Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
1. Consider the following statements regarding SWAYAM Plus Platform
- Swayam was launched in 2017 by the Ministry of Education.
- It Targets a diverse learner base nationwide, with a special focus on tier 1 and urban areas.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: C
| Why this question- The Union Minister of Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship recently launched the SWAYAM Plus Platform in New Delhi. |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement I is Correct SWAYAM Plus: Transforming Education for Employability Inception and Objective Launched in 2017 by the Ministry of Education. SWAYAM Plus aims to provide educational opportunities aligned with NEP 2020. Enhancements for Employability Offers industry-relevant courses to enhance employability. Features include multilingual content, AI guidance, credit recognition, and pathways to employment. Statement II is Incorrect Strategic Collaborations Collaborates with companies like L&T, Microsoft, CISCO, and others. Develops courses to meet industry demands and standards. Key Focus Areas Creates an ecosystem supporting professional and career development. Implements a system recognizing high-quality certifications from top industry and academic partners. Broad Accessibility Targets a diverse learner base nationwide, with a special focus on tier 2 and 3 towns, and rural areas. Provides employment-focused courses in various disciplines with vernacular language resources. |
2.Consider the following statements regarding Blockchain Technology
- It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls
- The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only
- Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- Anticipated in April 2024, the forthcoming Bitcoin (BTC) halving is on the horizon, carrying potential significant consequences for the cryptocurrency’s market valuation. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Blockchain is a decentralized and distributed ledger technology. It consists of a chain of blocks, each containing a list of transactions. The ledger is public, meaning that anyone can view it, and it is decentralized, so no single user or entity has control over the entire blockchain. Instead, control is distributed across all participants in the network. Statement 2 is Incorrect As mentioned, blockchain has a broader range of applications beyond cryptocurrency. It serves as a secure and transparent decentralized ledger that can be utilized for various purposes. Statement 3 is Correct Blockchain’s permissionless nature allows developers to create applications and smart contracts without requiring permission from a central authority, promoting openness and accessibility. |
3. Consider the following statements regarding Ultra-High Net Worth Individuals (UHNWIs)
- UHNWIs are individuals with a net worth of USD 30 billion and above.
- USA leads in UHNWI growth with an impressive 9.7% yearly expansion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question– India has seen a consistent rise in the number of Ultra-High Net Worth Individuals (UHNWIs), reaching 13,263 in 2023. |
| Source: HT |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Ultra-High Net Worth Individuals (UHNWIs): A Wealth Projection Definition: UHNWIs are individuals with a net worth of USD 30 million and above. Indian Growth (2023): The UHNWI population in India witnessed a growth of 6.1% in 2023, setting a positive trend in wealth accumulation. Projected Growth (India, 2028): It is projected to experience a remarkable 50% rise by 2028, showcasing robust wealth expansion. Statement 2 is Incorrect Global Perspective (2028): Globally, the number of wealthy individuals is anticipated to increase by 28.1% to reach 8,02,891 by 2028. Top Performers (UHNWI Growth) Turkey: Leads in UHNWI growth with an impressive 9.7% yearly expansion. Followed by: The United States, South Korea, and Switzerland also exhibit notable growth in UHNWI numbers. |
4. Consider the following statements
- The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities
- Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments
- Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The government has concluded its borrowing of Government Securities (G-Secs) for the ongoing fiscal year 2023-24. Anticipating a dividend from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in the Financial Year 2024-25 (FY 25), akin to FY 24. |
| Source: BL |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect The RBI has a significant role in managing State Government Securities. Here’s the breakdown: Issuance: The RBI assists State Governments with the issuance of State Development Loans (SDLs). This includes things like determining auction dates, formats, and amounts. Servicing: The RBI plays a role in servicing SDLs, including managing interest payments and redemptions. Trading: The RBI facilitates the trading of SDLs in the secondary market. Statement 2 is Correct Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the central government to meet its short-term funding requirements. State governments in India do not issue treasury bills. Instead, they issue State Development Loans (SDLs), which are similar to bonds but with longer maturities than treasury bills. Statement 3 is Correct Treasury bills are issued at a discount to their face value (par value). This means that investors pay less than the face value of the bill when they purchase it, and they receive the face value upon maturity. The difference between the purchase price and the face value represents the interest earned by the investor. |
5. With reference to National Commission for Backward Classes consider the following statements
- Comprises a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and three other Members with the rank and pay of the Secretary to the Government of India.
