UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper with Answer Key – General Studies Paper 1

As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2019 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1

UPSC Prelims 2019 Exam

The UPSC Prelims exam is a tough phase in the Civil Services Examination, serving as an entry point to desirable positions like Indian Administrative Services (IAS) and Indian Police Services (IPS). It is set to happen on June 2, 2019, with two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam is from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM

The Importance of Previous Year Question Papers

To do well in the UPSC Prelims, candidates need more than just a solid grasp of concepts; they should also know the exam pattern, question formats, and time management strategies. A highly effective method for achieving this is to study the previous year’s question papers. These papers offer valuable insights into the exam’s format, level of difficulty, and the kinds of questions typically posed.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2019 – Available on Edukemy’s Website

Candidates eagerly anticipating the UPSC Prelims question papers don’t need to look everywhere. Soon after the exam, you can find the General Studies Paper 1 question papers on Edukemy’s website. Aspirants can effortlessly get and save the UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Papers in PDF format from our platform.

Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions

Q1. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and the revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

• The two main institutions, namely Mansabdari and the Jagirdari, were created by Akbar to consolidate and to expand his empire. These covered both civil and military sectors of administration.
• Statement 1 is not correct: In Mughal India, Jagirdars under the Mansabdari system were assigned land in lieu of assigned duties towards the empire such as police, judicial, and military; Zamindars too apart from revenue collecting duties had to render military duties and perform Khidmat such as rendering soldiers to fill the ranks of the royal army at times of need and offer gifts at the royal court.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Jagirdars were frequently transferred as promotion and demotion was a regular part of the empire as loyalties towards the Emperor were largely dependent on the rank of jagir/mansab held by a Noble; on the other hand, Zamindars had hereditary rights over revenue as their sway over rural society was overarching in all aspects which rested on paternal and patronage application of rituals. Caste was one factor that resulted in the eminent status of Zamindars

Q2. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was to provide agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in the cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Answer: B

• Land reform constitutes the most important measure to improve the economic con­dition of agricultural tenants. The Land reforms program in postIndependence India has evolved through different phases and includes the Abolition of Intermediaries, Tenancy reforms, Consolidation of holdings and determination of holdings per family, imposition of ceilings with fewer exemptions, and to distribution of surplus land among landless peoples.

Q3. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the:

(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank

Answer: C

• The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum. India ranked 68th in the 2019 edition of this report, down from 58th in the previous year (2018).

Q4. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The Company’s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea.
• Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is not correct: The Company was to retain the possession of territories and the revenue for 20 years more, without prejudice to the sovereignty of the Crown. Thus, the constitutional position of the British territories in India were defined explicitly for the first time

Q5. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is correct: The Swadeshi movement saw the growth of indigenous industries by the way of establishment of Swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories, tanneries, banks, insurance companies, shops, etc. This inculcated a feeling of self-reliance by reducing the dependence on foreign goods. These enterprises were based more on patriotic zeal than on business acumen.
• Statement 2 is correct: As an impact of the movement, the demand for the establishment of national education reached its peak which resulted in the setting up of various national schools and colleges. To impart education through the vernacular medium, the National Council of Education was also set up on August 15, 1906, to organize a system of education— literary, scientific, and technical—on national lines and under national control.

Q6. Consider the following pairs: Movement/Organization Leader

1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement Naicker E.V. Ramaswami

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Mahatma Gandhi set up All India Anti-Untouchability league in 1932 which later transformed into
• Harijan Sevak Sangh. Gandhi advised that the activities of the League should be mainly directed towards the economic, social and educational improvement of the depressed classes rather than limiting it to the issue of temple entry and inter-dining. Henceforth, the word untouchable was replaced by Harijan.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: To spearhead peasant movements in colonial India, All India Kisan Sabha was formed in 1936, at the Lucknow session of the Congress, with Swami Sahajanand Saraswati as its first President. It later issued a Kisan manifesto that demanded the abolition of Zamindari and occupancy rights for all tenants. Under pressure from its socialist members and leaders, the Congress adopted an Agrarian Program in December 1936.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Self-Respect Movement, started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in Tamil Nadu in 1925, was a the dynamic social movement aimed at destroying the contemporary Hindu social order in its totality and creating a new, rational society without caste, religion, and God. It was an egalitarian movement that propagated the ideologies of breaking down the Brahminical hegemony, equal rights for the backward classes and women in the society and revitalization of the Dravidian languages like Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, and Malayalam.

Q7. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohgaura
(d) Desalpur

Answer: C

Sohgaura is not a Harappan Site. It is a village on the banks of the Rapti River, about 20 km south-east of Gorakhpur, in the
Gorakhpur District, Uttar Pradesh, India. It is known for the Indian copper plate inscription written in Prakrit in the Brahmi script.

Q8. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

(a) Kanganahalli
(b) Sanchi
(c) Shahbazgarhi
(d) Sohgaura

Answer: A

• Kanaganahalli in Karnataka is the site with an inscription in Brahmi script reading Ranyo Ashoka and a sculpture of King Ashoka

Q9. Consider the following:

1. The deification of the Buddha.
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas.
3. Image worship and rituals.

Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• The term Mahayana is a Sanskrit word which means “Great Vehicle”. This school of Buddhism believes in the heavenliness of Buddha and Idol worship of Buddha and Bodhisattvas embodying Buddha Nature. It originated in northern India and Kashmir and then spread east into Central Asia, East Asia and some areas of Southeast Asia

Q10. With reference to forced labor (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as a forced labourer.

Answer: A

• Vishti was considered as a source of income for the state, a sort of tax by the people. It is also mentioned in Gupta-era copper inscriptions that enlist a variety of other taxes. The Junagarh inscription mentions Vishti as one form of tax, which suggests it was extracted from Gujarat and the Malwa region. It was not wage labour as it was forced labour in lieu of tax.

