UPSC GS Paper-I (2022) B ANSWER KEY ALONG WITH EXPLANATION

Table of Contents

Edukemy brings the most reliable answers for UPSC CSE Prelims (GS Paper 1 – Set B). Below are the questions along with explanations and sources.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS SET B GS PAPER QUESTIONS

Q1. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”

(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Solution

Difficulty : Easy

Type : Current Affairs

The correct answer is A.

Explanation: The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis that measures government climate action against the globally agreed aim of holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.
It is produced by two research organisations: Climate Analytics, and New Climate Institute.
The Climate Action Tracker tracks climate pledges and policies of 32 countries, covering around 80% of global emissions, including all the biggest emitters and a representative sample of smaller emitters.

Q2. Consider the following statements:

“The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution

Difficulty: Difficult

Type : Current Affairs

The correct answer is B.

Q3. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation, and evaporation.

(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.

(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Solution

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Static

The correct answer is D.

Wetlands absorb heavy pollutants and metals like cadmium, arsenic and excess nutrients.

Q4. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

The 24-hour mean of PM_2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM_2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather.
PM₁₀ can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Solution

Difficulty: Difficult

Type: Current

The correct answer is B.

Q5. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements :

It is a fungus.
It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: Medium

Type : Current

The correct answer is C.

Q6. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Static

The correct answer is A

Q7. Which of the following is not a bird?

(a) Golden Mahseer

(b) Indian Nightjar

(d) White Ibis

Solution

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Current

The correct answer is A.

Q8. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

Alfalfa
Amaranth
Chickpea
Clover
Purslane (Kulfa)
Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Solution

Difficulty: Difficult

Type: Static

The correct answer is A.

Q9. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

(b) Development of building materials using plant residues

(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

Solution

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Current

The correct answer is A

Q10. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora

(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Solution

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Current

The correct answer is C

Q11. Consider the following:

Aarogya Setu
COWIN
DigiLocker
DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Current

The correct answer is D

All the 4 options are correct.

Q12. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:

Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks.
Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: Medium

Type: Current

The correct answer is D

All the Satements are true

Q13. With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:

SaaS buyers can customize the user interface and can change data fields.
SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: Difficult

Type: Current

The correct answer is D

Q14. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?

(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.

(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.

(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Solution

Difficulty: Easy

Type: Current

The correct answer is C

Q15. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

(a) Cloud Services

(b) Quantum Computing

(d) Wireless Communication Technologies

Solution

Difficulty : Easy

Type: Current

The correct answer is B

Q16. Consider the following communication technologies:

Closed-circuit Television
Radio Frequency Identification
Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q17. Consider the following statements :

Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q18. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:

Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is C

Q19. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is B

Q20. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

GPS and navigation systems could fail.
Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
Power grids could be damaged.
Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: CURRENT

The correct answer is C

Solar flare reaches the earth and would affect POWER GRID, GPS, Navigation, orbit of satellite and shortwave radio communication of aircraft. It can creates auroras all over Earth

Q21. Consider the following statements:

Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 only

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

The Contempt of Court Act 1971 defines the Civil
Contempt and criminal contempt and not the
Constitution.

Q22. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is B

Legal Firms are not recognised as Advocates
while remaining part of the statement is correct.

Q23. Consider the following statements:

A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Q24. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Q25. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

To ratify the declaration of Emergency
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Q26. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is B

Q27. Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q28. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is C

Q29. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is B

Q30. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is A

Q31. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(d) World Bank

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: CURRENT

The correct answer is B

The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide range of circumstances.

Q32. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is C

NEER is a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies. An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the local currency against the weighted basket of currencies of its trading partners.
An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness.

Q33. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

If Inflation is too high, RBI will sell (not BUY) G-sec in the market to pull money back.

Q34. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: CURRENT

The correct answer is C

The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club, last November to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Q35. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
IIBS provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is A

IIBs will provide inflation protection to both principal and interest payments.

Extant tax provisions are applicable on interest payments and capital gains on IIBs.

There are be no special tax treatment for these bonds.

