UPSC Prelims 2015 Question Paper with Answer Key – General Studies Paper 1

As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2015 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2015 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1

UPSC Prelims 2017 Exam

The UPSC Prelims exam is a tough phase in the Civil Services Examination, serving as an entry point to desirable positions like Indian Administrative Services (IAS) and Indian Police Services (IPS). It is set to happen on August 23, 2015 with two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam is from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM

The Importance of Previous Year Question Papers

To do well in the UPSC Prelims, candidates need more than just a solid grasp of concepts; they should also know the exam pattern, question formats, and time management strategies. A highly effective method for achieving this is to study the previous year’s question papers. These papers offer valuable insights into the exam’s format, level of difficulty, and the kinds of questions typically posed.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2015 – Available on Edukemy’s Website

Candidates eagerly anticipating the UPSC Prelims question papers don’t need to look everywhere. Soon after the exam, you can find the General Studies Paper 1 question papers on Edukemy’s website. Aspirants can effortlessly get and save the UPSC Prelims 2015 Question Papers in PDF format from our platform.

Prelims 2015 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions

Q1. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojna’ has been launched for

a) providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates

b) promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in backward areas

c) promoting financial inclusion in the country

d) providing financial help to the marginalized communities

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) 

• It is a National Mission on financial Inclusion which has an integrated approach to bring about comprehensive financial inclusion and provide banking services to all households in the country. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• It is one of the biggest financial inclusion initiatives in the world, announced on 15 August 2014 by PM Narendra Modi from the ramparts of the Red Fort and launched on August 28th. 
• Guinness World Records has also recognized the achievements made under it and has certified that the “Most bank accounts opened in one week as part of the Financial Inclusion Campaign is 18,096,130 and was achieved by the Department of Financial Services, Government of India.” 
• Today, coverage of almost 100% has been achieved where out of the accounts opened, 60% are in rural areas and 40% are in urban areas while the share of female account holders is about 51%. 

Q2: With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 1 only. 

Recommendations of the 14th Commission include: 

• Tax devolution should be the primary source of transfer of funds to states.  
• The share of taxes of the centre to states is recommended to be increased from 32% to 42%. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Additional budgetary needs of the states will be filled by grants-in-aid to the states. The total revenue deficit grant to states in the 2015-20 period is recommended to be Rs 1,94,821 crore. 
• The total grant to local governments for 2015-20 has been fixed at Rs 2,87,436 crore, of which Rs 2,00,292 crore is recommended to panchayats and Rs 87,144 crore to municipalities. 
• An independent fiscal council should be created to evaluate the fiscal policy implications of budget proposals before the budget is announced. States are advised to amend their FRBM Acts similarly. 
• Alternatively, the FRBM Act may be replaced with a Debt Ceiling and Fiscal Responsibility Legislation, to bring greater legitimacy to fiscal management. 
• There was no recommendation concerning sector-specific grants. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct. 

Important Points 

The Finance Commission 

• It is a quasi-judicial body provided under Article 280 of the Constitution and is constituted by the president of India every fifth year or at a such earlier time as he considers necessary. 
• This commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President who holds office for such period as specified by the president in his order and are eligible for reappointment. 
• The Constitution of India authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and how they should be selected which the Parliament has accordingly specified in the Finance Commission Act, 1951.

Q3: The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the affairs of

a) ASEAN

b) BRICS

c) OECD

d) WT

The correct answer is option 2.  

Fortaleza Declaration   

• The presidents of the BRICS nations signed the agreement establishing the New Development Bank at the sixth BRICS summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014. (NDB). 
• It stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global development thus contributing to sustainable and balanced growth. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• NDB’s major areas of operation are clean energy, transport infrastructure, irrigation, sustainable urban development and economic cooperation among the member nations. 
• The BRICS countries’ equal rights are upheld by the NDB, which operates on a consultation mechanism. 
• NDB’s main office is in Shanghai. 
• The prospect of establishing a new Development Bank to raise funds for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in the BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as in developing nations, was discussed at the Fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi(2017).

Q4: A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?

1. Slowing economic growth rate
2. Less equitable distribution of national income

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 1 only.  

A tax-to-GDP ratio 

• It is a gauge of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy as measured by gross domestic product (GDP). 
• It is a measure of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy. 
• A tax-to-GDP ratio determines how well a nation’s government use its economic resources via taxation. 
• Developed nations typically have higher tax-to-GDP ratios than developing nations. 
• If the tax-to-GDP ratio is low it shows a slow economic growth rate. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• The ratio shows that government spending can be financed. 
• A greater tax-to-GDP ratio indicates a robust tax buoyancy in an economy. 
• The government is under pressure to adhere to its fiscal deficit targets if the tax-to-GDP ratio is lower. 
• It only shows growth in the economy not the distribution of national income. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 

Q5: In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

a) Sea surface temperatures are low

b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs

c) Coriolis force is too weak

d) Absence of land in those regions

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITZC) 

• It shifts toward the north in the northern summer and toward the south in the southern summer, usually staying at or north of the equator. 
• There is often no inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) above the ocean and there is excessive tropospheric vertical wind shear. 
• It becomes exceedingly challenging to produce tropical cyclones without an ITCZ to supply synoptic vorticity and convergence resulting in large-scale spin and thunderstorm activity as well as having severe wind shear. 
• It does not move southward over the South Atlantic or South Pacific region, remaining at or close to the equator. As a result, these areas do not have the ITCZ over them, which is one of the main reasons why there aren’t any cyclones. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 

Q6: Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

a) Assam and Rajasthan

b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

c) Assam and Gujarat

d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• The main land of India, a vast nation entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, extends between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N and longitudes 68°7’E and 97°25’E. 
• Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state in India because it is located at the easternmost longitude, 97°25’E. 
• Gujarat is the most western state in India, with the country’s westernmost longitude (68°7’E). Hence, Option 4 is correct. 

Q7: Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

The Directive Principles of State Policy 

• It is enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. 
• It was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. 
• It is described as a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution by Dr BR Ambedkar and along with the Fundamental Rights contains the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution, also described as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution’. 
• It constitutes a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State to aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution which embodies the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era. 
• It seeks to establish economic and social democracy in the country. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• DPSPs are non-justiciable and not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation and therefore, the government (central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them but the Constitution (in Article 37) itself says that these principles are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 

Q8: In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?

a) Coal production

b) Electricity generation

c) Fertilizer production

d) Steel production

The correct answer is Option 2.  

Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) 

• It is a production volume index.  
• It measures the collective and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity. 
• It is compiled and released by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), and Ministry of Commerce & Industry.  

The Index of Industrial Production 

• It is an index that shows the growth rates in different industry groups of the economy over a fixed period. 
• This is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. 
• It is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classified under Broad sectors, namely, Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity. 
• Use-based sectors, namely Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and Intermediate Goods. 
• The eight core sector industries represent about 40% of the weight of items that are included in the IIP. 
• The eight core industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers. 
• The base year for IIP calculation is 2011-2012. 
• Previously, Electricity was having the highest weightage. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Q9: Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

a) Bhitarkanika National Park

b) Keibul Lamjao National Park

c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park

d) Sultanpur National Park

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Keibul Lamjao National Park  

• This is the only floating park in the world located in the Bishnupur district of the North Eastern state of Manipur. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• It is a crucial component of Loktak Lake. 
• It is the largest naturally occurring freshwater lake in the northeast with the Phumdi environment. 
• The lake is a wetland of international importance under the RAMSAR Convention and was listed in the Montreux Record in 1993, which is a list of Ramsar sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur. As a result, it is also governed by the Environment (Protection) Act, of 1986. o The lake is rich in biodiversity and has been designated as a wetland of international importance under the RAMSAR Convention in 1990. 

Additional Information 

Bhitarkanika National Park 

• It is a sizable national park that spans 145 km2 (56 sq mi) and is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha, in eastern India. 
• It was designated on September 16th, 1998, and was given Ramsar site status on August 19th, 2002. 
• After Chilika Lake, the area has been named the second Ramsar site in the State. 
• The national park is home to many different types of flora and animals, including the saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), Indian python, king cobra, black ibis, and darters. 

Keoladeo Ghana National Park 

• Formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, it is a well-known avifauna sanctuary in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, India, where hundreds of birds live, especially during the winter. There are known residents of more than 230 bird species. 
• It is also a significant tourist destination, attracting a large number of ornithologists during the hibernation season. 
• In 1971, it was designated as a protected refuge. 
• It is a World Heritage Site as well. The park is the only location with rich foliage and trees in a region with low vegetation. 

Sultanpur National Park 

• It is located on the Gurgaon-Farrukh Nagar route in the Haryana district of Gurgaon. The park is roughly 50 km from Delhi and 15 km from Gurgaon away. 
• Birds have been drawn to Sultanpur Jheel for more than a century. But the potential of this wetland wasn’t brought up in official circles until 1969, at the Conference of the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) in New Delhi. 

Q10: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)?

1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government.
2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 1 only. 

National Innovation Foundation 

• It is an autonomous body set up in March 2000 with the assistance of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government at Ahmedabad, Gujarat. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Since then, it has been actively engaged in promoting creativity and innovation in society. 
• It is India’s national initiative to strengthen grassroots technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 
• It has taken major initiatives to serve the knowledge-rich but economically poor people of the country. 
• It is committed to making India innovative by documenting, adding value, protecting the IPR of contemporary unaided technological innovators as well as of outstanding traditional knowledge-holders and disseminating their innovations on a non-commercial and commercial basis. 
• Its mission is to help India become a creative and knowledge-based society by expanding policy and institutional space for grassroots technology.

Q11: What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?

1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. 