Q11. Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of:

(a) Chalukya
(b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara

Answer: D

• In the Vittala Temple of Hampi, pavilions or mandapas that were meant to celebrate the marriages of deities were known as Kalyan Mandapa. ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of Vijayanagara. The Vijayanagara Empire was founded by Harihara and Bukka in AD 1336 and made Hastinavati (Hampi) as the capital city

Q12. Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of the Delhi Sultanate, the in charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: In the Delhi Sultanate, the task of collecting revenue directly from peasants and measurement of land rested on Amils.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Iqta system evolved in West Asia significantly in Persia. It was not an ancient indigenous institution as it had been in force in the early Islamic world as a form of reward for services to the state.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Mir Bakshi was the head of the military department in Mughal India whereas in Delhi Sultanate, Ariz under Diwan-i-are (set up by Balban) was improved by Alauddin Khilji as he introduced Dagh system which was aimed at improving Horse quality as well as eliminate fake numbering.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is not correct: Saint Nimbarka was not a contemporary of Akbar because Nimbarka was a 13th-century philosophical Saint whereas Akbar’s time period was 15561605; Nimbarka, also called Nimbaditya or Niyamananda was a Telugu-speaking Brahman who flourished in the 13th century in South India. He was a yogi, philosopher, and prominent astronomer.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Sant Kabir Das was a renowned saint, poet and social reformer of India who lived during the 15th century. His writings significantly influenced the Bhakti movement. Some of his famous writings include ‘Sakhi Granth’, ‘Anurag Sagar’, ‘Bijak’ and ‘Kabir Granthawali’. He also founded a religious community named ‘Kabir Panth’ whose members are referred to as ‘Kabir Panthis’, implying the followers of Kabir Das. Vaishnava saint Swami Ramananda, who accepted Kabir as his disciple, greatly influenced his ideologies.

Q14. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent to the breaking of the Salt Law by the Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is correct: Indentured labor was bonded labor hired on contract for working on plantations in various colonies of Western imperialists. In South Africa, Gandhi in opposition to the compulsory registration of the Indian population under the Asiatic Law Amendment Act of the Transvaal government organized a non-violent protest which led to the passing of Indian Relief Act 1914- which eliminated the extra tax on Indian citizens who had not renewed their indentures and recognized the validity of Indian marriages.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Lord Chelmsford, the then-viceroy of India invited Gandhi to Delhi, at an award conference in order to gain the trust of the empire and Gandhi agreed to move people to enlist in the army for World War I. He agreed to the resolution with the the belief that absolutely unconditional and whole-hearted cooperation with the government on the part of educatedIndiawill bring us insight of our goal of Swaraj as nothing else will.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Salt March or the Dandi March was commenced on March 12th, 1930 and extended for a period of 24 days. The salt law was broken by Gandhi on April 6th when he collected salt from mud. As the Salt March ended in month of April 1930, between June and August several Congress Working Committees and leaders were arrested and Congress as a political was declared illegal by the British Administration

Q15. With reference to the Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs: Person Position held

1. Sir Tej Bahadur SapruPresident, All India Liberal Federation
2. K.C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P.C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: When the Montague report of 1918 was made public, there was a divide in Congress. The moderates welcomed it while the extremists opposed it. This led to a rift in the Congress with moderate leaders forming the “Indian National Liberal Federation (INLF)” in 1919. INLF was founded by Surendra Nath Banerjee and Tej Bahadur Sapru was chosen as the President of the federation.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: In 1946, the Cabinet Mission visited India to draft a Constitution for the country. On the basis of the framework provided by the Cabinet Mission, a Constituent Assembly was constituted on 9th December 1946 which was a fully sovereign body. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India. Kshitish Chandra Neogy, an Indian politician from West Bengal, was also a member of the Constituent Assembly of India.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Communist Party of India was formed on 26 December 1925 at the first Party Conference in Kanpur. Cawnpore. S.V. Ghate was appointed the first General Secretary of CPI. The scattered Communist Group again met in Surat in late 1935 and chose P.C. Joshi as the General Secretary of the Communist Party of India

Q16. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.

Answer: A

• Tansen was the title given by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandhavgarh (Rewa). Tansen is also known as the ‘Sangit Samrat’, according to Musical Heritage of India by Lalita Ramakrishna. Some noteworthy ragas are composed by Tansen-Multani, Bhairavi and Todi.

Q17. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portraits?

(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan

Answer: C

• During Akbar’s reign, many manuscripts were illustrated, the prominent being Razmnamah, the Persian translation of Mahabharata. It was during Jahangir’s reign that manuscripts became less important and individual portraits became more prominent

Q18. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer: D

• The Valley of Flowers National Park is located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand and is known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and the variety of flora. The valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and 3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m.

Q19. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the:

(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Answer: C

• Atal Innovation Mission is a flagship scheme by the Government of India, set up under NITI Aayog (National Institute for Transforming India). AIM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.

Q20. On 21st June, the Sun:

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle.
(b) does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle.
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator.
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn.

Answer: A

• 21st June is the longest day of the year as countries lying to the north of the equator, including India, witness ‘Summer Solstice’. The ‘summer solstice’ occurs exactly when the earth’s axial tilt is most inclined towards the sun at its maximum of 23 degrees 26’. During ‘summer solstice’, the Northern Hemisphere witnesses its longest day of the year while the Southern Hemisphere sees its shortest day. On the June solstice, the Earth’s North Pole is at its maximum tilt toward the sun. At this time, the sun appears directly overhead at 23.5 degrees north latitude, along the Tropic of Cancer. Around the Arctic Circle, the location of sunrise and sunset start to converge in the northern sky, until eventually the sun never sinks below the horizon. Hence, the appearance of the midnight sun.

Q21. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the New World and introduced in the Old World?

(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat

Answer: A

• The New and Old World is often quoted in the context of agricultural crops. Europe, Asia, and Africa have a common agricultural history that originated from the Neolithic Revolution. The three continents shared common domesticated plants making it easy to group them together. The Old-World crops include wheat, rye, oats, lentils, and barley. Such crops did not exist in America until their introduction in the 1490s by post-Columbian contact. The New World crops include rubber, tobacco, sunflower, cocoa, and cashew. Some plants such as cotton and yam as well as some animals like the dog are believed to have existed in both worlds.

Q22. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic lions that once ranged from Persia (Iran) to Palamau in Eastern India were almost driven to extinction by indiscriminate hunting and habitat loss. A single population of less than 50 lions persisted in the Gir forests of Gujarat by late 1890s. With timely and stringent protection offered by the State Government and the Center Government, Asiatic lions have increased to the current population of over 500 numbers. It is part of the Schedule I species of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 that covers endangered species.