- It is empowered with the authority of a civil court during complaint inquiries
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question– The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) has strongly objected to the West Bengal government’s proposal to add 83 castes to the central list of Other Backward Classes (OBCs). |
| Source: ET |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) Establishment and Constitutional Status Formed under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993, by the Central Government in the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Attained constitutional status through the “The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018,” adding Article 338B to the Constitution. Composition Comprises a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and three other Members with the rank and pay of the Secretary to the Government of India. Appointments made by the President through warrant under hand and seal. Statement 2 is Correct Functions Investigate and monitor matters related to safeguards for socially and educationally backward classes. Inquire into specific complaints regarding the deprivation of rights and safeguards of such classes. Participate and advise on the socio-economic development of these classes, evaluating their progress under the Union and States. Present annual reports to the President on the working of safeguards. Make recommendations for effective implementation of safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare, and socio-economic development of these classes. Undertake functions specified by the President related to the protection, welfare, and development of backward classes. Powers Empowered with the authority of a civil court during complaint inquiries. Consulted by the Union and State Governments on major policy matters affecting backward classes. Holds the power to regulate its own procedures. Reporting The President presents the Commission’s reports to each House of Parliament. The reports include a memorandum explaining actions taken on recommendations and reasons for non-acceptance, if any. |
6. Consider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer
- NEFT is a centralized payment system owned and operated by the National Payment Corporation of india.
- It is accessible every day of the year.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- Recently, the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) achieved a record-breaking daily transaction volume, reaching an unprecedented 4.10 crore transactions |
| Source: MC |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT): Overview About NEFT NEFT is a centralized payment system owned and operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It facilitates electronic money transfers across the nation. Most Indian banks offer NEFT services through internet and mobile banking platforms. Key Features Allows fund transfers between accounts in different banks participating in the NEFT system. Open to organizations, companies, and individuals for seamless interbank transactions. Transactions are processed in half-hourly batches, as per RBI guidelines. Minimum transfer value: Rs. 1; No maximum limit. Statement II is Correct Advantages of NEFT Round-the-Clock Availability Accessible every day of the year. Near-Real-Time Funds Transfer Ensures secure and swift settlement. Pan-India Coverage Extensive network covering branches of all types of banks. Convenient Remittances Beneficiaries need not visit a bank branch. Remitters can initiate transactions through internet banking. Confirmation Alerts Remitters receive positive confirmation via SMS or email upon credit to the beneficiary account. Penal Interest Provisions Penalties for delays in credit or return of transactions. RBI Charges No charges imposed by RBI on banks. Customer Benefits Savings account customers enjoy free online NEFT transactions. Transaction charges are capped by the RBI. Diverse Applications Apart from fund transfers, NEFT is utilized for credit card payments, loan EMIs, inward foreign exchange remittances, etc. Transactions carried out through NEFT are legally backed. It also serves for one-way fund transfers from India to Nepal. |
7. Consider the following statements regarding Exercise Samudra Laksamana
- Exercise Samudra Laksamana is a collaborative naval exercise involving the Indian Navy and the Royal Malaysian Navy
- Indian Naval Ship KD Lekir and Royal Malaysian Ship Kiltan are actively engaged in the exercise