• More nitrogen in the soil leads to less need for nitrogen-fixing bacteria. 
• Less nitrogen-fixing bacteria are required when there is more nitrogen in the soil. 
• Increasing the amount of nitrogen-based fertilizer does not lead to more micro-organisms in the field. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• Nitrogen fertilizers break down into nitrates and travel easily through the soil. Because it is water-soluble and can remain in groundwater for decades, the addition of more nitrogen over the years has an accumulative effect. 
• The application of nitrogenous fertilisers excessively or improperly raises the soil’s acidity and causes nitrate to leach into the groundwater. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• Fertilizers are used in agriculture to increase nutrient inputs to soils, which affects the pH level. 
• The uncharged urea molecule ([CO(NH2)2]0), the cation ammonium (NH4+), and the anion nitrate (NO3-) are three different types of nitrogen molecules that alter soil pH. 
• Acidity is produced or consumed during the conversion of nitrogen from one form to another, and plant uptake of urea, ammonium, or nitrate will also have an impact on the soil’s acidity. 
• The leaching process causes these substances to deposit underground. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Q12: With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN. and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.  

International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) 

• It is a network of environmental organizations founded as the International Union for the Protection of Nature in October 1948 in Fontainebleau, France.  
• It is the only international observer organization in the UN General Assembly with expertise in issues concerning the environment, specifically biodiversity, nature conservation and sustainable natural resource use. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct 
• It promotes nature conservation and the ecologically sustainable use of natural resources. 
• It changed its name to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) in 1956. 
• It is composed of both government and civil society organizations which harness the experience and resources. 
• Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland. 
• It maintains the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which was established in 1964. 
• It also played a fundamental role in the creation of key international conventions, including the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), the World Heritage Convention (1972), the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species, (1974), and the Convention on Biological Diversity (1992), UNFCCC, etc. 
• The IUCN’s activities are organized into several theme-based programs ranging from business and biodiversity to forest preservation to water and wetlands conservation, climate change, conservation, poverty reduction, etc.  
• The IUCN’s funding comes from several governments, agencies, foundations, member organizations, and corporations. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 

The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) 

• It is an international agreement between governments, that entered into force in 1975.  
• Currently, 176 countries are parties to CITES.  
• CITES is administered through the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The CITES programme ensures compliance with and implementation and enforcement of the convention.  
• Although CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention but does not take the place of national laws, rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level to implement its goals. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Q13: The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP. of sugarcane is approved by the

a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture

d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee

The correct answer is option 1. 

Fair and Remunerative Price’ (FRP) of sugarcane   

• With the amendment of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 on 22nd October 2009, the concept of Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane was replaced with the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for 2009-10 and subsequent sugar seasons.  
• The cane price announced by the Central Government is decided based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) after consulting the State governments and associations of the sugar industry and approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• It is based on the recommendation of the Commission of Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) as per its report on the price policy for sugarcane for a season. 
• The ‘FRP’ of sugarcane is determined under Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 uniformly applicable all over the country.  
• The Determination of FRP is in the interest of sugarcane growers keeping in view their entitlement to a fair and remunerative price for their products.

Q14: What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?

a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis

b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents

c) Difference in salinity of water

d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

The correct answer is Option 2. 

The equatorial counter currents 

• Two equatorial currents are flowing from the East to West direction around the Equator-North Equatorial and South Equatorial Current.  
• A counter-equatorial current flow in the opposite direction (i.e., from West to East).  
• The convergence of the two equatorial currents explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• There is a high piling of waters taking place due to the convergence of this to West moving currents near the Eastern Brazil Coast.  
• This leads to the rise of the equatorial counter-current in the direction of low levels of water (i.e., in the Eastern part).  
• Our Earth rotates from West to East hence, the piled-up water comes down on its Eastern side and flows in the Eastern direction. 
• It is driven by a distinct surface wind pattern in the tropics. 
• Strong westward trade winds result in westward surface flow in most of the tropical Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. 
• However, several hundred mi. (km.) north of the equator, the winds are much weaker, in comparison 
• The stronger winds to the south pile up water where the winds are weak. 
• As a result, the surface of the ocean can be up to 6 in. (15 cm.) higher and the thermocline as much as 328 ft. (100 m.) deeper than it is directly to the north. 
• The intensity of the equatorial counter-current varies from season to season and from month to month. 
• The strongest seasonal changes occur in the Atlantic Ocean. 

Q15: Consider the following pairs:

Pace of Pilgrimage Location

1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills

Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and.3

The correct answer is option 1 only. 

Srisailam: 

• In Andhra Pradesh, on the flat summit of the Nallamala Hills, is the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna known as Srisailam. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Temple, also known as Srisailam Temple, is a Hindu shrine to the goddesses Parvati and Shiva. 
• This temple is one of the eighteen Shakti Peethas of goddess Parvati and one of the twelve Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva. 
• The lingam is a representation of Shiva, who is worshipped as Mallikarjuna. 
• Bhramaramba is a representation of Parvati. 

Omkareshwar: 

• It is situated on the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh (ancient name: Shivpuri). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Its name, Omkareshwar, comes from the way the River Narmada flows here as it circles the Mandhata hill in the shape of an Om. 
• Omkareshwar is a Hindu temple where the god Shiva is worshipped. 
• It is one of Shiva’s 12 cherished Jyotirlinga shrines. 

Pushkar: 

• The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. 
• It lies in Ajmer, Rajasthan.  
• It is famous for the red-spired Brahma Temple  
• It is located on the shore of Pushkar Lake. 

Q16: With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League.
3. Demonstrations against the arrival of the Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. 

• In 1918, with Mr Justice Rowlatt, an English judge, as its president, the Rowlatt committee was a Sedition Committee appointed by the British Indian Government. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• The committee’s objective was to evaluate political terrorism in India, in particular in Bengal and Punjab.  
• Gandhi tried to use three types of political networks in organising his satyagraha – the Home Rule Leagues, certain pan-Islamist groups and a satyagraha sabha that he started on 24 February in Bombay. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 

Additional Points 

Simon Commission 

• Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms and Government of India Act, 1919 had a provision that a commission would be appointed ten years from the date to study the progress of the government scheme and suggest new steps. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct. 
• An all-white, seven-member Indian Statutory Commission, popularly known as the Simon Commission was set up by the British government under Stanley Baldwin’s prime ministership on November 8, 1927. 
• The commission was to recommend to the British government whether India was ready for further constitutional reforms and along what lines. 

Q17: Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?

a) Syria and Jordan

b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia

c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea

d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Ebola virus disease (EVD) 

• Formerly known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever is a severe, often fatal illness affecting humans and other primates.  
• It is transmitted to people from wild animals (such as fruit bats, porcupines and non-human primates) and then spreads in the human population through direct contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected people, and with surfaces and materials (e.g. bedding, clothing) contaminated with these fluids.  
• The average Ebola virus disease case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have varied from 25% to 90% in past outbreaks.  
• The first Ebola virus disease outbreaks occurred in remote villages in Central Africa, near tropical rainforests.  
• The 2014–2016 outbreak in West Africa was the largest and most complex Ebola outbreak since the virus was first discovered in 1976. There were more cases and deaths in this outbreak than in all others combined. 
• It causes haemorrhagic fever was detected on 23 March 2014 in Guinea. More than 80 persons have been detected to have been infected with the Ebola virus. Out of this 59 people from Sierra Leone and Liberia have died. This marks the first time an outbreak among humans has been detected. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 

Q18: With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 3 only

The correct answer is 1 and 2. 

Fly ash  

• It is the finely divided residue that results from the combustion of pulverised coal and is transported from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases. 
• It is produced by coal-fired electric and steam-generating plants. 
• It is used annually in a variety of engineering applications that include: Portland cement concrete (PCC), soil and road base stabilization, flowable fills, grouts, structural fill and asphalt filler. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Portland cement, Embankment, Soil stabilization, Flowable fill, Asphalt concrete, Geopolymers, Roller compacted concrete, Bricks, Metal matrix composites, Waste treatment and stabilization, Catalyst.

Benefits of Fly Ash 

• extending the lifespan of concrete structures and roadways by enhancing concrete durability, Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• a decrease in energy consumption, greenhouse gas emissions, and other harmful air emissions when fly ash is utilised in place of or in addition to made cement, 
• a decrease in the volume of coal combustion waste that must be dumped in landfills, and 
• protection of other materials and natural resources. 
• It consists primarily of oxides of silicon, aluminium iron and calcium. Magnesium, potassium, sodium, titanium, and sulphur are also present to a lesser degree. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct. 

Q19: With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the, entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection. Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 3 only

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

Dugong 

• It is also called ‘Sea Cow’ and is one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia. 
• It is the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea including in India. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• It is protected in India and occurs in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.  
• The skin of ‘dugong’ is thick and covered everywhere with fine hair which gives a prickly appearance in certain lights.  
• They live in shallow, sheltered coastal waters where they feed upon sea-grasses and algae (herbivorous).  
• At present, three areas of the Indian coast have a population of dugongs -the Gulf of Kutch, the Gulf of Mannar, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.  
• It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Vulnerable in IUCN Red List. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 
• As in the Andaman Islands, the dugong has almost disappeared. They were hunted by mainland settlers for their meats and oil, and have also suffered from a loss of natural habitat (sea- grass beds). Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 

Q20: Who of the following was/were economic critic/ critics of colonialism in India?

1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G. Subramania Iyer
3. R. C. Dut

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3. 

Moderates Leaders of the Indian National Congress 

• The early leaders of the Indian national movement, known as the Moderates, were the first in the 19th century to create an economic criticism of colonialism. This critique was firmly anchored in an awareness of the nature and character of colonial economic dominance and exploitation. 
• They use popular lectures, booklets, newspapers, dramas, songs, and Prabhat pheries to spread awareness of nationalist agitation. 
• After 1860, as their expectations for India’s social development were not met, they started to see that, despite gradual and halting progress in different directions, the nation as a whole was under- and regressing. 
• Three names stand out among the large number of Indians who initiated and carried out the economic analysis of British rule during the years 1870-1905. 
• Dadabhao Naoroji, RC Dutt, G.V. Joshi, G. Subramaniya Iyer, G.K. Gokhale, Prithwis Chandra Ray, and hundreds of other political workers and journalists analyzed every aspect of the economy and subjected the entire range of economic issues and colonial economic policies to minute scrutiny. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• They posed basic questions regarding the nature and purpose of British rule. 
• They were able to follow the process of the colonialization of the Indian economy and conclude that colonialism was the principal hurdle to India’s economic progress. 