Q23. Consider the following pairs:

Famous place River

1. Pandha bhaga Chandra
2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery
3. Hampi Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Pandharpur Wari is an annual pilgrimage (yatra) to Pandharpur, which is the seat of the Hindu god Vithal. The Journey involves Palakhis (palanquin processions) carrying the paduka (footprints) of various saints and Upon reaching Pandharpur on Ashadi Ekadashi, these devotees take a holy dip in the sacred Chandrabhaga River/Bhima River before proceeding to visit the Vitthal temple.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Tiruchirapalli The district is located along the Kaveri (Cauvery) River in Tamil Nadu, India.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: The site of Hampi comprises mainly the remains of the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire (14th-16th century CE), the last great Hindu Kingdom. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in India. Hampi’s spectacular setting is dominated by river Tungabhadra, rugged hill ranges and open plains with widespread physical remains.

Q24. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because:

(a) poverty rates vary from State to State.
(b) price levels vary from State to State.
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State.
(d) quality of public distribution varies from State.

Answer: B

• The Poverty line is the cut-off value in Rupees that a person must earn in a month to be classified as being above the poverty line. The poverty line estimates are last based upon the recommendations of the Suresh Tendulkar Committee 2011. A standard basket consisting of the minimum decent requirement of Food, Education, Health, Electricity and Transport is converted in terms of expenditure based on the prevailing price levels. As the commodity basket remains same throughout but the prices of this basket vary from state to state, hence there are differences in the official poverty line among states

Q25. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of the cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?

(a) Creating artificial rains in some regions.
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones.
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth.
(d) Reducing global warming.

Answer: D

• Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) proposes spraying particles into the upper atmosphere to block sunlight. SAI acts as a reflective barrier against incoming sunlight ultimately resulting in cooling the planet. The use of sulphate is due to its property to be able to reflect all radiations. Thus, the Cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere are used to reduce global warming

Q26. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Answer: D

• In developing Three-Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20), the Niti Aayog has drawn a broader framework for addressing the issue of municipal solid waste (MSW). The solution being suggested by the Action The agenda is twin-fold: waste-to-energy incinerators for bigger municipalities and composting methods of waste disposal for small towns and semi-urban areas. While proposing incineration as a solution, the Niti Aayog has also assessed the benefit-cost ratio of thermal pyrolysis and plasma gasification technologies.

Q27. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Neyyar, ldl Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai TigerReserve.
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park.
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram, and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and MukurthiNational Park.
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and NagarjunasagarSrisailam Tiger Reserve.
Answer: A

• The Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve was established in 2001 and is spread across the two states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It is located in the southernmost end of the Western Ghats. It is listed on the World Network of Biosphere Reserves. The reserve includes three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara, and Nayar, as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve. It consists mostly of tropical forests and possesses a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated plants such as cardamom, Jamun, nutmeg, pepper and plantain.

Q28. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Green sea turtles eat seagrasses and algae, though juveniles snack on crabs, sponges, and jellyfish. Whether or not a turtle is a carnivore, a herbivore, or an omnivore depends on the particular species. For instance, tortoises are almost always exclusively herbivores. Their diets usually consist of plants. Most aquatic turtles are carnivores, it however depends on the species of aquatic turtle. Semi-aquatic turtles are mostly omnivores and their nutritional requirements are usually best met with a diet i.e. meat and vegetables.
• Statement 2 is correct: Fish are of two types mainly, there are carnivores fish that eat the meat of other animals, and there are herbivores fish that eat herbs, seaweeds and coral reefs etc. Herbivore fish are usually small in number as compared to carnivore fish.
• Statement 3 is correct: Manatees, sometimes called sea cows, are large mammals that live in warm sea waters. They live in shallow coastal areas and feed on sea vegetation.
• Statement 4 is correct: Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles.

Q29. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River
3. Rusty Spotted Cat Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Western Ghats region is famous for freshwater biodiversity. Mahseer, belonging to the genus Tor, is considered a prized sports fish of great cultural value. In the Cauvery, the Mahseer community comprises two varieties—a “blue-finned” fish and an “orange-finned, hump-backed”.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Irrawaddy dolphin is a species of river dolphin found in parts of South Asia. Chilika lake, in Odisha, is home to the only known population of Irrawaddy Dolphins in India.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Forests of the Eastern Ghats are home to some endangered and lesser-known mammal species like the Fishing Cat, Rusty Spotted Cat, Indian Pangolin etc. It is a threatened species as per IUCN, listed in Schedule I of Wi

Q30. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Answer: A

• Microbeads are small, solid, manufactured plastic particles that are less than 5mm in diameter and do not degrade or dissolve in water. They may be added to a range of products, including rinse-off cosmetics, personal care and cleaning products. Microbeads are used in these products for a variety of purposes. This includes an exfoliant, a bulking agent, to prolong shelf life,or for the controlled release of active ingredients. Microbeads are not captured by most wastewater treatment systems. If washed down drains after use,they can end up in our rivers, lakes and oceans. These tiny plastics persist in the environment and have a damaging effect on marine life, the environment and human health.

Q31. Recently, there has been a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan Nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of:

(a) Anti-malarial drug
(b) Biodiesel
(c) Pulp for paper industry
(d) Textile fibre

Answer: D

• Himalayan nettle(Girardinia diversifolia) is found to be a sustainable source of textile fiber. For the Himalayan Indian Nettle, The government of India has granted approval for a project titled Development of products from Himalayan Indian nettle to the Department of Jute and Fibre Technology, Institute of Jute Technology, University of Kolkata.

Q32. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images and remote sensing data is used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location.
2. Greenhouse gas emission from rice paddies of a specific location.
3. Land surface temperature of a specific location.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is correct: The Sentinel satellite of the European Space Agency has certain specific spectral characteristics that can be used to measure even the chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location.
• Statement 2 is correct: Satellite remote sensing data can provide spatially explicit information with regard to greenhouse gas emissions of a specific location. Rice paddies have been mapped from multi-temporal Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) data using backscatter change thresholds for many regions in Asia.
• Statement 3 is correct: The land surface temperature of a specific location can be measured with the help of satellite images/ remote sensing data.

Q33. Consider the following states:

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of the percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a) 2-3-1-4

(b) 2-3-4-1

(c) 3-2-4-1

(d) 3-2-1-4

Answer: C

According to ‘The Indian State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019’, the total forest cover is 21.67% of the total geographical area of the country. In terms of the percentage of forest cover to total area of the State, the correct ascending order as follows:

● Maharashtra (16.50%)

● Madhya Pradesh (25.14%)

● Odisha (33.15%)

● Chhattisgarh (41.13%)

Q34. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in the Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.

Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select
the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. Methane hydrate is an “ice” that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits where temperature and pressure conditions are favorable for its formation. As Global Warming led to rise in temperature therefore it might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
• Statement 2 is correct: Methane hydrates tend to form along the lower margins of continental slopes, where the seabed drops from the relatively shallow shelf, usually to about 150 meters below the sea surface. The susceptibility of gas hydrates to warming climate depends on the duration of the warming event, their depth beneath the seafloor or tundra surface, and the amount of warming required to heat sediments to the point of dissociating gas hydrates.
• Statement 3 is correct: The problem with methane is that it does not vanish without a trace, even though it remains in the atmosphere relatively briefly, 10 years on average. In the presence of free oxygen, a methane molecule’s single atom of carbon disengages from its four hydrogen atoms to become carbon dioxide.

Q35. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulfur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

• Burning of crop or biomass residue means burning of living or dead vegetation including grassland, forest, and agricultural waste for fuel. Recent crop harvesting practices use mechanical harvesters in the rice and wheat farm system in India which leaves behind large quantities of crop residue in the field. However, there is no suitable method available for managing the crop residues. Burning of crop residues emits traces of
• carbon dioxide, methane, carbon monoxide, nitrous oxide, sulfur dioxide and particulates which affect human health. Punjab and Haryana are both responsible for causing air pollution due to burning. These two states contribute to 48 per cent of the total emission due to paddy burning across India.

Q36. Consider the following pairs:

Sea Bordering country

1. Adriatic Sea: Albania
2. Black Sea: Croatia
3. Caspian Sea: Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea: Morocco
5. Red Sea: Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Adriatic Sea is a part of the Mediterranean Sea positioned between the eastern coastline of Italy, and countries of the Balkan Peninsula, from Slovenia, South through Croatia, Montenegro, and to Albania.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: the Black Sea is located between Europe and Asia. Six countries border the Black Sea, Ukraine to the North, Russia and Georgia to the East, Turkey to the South, and Bulgaria and Romania to the West.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: the Caspian Sea is an enclosed body of water between Asia and Europe. It is bordered by Iran, Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan, Azerbaijan, and Russia.
• Pair 4 is correctly matched: Morocco’s Mediterranean coast represents the westernmost edge of the Northern African coast. The coastline features the Strait of Gibraltar marks the link between the Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
• Pair 5 is not correctly matched: Red Sea is located between North-east Africa and Western Asia. The countries bordering it are Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti.

Q37. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam

Answer: B

• India has been the world’s top rice exporter since the beginning of this decade. India emerged the world’s largest rice exporter in 2011-12, displacing Thailand from its leadership position.

Q38. Consider the following pairs:

Glacier River

1. Bandarpunch: Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri: Chenab
3. Milam: Mandakini
4. Siachen: Nubra
5. Zemu: Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 3 and 5 only

Answer: A

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: An important glacier of the Yamuna River basin is the Bandarpunch Glacier in the Garhwal division of the Himalayas. It is 12 km long and situated on the Northern slopes of Bandarpunch West, Khatling Peak and Bandarpunch Peak the glacier is formed by three cirque glaciers and then joins the river of Yamuna.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Bara Shigri glacier is located in Lahaul and Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh. The Bara Shigri glacier attracted much attention for many years because of the valuable antimony deposits found there. It feeds the Chandra River and after the junction at Tandi with the Bhaga River, it is known as the Chenab River.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Milam Glacier in Munsiyari, Pithoragarh district, Uttarakhand is the source of the Gori Ganga River and not of the Mandakini River. Gori Ganga is also an important tributary of the Kali River.
• Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Siachen Glacier is located in Northern Ladakh in the eastern Karakoram Range of the Himalayas. It is the source of the Nubra River, a tributary of the Indus River flowing into Pakistan and the Arabian Sea. The water of the Nubra drains into the Shyok River and then into the Indus. The Siachen Glacier is the highest battleground on Earth

Q39. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a) pesticides in agriculture.
(b) preservatives in processed foods.
(c) fruit-ripening agents.
(d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics.

Answer: A

• Carbofuran, Phorate and Triazophos are pesticides used in agriculture. Pesticides ar chemical compounds that are used to kill pests; including insects, rodents, fungi, and unwanted plants (weeds). Pesticides include herbicides for destroying weeds and other unwanted vegetation, insecticides for controlling a wide variety of insects, fungicides used to prevent the growth of molds and mildew, disinfectants for preventing the spread of bacteria, and compounds used to control mice and rats. To promote organic farming in Kerala, the state agriculture department had ordered a ban on the use of pesticides. Kerala
• Agriculture University was asked to provide alternatives to the banned pesticides, which include carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos, methyl deletion, prophenophos, and triazophos. The university suggested less hazardous pesticides, like acephate, carbaryl, dimethoate, and flubendiamide.

Q40. Consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendation of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is not correct: Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of government of India to protect only Ramsar Sites and not all the wetlands in India.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2010, Wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and man-made wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland.
• Statement 3 is correct: Under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, “wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoons, creeks, estuaries and man-made wetlands and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland

Q41. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by wastewater (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%).
• Statement 2 is correct: Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production and India is globally the biggest source of ammonia emission, nearly double that of NOx emissions.
• Statement 3 is correct: The poultry industry, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.

Q42. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rainforests
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs

Answer: D

• Aliyar (Tamil Nadu) Isapur (Maharashtra) and Kangsabati (West Bengal) are water reservoirs, where the water level reaches much below the normal capacity.

Q43. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of HCNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one -fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce the emission of carbon monoxide up to 70%, not complete emission.
• Statement 2 is correct: H-CNG as fuel also reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
• Statement 3 is correct: Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%. The US, Brazil, Canada, and South Korea have all conducted trials and found that they get a reduction in emissions from buses using H-CNG.
• Statement 4 is not correct: Physical blending of CNG and hydrogen involves a series of energy-intensive steps that would make HCNG more expensive than CNG.