Q36. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: CURRENT

The correct answer is B

E-commerce entities providing marketplace cannot exercise control or ownership over the inventory, i.e. the goods professed to be sold. Such control or ownership over the inventory renders the e-commerce business into an inventory-based model.

Q37. Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?

Farmers harvesting their crops
Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is A

There are three sectors of domestic economy:
• General government sector
• Real sector
• Financial sector

Statement 3 and 4 belongs to “Financial Sector”.

Q38. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment

(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment

(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India

(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: CURRENT

The correct answer is D

As per the indirect transfer of shares regulations any asset that derives most of its value (50%) from Indian assets, should be taxable domestically.

This essentially means that India will have the right to tax an M&A transaction, on the capital gains, if more than half of the assets (by value) are located in India.

Q39. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is A

All these are capital expenditures.

Q40. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is C

Dated securities form more than half of total internal debt. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q41. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(d) Wheat

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Rice is one of the most important crops and is a major source of anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide.

Q42. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:

Reduced seed requirement
Reduced methane production
Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q43. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Faguibine

(d) Lake Volta

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: MAPPING

The correct answer is B

Faguibine: In Mali is on the southern edge of the Sahara Desert. Climate changes cleared Mali’s Lake Faguibine and displaced 13 million people.

Q44. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(d) Tungabhadra

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: MAPPING

The correct answer is C

Gandikota is popularly known as ‘The Grand Canyon of India’ is a visual delight; situated along the Penner River in the Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh. With lush landscapes and elaborate rock formations, the destination is indeed a magnificence brought alive by nature

Q45. Consider the following pairs:

Peak Mountains

Namcha Barwa Garhwal Himalaya
Nanda Devi Kumaon Himalaya
Nokrek Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: MAPPING

The correct answer is B

Namcha Bharwa is a mountain peak lying in Tibet. Nanga Parvat is the western anchor of the entire mountain range

Q46. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco

(d) The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: MAPPING

The correct answer is A

Levant: Regions along Eastern Mediterranean sea. Know about Maghreb region: region of Western Region

Q47. Consider the following countries:

Azerbaijan
Kyrgyzstan
Tajikistan
Turkmenistan
Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: MAPPING

The correct answer is C

Countries bordering Afghanistan are Pakistan, Iran, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, and India.

Q48. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Monazite is a source of rare-earth.
Monazite contains thorium.
Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Monazite sands do not occur all over the coast. It occurs along Kerala, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and some pockets

Q49. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a) First half of the month of June

(b) Second half of the month of June

(d) Second half of the month of July

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

The question is asking about Summer Solstice: 21st June

Q50. Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake – Location

Hokera Wetland – Punjab
Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh
Rudrasagar Lake – Tripura
Sasthamkotta Lake – Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: MAPPING

The correct answer is B

Renuka and Rudrasagar are correctly matched. Hokersar is Jammu and Kashmir. Shastamkota is in Kerala.

Q51. Consider the following pairs:

Site of Ashoka’s Location in the State of

major rock edicts

Dhauli – Odisha
Erragudi – Andhra Pradesh
Jaugada – Madhya Pradesh
Kalsi – Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Dhauli and Erragudi are correctly matched. Jaugada is in Odisha; Kalsi is in Uttarakhand.

Q52. Consider the following pairs :

King Dynasty

Nannuka – Chandela
Jayashakti – Paramara
Nagabhata II – Gurjara-Pratihara
Bhoja – Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Nanukka and Nagabhata 2 correctly matched; Jayashakthi was a Chandella KIng; Bhoja was a King from Paramara dynasty.

Q53. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.

(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Oldest Tamil book Tolkappaiam also refer to the caste system in several places.

Q54. “Yogavāsistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

(a) Akbar

(b) Humayun

(d) Aurangzeb

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is A

yogavasistha was translated into persian By Nizamuddin Panipati under the orders of Akbar.

Q55. The world’s second tallest statue in the sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India in Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

(a) The best means of salvation was devotion.

(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.

(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: CURRENT

The correct answer is A

Q56. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: Current Affairs

The correct answer is A

Q57. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

(a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.

(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.