Q21: Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically?

a) The Asian Development Bank

b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development

c) The US Federal Reserve Bank

d) The World Bank

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Global Economic Prospects 

• It is a World Bank Group flagship report. 
• This report examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on emerging markets and developing economies. 
• This is issued twice a year, in January and June. 
• The January edition features an in-depth analysis of current policy issues, while the June edition contains shorter analytical articles. 
• Commodity Markets Outlook is now available as a separate report, which is also part of this collection. 

Q22: When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?

a) India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically

b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country

c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates

d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking, system

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) 

• It is the reserve requirement that commercial banks are required to maintain in the form of cash, gold reserves, PSU Bonds, and RBI-approved securities before providing credit to the customers. 
• If SLR is reduced, commercial banks can use more money to lend to their customers. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• When the lending rate is reduced by the bank to some extent, their profitability won’t be hampered in case of a reduction in the SLR rate.  
• Reduction in the Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is done by RBI to increase liquidity in the market. 
• This is a tool to manage the inflation rate.  

Q23: With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

Nanotechnology 

• It is the development and the use of techniques to study physical phenomena and develop new devices and material structures in the physical size range from 1 to 100 nanometres (nm). 
• 1 nanometre is equal to one billionth of a meter. 
• This technology has an impact on almost all sectors of the economy. 
• The research on nanotechnology covers many fields like health, food, computing, textile, energy, transport, space, agriculture, etc. 
• It has different biological properties from large-sized systems. 
• Its biological property could be used effectively to overcome problems in drug and gene therapy. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• In drug therapy, we face the problems of inefficacy or nonspecific effects; hence, nano systems are being developed for targeted drug therapy. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• The primary challenges in non-viral gene therapy are relatively temporary gene expression and lower effectiveness than viral vectors.  
• Research efforts have concentrated on understanding the barriers in gene delivery so that non-viral systems that are as successful as viral systems in gene transfection can be established. 

Q24: In, India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the

a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955

b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States

c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking. Act, 1937

d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Agricultural Produce Market Committee: 

• The notified agricultural produce and livestock are regulated by the State Government. 
• Agriculture is included as a state subject in Schedule 7 of the Indian Constitution. 
• The entire geographical region of the State is divided and declared as a market area (Yard Mandis), with the markets controlled by Market Committees formed by the State Governments. Therefore, In, India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the Agricultural Produce Market Committee. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• No individual or organisation is permitted to engage in wholesale marketing operations after a certain area is designated as a market area and comes under the purview of a Market Committee. 
• To transact, buyers must also get unique licences from each APMC. 
• It is a component of government policy aimed at ensuring food security, paying farmers a fair price, and providing fair prices to consumers.

Q25: Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

a) Saltwater crocodile

b) Olive ridley turtle

c) Gangetic dolphin

d) Gharial

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Gangetic Dolphin 

• It is the National Aquatic Animal of India. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• It represents the purity of the river Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water. 
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests notified the Ganges River Dolphin as the National Aquatic Animal on 18th May 2010. 
• The Scientific name of the Gangetic Dolphin is Platanista gangetica.  
• This is one of the five river dolphins found in the world. 
• It is locally known as Susu, because of the noise they make while breathing. 
• It inhabits parts of the Ganges, Meghna, and Brahmaputra rivers in India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh, and the Karnaphuli River in Bangladesh. 
• This is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, of 1972.  
• It is listed as Endangered on IUCN red list. The species is listed under Appendix I of CITES. 
• To conserve these endangered dolphins by the Wildlife Institute of India. (“Development of conservation action plan for Dolphins” in 2016.

Q: With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:

1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) None

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Congress Socialist Party  

• It belonged to a left-leaning faction in Congress.  
• In 1934, it was established with Jay Prakash Narayan as general secretary and Acharya Narendra Deva as president.  
• Important characteristics included constant and militant anti-imperialism, anti-landlordism, worker and peasant organisation in trade unions and Kisan sabhas, endorsement of a socialist vision of independent India and the socialist goal of economic and social transformation of society. 
• They preferred the tactics taken by Congress. 
• 1st and 2nd statements can be related to radical communism in India from 1920 to 40. 3rd statement cannot be related to Congress Socialist Party. 
• This party believed in Marxist ideas, Gandhism, liberal democracy, and western social democracy. 
• They owe their allegiance to the Indian National Congress (INC), and to build a strong foundation for Congress, they collaborated with the Bourgeois or Middle Class and brought in labourers and peasants. 
• Demands include the abolition of capitalism, the zamindari system, and princely states as well as the inclusion of radical socioeconomic initiatives for the improvement of disadvantaged groups in the work programme of the Congress. 

Q: Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. 

• The powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha in the following matters: 
• A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha, i.e., after being passed by the Lok Sabha, the Money Bill passes on to the Rajya Sabha which has the following options: 
• Pass the Bill in the original form. 
• Take no action for 14 days, i.e., Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the Bill to the Lok Sabha with or without any recommendations within 14 days. 
• The Lock Sabha has sole authority to accept or reject all or any of the cases, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses. 
• The Final Power to decide whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 
• Rajya Sabha can only discuss the Annual Financial Statement but cannot vote on the demands for Grants, which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha. 
• Hence, statements 1 and 2 only are correct here. 

Q: The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined

a) The separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature

b) The jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments

c) The powers of the Secretary of State for India and Viceroy

d) None of the above

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Government of India Act of 1919  

• It was passed in 1919 and went into effect in 1921. 
• It is also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India). 
• It delineated and separated the central and provincial topics, easing central control over the provinces. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• The national and provincial legislatures were given the authority to pass laws on the issues on their respective lists. 
• The government’s organisational structure remained centralised and unitary. 
• The provincial subjects were further separated into two categories: transferred and reserved. 
• The Governor was to oversee the transferred subjects with the assistance of Ministers answerable to the legislative council. 
• The Governor and his executive council were to handle the restricted topics without reporting to the legislative council. This dual governing structure was known as ‘dyarchy,’ a term derived from the Greek word diarchy, which means “dual rule.” 
• It established bicameralism and direct elections in the country for the first time.  
• A bicameral legislature made up of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House took the role of the Indian Legislative Council (Legislative Assembly).

Q: Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers?

a) The Reserve Bank of India

b) The Department of Economic Affairs

c) The Labour Bureau

d) The Department of Personnel and Training

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers 

• It is designed to measure a change over time in prices of a given basket of goods and services consumed by a defined population (i.e. Industrial Workers). 
• It is compiled for Industrial Workers residing in 70 centres of industrial importance in the country. 
• It is compiled and released every month based on the weights derived from the working-Class Family Income and Expenditure Survey and the current prices of the selected items collected from 226 markets spread over 70 centres. 
• Based on these centre indices the All-India index, which is a weighted average, is derived. 
• Labour Bureau compiles and releases indices to meet the specific requirements of the Index users of the respective states. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 

Q: In the context of modem scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news:

1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
3. It is buried deep in the ice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers 

• It is designed to measure a change over time in prices of a given basket of goods and services consumed by a defined population (i.e. Industrial Workers). 
• It is compiled for Industrial Workers residing in 70 centres of industrial importance in the country. 
• It is compiled and released every month based on the weights derived from the working-Class Family Income and Expenditure Survey and the current prices of the selected items collected from 226 markets spread over 70 centres. 
• Based on these centre indices the All-India index, which is a weighted average, is derived. 
• Labour Bureau compiles and releases indices to meet the specific requirements of the Index users of the respective states. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 

Q: The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the

a) Food and Agriculture Organization

b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change

c) World Trade Organization

d) United Nations Environment Programme

The correct answer is Option 3. 

World Trade Organisation (WTO) 

• The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the World Trade Organisation. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. 
• It was established by Uruguay Round negotiations (1986-94) with a membership of 164 members representing 98 per cent of world trade. 
• WTO was established on 1 January 1995 with its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. 
• ​Its agreements are often called the Final Act of the Uruguay Round of Multilateral Trade Negotiations, signed in Marrakesh, Morocco on 15 April 1994. 
• It superseded the GATT as the umbrella organization for international trade. 

Q: With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other.
3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

Near Field Communication (NFC)  

• It is a contactless communication technology based on an electromagnetic radio frequency (RF). Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• It uses a base frequency of 13.56 MHz. 
• It is perfectly designed to exchange data between two devices through a simple touch gesture. 
• It is designed for an operating distance of a few centimetres. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect. 
• This makes it more difficult for attackers to record the communication as compared to other wireless technologies which have a working distance of several meters. 
• It can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Hence, Statement is 3 is correct.

Q: The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to

a) Central Asia

b) Middle East

c) South-East Asia

d) Central Africa

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Golan Heights 

• It is a hilly, 1,200 sq-km rocky plateau in south-western Syria in the Middle East region overlooking Lebanon, Syria, and the Jordan Valley. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• It was Syrian territory until 1967 when Israel occupied it in the closing stages of the Six-Day War.  
• During the fighting, the majority of the local Syrian Arabs evacuated the area. An armistice line was drawn, the area came under Israeli military administration, and Israel started settling the Golan Heights rather quickly. 
• During 1973 Arab-Israeli or Middle East War, Syria attempted to reclaim the Golan Heights, and as a result, both nations negotiated an armistice in 1974. Since a UN observer force has been stationed on the ceasefire line. 
• Although the US Trump Administration did so unilaterally in March 2019, Israel unilaterally annexed the Golan Heights in 1981. This action was not recognised internationally, and UN Security Council Resolutions declared Israeli sovereignty over the region to be null and void pending negotiations with Syria. 
• There are Jewish communities, Druze (Arabs who follow an Islamic branch and many of them identify as Syrian), and a small number of Alawites (a branch of Shiite Islam, Syrian President Bashar Assad and key figures in his regime are Alawites). 

Q: Convertibility of rupee implies

a) being able to convert rupee notes into gold

b) allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces

c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa

d) developing an international market for currencies in India

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• The RBI used to regulate the exchange rate while converting Indian rupees into foreign money. 
• A licenced dealer was required to buy all earned foreign currency. 
• To buy foreign currency, one had to have the central bank’s approval. 
• The fundamental intention behind this was to allocate the people’s earned foreign exchange under the government’s established priorities. 
• India is one of the nations that international investors like to invest in because it is now a fast-developing nation. 
• India could not restrict its foreign trade as It needs to grow further. So the government has allowed the convertibility of the rupee in a phased manner on current account transactions. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• But full convertibility of currency for capital account transactions is still a distant dream. 

