Indian Polity and Governance, constituting the bedrock of the country’s democratic framework, undergoes thorough examination in the UPSC Prelims through meticulously crafted questions. One of the pivotal segments of this assessment is the Constitutional Framework, which delves into the foundational principles, institutions, and mechanisms that shape India’s governance. Aspirants navigating through this terrain are tasked with comprehending the nuances of constitutional provisions, historical contexts, and contemporary interpretations. From the intricate interplay between the Executive, Legislature, and Judiciary to the principles of federalism, secularism, and social justice, each facet presents a canvas for aspirants to illustrate their grasp of India’s constitutional ethos. The journey through these topic-wise questions not only assesses factual knowledge but also the analytical prowess required to interpret and apply constitutional principles in diverse scenarios, preparing aspirants to become stewards of India’s democratic fabric.
Q1. In the Interim Government formed in 1946, the Vice-President of the Executive Council was (1995)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (a)
The inaugural Interim Government, unveiled on August 24, 1946, saw Jawaharlal Nehru assuming the role of Vice-President of the Executive Council. Operating with significant autonomy, this government persevered until the culmination of British governance, paving the way for the subsequent establishment of the Dominion of India and Pakistan.
Q2. 2. In the following quotations. (1997)
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship: EQUALITY of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the. nation;
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution”,
‘X’ stands for
(a) Twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) Twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) Twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
The ‘X’ in the above passage refers to the significant date of adoption and enactment of the Constitution, specifically the twenty-sixth day of November, 1949. This pivotal moment saw the Constitution officially signed by the President of the Constituent Assembly, marking its passage. The Constitution, as it stood on November 26, 1949, comprised a preamble, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules.
Q3. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935? (2000)
(a) Diarchy at the centre as well as in the provinces
(b) A bicameral legislature
(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) An All-India Federation
Ans. (a)
The Government of India Act of 1935 did not incorporate the concept of diarchy in both the centre and the provinces. While it abolished diarchy in the provinces, it introduced it at the centre. Diarchy in the provinces was initially established by the Government of India Act of 1919. Additionally, the 1935 Act ushered in bicameralism in six out of the eleven provinces, namely Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam, and the United Provinces. Furthermore, the Act proposed the establishment of an All India Federation comprising both provinces and princely states, although this federation never materialized.
Q4. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the 4th Schedule of the Constitution of India? (2001)
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It allocates seats in the Council of States
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
The allocation of seats in the Council of States, known as the Rajya Sabha, is outlined in the 4th Schedule of the Constitution of India. Enacted through the 7th Amendment Act of 1956, this schedule delineates the distribution of seats among states and Union Territories. The number of members assigned to each entity varies. As per Article 80(2) of the Constitution, the allocation of these seats is to be done in accordance with the provisions specified in the 4th Schedule.
Q5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. (2001)
List I List II
A. Article 54 1. Election of the President of India
B. Article 75 2. Appointment of the Prime Minister
C. Article 155 3. Appointment of the Governor of a State
D. Article 164 4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)
The correct matching is as follows:
A-3: Article 54 of the Constitution deals with the Election of the President of India.
B-4: Article 75 of the Indian Constitution states that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
C-1: Article 155 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of a Governor. It mentions that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
D-2: Article 164 of the Indian Constitution states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Q6. Match List I and List II and select the answer using the codes given below the lists. (2001)
List I List II
A. The Constitution 69th Amendment Act, 1991 1. Establishment of State Level
B. The Constitution 75th 2. Amendment Act, 1994 No reservations for scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C. The Constitution 80th Amendment Act, 2000 3. Constitution of Panchayats in villages or at other local level
D. The Constitution 83rd Amendment Act, 2000 4 . Accepting the recommendations of the 10th Finance Commission
5. According the status territory to Delhi
Ans. (a)
The accurate alignment is A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2. The 69th Amendment Act of 1991 bestowed a unique status upon the Union Territory of Delhi, designating it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi. The 75th Amendment Act of 1994 introduced the establishment of State-level rent tribunals, thereby excluding the jurisdiction of all courts except the Supreme Court. The 80th Amendment Act of 2000, in accordance with the recommendations of the 10th Finance Commission, introduced an alternative scheme for tax sharing between the Union and the States. The 83rd Amendment Act of 2000 amended Article 243 M, stipulating that no reservation in panchayats should be made in favor of SC/ST in Arunachal Pradesh, where the entire population is tribal.