Q44. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperatures on cloudy nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Answer: B

• Dew is a type of precipitation where water droplets form on the ground, or on objects near the ground in a process called condensation of moisture. The favorable weather elements for dew include clear skies, light wind, decent soil moisture, and low night-time dew point depressions. Dew forms when the temperature becomes equal to the dew point. This often happens first at ground level for two reasons. Dewdrops are not formed on a cloudy night because clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

Q45. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India is violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: In 1975, Parliament passed the Thirty-ninth Amendment to the Constitution which removed the authority of the Supreme Court to adjudicate petitions regarding elections of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, and Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Instead, a body constituted by Parliament would be vested with the power to resolve such election disputes.
• Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Constitutional Amendment and National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Acts were brought by the government to replace the 1993 collegium system for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and the High courts. But the Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution as it impinged upon the principles of “independence of the judiciary”, as well as “separation of powers”

Q46. Consider the following statements:

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of the total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Judges (Inquiry) Act,1968 contains the detailed procedures for the removal of Judges of the Supreme Court or the High Court. Under this Act, the Chairman or the Speaker may or may not admit the motion of impeachment.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The constitution nowhere defines the term “incapacity and proved misbehavior”.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment.
• Statement 4 is correct: The motion for removal of a Judge is to be signed by 50 members of the Rajya Sabha or 100 members of Lok Sabha and it has to be passed by a majority of the House and 2/3rd of those present and voting in the same session

Q47. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai

Answer: A

• In the aftermath of Kameshwar Singh V State of Bihar judgment, the Government got apprehensive that the whole agrarian reform program would be endangered. To ensure that agrarian reform legislation did not run into heavy weather, the legislature amended the Constitution in the year 1951 under the Prime ministership of Jawahar Lal Nehru which inserted Ninth Schedule.

Q48. Consider the following statements:

1. The coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on a lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India itself is insufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The coal sector was nationalized in two phases under Indira Gandhi Government in 1972. The CoalMines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973 was enacted during the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Presently, coal blocks are allocated through auctions and not on a lottery basis.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The coal sector is the monopolistic sector in India. India holds 5th biggest coal reserves in the world but due to incapacity of coal production by monopolistic firms, it imports coals to meet the shortages of domestic supply. But still the country is not self-sufficient in coal production.

Q49. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. The posts are:
  • Ministers in the Government of India and States.
  • Whips in the Parliament.
  • Parliamentary Secretary and Under Secretaries.
  • Officers of the National Cadet Corps and the Territorial Army.
  • Chairman and Members of Advisory Committees set up by the Government.

• Statement 2 is correct: This act has been amended five times 1960, 1992, 1993, and 2006 and in 2013.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The law or the constitution of India does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit but the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court judgments

Q50. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer: B

• Grant of mineral concessions in Scheduled Areas is guided by the provisions contained in Article 244 along with the Fifth and Sixth Schedules to the Constitution relating to the administration of the Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas and the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 and the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 or any other relevant statutory acts protecting the interests of tribals. Under the fifth Schedule, the Governor may by public notification direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or any part thereof in the State or shall apply to a Scheduled Area.

Q51. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is correct and 3 is not correct: PVTGs constitute the most vulnerable section among thetribal, isolated inhabited, remote and difficult areas in small and scattered hamlets/ habitats. They are economically backward and have low levels of literacy. There are a total of 75 such groups of tribals found in 18 states and in 1 Union territory.
• Statement 2 is correct: The criteria followed for the determination of PVTGs are as under:

• A pre-agriculture level of technology;
• A stagnant or declining population;
• Extremely low literacy; and
• A subsistence level of economy.

Q52. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannotbe challenged in any
court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without
counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of UnionLegislature.

Answer: B

• Article 142 of the Indian Constitution states that the Supreme Court of India may pass an order which it finds necessary for doing complete justice in a case or matter pending before it. Such an order would be applicable throughout the territory of India.

Q53. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall Address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform the Legislature of the causes of its Summons.
• Statement 2 is not correct: When the State legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, the rules made by the Speaker of the Assembly or Chairman of the council are applicable. Article 208(1) states that, the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of the Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. Article 208(2) states that until such rules are made for the conduct of business, the adaptations and modifications made by the Speaker of Legislative Assembly or the Chairman of the Legislative Council shall be applicable.

Q54. Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful
   owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is not correct: The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) only covers five main areas: preventive measures, criminalization and law enforcement, international cooperation, asset recovery, and technical assistance and information exchange. This convention does not cover the aspect of Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
• Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC) is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument. The Convention covers many different forms of corruption, such as bribery, trading in influence, abuse of functions, and various acts of corruption in the private sector.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The General assembly adopted the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime and two of its supplementary Protocols namely: The Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children and the Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Air and Sea. This convention does not cover the aspect of asset return to rightful owners

Q55. Consider the following statements:

1. As per a recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboo grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Statement 1 is not correct: The Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill 2018 permits felling and transit of bamboo grown in non-forest areas. However, bamboo grown on forest lands would continue to be classified as a tree and would be guided by the existing legal restrictions.
Statement 2 is correct: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 recognizes bamboo as a Minor Forest Produce and vests the “right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce” with Scheduled Tribes and traditional forest dwellers

Q56. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of choice?

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29

Answer: B

• The right to marry is a component of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India which says, “No person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law”. in the context of right to marry, mention may be made of a few Indian cases. Person who suffers from venereal disease, even prior to the marriage cannot be said to have any right to marry so long as he is not fully cured of the disease. In 2018, the Supreme Court in Hadiya Marriage case has held that the Right to Marry a person of one’s choice is integral to
• Article 21 (Right to Life and Liberty) of the Constitution. In Lata Singh vs the state of Uttar Pradesh 2006, the Supreme Court viewed the right to marry as a component of the right to life under Art 21 of the Indian Constitution.

Q57. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patent Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is not correct: Article 3(J) of the Indian Patent Act, excludes from patentability “plants and animals in whole or in any part thereof other than microorganisms, including seeds, varieties, and species, and essentially biological processes for the production or propagation of plants and animals”.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Intellectual Property Appellate Board has been constituted by the government of India in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry in September 2003 to hear appeals against the decisions of the Registrar under the Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

Q58. Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, of 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the government of India to take all measures as it deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing controlling and abating environmental pollution. It does not talk about public participation.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Environment Protection Act 1986, empowers the government of India to lay down standards for the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever, provided that different standards for emission or discharge may be laid down under this clause from different sources having regard to the quality or composition of the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from such sources

Q59. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Waste generators have to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste
processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Answer: C

• Option A is incorrect: Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams- Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, Metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.
• Option B is incorrect: The Rules are now applicable beyond Municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations, census towns notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbase, Port and harbor, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance.
• Option C is correct: Under the Solid Waste Management, Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having a 1 million or more population within two years. In the case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or stand-alone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having 0.5 million or more population and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years. Hence, rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of landfill sites and waste processing facilities

Q60. Consider the following statements: As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers.
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is correct: The government has notified fixed-term employment for all sectors through an amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946. Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire and fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen.
• Statement 2 is correct: As the Amendment provides that subject to the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workmen whether monthly-rated, weekly-rated rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen

Q61. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of:

(a) Integrated Rural Development Program
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission

Answer: B

• The Service Area Approach (SAA) was introduced in April 1989 as a part of the Lead Bank Scheme for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas. It was applicable to all scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks. Under SAA, each bank branch in a rural or semi-urban area was designated to serve an area of 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit in its service area.
• The primary objective of SAA was to increase productive lending and forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity, and increase in income levels.