Q: Consider the following Pairs:

Medieval Indian Present Region State

1. Champaka : Central India
2. Durgara : Jammu
3. Kuluta : Malabar

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 3 only

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• Champaka is the old name of Chamba which is in Himachal Pradesh, Kuluta is the old name of Kullu which is also in Himachal Pradesh and Durgara is in Jammu. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 

Medieval Indian State	Present Region
Champaka	Chamba
Durgara	Jammu
Kuluta	Kullu
Malwa	Central India
Kamarupa	Assam
Trigarta	Jalandhar
Utkala	Orissa
Twipra	Tripura

Q: Consider the following rivers:

1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) 2 and 3 only

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. 

• Indravati and Pranahita are the left-bank tributaries of the Godavari river. Therefore, Option 4 is correct. 
• Godavari​ 
  • It is the largest river in Peninsular India. 
  • This is also called Dakshin Ganga. 
  • Godavari covers the state of Maharastra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and parts of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and the Union Territory of Puducherry (Yanam) having a total area of ~ 3 lakh Sq.km. 
  • It rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. 
• Left Bank Tributaries are: 
  • Dharna, Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Pranahita, Pench, Kanhan, Sabari, Indravati etc. 
• Right Bank Tributaries are: 
  • Pravara, Mula, Manjra, Peddavagu, Maner etc. 

Additional Points 

Vamshadhara 

• It is an important east-flowing river between Rushikulya and Godavari, in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. 
• It originates on the border of Thuamul Rampur in the Kalahandi district and Kalyansinghpur in the Rayagada district of Odisha 
• This runs for a distance of about 254 kilometres, where it joins the Bay of Bengal at Kalingapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. 

Pennar 

• It rises in the Chenna Kasava hill of the Nandidurg range, in the Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka and flows towards the east eventually draining into the Bay of Bengal. 
• The total length of the river from its origin to its outfall in the Bay of Bengal is 597 km. 
• This river basin extends over the states of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka having an area of ~55 thousand Sq.km. 

Q: When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

a) a simple majority of members present and voting

b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting

c) two-thirds majority of the Houses

d) absolute majority of the Houses

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Joint Sitting of Indian Parliament 

• According to Article 108 of the Constitution, the joint sitting of parliament is called by the President. 
• When a bill is referred to as a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, it has to be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting and a Joint Sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• It is also held to resolve the deadlock over the passing of key legislation.  
• The following bills can’t be referred to a joint sitting of Parliament. 
• Money bill under Article 110. 
• Constitution amendment bill under Article 368. 
• In the absence of the speaker the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the joint session. 
• The Chairman of the upper house (vice president) doesn’t preside over the joint session at any means/cost. 

Q: Which one of the following regions of Indian has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh

b) South-West Bengal

c) Southern Saurashtra

d) Andaman and Nicober Islands

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands are rich in biodiversity. Different types of forests as Tropical Evergreen forests Moist Deciduous forests Mangrove forests Littoral forests are found here. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• The South Andaman forests are home to epiphytic vegetation, primarily ferns and orchids. 
• The Middle Andamans have moist deciduous woods, while the North Andamans have wet evergreen forests with many woody climbers. 
• The North Nicobar Islands (including Car Nicobar and Battimalv) are devoid of evergreen woods, but similar forests dominate the vegetation of the Nicobar group’s middle and southern islands. 
• Grasslands are only found in the Nicobars, but deciduous woods are prevalent in the Andamans. • Forests cover 86.2% of the total land area.

Q: Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 3 and 4 only

The correct answer is 3 and 4 only. 

• Buddha travelled through the towns and villages in the kingdoms of Kosala and Magadha teaching his philosophy. 
• Other regions where he wandered were Vaishali, Vajji, etc. 
• Jetavana (Jeta garden) was perhaps the best known among the beautiful gardens provided to Buddha’s entourage and it was close to Sravasti, the capital of the Kosala kingdom. 
• Perhaps the second-most important monastic resort of Buddha was the “bamboo grove” in Rajgriha, the capital of Magadha, provided by king Bimbisara. 
• Gandhara is not directly associated with the life of Buddha. 
• During the rule of Asoka Gandhara was influenced by Buddhist culture. 
• Avanti was not related to the life of Buddha. 
• Buddha belonged to the Shakya clan whose capital was Kapilavastu, and who were later annexed by the growing Kingdom of Kosala during the Buddha’s lifetime.  

Q: Which one the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozonedepleting substances?

a) Bretton Woods Conference

b) Montreal Protocol

c) Kyoto Protocol

d) Nagoya Protocol

The correct answer is Option 2. 

The Montreal Protocol 

• The Montreal Protocol on Compounds that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a global agreement aimed at preserving the ozone layer by gradually banning the manufacture of a variety of substances that are the cause of ozone depletion. 
• It is a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer. 
• It was agreed on 16th September 1987 and entered into force on 1st January 1989. 

Additional Information 

• Bretton Woods conference relates to the IMF and the World Bank. 
• Kyoto Protocol is about cutting emissions of greenhouse gases. 
• Nagoya protocol is about benefit-sharing from the gains of genetic resources. 

41. Consider the following:

The arrival of Babur into Indian led to the

1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region’s architecture
3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region

Select the correct answer using the code give below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 3 only. 

Babur 

• He established the Timurid dynasty in India. Hence statement 3 is correct.  
• He was a descendant of the Timurid dynasty or clan of Turco-Mongol lineage, descended from the warlord Timur and led to the establishment of the Timurid dynasty in the region.  

• Mongols’ invasion 

• It led to the transmission of gunpowder and gunpowder weapons into India. 
• Chinese gunpowder technology is believed to have arrived in India by the mid-14th century but it was introduced much earlier by the Mongols.  
• Mongols conquered both China and some borderlands of India, perhaps around the mid-13th century. 
• After the unification of a large Mongol Empire resulted in the free transmission of previously Chinese technology into Mongol-conquered parts of India. 
• It is believed that the Mongols used Chinese gunpowder weapons during their invasions of India. 

• Therefore, It is believed that gun powder technology came much before the Mughal invasion. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.  
• The Arch and dome in the region’s architecture were introduced by the Turks after the invasion of Muhammad Ghori. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 

43. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the
news?

1. a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
2. b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
3. c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change
4. d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Rio +20  
• The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, also known as “Rio+20,” was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012, twenty years after the historic Rio Earth Summit of 1992. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• As it was 20 years to the summits of 1992 and 2012, it is referred to as Rio + 20. This conference aimed to bring together governments, international institutions and major (NGO) groups to agree on a range of smart measures for 
• Poverty reduction 
• Clean energy 
• Sustainable development. 
• Sustainable Development includes economic development, social development, and environmental protection. 

Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• The Union’s executive power is vested in the President. 
• Article 53(1) of the constitution vests the executive power of the union in the President. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. 
• It states that the President may exercise his authority either directly or through officers subordinate to him; ministers are considered officers subordinate to him for this purpose. 
• The Council of Ministers has genuine executive power in the name of the President, and all executive decisions are made in the President’s name (Article 77).  
• The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio chairman of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and the head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. 

44. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

1. a) Human Rights Commission
2. b) Finance Commission
3. c) Law Commission
4. d) Planning Commission

The correct answer is Option 4.  

• NITI Aayog 
• It stands for National Institution for Transforming India. 
• It has replaced the Planning Commission. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• The Planning Commission was established in 1950. 
• It was established on 1 January 2015, as the successor to the Planning Commission. 
• It was created by an executive resolution of the Government of India. 
• It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. 
• It is a Think Tank of the Government of India providing both directional and policy inputs. 
• It is shaped by a ‘bottom-up’ approach rather than a ‘top-down’ approach. 

45. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of

1. a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth
2. b) region inside the Earth where shale gas is available
3. c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
4. d) search for meteorites containing precious metals

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Goldilocks Zone  
• The circumstellar habitable zone (CHZ), also known as the habitable zone (Goldilocks Zone), is the area surrounding a star in astronomy and astrobiology. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• Planetary-mass objects can sustain liquid water on their surfaces in this region if the atmospheric pressure is high enough. 
• The ‘Goldilocks Zone,’ also known as the habitable zone, is the area within which the temperature is just ideal for water to remain liquid. 
• Researchers are discovering unexpected sites where life might flourish. 
• NASA announced the discovery of an Earth-sized planet called TOI 700 d in the “habitable zone” of its star in January 2020. (Goldilocks Zone). 
• Also more likely to be in the Goldilocks zone are planets with a terrestrial atmosphere. 

46.Who of the following organized a March on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?

1. a) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai
2. b) C. Rajagopalachari
3. c) K. Kamaraj
4. d) Annie Besant

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• C. Rajagopalachari  
• In April 1930, he planned a march to violate the salt law along the Tanjore seashore. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• For organising a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast, he was detained in April 1930. 
• He was given the Bharat Ratna in 1954 and served as India’s first and last Indian Governor-General. 
• Additional Information 

• He was an Indian freedom fighter and leader of the Indian National Congress. 
• They founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to compete against the monopoly of the British India Steam Navigation Company (BISNC). 
• Tuticorin Port Trust, one of India’s thirteen major ports, is named after him. 
• K. Kamaraj 
• He was the founder and president of the Indian National Congress, and he is largely regarded as the Kingmaker in post-independence Indian politics.  
• He made significant contributions to the Madras state’s infrastructure development and sought to raise the standard of living for the underprivileged and those in need. 
• Annie Besant 
• She had founded two journals, “The Commonweal” and “New India,” and she was connected to the Theosophical Society of India. 
• She served as the Indian National Congress’s first female president. 

48.Consider the following statements:

1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• Annie Besant 
• She is considered the founder of the Theosophical Society in India. 
• She was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress in the Calcutta session in 1917. 
• In 1898, she was instrumental in setting up Central Hindu College, which in 1911 culminated as Banaras Hindu University with her joint efforts with Madan Mohan Malviya. 