Q7. With reference to the Constitution of India, (2004)
which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Forests: Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges: Concurrent List
(c) Post Office: Union List Savings Bank (
d) Public Health: State List
Ans. (b)
The alignment of the Exp. Stock market with the Concurrent List isn’t accurate. Stock exchanges and futures markets are actually delineated under Entry 48 of the Union List within the 7th Schedule of the Constitution.
Q9. Consider the following statements. (2005)
1. The Constitution of India has 40 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all
3. 9th, 10th, 11th and 12th Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution Amendment Acts.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Only statement (3) is correct as the 9th, 10th, 11th, and 12th Schedules were incorporated into the Constitution of India through respective Constitution Amendment Acts.
The 9th Schedule pertains to land reforms and the abolition of the Zamindari system, introduced by the 1st Amendment Act in 1951.
The 10th Schedule deals with disqualification of members on grounds of defection, inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985.
The 11th Schedule enumerates 29 subjects under the administrative purview of panchayats, introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act in 1992.
The 12th Schedule outlines 18 subjects under the administrative control of municipalities, introduced by the 74th Amendment Act in 1992.
Q10. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? (2005)
(a) Dr. BR Ambedkar
(b) JB Kripalani
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswamy
Ans. (c)
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru chaired the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly, while other significant committees and their respective chairmen were:
- Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- Steering Committee, led by Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- Rules of Procedure Committee, also helmed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q11. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the 7th Schedule of the Constitution of India? (2006)
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oil fields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
Ans. (a)
Labor and safety regulations within mines and oil fields fall under the jurisdiction of the Union List as stipulated in the 7th Schedule of the Constitution of India. Conversely, agriculture, fisheries, and public health are subjects allocated to the State Lists. The 7th Schedule of the Constitution of India delineates three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
Q12. Which Schedule of Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several states? (2008)
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Ans. (b)
The 5th Schedule of the Indian Constitution outlines specific provisions for the governance and management of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes across various states.
In contrast, the 6th Schedule delineates arrangements for the administration of tribal regions within the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh.
Under Article 246 of the Constitution, the 7th Schedule addresses the allocation of powers between the Union and the States.
Lastly, the 9th Schedule comprises a catalog of central and state laws immune to legal challenges in courts.
Q13. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in he Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorp orated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as (2010)
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of Executive Power of State
(d) Conduct of Business of the Government of India
Ans. (b)
The “Instrument of Instructions,” which were originally part of the Government of India Act, 1935, were adopted into the framework of the Indian Constitution in 1950 as the Directive Principles of State Policy. Originally intended for the guidance of the Governor-General and Governors of colonies by the British Government, these principles now form a crucial part of India’s policy landscape. They aim to foster economic and social democracy within the nation, reflecting a commitment to the welfare of its citizens.
Q14. The distribution of powers between the centre and the states in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans. (c)
The distribution of authority between the central government and the states in the Indian Constitution draws from the framework outlined in the Government of India Act, 1935. This act envisioned the formation of an All India Federation comprising provinces and princely states as its components. It delineated powers between the central authority and the units through three lists: the Federal list, Provincial list, and Concurrent list. Additionally, it replaced the system of diarchy in the provinces with “Provincial autonomy.”
Q15. With reference to Indian History, the members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were (2013)
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Ans. (c)
The Constituent Assembly members representing the Provinces were elected by their respective Provincial Legislative Assemblies. MN Roy initially proposed the concept of a Constituent Assembly. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC) formally advocated for a Constituent Assembly to draft India’s Constitution. The assembly comprised a total of 389 seats, with 93 designated for the Princely States. These seats were intended to be filled by nominations from the heads of the Princely States. However, due to the Princely States’ abstention from the Constituent Assembly, these nominated seats remained vacant.
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