- INS Kiltan is an indigenously built anti-submarine warfare stealth corvette.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Exercise Samudra Laksamana commenced on February 28 and is scheduled to extend until March 2. The naval drill is being conducted at or off the coast of Visakhapatnam. |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Exercise Samudra Laksamana: Joint Naval Drill Overview Exercise Samudra Laksamana is a collaborative naval exercise involving the Indian Navy and the Royal Malaysian Navy. This edition marks the third iteration of the exercise. Statement 2 is Incorrect Participating Ships Indian Naval Ship Kiltan and Royal Malaysian Ship KD Lekir are actively engaged in the exercise. The activity comprises harbor professional interactions followed by operational phases at sea. Harbor Phase Crew members from both ships participate in diverse professional interactions. Activities include Subject Matter Expert Exchange, discussions on mutual interests, sports fixtures, and various other interactions. The primary goal is to enhance knowledge, share best practices, and foster cooperation on maritime aspects. Sea Phase During the sea phase, units collaboratively refine their skills through various operations at sea. The exercise is designed to bolster bonds and improve interoperability between the Indian and Royal Malaysian Navy. Statement 3 is Correct INS Kiltan: Key Points INS Kiltan is an indigenously built anti-submarine warfare stealth corvette. It is the third vessel among the four Kamorta-class corvettes constructed under Project 28. The ship is named after one of the islands in the strategically located Lakshadweep and Minicoy group. Designed by the Indian Navy’s Directorate of Naval Design, it is built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata. |
8. Consider the following statements regarding Bureau of Energy Efficiency
- Founded in 2002 under the provisions of the Electricity Act, 2001.
- Ministry of power is the nodal agency of BEE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– In New Delhi, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) celebrated its 22nd Foundation Day. |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) Establishment Founded in 2002 under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. Objective The primary goal is to reduce energy intensity in the Indian economy. Function and Duties Coordinates with designated consumers, agencies, and organizations. Recognizes, identifies, and utilizes existing resources and infrastructure. Performs functions assigned under the Energy Conservation Act. Statement 2 is Corrects Regulatory Functions Develops minimum energy performance standards for equipment and appliances. Establishes standards for commercial buildings. Develops energy consumption norms for designated consumers. Nodal Ministry Ministry of Power |
9. Consider the following statements regarding The Genome India Project
- The Genome India Project is a nationwide initiative aimed at conducting whole-genome sequencing on representative populations in urban India.
- The project operates as a mission-mode, multi-institutional consortium, marking a groundbreaking endeavor in India
- It is aimed at establishing a reference haplotype structure specific to Indians, serving as a valuable resource for imputing missing genetic variations in future studies
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Genome India Project has declared the successful completion of sequencing 10,000 genomes of Indian individuals. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Genome India Project: Unraveling India’s Genetic Diversity Overview The Genome India Project is a nationwide initiative aimed at conducting whole-genome sequencing on representative populations throughout India. Objective The primary goal is to undertake whole-genome sequencing and analyze the data of 10,000 individuals, reflecting the diverse genetic makeup of the country. This pioneering mission is supported and funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India. Statement 2 is Correct Project Characteristics Mission-Mode Consortium The project operates as a mission-mode, multi-institutional consortium, marking a groundbreaking endeavor in India. Specific Aims Genetic Variations Catalog Develop a comprehensive catalog of genetic variations, encompassing common, low frequency, rare, single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), and structural variations within the Indian population. Statement 3 is Correct Reference Haplotype Structure Establish a reference haplotype structure specific to Indians, serving as a valuable resource for imputing missing genetic variations in future studies. Genome-Wide Arrays Design cost-effective genome-wide arrays for research and diagnostics, promoting accessibility in genetic studies. Biobank Establishment Create a biobank for storing DNA and plasma samples, laying the foundation for future research endeavors. |
10. With reference to Foreign Exchange Reserves consider the following statements
- Foreign Exchange Reserves consists of Gold, Silver, Dollars and Indian currency.