• Badruddin Tyabji 
• He was the first Muslim President of the 3rd session of the Indian National Congress (INC) that was held at Madras in 1887. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• Badruddin Tyabji was the first Indian barrister, and the first Muslim Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court. 

• Sarojini Naidu 
• She was the first Indian woman to become President of INC in the Kanpur session in 1925. 
• Sarojini Naidu was awarded by British “Kaiser-i-Hind medal” for her work during the plague epidemic in India. 

Q 49.Which of the statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaption and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 1 only. 

• Green Climate Fund (GCF) 
• The Global Climate Fund (GCF) was established as a mechanism to move funds from the developed to the developing world to support developing nations in their use of adaptation and mitigation strategies to combat climate change. Therefore, statement 1 is true. 
• Under Article 11 of the Convention, it was chosen as an operating entity of the UNFCCC financing system. 
• It is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that will receive guidance from the Conference of the Parties (COP), according to arrangements to be reached between the COP and the Fund to ensure that it is accountable to and operates under the guidance of the COP. 
• It is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the COP. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
• It is headquartered in Incheon, South Korea’s new Songdo area. 

Q50. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which one of the
following?

1. a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
2. b) Indian Institute of Science
3. c) Indian Space Research Organization
4. d) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development  
• It is the prestigious award accorded annually by India to individuals or organizations in recognition of creative efforts toward promoting international peace, development and a new international economic order; ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of freedom. 
• It was instituted in the memory of the former prime minister by a trust in her name in 1986. 
• It consists of a monetary award of Rs 25 lakh along with a citation. 
• Former Vice-President Hamid Ansari presented the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development of 2021 to Pratham. 
• ISRO Received the award in 2014. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 

• Additional Points 
• The Indian Space Research Organization. 
• It is the government of India’s space agency, with headquarters in Bangalore.  
• It uses space technology for national development while also conducting space science research and planetary exploration. 

• The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre 
• It is located in Trombay, Mumbai, Maharashtra. 
• It is India’s main nuclear research centre. 
• The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) 
• It is a declared public research university that provides higher education and research in science, engineering, design, and management.  
• Jamshedji Tata actively supported the institute’s establishment in 1909. 
• Tata Institute of Fundamental Research 
• The Mumbai-based Tata Institute of Fundamental Research is a public designated research university that focuses on fundamental research in the natural and social sciences.  
• It is regarded as one of India’s top research institutions. 

Q 51. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the
following statements is/are correct?

1. It recommended a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
   Select the correct answer using the code given
   below:
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3
   c) 1 and 3
   d) None

The correct answer is 1 only. 

• The Cabinet Mission  
• This was composed of three Cabinet Ministers of England. 
• This mission’s goal was to devise the apparatus needed to draught Independent India’s constitution. 
• Make preparations for the transitional administration. 
• According to the cabinet mission plan the country could have a Federal government consisting of the British and the Indian India. 
• Therefore, the mission was like a declaration of India’s independence. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• The cabinet mission plan called for the establishment of a Union of India with authority over communications, foreign policy, and defence. 
• The Union Government and its legislature were given just a small number of authorities in the areas of finance, foreign policy, and communications. 
• The Union would have the authority needed to collect the funds needed to run the subjects. 
• All subjects besides Union subjects and any leftover authority will be given to the provinces. 
• Therefore, the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a weak Centre with Provincial autonomy – essentially proposing a federal structure of government. 
• It did not make any recommendations related to courts or ICS. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct. 

52.Which one of the following National Parks has a
climate that varies from tropical to subtropical,
temperate and arctic?

1. a) Khangchendzonga National Park
2. b) Nandadevi National Park
3. c) Neorah Valley National Park
4. d) Namdapha National Park

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• Namdapha National Park 
• It is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot 
• This national park is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. 
• This area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rainforests. 
• As you go up in altitude, the ecosystem changes from tropical moist woods to montane forests, temperate forests, and finally, at the highest altitudes, Alpine meadows with year-round snow. 

• Additional Information 
• Khangchendzonga National Park 
• Neither Khangchendzonga nor Nandadevi National Park includes tropical plants. 
• It is also known as Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a National Park and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim. 
• This park was inscribed to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list in July 2016. 
• Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve 
• It is situated in three districts of Uttarakhand (Chamoli in Garhwal, Pithoragarh in Kumaon and Bageshwar). 
• The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve includes the Valley of Flowers and Nanda Devi National Park.  
• Since 2004, this reserve has belonged to the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves. 
• Neora Valley National Park 
• It is situated in the Kalimpong district, West Bengal, India and was established in 1986. 
• One of the richest biological zones in all of Eastern India, it covers an area of 88 km2.  
• The clean, unspoiled natural habitat of the graceful red panda, along with the park’s difficult-to-access steep terrain and abundantly varied flora and fauna, make this area a significant wilderness zone. 

53.Amnesty International is

1. a) an agency of the United Nations to helprefugees of civil wars
2. b) a global Human Rights Movement
3. c) a non-governmental voluntary organization tohelp very poor people
4. d) an inter-governmental agency to cater tomedical emergencies in war-ravaged regions

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Amnesty International 
• It is a non-governmental organization with its headquarters in the United Kingdom focused on human rights. 
• It was established in July 1961 and was founded by Peter Benenson.  
• Campaigning for “a society in which every individual enjoys all of the human rights recognised in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and other international human rights instruments” is the organization’s stated aim. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• More than 7 million people worldwide participate in Amnesty International because they find injustice to be personally offensive. 
• The group received the 1977 Nobel Peace Prize for “defending human dignity against torture.” 

54.With reference to the art and archaeological history
of India, which one among the following was made
earliest?

1. a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
2. b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
3. c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
4. d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli 
• It was created during Ashoka’s reign (272-231 BC). 
• Among the four possibilities, it is the earliest. 
• The Lingaraja Temple in Bhubaneswar was built in the 11th century. 
• The monuments of Mahabalipuram were built in the seventh century AD. 
• In the fifth century AD, artisans at Udayagiri constructed the Varaha Image. 

• Additional Information 

• Rock-cut Elephant  
• It is the earliest Buddhist sculpture of Odisha. 
• The stone elephant shows the animal’s foreparts only, though it has a fine sense of form and movement. 
• It is regarded as one of the few examples of Mauryan art still existing. 

• Lingaraja Temple 
• It was built in the 11th century AD. 
• It is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is considered the largest temple in the city of Bhubaneswar. 
• This is believed to have been built by the Somvanshi King Yayati I. 
• This is a classic example of the Kalinga style of architecture. 

• Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram 
• It was built by the Pallava king Narsimha in the 7th and 8th centuries. 
• The exquisiteness of the temple’s rock-cut sculpture is a reflection of the Pallava emperors’ taste in art. 

• Varaha Image at Udayagiri 
• The famous Varaha sculpture depicts the tale of Bhu

55.With reference to Indian history, which of the
following is/are the essential element/elements of
the feudal system?

1. A very strong centralized political authority and
   a very weak provincial or local political authority
2. Emergence of administrative structure based on
   control and possession of land
3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the
   feudal lord and his overlord

• Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. 

• Feudalism 
• It is a political system of power dispersed and balanced between the king and nobles. 
• Generally speaking, it was a method of organising society on connections obtained from the ownership of land in exchange for labour or other forms of service (lord-vassal relationship). Hence, Statement 2 is Correct. 
• In the feudal system, the provincial or local political authority is not weak. Hence, Statement 1 is Not Correct. 
• Generally, feudalism has been regarded as the fabric of medieval society, and the stage of social and economic development that preceded Capitalism. 
• As such, feudalism provided stability within societies, restoring public order and strengthening the monarchy. 

• Zamindari system 
• It is often referred to as a feudal-like system. 
• It entails a hierarchical administrative framework based on ownership and control of the land. Hence, Statement 3 is Correct. 
• Originally the Zamindari System was introduced in the pre-colonial period to collect taxes from peasants, and it continued during colonial British rule. 

57.India is a member of which among the following?

1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
3. East Asia Summit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) India is a member of none of the

The correct answer is 3 only. 

• At present India is not a member of APEC and ASEAN. The East Asia Summit EAS is a forum held annually by leaders of 16 countries in the East Asian region. The first summit was held in Kuala Lumpur Malaysia on 14 December 2005. India is a member of this forum. Hence, Statement 3 is correct and Statements 1 and 2 are not correct. 

Additional Information 

• Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC) 
• It is an inter-governmental forum for 21 member economies in the Pacific Rim. 
• It aims to promote free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region 
• It started in 1989, in response to the growing interdependence of Asia-Pacific economies and the advent of regional trade blocs in other parts of the world. 
• It aimed to establish new markets for agricultural products and raw materials beyond Europe. 
• APEC is headquartered in Singapore. 

Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN) 

• It is a regional intergovernmental organization comprising ten countries in Southeast Asia. 
• It promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic, political, security, military, educational, and socio-cultural integration among its members and other countries in Asia. 
• The motto of ASEAN is “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”. 

East Asia Summit (EAS) 

• It was established in 2005 is a forum of 18 regional leaders for strategic dialogue and cooperation on the key political, security, and economic challenges facing the Indo-Pacific region. 
• It comprises the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) – Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam – along with 8 members Australia, China, Japan, India, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States. 

58.In India, the steel production industry requires the
import of

1. a) saltpetre
2. b) rock phosphate
3. c) coking coal
4. d) All of the above

The correct answer is coking coal.  

• Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate)  
• Potassium nitrate, sometimes known as saltpetre, is not utilised in the manufacture of steel. 
• It’s used to make fertiliser, clear tree stumps, rocket propellant, and fireworks. 
• It has been used as a food preservative since the Middle Ages and is one of the main components of gunpowder (often known as “black powder”). 
• Unlike steel production, the production of fertiliser uses rock phosphate. 
• India imports coking coal. Hence Option 3 is Correct. 
• One tonne of steel requires the production of 0.8 tonnes of coking coal.