(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q58. Consider the following statements :

Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q59. Consider the following statements. DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

assess the age of a plant or animal.
distinguish among species that look alike.
identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q60. Consider the following:

Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen oxide
Ozone
Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution

Difficulty: EASY

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is B

Q61. Consider the following statements:

High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type: STATIC

The correct answer is D

Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth

Q62. Consider the following statements:

Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: CURRENT AFFAIRS

The correct answer is C

Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is a refugee camp in northwestern Uganda

Q63. Consider the following countries:

Armenia
Azerbaijan
Croatia
Romania
Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Solution

Difficulty: DIFFICULT

Type: CURRENT AFFAIRS

The correct answer is C

Organization of Turkic States (then called the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States – Turkic Council) was established in 2009 as an intergovernmental organization, with the overarching aim of promoting comprehensive cooperation among Turkic States. Its four founding member states are Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Türkiye. During the 7thSummit held in Baku in October 2019, Uzbekistan joined as a full member. Hungary received observer status at the Organization during its 6th Summit in Cholpon-Ata, Kyrgyz Republic in September 2018. And in lately in the 8th Summit held in November 2021, Turkmenistan joined as an Observer Member to the Organization.

Q64. Consider the following statements:

Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution

Difficulty: MEDIUM

Type: CURRENT AFFAIRS

The correct answer is B

Q65. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements :

A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is D

Territorial sea, as defined by the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea,[2] is a belt of coastal waters extending at most 12 nautical miles (22 km; 14 mi) from the baseline (usually the mean low-water mark) of a coastal state. The territorial sea is regarded as the sovereign territory of the state, although foreign ships (military and civilian) are allowed innocent passage through it, or transit passage for straits; this sovereignty also extends to the airspace over and seabed below. Adjustment of these boundaries is called, in international law, maritime delimitation Exclusive economic zone
Main article: Exclusive economic zone
An exclusive economic zone extends from the baseline to a maximum of 200 nautical miles (370.4 km; 230.2 mi), thus it includes the contiguous zone. A coastal nation has control of all economic resources within its exclusive economic zone, including fishing, mining, oil exploration, and any pollution of those resources. However, it cannot prohibit passage or loitering above, on, or under the surface of the sea that is in compliance with the laws and regulations adopted by the coastal State in accordance with the provisions of the UN Convention, within that portion of its exclusive economic zone beyond its territorial sea. Before the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea of 1982, coastal nations arbitrarily extended their territorial waters in an effort to control activities which are now regulated by the exclusive economic zone, such as offshore oil exploration or fishing rights (see Cod Wars). Indeed, the exclusive economic zone is still popularly, though erroneously, called a coastal nation’s territorial waters

Q66. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

(d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is B

Both Japan and China claim ownership of these islands.

Q67. Consider the following pairs :

Country – Important reason for being in the news recently

Chad – Setting up of permanent military base by China
Guinea – Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
Lebanon – Severe and prolonged economic depression
Tunisia – Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is C

Setting up of permanent military base by CHINA -Djibouti

Q68. Consider the following pairs :

Region often mentioned in the news – Country

Anatolia – Turkey
Amhara – Ethiopia
Cabo Delgado – Spain
Catalonia – Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is B

Cabo Delgado- MOZAMBIQUE , CATALONIA – SPAIN GUINEA special forces staged a coup ,capturing president ALPHA CONDE and announcing anationwide curfew

Q69. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements :

Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is A

Q70. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(d) Spider

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is A

Q71. Consider the following statements :

Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is A

Q72. Consider the following States:

Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Himachal Pradesh
Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States ?

(a) Only one State

(b) Only two States

(d) All four States

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is C

The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis that measures government climate action against the globally agreed aim of holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C. It is produced by two research organisations: Climate Analytics, and NewClimate Institute.

Q73. Consider the following statements :

In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is B

Q74. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct?

The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is B

Q75. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements :

As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is C

Q76. Consider the following:

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Missile Technology Control Regime
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is D

Q77. Consider the following statements:

Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 3 and 5

(d) 1 and 2

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is C

Q78. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation ?