Q62. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
• Statement 2 is not correct: Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments. Under the power granted to them by section 15 of the MMDR Act, State Governments have framed their own minor minerals concession rules.
• Statement 3 is correct: As opposed to major minerals, the regulatory and administrative jurisdiction of minor minerals falls under the purview of State governments. These include the powers to frame rules, prescribe rates of royalty, contribute to District Mineral Foundation, the procedure for granting mineral concessions, regulate their mining, control of illegal mining etc

Q63. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

• External debt refers to the money borrowed from a source outside the country which has to be paid back in the currency from which it is borrowed.
• Statement 1 is not correct: Commercial Borrowings continue to be the largest component of India’s external Debt followed by NRI deposits and short-term credit.
• Statement 2 is not correct: US dollar the US-denominated debt remained the largest component of India’s external debt, with a Share of 53.9 percent at end-June 2020, followed by the Indian rupee (31.6 percent), yen (5.7 percent), SDR (4.5 per cent) and the euro (3.5 per cent)

Q64. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(c) Investments
(d) Money at call and short notice

Answer: B

• Liabilities are the obligations that are rising out of previous transactions, which is payable by the enterprise or the government through the assets possessed by the enterprise.
• The deposit itself is a liability owed by the bank to the depositor. Bank deposits refer to this liability rather than to the actual funds that have been deposited. While assets are things that a firm owns or what a firm can claim from others. For banks, Advances, Investments and Money at call and short notice serve as its Assets.

Q65. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector.
2. Increasing the government expenditure.
3. Remittances from Indians abroad.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is correct: Foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector will lead to an increase in the supply of foreign currencies, and this further increases the forex reserves. Therefore, more supply and less demand for foreign currency relative to the Indian rupee helps in reducing the risk of currency crisis.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Increasing Government expenditure will have no effect on the value of currency. Currency crisis can be reduced by manipulating the demand and supply of currency in the foreign exchange market.
• Statement 3 is correct: Remittance is the sum of money (in foreign currency), sent from abroad or overseas to the home country. Remittance is the major source of cash inflow into any country. With the inflow of foreign currency, forex reserves again increased which further reduced currency crisis. India is the largest remittance-receiving country in the world

Q66. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer: C

• Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution. The Commission suggested various
• recommendations for the appointment of the Governor.
• It recommended that the Governor:
• Should be an eminent person.
• Must be a person from outside the State.
• Should not have participated in active politics at least for some time before his appointment.
• Should not be connected with local politics of the state.

Q67. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

(a) Certificate of Deposit
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Participatory Note

Answer: D

• P-Notes or Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges without being registered. The underlying Indian security instrument may be equity, debt, derivatives or even be an index

Q68. Consider the following statements:

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programs
   carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The provisions laid out in the rules that limit compliance with the FRA only to those areas where rights holders have been formally recognized. Moreover, it does not provide for mandatory people’s participation in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016

Q69. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2 and 5 only

Answer: A

• In India, there are 24 Department Related Standing Committees that comprise members from both Houses of Parliament. These committees are ministry specific, and may review the working of regulators within their respective departments. Parliament may also establish ad-hoc committees which may examine the working of regulators

Q70. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basicand capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier
   trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The stated objective of the Second five-year plan was rapid industrialisation with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries – aimed at establishing the Socialistic Pattern of Society.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Fourth Five-Year Plan getting its inspiration from the Directive Principles of State Policy sought to move further on setting up the society on Socialistic Patterns in which it adopted means to prevent concentration of wealth and economic power.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Fifth five-year plan aims at removal of poverty and achievement of self-reliance. The Eighth five-year plan focused on financial sector reforms.

Q71. With reference to the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The bank currently has 103 member nations.
• Statement 2 is not correct: China is the largest shareholder (shareholding 30.77%) in AIIB followed by India (shareholding 8.64%), Russia (6.75%) and Germany (4.63%).
• Statement 3 is not correct: AIIB has 39 nonregional members (members from outside Asia) as well. Some of them are Austria, Canada, Finland, etc.

Q72. What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit.
(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments.
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs 50 crore or more.
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending.

Answer: D

• An Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) is an agreement between one or more creditors (lenders), who have shared interests in a particular borrower. The inter-creditor agreement is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ₹50 crore and above that are under the control of a group of lenders. It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans. The Intercreditor Agreement, a recommendation of the Sunil Mehta committee, aims to deal with bad loans as an attempt to speed up the Resolution of stressed Assets

Q73. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the:

(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of concerned bank

Answer: A

• Bank Board Bureau is responsible for the selection and appointment of Board of Directors in Public Sector Banks and Financial Institutions

Q74. Consider the following statements:

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which one of the statements given above is correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. It is not the first regulatory body of the Government of India. Forward Market
• The commission was the first regulatory body setup in 1953 under the Forward Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1952. Later, it was merged with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
• Statement 2 is correct: The Act provides for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
• Statement 3 is correct: Subject to the provisions of the Act, the appeals against the decisions of the Board go before the Appellate Tribunal established under Section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003. The said Appellate Tribunal shall exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on it by or under this Act.

Q75. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is not correct: LTE improved on the radio technology of 3G’s WCDMA and introduced OFDM or Orthogonal FrequencyDivision Multiplexing. ITU (The International Telecommunication Union) recognises the lack of clarity in the term 4G and has determined LTE-Advanced and Wireless MAN-Advanced or WiMAX 2 as “True” 4G.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Basically, VoLTE systems covert voice into data stream, which is then transmitted using the data connection. VoLTE is a technology update to the LTE protocol used by mobile phone networks. Under LTE, the infrastructure of telecom players only allows the transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their older 2G or 3G networks.