59.The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in
the Constitution of India are made in order to

1. a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
2. b) determine the boundaries between States
3. c) determine the powers, authority and
4. responsibilities of Panchayats
5. d) protect the interests of all the border States

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Fifth and Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution 
  • The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state, except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. 
  • The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four north eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. 
  • It protects the interest of Schedule tribes. Hence, Option 1 is Correct 
  • It does not relate to the boundaries of states. Hence, Option 2 is Not Correct. 
  • It excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. 
  • This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, and social and political institutions are not tampered with. Hence, Option 3 is also Not Correct. 
  • It does not protect the interests of the border States. Hence, Option 4 is Not Correct. 

60.With reference to the Union Government, consider
the following statements:

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

• Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a) 1 and 2 only
  • b) 2 and 3 only
  • c) 2 only
  • d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• The budget (Annual Financial Statement) is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs. Hence, Statement 1 is Not Correct. 
• Provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, remittances etc are credited to the Public Account. 
• The Public Account is operated by executive action i.e. payment from this account can be made without Parliamentary appropriation. Hence, Statement 3 is Not Correct. 
• The Constitution of India provides for the following three kinds of funds for the Central government: 
• Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266) 
  • Public Account of India (Article 266) 
  • Contingency Fund of India (Article 267) 

Additional Points 

• Consolidated Fund of India 
  • This is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited.  
  • No money out of this fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) except by parliamentary law. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 

• Public Account of India 
  • All other public money (other than those which are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India) received by or on behalf of the Government of India shall be credited to the Public Account of India. 
  • It is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. 
  • Such payments are mostly like banking transactions. 

• Contingency Fund of India 
  • It is placed at the disposal of the president, and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditures pending its authorisation by the Parliament. 
  • It is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the President. Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action. 

61.Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the
Constitution of India?

1. a) The President of India
2. b) The Prime Minister of India
3. c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
4. d) The Supreme Court of India

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• Supreme Court  
  • Supreme Court (Apex Court) is the Custodian of the Constitution of India. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
  • The Apex court is the guardian of fundamental rights (Article 32). 
  • Supreme Court has the power of Judicial review.  
  • The Indian judicial system is well-integrated, strong, and independent. 
  • The Legislature and the Executive directly collaborate in the creation of laws, but it is the judiciary that protects the public interest by investigating instances of excess, abuse, and legal error. 
  • The Supreme Court serves as the constitution’s protector and interpretation. 
  • While Parliament has the power to modify the constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to review the constitutionality of those revisions. (Amend constitution except for basic structure: Keshavananda Bharati case)  
  • Through many checks and balances, the supreme court makes sure that all of the government branches carry out their duties in line with the constitution

62.Consider the following statements:

1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
2. The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 1 only. 

• Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme  
  • It was launched in 1996-97 to give loan assistance to the states to help them to develop their major irrigation projects which are in an advanced stage of completion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
  • Projects: The Planning Commission-approved major, medium-sized, extension, renovation, and modernization projects are currently in an advanced stage of construction. 
  • Since 1999–2000, drought-prone areas, hilly states, and surface minor irrigation schemes have all received AIBP aid. 
  • The aid was split 2:1 between the state and the centre. 
• Command Area Development Programme 
  • It was launched in 1974-75 to bridge the gap between irrigation potential utilised by major and medium irrigation schemes.  Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
  • The ultimate goal of this plan is to get irrigation water to the crops. 
  • To increase productivity, a command area development authority was set up. 
  • The plan includes the creation of field channels, land contouring, and rotational water supply to ensure equitable distribution. 
  • In 2004, the Command Area Development and Water Management Program were created. 

63.The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is
constituted under the

1. a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
2. b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection. Act, 1999
3. c) Environment (Protection. Act, 1986
4. d) Wildlife (Protection. Act, 1972

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee  
• It was constituted under the Environment Protection Act 1986. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• Ministry of Environment and Forest is the nodal ministry.   
• It is responsible for approving proposals regarding the release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, as well as activities involving the large-scale use of hazardous and recombinants in industrial production.  
• Before releasing any genetically engineered organism into the environment, it conducts experimental field trials. 

• Important Points 
  • A GM crop is a transgenic crop. 
  • It is a plant that has a novel combination of genetic material obtained through biotechnology that adds a new quality to the parent crop like herbicide-tolerance.  
  • Bt cotton is the only non-food GM crop cultivated in India. 

64.In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants

1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 5

The correct answer is 1 and 3. 

• Mekong Ganga cooperation 
  • It is a regional organization comprising India and 5 ASEAN countries Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam. Therefore, Bangladesh and China are not members of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
  • It was launched in Vientiane (Laos) in 2000. 
  • It aims to facilitate closer contacts inhabiting these two major river basins. 
  • It also enhances cooperation in tourism, culture, transport, communication, and education. 
  • It is an integral part of India’s ‘Act East Policy’  
  • It also aims in narrowing the development gap through digital connectivity and capacity building.

65.‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the
news, seeks to

1. a) develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity
2. b) improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management
3. c) reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries
4. d) transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluoro carbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Basel-III Accord: 
  • It was issued in 2010 as a response to the financial crisis of 2008. 
  • It aims to promote a resilient banking system by focusing on capital leverage funding and liquidity. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
  • The capital adequacy ratio was fixed at 12.9%.  
  • The leverage rate was fixed at 3%.  
  • The banks’ strength was improved Liquidity Coverage Ratio and Net Stable Fund Rate.  

Additional Information 

• Basel Committee: 
  • Basel accords refer to the Banking supervision accords issued by the Basel Committee on banking supervision. 
  • The Basel Committee on banking supervision is a global standard committee for the regulation of banks.   
  • It was established by the central bank governors of 10 countries in 1974. 
  • Its objective is to improve the quality of banking supervision worldwide. 
  • The headquarters is in Basel, a city in Switzerland. 

• Basel Norms: 
  • Basel norms are the international banking regulations to strengthen the international banking system. 
  • It is in the form of an agreement by the Basel Committee of Banking supervision which mainly focuses on the risk to banks and the financial system.  

Important Points 

• Basel-I norms: 
  • Basel, I was introduced in 1988 and focused on credit risk. 
  • India adopted Basel 1 guidelines in 1999 as it defines the capital and structure of risk weights for banks. 
  • The minimum Capital requirement was fixed at 8% of risk-weighted assets. 

• Basel-II norms: 
  • Basel II norms were established in 2000 and were based on three parameters capital adequacy requirement, supervisory requirement, and market discipline. 
  • A minimum capital adequacy requirement of 8% of risk-weighted assets was fixed.   

66.Consider the following statements:

1. The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes through-out the year are known as
   westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   

The correct answer is 2 only. 

• Westerlies  
  • These are permanent winds.  
  • These are prevailing winds that flow from the west towards the East.  
  • Westerlies flow between 30°N-60°N and 30°S-60°S degrees latitude. Hence statement 1 is NOT correct. 
  • This is also known as anti trades winds as it originates from the high-pressure area of Horse latitude and flows towards the subpolar low-pressure area.  
  • It blows from South West to North East in the Northern hemisphere and from Northwest to southeast in the southern hemisphere.  
  • These are stronger in the Southern hemisphere due to the vast ocean and comparatively less land.   
  • It is best observed between 40 to 60-degree latitude and these latitudes are also known as the Roaring forties, Furious fifties, and shrieking sixties.   
  • There are fluctuations in the subpolar region. Thus, they produce wet spells due to variations in weather.   
  • The moist air masses that cause winter rains in the North-Western region of India are part

69.In a particular region in India, the local people train
the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the
streams. As the time passes, these bridges become
stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found
in

1. a) Meghalaya
2. b) Himachal Pradesh
3. c) Jharkhand
4. d) Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• The entwined roots of Indian rubber trees form bridges by training tree roots to knit together. 
• The Khasi and Jaintia people of Rewai village in Meghalaya make the living tree root bridges. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
• The aerial roots of the Indian rubber tree are strong and resemble ropes; they can be connected to bamboo stalks or built into a scaffold of hollowed-out betel nuts.  
• It takes years for them to spread horizontally across cliff faces and river banks. 
• The living footbridge may accommodate up to 50 people at once, last for about 500 to 600 years, and get stronger with age. 

70.Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which
among the following?

1. Gravitational force of the Sun
2. Gravitational force of the Moon
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. 

• Tide 
  • It is the periodical rise and fall of the sea level. 
  • The Moon’s gravitational pull is the major cause of a tide. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • Sun’s gravitational pull and centrifugal force due to the gravitational pull of the earth to a lesser extent so causes types. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct. 

• Surges  
  • The movement of water is caused by Meteorological effects like winds and atmospheric pressure changes and is known as surges.  
  • The tide-generating force is the difference between the gravitational attraction of the Moon and the centrifugal force.   
  • Tides vary in frequency, direction, and movement from place to place and from time to time. 
  • Based on frequency, they are classified into semi-diurnal, diurnal, and mixed tide.   

• Springtide 
  • When the sun, moon, and earth are in a straight line the height of the tide is higher and this occurs during a full moon period. 

• Neap tide 
  • When the moon and the sun are at right angles to each other the forces of the sun and the moon tend to counteract each other.  It occurs twice a month. 

71.In which of the following activities are Indian Remote
Sensing (IRS) satellites used?

1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating groundwater resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications
5. Traffic studies
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   a) 1, 2 and 3 only
   b) 4 and 5 only
   c) 1 and 2 only
   d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only 

• Indian Remote Sensing satellite 
• Indian Remote Sensing satellite Bhaskar 1 launched in 1979 began the era of remote sensing in India.  
• Bhaskar 2 was launched in 1981.  
• Indian Remote Sensing satellite system came into existence after the successful launch of IRS 1A in 1988.  
• Indian Remote Sensing is the largest civilian Remote Sensing satellite constellation in the world.  
• It provides imaginary in spatial, spectral, and swath resolutions.  
• Indian Remote Sensing satellite is used for various applications like pre-harvest crop area and production estimates, drought, and irrigation monitoring, assessment based on vegetable conditions, flood risk zone mapping and flood assessment, Hydro-geomorphologic maps for locating underground water resources for drilling well, Water use planning estimates land use and land cover mapping, forest survey, prospecting coastal studies environment impact analysis, wetland mapping, etc. Hence, Option 1 is correct.  