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q79. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is A

Q80. Consider the following pairs :

Reservoirs – States

Ghataprabha – Telangana
Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
Indira Sagar – Andhra Pradesh
Maithon – Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : MAPPING

The correct answer is C

Ghataprabha reservoir is in Karnataka on Ghatprabha river which is a tributary of Krishna River. Gandhisagar is on River Chambal in M.P. Indira Sagar is on Narmada in the stata of Madhya Pradesh. Maithon reservoir is river Maithon in the state of Jharkhand so only option is matched correctly and three are not correctly mathced.

Q81. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

Administration of Justice
Local Self-Government
Land Revenue
Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is C

The subjects were divided into two lists – reserved and transferred.
The governor was in charge of the reserved list along with his executive councillors. The subjects under this list were law and order, irrigation, finance, land revenue, etc.

The ministers were in charge of subjects under the transferred list. The subjects included were education, local government, health, excise, industry, public works, religious endowments, etc

Q82. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to :

(a) Clothing

(b) Coins

(d) Weapons

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is B

Historically, the Fanam and Chuckram coins were the regular unit of currency in medieval Travancore and appear to have been extensively used for trading in the region of South India. The words Fanam and Panam literally mean money and are still used as a synonym for wealth in Kerala in the native language of Malayalam.

Q83. Consider the following freedom fighters:

Barindra Kumar Ghosh
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is D

Rash Behari Bose (pronunciation (help·info); 25 May 1886 – 21 January 1945) was an Indian revolutionary leader against the British Raj. He was one of the key organisers of the Ghadar Mutiny and founded the First Indian National Army during World War 2 based on millitarization policy of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar.[4] British Indian Army soldiers defected over to INA during the Japanese invasion of Singapore. He founded the Japanese branch of the Hindu Mahasabha in 1938 under the inspiration of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar who was the president of Hindu Mahasabha, India.[5][6] The Indian National Army(INA) was formed in 1942 under Rash Behari Bose which he later handed over as the Indian National Army to Subhas Chandra Bose. Rash Behari Bose remained the Supreme Advisor of INA led by Subhash Chandra Bose.[7] Vinayak Damodar Savarkar was the key link between Subhash Chandra Bose and Rash Behari Bose.

Q84. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements :

The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is B

A Constituent Assembly would be formed to frame a new constitution for the country. This Assembly would have members elected by the provincial assemblies and also nominated by the princes.

Any province unwilling to join the Indian dominion could form a separate union and have a separate constitution.

Q85. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts :

Nettipakarana
Parishishtaparvan
Avadanashataka
Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is B

The Nettipakarana (Pali: -pakaraṇa, also called Nettippakarana or just Netti) is a Buddhist scripture, sometimes included in the KhuddakaNikaya of Theravada Buddhism’s Pali Canon. The main theme of this text is Buddhist Hermeneutics through a systematization of the Buddha’s teachings. The Sri Lankan scholar Dhammapala wrote a commentary on this text in the fifth century.[1] An English translation titled The Guide by Bhikkhu Nanamoli was published in 1962 by the Pali Text Society.

Some important archaeological findings associated with Mauryan Empire were stone sculpture and literature including Arthashastra of Kautilya, Indica of Megasthenes, and the Junagarh Inscription of Rudradaman I. However, Hemachandra’sParishishtaparvan establishes Chandragupta’s connections with Jainism.

The Avadānaśataka or “Century of Noble Deeds (Avadāna)” is an anthology in Sanskrit of one hundred Buddhist legends, approximately dating to the same time as the Ashokavadana.^] Ratnamālāvadāna. The work may be from the Mulasarvastivada school.

Mahapurana or TrishashthilkshanaMahapurana is a major Jain text composed largely by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of Rashtrakuta ruler Amoghavarsha and completed by his pupil Gunabhadra in the 9th century CE. Mahapurana consists of two parts. The first part is Ādipurāṇa written by Acharya Jinasena. The second part is Uttarapurana which is the section composed by Gunabhadra.