Q76. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment)Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is not correct and 3 is correct: Increased paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks for women employees, unless they have two or more surviving children. This maternity benefit should not be availed before eight weeks (earlier six weeks) from the date of expected delivery.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Mandatory crèche (daycare) facilities for every establishment employing 50 or more employees, including the right of mothers to visit the crèche four times per day.

Q77. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?

(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits

Answer: A

• Sub Index of Ease of Doing Business Index comprises starting a business, getting a location (labour market regulation, construction permits, getting electricity, registering property), accessing finance (getting credit, protecting minority investor), and dealing with day-to-day operations (paying taxes, enforcing contracts). Maintenance of law and order is not a subindex of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index

Q78. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

(a) The Bio -medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Answer: C

• In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. Extended producer responsibility is a practice and a policy approach in which producers take responsibility for management of the disposal of products they produce once those products are designated as no longer useful by consumers. Collection mechanism-based approach has been adopted, which includes collection centers, collection points, take back systems etc for the collection of e-waste by producers under Extended Producer Responsibility.

Q79. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus:

(a) Transportation cost only
(b) Interest cost only
(c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Answer: C

• The economic cost of foodgrains consists of three components, namely the MSP including central bonus, if applicable, as the price paid to farmers, procurement incidentals, and the cost of distribution.

Q80. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

(a) The proportion of literates in the population.
(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines.
(c) The size of population in the working age group.
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society.

Answer: D

• Social capital refers to connections among individuals – social networks and the norms of reciprocity and trustworthiness that arise from them.

Q81. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

• Statement 1 is not correct: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the judicial review power of high court. It debarred the high courts from considering the constitutional validity of any central law. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position. High Court has the power to invalidate any central law which goes against the ethos of the constitution.
• Statement 2 is not correct: If any constitutional amendment goes against the basic structure of the constitution, Supreme court has the power to call it into question. In 2015, the Supreme Court declared both the 99th Constitutional Amendment, 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014 as unconstitutional and null and void.

Q82. Consider the following statements:

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

• The basis for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is the “law of one price”.
• Statement 1 is correct: PPPs measure the total amount of goods and services that a single unit of a country’s currency can buy in another country. The PPP between countries A and B measures the amount of country A’s currency required to purchase a basket of goods and services in country A as compared to the amount of country B’s currency to purchase a similar basket of goods and services in country B.
• Statement 2 is not correct: In terms of PPP dollars, India is the third largest economy in the world. (Fourth largest if the European Union is also considered as a common economic space for ranking purposes).

Q83. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

• As per the annual report of Ministry of Agriculture, area, production and yield of major crops are as follow:
• Statement 1 is correct: With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in the last five years, the area under rice cultivation is the highest.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Area under Coarse cereals is less than area under oilseeds. Jowar is a coarse cereal.
• Statement 3 is correct: Area of cotton cultivation (108.45 lakh hectares in 2016-17) is more than thatof sugarcane (43.89 lakh hectares in 2016-17).
• Statement 4 is not correct. In 2013-14 to 2014-15, area under sugarcane cultivation increased while it decreasing for the next two years. But during the last five years, it has not decreased steadily.

Q84. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils

Answer: D

• The import of vegetable oils in India is highest in last five years due to a cut in duty as mandatory under the Malaysia-India Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (MICECA) signed in October 2010 with South East Asian countries.

Q85. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraints
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Answer: D

• The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on activities of individuals and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. However, it does not mean ‘license’ to do what one likes and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself. In brief, liberty conceived by the Preamble or Fundamental Rights is not absolute but qualified. Though, liberty in a narrow sense is the absence of restraints. But wider interpretation of liberty is positive and that is facilitating the overall development of an individual.

Q86. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee?

(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports.
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds.
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing.
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy.

Answer: D

• Option A is not correct: Curbing imports of non-essential goods will lessen the demand for dollars and promoting exports will help increase the flow of dollars into the country – helping control rupee depreciation.
• Option B is not correct: The Masala bond is directly pegged to the Indian Currency. If Indian borrowers issues more rupee-denominated Masala bonds, this would increase liquidity in the market or increase in the rupee stock against a few currencies in the market and this would help in supporting the rupee.
• Option C is not correct: ECB is a type of loan in foreign currencies made by non-resident lenders. Thus, easing conditions of the ECB helps in receiving more loans in foreign currencies that would increase of forex inflow leading to rupee appreciation.
• Option D is correct: Expansionary Monetary Policy is a set of policy measures such as an increase in money supply by the RBI to stimulate the economy. It cannot influence the variations of rupee value

Q87. Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them
   are stored in a system only in India.
2. They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by the public sector
   enterprises.
3. They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The RBI’s recent directives command payment system providers that they shallensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The systems are owned and operated by International payments services providers including foreign banks that have a small number of wholesale branches in India, and switch providers.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The consolidated system audit report should be submitted to the Reserve Bank of India not to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
• The audit would be conducted by CERT-IN empanelled auditors to certify that these payment system providers have complied with the above-mentioned directive

Q88. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May 2018?

(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America

Answer: C

• The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) standardizes data protection law across all 28 EU countries and imposes strict new rules on controlling and processing personally identifiable information (PII). It also extends the protection of personal data and data protection rights by giving control back to EU residents. GDPR replaced the 1995 EU Data Protection Directive and went into force on May 25, 2018.

Q89. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?

(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America

Answer: B

• An ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Co-operation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ was jointly signed by India and Russia in October 2018 in New Delhi. The document signed by the Director General of Rosatom State Atomic Energy Corporation and Secretary of Department of Atomic Energy and Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission of India

Q90. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the banking habits of the population
(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(d) Increase in the population of the country

Answer: B

• The money multiplier is the maximum amount of broad money (M3 Money) that could be created by commercial banks for a given fixed amount of base money or reserve ratios. Or, simply it can be stated that the maximum amount of money that the banking system generates with each rupee of reserves.
• In the above-mentioned four situations, only the increase in the banking habit of the population will increase the money multiplier as only when the deposits come into the banking system, they can be used by the banks to create more Money.