72.Consider the following States

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
   In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet
   Evergreen Forests’ occur?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• Tropical Wet Evergreen forest: 
  • In India, evergreen forests are found on the eastern and western slopes of the Western Ghats in such states as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra. And also found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
  • This type of forest is found in hot and humid areas.  
    • Precipitation: >250 cm  
    • Mean annual temperature <25 degrees Celsius  
    • Humidity >80% 
  • This type of forest is stratified, with layers closer to the ground covered with shrubs and creepers, followed by short structured trees and a tall variety of trees. 
  • Trees have a height limit of 60 metres or more, and they are abundant in biodiversity (Rich in flora and fauna). 
  • These forests yield durable, fine-grained wood. 

73.The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is
the name of

1. a) an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defence
2. b) India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of Indian Ocean Rim
3. c) a scientific establishment set up by India in Antarctic region
4. d) India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• IndARC 
  • It is India’s first underwater observatory at the Kongsfjorden fjord, halfway between Norway and the North Pole.  
  • It is located at a depth of 192 m.  
  • Information from IndARC aids in the comprehension of Arctic dynamics and their impact on the Indian monsoon system. 
  • It is a step toward studies of climate modelling and the reactions of Arctic processes to climate variability. 
  • It serves as a natural laboratory where the annual seasonal cycle

74.With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’,
which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management.
3. It assiststhe countriesin their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest
   Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• Forest carbon partnership facility 
  • It is a collaboration of governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous people. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
  • It is focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon stock, and conservation of the sustainable management of forest and forest carbon stocks in developing countries.  
  • It came into force in June 2008.  
  • It complements REDD+ by creating awareness of its readiness and future systems.  
  • Objectives of the forest carbon partnership facilities are: 
    • To assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing them with essential financial and technical assistance resulting in capacity building. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 
    • To pilot a performance-based payment system ensuring equitable benefit sharing.  
    • Ways to sustain or enhance the livelihood of local communities and to conserve biodiversity.  
    • To disseminate knowledge gained in the development of the facility and the implementation of readiness preparation proposals. 
    • It does not provide financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct

75.Which one of the following was given classical
language status recently?

1. a) Odia
2. b) Konkani
3. c) Bhojpuri
4. d) Assamese

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Classical languages are: 
  • A body of ancient literature and texts that have been preserved for at least 1500 years and are regarded as a priceless legacy by successive generations of speakers. 
  • The literary heritage is distinct from other speech communities and is original. 
  • Since classical literature and language are unique from modern literature and language, there may also be a break between the classical language and later forms of it or its offshoots. 
  • There are 6 classical languages: Tamil (2004), and Sanskrit (2005). Kannad (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
  • There are calls for Marathi to be recognised as a classical language. 
  • India also has a centre of excellence for the study of classical languages. 
  • It is also included in the Indian Constitution’s 8th schedule. 
  • The nodal ministry that sets standards for classical languages is the Ministry of Culture. 

76.With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife
International’, which of the following statements is/
are correct?

1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation
   Organizations.
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated
   from this organization
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as
   ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• BirdLife International 
  • It is a global partnership of conservation organizations (NGOs) that strives to conserve birds, their habitats, and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • Norman Myers created the idea of biodiversity hotspots in 1988. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 
  • For the conservation of the world’s birds and other wildlife, BirdLife International’s IBA Programme strives to discover, monitor, and safeguard a global network of IBAs. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
  • The BirdLife Partnership works cooperatively to identify, document, and conserve the locations of the greatest significance for the protection of Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.  
  • As of 2009, almost 11,000 sites in roughly 200 nations and territories have been classified as Important Bird Areas (IBAs).

77.Which one of the following countries of South-West
Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

1. a) Syria
2. b) Jordan
3. c) Lebanon
4. d) Israel

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Mediterranean Sea 
  • It is the intercontinental sea that separates Europe from Africa. 
  • The countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey.  

78.In India, in which one of the following types of forests
is teak a dominant tree species?

1. a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
2. b) Tropical rain forest
3. c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
4. d) Temperate forest with grasslands

The correct answer is option 1. 

• Tropical moist deciduous forests 
• It is distributed in the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Odisha and on the eastern slopes of Western Ghats. 
• Characteristics of tropical deciduous forests; 
  • They are also called Monsoon Forests. 
  • Rainfall is in the range of 100-200 cm. 
  • The trees shed their leaves during the spring season. 
  • Teak is the most dominant species of this forest while bamboo, Sal, Shisham, sandalwood, Kusum, Arjun, and mulberry are other commercially important species. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 

• Additional Details 
  • Teak: 
    • It is one of the most important timber trees in India and Southeast Asia. 
    • The most important teak forests in India are in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh.

80.“Each day is more or less the same, the morning is
clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs
high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form,
then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain
is soon over.”

Which of the following regions is described in the

1. above passage?
2. a) Savannah
3. b) Equatorial
4. c) Monsoon
5. d) Mediterranean

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Equatorial climate 
  • The Rainforests are located in the equatorial climate region.  
  • It is hot and wet all year round with a humid climate. 
  • The temperatures are constant throughout the year with little variation. 
  • The annual rainfall is high as it rains almost every day. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
  • It is found in the Amazon basin in South America, the Congo basin in Africa, the Guinea coast in Africa, and much of the Indo-Malaysian region, eastern Central America, some islands in the Caribbean Sea, western Colombia, and eastern Madagascar. 
  • This type of climate is located from 5 degrees to 10 degrees on either side of the equator. 

• Additional Points 
• Warm Temperate Western Margin Climate: 
  • This is also known as a Mediterranean type of climate because most of the areas falling under this climate are situated around the Mediterranean Sea. 
  • It developed between 300C and 450C latitudes in both the hemispheres in the western part of the continents. 
  • The climate of Central Chile is of temperate Mediterranean-type of climate. 
  • Summers are warm and bright and winters are mild and cool. 

• Monsoon type of climate: 
  • This is best developed in the Indian subcontinent, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts of Vietnam, south china and northern Australia. 
  • It is characterized by the onshore wet monsoon in summer and offshore dry monsoon in winter. 
  • The basic cause of monsoon climates is the difference in the rate of heating and cooling of land and sea. 

• Sudan or Savannah Climate: 
  • This is a transitional type of climate found between the equatorial forests and the trade wind hot deserts. 
  • This is confined within the tropics and is best developed in Sudan in the Africa Continent. 
  • Sudan’s Climate includes West Africa Sudan, East Africa, and southern Africa north of the Tropic of Capricorn. 

82.Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative
   Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• Legislative Council: 
  • As stated in Article 171 of the Constitution, no more than one-third of the State Legislative Assembly’s members may serve on the State Legislative Council. 
  • However, the size of the legislative council cannot be less than 40 members. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
  • The Legislative Council (MLC) is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved, and each member has a six-year term with one-third of the council retiring every two years. 
  • A Member of the Legislative Council’s (MLC) term is six years, and every two years, one-third of the members leave office. 
  • The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members from amongst themselves. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 

83.“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and
Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

1. a) Preamble of the Constitution
2. b) Directive Principles of State Policy
3. c) Fundamental Rights
4. d) Fundamental Duties

The correct answer is Fundamental Duties. 

• To defend and protect the Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity of India is a provision mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution, which is about Fundamental Duties if you try to concentrate on the entire sentence. Therefore, Option 4 is correct. 

• The following are the eleven Fundamental Duties: 
  • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem. 
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom. 
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. 
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so. 
  • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women. 
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. 
  • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures. 
  • To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform. 
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. 
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement. 
  • To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six to fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, of 2002. 

84.Which one of the following is the best description of
the term ‘ecosystem’?

1. a) A community of organisms interacting with one another
2. b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
3. c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
4. d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Ecosystem: 
  • It is an interaction of all living and non-living organisms with the surrounding environment. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
  • The different types of the ecosystem include: 
  • Terrestrial ecosystem 
  • Forest ecosystem 
  • Grassland ecosystem 
  • Desert ecosystem 
  • Tundra ecosystem 
  • Freshwater ecosystem 
  • Marine ecosystem 

85.The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is
to ensure which among the following?

1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   a) 1, 2 and 3 only
   b) 2 and 4 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• The Panchayati Raj institutions 
  • It is meant to promote grass-root democracy and development. 
  • The main aim is to evolve a system of democratic decentralization and people’s participation  to ensure rapid, speedy socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice. Hence statement 1 and 3 is correct. 
  • Political accountability can be achieved in any system with democratic rule. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 

• Additional Points 
  • Evolution of Panchayati Raj in India 
    • A three-tier PRI system, consisting of Grama Panchayats (GPs) at the village level, Panchayat Samitis (PSs) at the block level, and Zilla Parishads (ZPs) at the district level, was proposed by a committee set up by the National Development Council in 1957 and led by Balwant Rai Mehta. 
    • In 1986, the L.M. Singhvi Committee suggested giving panchayats constitutional standing. 
    • On October 2, 1959, the Nagaur district of the state of Rajasthan became the first to implement the Panchayat Raj System, followed by the state of Andhra Pradesh. 
    • Resource mobilization is an outcome of PRI, not an objective of Panchayati Raj in India. 

86.With reference to Indian economy, consider the
following:

1. Bank rate
2. Open market operations
3. Public debt
4. Public revenue

1. Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?
2. a) 1 only
3. b) 2, 3 and 4
4. c) 1 and 2
5. d) 1, 3 and 4

The correct answer is 1 and 2. 

• The monetary policy tools 
  • It is implemented by the RBI through open market operations, bank rate, CRR, SLR, repo rate, and reverse repo rate. 

• The bank rate 
  • It is the rate of interest at which RBI charges while lending loans to a commercial bank.  

• The Open market operations 
  • It is conducted by the RBI by the way of sale and purchase of Government Securities (G-Secs) to adjust liquidity in the market. 

• Public debt 
  • It is the total amount that is borrowed by the government to meet its development budget. 
  • It includes the total liabilities of the Union government that have to be paid from the Consolidated Fund of India. 
  • The income of the government through taxes, fees, sale of public goods and services, fines, donations, etc is known as public revenue. 
  • Therefore, Public debt is not part of Monetary Policy and OMOs together with CRR, SLR, Repo, and Reverse Repo by RBI are certainly a part of their monetary policy. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 

87.With reference to inflation in India, which of the
following statements is correct?