Q86. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

Historical person – Known as

Aryadeva – Jaina scholar
Dignaga – Buddhist scholar
Nathamuni – Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) None of the pairs

(b) Only one pair

(d) All three pairs

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is C

Aryadeva (Skt. Āryadeva; Tib. འཕགས་པ་ལྷ་, PakpaLha, Wyl. ‘phags pa lha) (second/third century) — one of the six great commentators (the ‘Six Ornaments’) on the Buddha’s teachings. He was a disciple of Nagarjuna and devoted his life to continuing his master’s work, consolidating the Madhyamika tradition. He is also counted among the eighty-four mahasiddhas.
Dignāga (a.k.a. Diṅnāga, c. 480 – c. 540 CE) was an Indian Buddhist scholar and one of the Buddhist founders of Indian logic (hetuvidyā). Dignāga’s work laid the groundwork for the development of deductive logic in India and created the first system of Buddhist logic and epistemology (Pramana).[1]
Nathamuni was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the NalayiraDivyaPrabandham. Considered the first of Sri Vaishnava āchāryās, Nathamuni is also the author of Yogarahasya, and Nyā

Q87. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Chengez Khan invaded India during the reign of Iltumish for the first time. He was the founder and first Great Khan of the Mongol Empire.
Statement 2 is correct: During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one of the Mongol invasion reached till the outskirts of Delhi city and besieged it.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq defeated the Mongols and he had not lost any of the portions of his kingdom to them.
Source: The Mongols and Delhi Sultanate- Cambridge

Q88. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

(a) Arab merchants

(b) Qalandars

(d) Sayyids

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is D

The Sayyids were claimed to descent from the Prophet through his daughter Fatima. They Commanded special respect in Muslim society.

Even the Timur protected the life of Sayyids during his invasion in India. Although his policy was one of general slaughter.

The sayyids put on a pointed cap (kulah) and they were known as ‘Kulah Daran’ during Delhi sultanate.

Source: History of Medieval India by V.D Mahajan

Q89. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements :

The Dutch ‘established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is D

As we celebrate Madras Day let us take time off to find out how it came to be.

Madrasapattinam, located in Tondaimandalam, nestling between the Pennar river in Nellore and Cuddalore was ruled by the Chola, Pallava, Pandiya and Vijaynagar empires. However, things changed during the reign of the Vijaynagar Empire. Chieftains or Nayaks began to rule various regions of the province independently.

Trade expansions

The Portuguese arrived in 1522 and built a port naming it Sao Tome after the apostle of Jesus Christ — St. Thomas. The Dutch who arrived in 1612 established their base in Pulicat.

The British East India Company entered India through Surat in Gujarat. They wanted to strengthen the Spice route and were interested in establishing a port closer to the Straits of Malacca.

On August 20, 1639, Francis Day of the East India Company and Damerla Venkatadri Nayak travelled to Chandragiri palace to meet the Vijayanagara King Peda Venkata Rayaand with the purpose of purchasing land. The island the British eyed was about 400 km away from the mainland, close to the sea and lined by a river.

This was in actuality a strip of waste marshland. And, on this was built Fort St. George. The deal was finalised by Day, his Dubash Beri Thimmappa, and their superior, Andrew Cogan, with the local Nayak rulers. It is believed that this deal was made on August 22, 1639.

The idea to set up a township however, was the brainchild of the two merchants of the East India Company — Francis Day and Andrew Cogan. Day agreed to pay a rent of Rs. 500 a year in pagodas. The transaction was engraved on a plate of gold after the purchase.

They duo also wanted to set up a factory for trading projects, and the chieftain DamerlaVenkatapathy permitted it. A factory of brick was built upon the island, and mounted with cannon. On April 23, 1640, a colony that served as the headquarters came up.

The province was formally called George Town and it included several streets with particular businesses, serving the British. This served as a settlement for British factory workers, merchants and other British residents and was also called the White Town.

Q90. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?

A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is A

Q91. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

(a) Central Statistics Office

(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is C

Labour Bureau decides on these issues.

Q92. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is A

To ensure fair production and commercial transaction, Coal Controller Organisation, a subordinate office under Ministry of Coal, has been entrusted with the following responsibilities:

Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal.
To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in a colliery.
To act as the appellate authority in case of dispute between consumers and owner arising out of declaration of grade and size of coal.
To regulate disposal of stock of coal or the expected output of coal in the colliery.
Quality surveillance with respect to maintenance of grade, loading of coal in wagons/ trucks according to laid down procedures regarding grades and sizes.
To grant opening / re-opening permission of coal mine, seam or a section of seam or to sub-divide a mine.
Assessment and collection of excise duty levied on all raw coal raised and dispatched.
Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of Central and State Government, national and international organization.