Q91. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created, and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from the computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improve their experience using the camera of a smartphone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing a complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 4 only

Answer: B

• Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: Augmented reality (AR) is the superimposition of computer-generated images on existing environments to make them more interactive. It is utilized in the form of applications for mobile devices.
• Virtual reality (VR) is a computer-generated simulation of real-life environments that is primarily achieved with the use of headsets. When worn, the user’s vision and hearing are stimulated to provide realistic experiences.
• Statements 3 and 4 are correct: VR completely puts the user in a simulated reality, AR blends the virtual and real. Like VR, an AR experience involves some sort of goggles through which we can view a physical reality whose elements are augmented (or supplemented) by computer-generated sensory input such as sound, video, graphics, or GPS data.

Q92. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to:

(a) fossil of a kind of dinosaur.
(b) an early human species.
(c) a cave system found in North-East India.
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent.

Answer: B

• For the first time, scientists have found fossils from an extinct ancient human lineage known as the Denisovans outside of Siberia. Denisovans were an extinct group of hominins that were close relatives of Neanderthals. They are known primarily from a handful of fossil fragments found at Denisova Cave in Siberia, and from genetic clues that linger in the DNA of people across Asia.

Q93. With reference to the recent developments in science which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratorypetri dishes.

Answer: A

• Option A is not correct: It is not possible to create a functional chromosome by joining segments of DNA taken from different species. Chromosomes are very long and code for so many genes. Within a species, translocation can take place and different parts of two chromosomes may join to produce functional chromosomes. But this often gives rise to abnormalities like Philadelphia Chromosome.
• Option B is correct: In a major step toward creating artificial life, US researchers have developed a living organism that incorporates both natural and artificial DNA and is capable of creating entirely new, synthetic proteins.

Q94. Consider the following statements about a digital signature:

1. An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it.
2. Used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information from a server on the Internet.
3. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

• Statement 1 is not correct: A Digital Certificate is an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Digital Certificate serves as proof of identity of an individual to access information from a server on the Internet.
• Statement 3 is correct: Digital Signature is an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged.

Q95. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person.
2. Sleep monitoring of a person.
3. Assisting the hearing-impaired person.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

• Wearable technologies are electronic devices that are physically worn by individuals in order to track, analyze and transmit personal data.
• Wearable devices can track biometric data such as heart rate, sleeping pattern,location of a person and also assists the hearing impaired person. Wearable technologies use the application of the Internet of Things (IoT) and is becoming popular across various industries, especially in the medical and fashion industries

Q96. RNA interference (RNAi) technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

1. It is used in developing gene-silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to virtual pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Gene silencing is a modern gene-editing technique. Using techniques like RNA interference, CRISPRCAS9 and antisense RNA technique, a gene of our interest can be suppressed, or its expression is controlled. It is used in developing gene-silencing therapies.
• Statement 2 is correct: RNAi is used in functional genomics (systematic analysis of loss-of-function phenotypes induced by RNAi triggers) and developing therapies for the treatment of viral infection, dominant disorders, neurological disorders, and many types of cancers (in vivo inactivation of gene products linked to human disease progression and pathology).
• Statement 3 is not correct: Hormone replacement therapy is a treatment for women who have low hormone levels like Women going through menopause (menstrual periods stop permanently, and they are no longer able to bear children). It is also called estrogen replacement therapy. The RNA interface cannot be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.

Q97. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
(c) The possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand singularity’.

Answer: B

• When the two supermassive black holes in each of these systems finally come together in millions of years, their encounters will produce strong gravitational waves. Gravitational waves produced by the collision of two stellar-mass black holes have already been detected by the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO). Observatories such as the planned NASA/ESA space-based Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (LISA) will be able to detect the lower-frequency gravitational waves from supermassive black-hole mergers, which are a million times more massive than those detected by LIGO

Q98. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multidrug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: Genetic predisposition is an increased chance that one will develop a certain disease based on the genetic makeup. A predisposition contributes to the development of disease but is not the reason for the occurrence for multidrug resistance in microbial pathogens.
• Statement 2 is correct: In many places, antibiotics are overused and misused in people and animals, and often given without professional oversight
• Statement 3 is correct: Antibiotics are a type of antimicrobials designed to target bacterial infections in people and animals. Antibiotics increase the efficiency of animal growth by inhibiting the growth of microbes in the gastrointestinal tract which triggers immune responses in the host. But indiscriminate use of antibiotics in livestock farming is also the reason for the occurrence of multidrug resistance in microbial pathogens

Q99. What is the Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news?

(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing.
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients.
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant.
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops.

Answer: A

• CRISPR Cas9 is an acronym for “Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats.” CRISPR genome engineering technology enables scientists to easily and precisely edit the DNA of any genome

Q100. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those
infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Answer: B

• Option A is correct: HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that attacks the body’s immune system. It can be transmitted via the exchange of a variety of body fluids from infected people, such as blood, breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions. Hepatitis B virus also spreads through contact with the blood, semen, or other body fluid of a person who has HBV, much like HIV.
• Option B is not correct: The hepatitis B vaccine is a safe and effective vaccine that is recommended for all infants at birth and for children up to 18 years. The hepatitis B vaccine is also known as the first “anticancer” vaccine because it prevents hepatitis B, the leading cause of liver cancer worldwide. In fact, India is the largest producer of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine but there is no effective Hepatitis C vaccine to date.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

FAQ 1: What is the pattern of the UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1 consists of objective-type multiple-choice questions. It covers diverse subjects such as History, Geography, Polity, Economics, Environment, and Current Affairs. The total marks for the paper are 200, and it is designed to test candidates’ knowledge and understanding of a wide range of topics.

FAQ 2: How many questions can candidates expect in the UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2019 typically comprises 100 to 150 questions. The exact number may vary each year. Candidates need to answer all the questions within a specified time limit, usually two hours.

FAQ 3: Is there a negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: Yes, there is a negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1. For each incorrect answer, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question are deducted. However, there is no negative marking for unanswered questions.

FAQ 4: What is the role of the UPSC Prelims 2020 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2020 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1 is a crucial resource for candidates. It provides the correct answers to all the questions asked in the exam. Candidates can use the answer key to estimate their probable scores and identify areas where they need improvement. It also serves as a valuable tool for self-assessment.

FAQ 5: How can candidates access the UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key?

Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key is usually made available on the official UPSC website after the examination. Candidates can download the answer key and compare it with their responses to calculate their expected scores. Additionally, coaching institutes and educational websites often release unofficial answer keys shortly after the exam for quick reference, but candidates are advised to rely on the official answer key for accurate information.

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