1. a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
2. b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
3. c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
4. d) Increased money circulation helpsin controlling the inflation

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• Inflation  
  • It refers to the general increase in the prices of goods and services in an economy over some time. 
  • If the money supply increases than the economy’s ability to produce goods and services, then inflation will also increase. 
  • During the high inflation period, the government can reduce spending to decrease the money circulation in the country. 
  • Therefore, decreased money circulation helps in controlling inflation. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
  • Sterilization is the process under which the RBI absorbs excess liquidity in the economy. 
  • The Central Bank of India is the authority to control inflation through monetary policies which it does by increasing bank rates, repo rates, cash reserve ratio, buying dollars, and regulating money supply and availability of credit. 

88.Consider the following countries:

1. China
2. France
3. India
4. Israel
5. Pakistan
   Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
   c) 2, 4 and 5 only
   d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. 

• The objective of the Non-Proliferation treaty  
• It is to inhibit the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further achieve the goal of nuclear disarmament. 
• The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), entered into force in March 1970. 
• Nuclear-weapon states (NWS) consist of the United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 

• Additional information 
• Non-Proliferation treaty   
  • It is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to foster the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of disarmament. 
  • This treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. Presently, it has 191 member states. 
  • India is not a member of NPT. 
  • NPT requires countries to give up any present or plans to build nuclear weapons in return for access to peaceful uses of nuclear energy. 
  • NPT represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States. 
  • Nuclear-weapon states parties under the NPT are defined as those that manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive devices before 1^st January 1967. 

89.The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution
is enshrined in its

1. a) Preamble
2. b) Directive Principles of State Policy
3. c) Fundamental Rights
4. d) Seventh Schedule

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• A welfare State 
• It is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social welfare of its citizens. 
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) promote the ideal of the welfare state by emphasizing the state promotes the welfare of people by providing them with basic facilities like shelter, food, and clothing. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 

• Important Points 
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): 
  • Articles 36-51 of Part IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).  
  • They are borrowed from the constitution of Ireland.  
  • They act as directives to the government to create any law. 
  • They act as the ‘instrument of instruction. 

• Preamble: 
  • It can be referred to as the preface of the constitution as it highlights the entire constitution. 
  • It is the soul of the constitution as it is part of the constitution. 
  • This acts as an interpreter of the constitution. 
  • Whenever a question of doubt arises in the interpretation of the constitution then the matter is decided in the light of the preamble. 

• Fundamental Rights: 
  • Articles 12-35 and Part – III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights. 
  • These rights are enforceable in a court of law. 

• Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution  
  • It deals with the allocation of powers and functions between the Union & States. 

90.The Substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in
agricultural production is an example of

1. a) labour-augmenting technological progress
2. b) capital-augmenting technological progress
3. c) capital-reducing technological progress
4. d) None of the above

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Capital  
  • It refers to capital goods such as manufacturing plants, machinery, tools, or any equipment that can be used to produce other goods. 
  • The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production increases productivity thereby encouraging steel production. 
    • Therefore, it is capital-augmenting technological progress. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 

• Labour-augmenting 
  • It is the technology that increases the skills and productivity of the existing labour. 

91.There is a Parliamentary System of Government in
India because the

1. a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
2. b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
3. c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
4. d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• Parliamentary system   
  • The executive in a Parliamentary system is responsible to the legislature for all its actions.  
  • The ministers are answerable to the parliament and responsible to the Lok Sabha.  
  • The Council of Ministers remains in office as long as they enjoy the support and confidence of the Lok Sabha. 
  • Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people and represents the democratic system.  
  • Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. 
  • It is a system of democratic governance of a state in which the executive derives its democratic legitimacy, and is held accountable to, the legislature (parliament). Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
  • The Executive forms a part of the legislature. In India, the person should be a member of parliament to become a member of the executive. 

92.H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with
reference to which one of the following diseases?

1. a) AIDS
2. b) Bird flu
3. c) Dengue
4. d) Swine flu

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• H1N1: 
  • The most frequent source of human influenza is the influenza A (H1N1) virus (flu) 
  • The World Health Organization (WHO) classified the new H1N1 strain of swine-origin to be a pandemic in June 2009. 
  • The public media frequently refers to this strain as the “swine flu.” Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
  • RNA viruses with a single strand of DNA and a negative sense are known as influenza A viruses. 
  • The different subtypes are designated according to a H number (for the kind of hemagglutinin) and a N number (for the type of neuraminidase) (for the type of neuraminidase) 

• Additional Points 
  • AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). 
  • HIV is transmitted through unsafe sexual acts if the other person is also infected with the virus. 
  • Some of the infectious agents, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis, can also be passed on from an infected mother to a newborn baby and can also be transmitted via blood transfusions. 
  • HIV infection may also be transmitted through contaminated blood products, syringes, needles used for injection, etc. 
  • Zika, dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever are all mosquito-borne diseases transmitted to humans by the Aedes aegypti mosquito

93.With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian
Railways, consider the following statements:

1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculums.
2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are
   released into the atmosphere.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

• The bio-toilets 
  • It was developed by the railways and the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO). 
  • It has a colony of anaerobic bacteria, kept in a container under the lavatories that convert human waste into water and small amounts of gases. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
  • The water is discharged onto the track after chlorination and the gases are released into the atmosphere. 
  • Each toilet’s bio-digester tank is stocked with inoculums containing four different varieties of bacteria under the DRDO’s bio-toilet idea. 
  • The toilet’s water trap mechanism keeps air from entering the tank, anaerobic bacteria process human waste in the tank’s seven chambers, and methane gas is permitted to escape into the atmosphere. 
  • After the completion of this process, only methane, carbon dioxide gases and water remain. These gases are left in the environment whereas water can be recycled and used in toilets again. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 

94.The problem of international liquidity isrelated to the
non-availability of

1. a) goods and services
2. b) gold and silver
3. c) dollars and other hard currencies
4. d) exportable surplus

The correct answer is Option 3. 

• International liquidity  
  • It is associated with international payments that arise out of international trade in goods and services. 
  • It consists of all the resources that are available to the monetary authorities of countries to meet the balance of payments deficits. 
  • Such liquidity ranges from assets readily available to resources that become available only after extensive negotiation. 
  • The primary medium of international liquidity is gold and those foreign currencies which are universally acceptable in the settlement of international transactions. 
  • Since the dollar is the dominant worldwide currency in the forex market, issues with global liquidity are tied to the lack of availability of the dollar and other related currencies. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
  • The problem of international liquidity exists essentially for developing countries. 

95.With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich
fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity,
consider the following statements:

1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by products.
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 only. 

• Fuel Cells 
  • If pure hydrogen is employed as a fuel, fuel cells release only heat and water as by-products. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • Fuel cells might power our cars, with hydrogen replacing petroleum fuels. 
  • It can power almost any portable device or machine that uses batteries. Laptop computers, cellular phones, and hearing aids could be powered by portable fuel cells. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 
  • Hydrogen-powered fuel cells are more energy-efficient than traditional combustion technologies. 
  • It produces electricity in the form of direct current (DC). Hence statement 3 is incorrect. 

96.Kalamkari painting refers to

1. a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India
2. b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India
3. c) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India
4. d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in NorthWestern India

The correct answer is Option 1. 

• Kalamkari painting  
  • It refers to a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 
  • This word is derived from the Persian word where ‘kalam‘ means pen and ‘Kari‘ refers to craftsmanship. 
  • This painting is done using hands-on cotton or silk fabric with a tamarind pen, using natural dyes. 
  • This art was also found at the archaeological sites of Mohenjo-Daro. 
  • There are two styles of Kalamkari art in India : 
    • Srikalahasti style 
    • Machilipatnam style 
  • Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh are two states in India, where two different types of Kalamkari paintings are done.

97.Which one of the following best describes the main
objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’?

1. a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others
2. b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cos
3. c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
4. d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Seed Village 
  • It is a village, wherein a trained group of farmers are involved in the production ‘of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs of themselves, fellow farmers of the village and neighbouring villages at the appropriate time and affordable cost is called a “seed village“. 
  • The seed village concept is to promote the quality seed production of foundation and certified seed classes. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
  • The area which is suitable for raising a particular crop will be selected and raised with a single variety of a kind. 

98.There has been a persistent deficit budget year after
year. Which of the following actions can be taken by
the government to reduce the deficit?

1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   a) 1 and 3 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 only
   d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• A budget deficit  
  • It occurs when government spending is more than its revenues.  
  • Reducing revenue expenditure and Rationalizing subsidies will reduce the deficit. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct 
  • The increase in taxes is also a way to reduce the deficit i.e higher taxes increase revenue and help to reduce the budget deficit. 
  • Introducing new welfare schemes will further increase the budget deficit. Hence statement 2 is wrong 
  • Expanding industries will also increase the budget deficit as in the short run, it will not add anything to the tax revenues of the government, and thus will increase the budget deficit. Hence statement 4 is wrong 

99.Which of the following has/have been accorded
‘Geographical Indication’ status?

1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• In 2009, the elaborate silk and gold thread motifs of the Banaras sarees and brocades earned them geographical indicator (GI) recognition. 
• Banaras Brocade Sarees are constructed of intricately woven silk and embellished with complex motifs using zari. 
• 2014 saw the awarding of the GI tag to Tirupathi Laddu. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), adopted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 which has come into existence with effect from 15th September 2003. 
• In 2004, Darjeeling Tea became the first product from India to bear the geographical indicator label. 
• A geographical indicator is a designation that is awarded to the items that have a defined geographical origin and possess attributes or a reputation that is due to that origin.

100.With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the
following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)  
  • It has been awarded Mini Ratan (Category-I) status in 2015 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). 
  • It is a Non-Banking Financial Institution under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • It was established on 11th March 1987 as a Public Limited Government Company under the Companies Act, of 1956. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • IREDA promotes, develops, and extends financial assistance for Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency/Conservation Projects. 

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