- A substantial reserve attracts foreign trade and fosters positive relations with trading nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– Recently, India witnessed a significant increase in its foreign exchange reserves, rising by $2.98 billion to reach $619.07 billion. |
| Source: ET |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Foreign Exchange Reserves: An Overview Definition Foreign Exchange Reserves (Forex Reserves) are reserve assets held in foreign currencies by a central bank. Composition Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs): Held in currencies like the US dollar, euro, pound sterling, Australian dollar, and Japanese yen. Gold SDR (Special Drawing Rights): The reserve currency with the IMF. RTP (Reserve Tranche Position): Reserve capital with the IMF. Custodian The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) serves as the custodian of India’s foreign exchange reserves. Statement 2 is Correct Purpose Back Liabilities: Used to back liabilities in the country’s own issued currency. Exchange Rate Support: Supports the exchange rate and helps set monetary policy. Crisis Preparedness: Ensures backup funds if the national currency rapidly devalues or faces insolvency. Market Intervention: Used to stabilize the value of the national currency, e.g., selling dollars in the market to curb depreciation of the Rupee. International Image: A good forex reserve enhances a country’s international standing, instilling confidence in trading partners. Trade Attraction: A substantial reserve attracts foreign trade and fosters positive relations with trading nations. |
11. Consider the following statements regarding Grey Zone Warfare
- Grey zone warfare refers to a vague, intermediate space existing between direct conflict and peace in the realm of international relations
- Activities in grey zone warfare involve bold and all-encompassing actions that unfold abruptly over time.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: C
| Why this question- In discussions about China and Taiwan, the term ‘grey zone warfare’ emerges to describe Chinese actions in the vicinity of the island that China asserts its sovereignty over. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement I is Correct Definition Grey zone warfare refers to a vague, intermediate space existing between direct conflict and peace in the realm of international relations. Broad Description It involves exploiting the operational space between peace and war, utilizing coercive actions that stay below the threshold warranting a conventional military response. Methods and Activities Utilization of proxies for kinetic action or changes in territorial status quo through coercion. Implementation of non-kinetic subversive actions like cyberattacks, economic coercion, disinformation campaigns, election meddling, and weaponization of migrants. Statement II is Incorrect Characteristics of Grey Zone Warfare Below Threshold Actions Grey zone elements remain below the threshold justifying a military response, often employing non-military tools. Gradual Unfolding Activities in grey zone warfare unfold gradually over time rather than involving bold, all-encompassing actions. Attributability Challenges Many grey zone activities lack attributability, aiming for plausible deniability of actions. However, open and attributable actions are justified using legal and political arguments. Recruitment of Support Aggressors recruit other countries to their point of view, especially in cases where actions are open and attributable. Targeting Vulnerabilities Grey zone campaigns specifically target vulnerabilities in the countries they aim to influence. |
12. Consider the following statements regarding 2022 Update on Indian Leopard Population
- India’s leopard population decreased by 8% from 2018 to 2022.