Q93. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is A

Para 4 of the Fifth Schedule provides for establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) in any State having Scheduled Areas. If the President so directs, there will be established a TAC in a State having Scheduled tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein, consisting of not more than twenty members of whom, three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State. If the number of representatives of the STs in the Legislative Assembly of the State is less than the number of seats in the TAC to be filled by such representatives, the remaining seats shall be filled by other members of those Tribes.

Q94. Consider the following statements:

The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Difficulty :MEDIUM

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is B

ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bi-lateral/multilateral, experts etc. to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model.

Q95. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

(a) Central Water Commission

(b) Central Ground Water Board

(d) National Water Development Agency

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is C

Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country.

Q96. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is A

A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.
The General Assembly meets annually in regular session, intensively from September to December, and resumes in January until all issues on the agenda are addressed

Q97. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Solution

Difficulty : MEDIUM

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is A

International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code)

Q98. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is D

Q99. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

The Tea Board is a statutory body.
It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Solution

Difficulty : DIFFICULT

Type : STATIC

The correct answer is D

Established on 1st April 1954 by the Tea Act (1953), the Tea Board of India is headquartered in Kolkata. After being set up under the Tea Act 1953, the Tea Board of India is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce.

Q100. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

Solution

Difficulty : EASY

Type : CURRENT

The correct answer is A

Greenwashing: Greenwashing, as a concept, refers to the deceptive promotion of the perception that an organisation’s products, aims or policies are environmentally friendly. With no single global standard or recognised legal definition, and the market criteria based on voluntary compliance, it is difficult to conclusively say if some bonds are green or not.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

FAQ 1: Question – What is the key focus of UPSC GS Paper-I (2022) – B?

Answer: The key focus of UPSC GS Paper-I (2022) – B is on topics related to Indian Heritage and Culture, History, and Geography of the World and Society.

Explanation: The paper aims to test candidates’ knowledge and understanding of India’s cultural and historical heritage, as well as their awareness of global geography and societal issues.

FAQ 2: Question – How should I prepare for Indian Heritage and Culture questions in GS Paper-I?

Answer: To prepare for Indian Heritage and Culture questions, candidates should focus on topics such as art and architecture, ancient and medieval history, cultural festivals, and the impact of various civilizations on Indian culture.

Explanation: A thorough study of NCERT books, reference books, and previous years’ question papers can provide a comprehensive understanding of Indian heritage and culture.

FAQ 3: Question – Are current affairs important for GS Paper-I (2022)?

Answer: While GS Paper-I primarily focuses on static topics, candidates should also be aware of relevant current affairs, especially those related to historical events, geographical changes, and societal developments.

Explanation: Incorporating current affairs in your preparation enhances your ability to analyze and apply your knowledge to contemporary issues.

FAQ 4: Question – How should I approach History questions in GS Paper-I (2022)?

Answer: Approach History questions chronologically, covering ancient, medieval, and modern periods. Emphasize understanding the cause-and-effect relationships, social and economic changes, and the impact of historical events on society.

Explanation: History questions often require a comprehensive understanding of events and their implications. Practice through previous years’ question papers and standard history books to refine your analytical skills.

FAQ 5: Question – What is the role of maps in GS Paper-I (2022)?

Answer: Maps play a crucial role in GS Paper-I to test candidates’ geographical knowledge. Questions may include identifying locations, understanding regional characteristics, and analyzing spatial relationships.

Explanation: Regularly practice map-related questions, focusing on the physical and political aspects of geography. Familiarity with maps enhances your ability to answer questions accurately.

In case you still have your doubts, contact us on 9811333901.

For UPSC Prelims Resources, Click here

For Daily Updates and Study Material:

Join our Telegram Channel – Edukemy for IAS

1. Learn through Videos – here
2. Be Exam Ready by Practicing Daily MCQs – here
3. Daily Newsletter – Get all your Current Affairs Covered – here
4. Mains Answer Writing Practice – here

Visit our YouTube Channel – here