum tissue and the brainstem, affecting motor functioning. Oxidative Stress and Health Risks Ingesting the chemical may induce oxidative stress on cells and tissues, posing significant health risks. When mixed with food products, it becomes particularly hazardous, potentially leading to cancer and tumors over time. Legal Consequences The use of Rhodamine-B in food items violates legal standards, inviting punitive actions under food safety regulations |
Q17.Consider the following statements regarding Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)
- Section 125 of CrPC is a secular provision facilitating maintenance for wives, children, or parents unable to sustain themselves.
- Section 125 serves to prevent vulnerability by offering monetary support to those in need, avoiding destitution and poverty.
- The Allahabad High Court has consistently affirmed the right of divorced Muslim women to claim maintenance under Section 125 of CrPC.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
| Why this question- The Supreme Court has opted to scrutinize whether a divorced Muslim woman has the right to seek maintenance from her ex-husband under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC). |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) Secular Maintenance Law Section 125 of CrPC is a secular provision facilitating maintenance for wives, children, or parents unable to sustain themselves. It aims to prevent situations of vagrancy and poverty, providing legal recourse for financial support. Statement 2 is Correct Categories Eligible for Support Individuals falling within specified categories, such as spouses or children, can claim financial assistance under this section. Preventing Vulnerability Section 125 serves to prevent vulnerability by offering monetary support to those in need, avoiding destitution and poverty. Statement 3 is Correct Judicial Precedents and Interpretations Allahabad High Court Decisions The Allahabad High Court has consistently affirmed the right of divorced Muslim women to claim maintenance under Section 125 of CrPC post the iddat period, as long as remarriage has not occurred. Case Examples In Mujeeb Rahiman v. Thasleena (2022), the Kerala High Court maintained that a divorced Muslim woman can seek maintenance under Section 125 until relief is obtained under Section 3 of the 1986 Act. Noushad Flourish v. Akhila Noushad (2023) clarified that a Muslim wife, who has obtained a divorce through khula, cannot claim maintenance under Section 125 of CrPC from her husband. |
Q18.Consider the following statements:
- The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’
- The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– UNESCAP’s recently published Asia-Pacific SDG Progress Report 2024 spotlights success stories, trends, and challenges in the region’s journey toward achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). |
| Source: DTE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect The concept of sustainable development and discussions around global goals began gaining traction in the early 1970s, but the specific Sustainable Development Goals as we know them today were not proposed by the Club of Rome. The SDGs, officially known as Transforming our World: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, were adopted in 2015, making them a product of international collaboration and a response to evolving global challenges. Statement 2 is Correct The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were officially adopted by all United Nations Member States, including India, in September 2015. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which includes 17 SDGs, was a result of a collaborative effort involving member states and various stakeholders. |
Q19. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission of Schedule Caste
- The NCSC, a Statutory Body, established to safeguard Scheduled Castes (SCs) against exploitation.
- The NCSC consists of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and three additional Members, appointed by the President.
- The Commission cannot regulate its own procedure but possesses powers akin to a civil court during investigations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- The Vice-Chairman (Chairman In-charge) presented the Annual Report 2022-23 of the National Commission of Schedule Caste to the President of India |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): Overview Establishment and Purpose The NCSC, a Constitutional Body, was established to safeguard Scheduled Castes (SCs) against exploitation and promote their social, educational, economic, and cultural interests. Historical Evolution Initially, a Special Officer (Commissioner for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) was appointed under Article 338. The 65th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1990 replaced the one-member system with the multi-member National Commission for SCs and STs. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 led to the creation of separate Commissions for SCs and STs Statement 2 is Correct Composition The NCSC consists of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and three additional Members, appointed by the President. Statement 3 is Incorrect Functions Investigate and monitor matters related to constitutional and legal safeguards for SCs. Inquire into specific complaints regarding the deprivation of SCs’ rights. Participate in and advise on the socio-economic development planning for SCs. Evaluate progress and present reports to the President. Make recommendations for effective implementation of safeguards and development measures. Power and Authority The Commission can regulate its own procedure and possesses powers akin to a civil court during investigations. Governments must consult the NCSC on major policy matters affecting SCs. Constitutional Provisions for SC Upliftment Article 15: Addresses caste-based discrimination, emphasizing SC protection and upliftment. Article 17: Abolishes Untouchability, promoting equality and dignity. Article 46: Directs the State to promote educational and economic interests, protecting from social injustice. Article 243D (4) and Article 243T (4): Mandates seat reservations for SCs in Panchayats and Municipalities. Article 330 and Article 332: Reserves seats for SCs in Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies. |
Q20. With reference to Model Code of Conduct consider the following statements
- Model Code of Conduct is divided into eight parts, covering various aspects of electioneering, publication of advertisements, and conduct during the electoral process
- It becomes effective when the EC announces the election schedule and remains in force until the announcement of results
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question-As the general election dates, triggering the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), are anticipated within a month, an Indian delegation is poised to depart for London to finalize the free trade agreement with the UK. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Model Code of Conduct (MCC): Regulating Election Conduct Introduction The MCC serves as a set of guidelines designed to regulate the behavior of political parties and candidates during elections. Voluntarily agreed upon by political entities, it aims to ensure free and fair polling conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI). Structure of MCC Divided into eight parts, covering various aspects of electioneering, publication of advertisements, and conduct during the electoral process. Voluntary Agreement Political parties and candidates voluntarily agree to adhere to the MCC guidelines. Enforcement by ECI The ECI, under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, oversees the adherence to MCC by political parties in power and contesting candidates. Statement 2 is Correct Salient Features Outlines the conduct of political parties and candidates during electioneering, meetings, processions, poll day activities, and functioning of the party in power. Preventing Misuse of Official Machinery MCC ensures that official machinery is not misused for electoral purposes. Prevention of Offenses and Malpractices Aims to prevent electoral offenses, malpractices, and corrupt practices, with appropriate measures taken in case of violations. Effective Period Becomes effective when the EC announces the election schedule and remains in force until the announcement of results. Applicability During general elections to the Lok Sabha, applicable nationwide. In general elections to the Legislative Assembly of a state, applicable throughout the state. Applicable in the specific area of the concerned constituency during bye-elections. Legal Enforcement While the MCC itself is not legally enforceable, certain provisions may be enforced through corresponding statutes such as the Representation of the People Act, 1951, IPC, and CrPC. |
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