- Madhya Pradesh has the highest leopard population (3,907), followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu
- Leopard has been flagged as endangered by the IUCN.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has issued a 2022 report on the Status of Leopards in India. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Leopard Population Status in India (2022) Overall Population Growth India’s leopard population increased by 8% from 12,852 in 2018 to 13,874 in 2022. Approximately 65% of leopards are found outside protected areas in the Shivalik landscape. Regional Variation Central India witnessed a stable or slightly growing leopard population (2018: 8071, 2022: 8820). Shivalik hills and Gangetic plains experienced a decline (2018: 1253, 2022: 1109). Shivalik hills and Gangetic plains show a 3.4% decline per annum, while Central India and Eastern Ghats exhibit a 1.5% growth rate. Statement 2 is Correct State-Level Distribution Madhya Pradesh has the highest leopard population (3,907), followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. Odisha and Uttarakhand witnessed a decline in leopard numbers. Benefits From Tiger Conservation Central India and Eastern Ghats, under tiger conservation efforts, house the largest growing leopard population. Leopard densities are higher in Tiger Reserves compared to areas outside Protected Areas. Common Threats Common threats include poaching of prey, targeted poaching for skins and body parts, and habitat loss due to human activities. Odisha reported the seizure of 59 leopard skins from wildlife smugglers between 2018 and 2023. Road accidents are a significant cause of leopard fatalities. Statement 3 is Incorrect Leopard Facts Scientific Name Panthera pardus About The leopard is the smallest of the Big Cat family and is known for its adaptability in various habitats. Nocturnal in nature, it feeds on smaller herbivores like chital, hog deer, and wild boar. Habitat Wide range from sub-Saharan Africa to Southeast and East Asia. Indian leopard (Panthera pardus fusca) is widely distributed on the Indian subcontinent. Threats Poaching for illegal trade, habitat loss, and human-leopard conflicts. Conservation Status IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix-I Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule-I |
13. Consider the following statements regarding Hemophilia A
- Hemophilia A is the most prevalent form, resulting from a deficiency in factor VIII, a crucial blood clotting protein.
- No treatment for this disorder is present currently.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– During the National Science Day 2024 program, the Union Minister of Science & Technology announced that India initiated its inaugural human clinical trial for gene therapy targeting hemophilia A (FVIII deficiency) at Christian Medical College (CMC) Vellore. |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Hemophilia A Overview Hemophilia is a rare group of bleeding disorders caused by congenital deficiencies in clotting factors. Hemophilia A is the most prevalent form, resulting from a deficiency in factor VIII, a crucial blood clotting protein. Causes Primarily inherited through an X-linked recessive pattern. Males inheriting a defective X chromosome from their mother develop hemophilia A. Females typically do not experience symptoms due to the presence of two X chromosomes. Hemophilia A in females occurs if they inherit two defective copies, one from each parent. Statement 2 is Incorrect Symptoms Severity varies based on factor VIII activity in the blood. Common symptoms include easy bruising, excessive bleeding from minor injuries, joint bleeding, and bleeding after surgery or dental procedures. Treatment Involves replacing the missing clotting factor through injections of clotting factor concentrates. Two main types: Plasma-derived Factor Concentrates and Recombinant Factor Concentrates. Gene therapy is gaining prominence in recent trials, involving the use of lentiviral vectors to insert the FVIII gene into the patient’s stem cells. Acquired Hemophilia A Can be acquired later in life due to auto-antibodies targeting factor VIII. Rare and differs from congenital hemophilia A in onset and progression. |
14. Consider the following statements regarding OPEC and OPEC+
- OPEC+ is a coalition of oil-exporting nations formed at the end of 2016.
- Consists of additional members such as Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan, and Oman which are not in OPEC
- OPEC was established in Baghdad, Iraq, in September 1960, with the initial agreement signed by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- Recently, OPEC+ nations, spearheaded by Saudi Arabia and Russia, reached a consensus to prolong the voluntary reduction in oil production initially declared in 2023. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Overview of OPEC+ Formation and Origin OPEC+ is a coalition of oil-exporting nations formed at the end of 2016. The objective was to establish a cooperative framework between OPEC and non-OPEC producers for consistent collaboration. Purpose The primary goal is to collectively regulate crude oil production, ensuring stability in the global oil market. Significance OPEC+ holds sway over 40% of worldwide oil supplies and more than 80% of proven oil reserves. Core members are from OPEC, primarily representing Middle Eastern and African nations Statement 2 is Incorrect Membership Consists of OPEC countries and additional members such as Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan, and Oman. Statement 3 is Correct Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) Mission To coordinate and harmonize petroleum policies among member nations. Ensuring stability in international oil prices by minimizing harmful fluctuations. Formation Established in Baghdad, Iraq, in September 1960, with the initial agreement signed by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. Current membership expanded to include Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Libya, Nigeria, and the United Arab Emirates. Headquarters Located in Vienna, Austria |
15. With reference to Yars Missile consider the following statements
- Yars operates on a three-stage Liquid propellant mechanism, enhancing its efficiency and reliability.
- Yars’ operational range of 500 km is its only drawback.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
| Why this question– The Russian Ministry of Defence has recently declared the successful test firing of the Yars intercontinental ballistic nuclear missile |
| Source: HT |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Key Features Three-Stage Solid Propellant: Yars operates on a three-stage solid propellant mechanism, enhancing its efficiency and reliability. MIRV-Capable (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles): The missile is equipped with MIRV technology, enabling it to carry multiple independently targetable warheads, each capable of striking different objectives. Modified Topol-M System: Yars is a modified version of the Topol-M missile system, showcasing advancements and improvements over its predecessor. Dimensions: With a length of 23 meters, the missile can be launched from either a silo or a mobile launcher, providing tactical flexibility. Statement 2 is Incorrect Impressive Range: Yars boasts an impressive operational range of 10,500 km, allowing it to cover vast distances. Launch Weight: The missile’s launch weight is recorded at 49,600 kg, reflecting its robust construction. MIRVs with Thermonuclear Warheads: Yars can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead with a substantial payload of 300 kilotons. Manoeuvrability and Decoy Deployment: Notably, the missile possesses the capability to manoeuvre during flight, enhancing its evasive maneuvers. Additionally, it can deploy both active and passive decoys, confounding modern missile defense systems and bolstering its strategic advantage. |
16. Consider the following statements regarding Rare Diseases
- There is no formal definition for the rare diseases.
- Common symptoms can mask underlying rare diseases, contributing to misdiagnosis.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- On the final day of February, Rare Disease Day was observed—a global awareness day dedicated to increasing awareness of rare diseases and highlighting their substantial impact on patients and their families. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Understanding Rare Diseases Definition Variations Prevalence definitions vary between nations. WHO defines rare diseases as debilitating conditions with a prevalence of 1 or less per 1000 population. Global Burden 300 million people worldwide affected by rare diseases. Approximately 3.5% to 5.9% of the population affected. 72% of rare diseases are genetic, with over 7000 characterized disorders. 75% of rare diseases impact children, with 70% having onset during childhood. Statement II is Correct Characteristics and Impact Diverse disorders and symptoms vary among diseases and patients. Chronic, progressive, and often life-threatening nature significantly affects patients’ quality of life. Challenges Faced by Rare Disease Patients Delayed Diagnosis and Inequalities Lack of scientific knowledge leads to delayed diagnosis. Inequalities in treatment access result in social and financial burdens. Common symptoms can mask underlying rare diseases, contributing to misdiagnosis. Physician Awareness and Training Lack of awareness and training in interpreting rare disease signs and symptoms. EURORDIS reports an average of 5 years for rare disease patients to receive a diagnosis. Landscape of Rare Diseases in India Prevalence and Impact India represents one-third of global rare disease cases, with over 450 identified diseases. Over 8 to 10 crore Indians estimated to suffer from rare diseases, with over 75% being children. Policy and Implementation Challenges National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD) faced challenges and was withdrawn in 2018. Revised NPRD announced in 2021, yet challenges persist, including a lack of clear disease definitions. Treatment Accessibility and Funding Issues Less than 50% of identified rare diseases in India are treatable. Limited access to approved treatments, with funding challenges and disparities among Centres of Excellence (CoEs). Challenges in Fund Utilization Budget allocations have increased but remain low, with Rs 93 crore allocated for 2023-2024. Disparities in fund utilization highlight inefficiencies in resource allocation. Over 50% of allocated funds remain unutilized, impacting patients in need of urgent treatment. Call for Sustainable Funding Advocacy groups urge sustainable funding from central and state governments. Crucial for patients who have exhausted allocated funds and struggle to continue treatment. |
17. Consider the following statements regarding elections in Rajya Sabha
- Representatives to the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies, as per Article 80 of the RPA act 1951.
- Members of state legislative assemblies participate in an indirect election system using the Single Transferable Vote (STV) method.
- The Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) does not apply to Rajya Sabha elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- Cross-voting by Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) from various political parties during the recent Rajya Sabha elections in Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, and Karnataka has sparked renewed concerns regarding the integrity of the election process. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Rajya Sabha Election Process Constitutional Basis Representatives to the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies, as per Article 80 of the Constitution. Voting Procedure Amendment Amendment to the Representation of the People Act in 2003 introduced open ballot voting in Rajya Sabha elections to curb cross-voting. Statement 2 is Correct Indirect Election System Members of state legislative assemblies participate in an indirect election system using the Single Transferable Vote (STV) method. Seat Allocation The Rajya Sabha comprises 250 members, with 12 nominated by the President and the rest distributed among states based on population. Statement 3 is Correct Quotas and Preferences Candidates must secure a specific quota of votes, determined by the total valid votes divided by the seats available plus one. MLAs rank their preferences on the ballot paper, with surplus votes and preferences contributing to the election. Anti-Defection Law Exclusion The Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) does not apply to Rajya Sabha elections, allowing members freedom from party whips. Cross Voting in Rajya Sabha Elections Definition and Background Cross voting occurs when legislators vote for candidates outside their party during elections. A notable case involved Rajendra Prasad Jain’s election in Bihar in 1967 through Congress MLAs’ cross-voting. Negative Implications Undermining Representation: Cross-voting may lead to the election of candidates without majority support, undermining representation. Corruption: It often involves bribery, eroding the electoral process’s integrity. Party Discipline: Reflects internal party divisions, weakening cohesion and stability. Positive Implications Independence: Indicates legislators’ independence, allowing voting based on conscience or constituents’ interests. Checks and Balances: Serves as a check on single-party dominance, promoting diversity of viewpoints. Accountability: Signals dissatisfaction, compelling parties to address internal issues and enhance accountability. |
18. Consider the following statements regarding Obelisks
- Obelisks represent a novel category of virus-like entities discovered within the human body and the global microbiome.
- The genetic sequences of obelisks, each around 1,000 nucleotides long, pose a unique challenge in terms of classification and identification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
| Why this question– Researchers from Stanford University have discovered a novel and surprisingly uncomplicated life form, labeling it “obelisks.” |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Introduction to Obelisks Obelisks represent a novel category of virus-like entities discovered within the human body and the global microbiome. These entities display distinctive rod-like structures, reminiscent of the iconic monuments known as obelisks. Structural Characteristics Obelisks exhibit highly symmetrical, rod-like structures. The genetic makeup of obelisks consists of diverse RNA molecules with an average length of approximately 1,000 nucleotides. Notably, these RNA sequences show no detectable similarities to known biological agents. Statement 2 is Correct Genetic Features The genetic sequences of obelisks, each around 1,000 nucleotides long, pose a unique challenge in terms of classification and identification. Source and Host Information The study analyzed RNA data extracted from gut and oral bacteria. While the research couldn’t pinpoint the specific bacteria hosting obelisks, initial findings suggest a potential association with Streptococcus sanguinis, a bacterial species commonly found in the human mouth. Unanswered Questions and Research Areas The discovery of obelisks prompts various questions related to their genome replication, transmission, pathogenicity, and evolution. Understanding the potential roles of obelisks in human health and disease remains a key area for further investigation. Need for Further Research The mysteries surrounding Obelisks necessitate more in-depth research efforts. Additional studies are crucial to unravel the ecological significance of obelisks and their potential impact on human health. Conclusion Obelisks, as a newly identified class of virus-like entities, bring forth intriguing questions that require extensive research to comprehend their nature, functions, and implications for both microbial ecosystems and human well-being. |
19. Consider the following statements regarding ADITI Scheme
- Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) focuses on fostering innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- Start-ups are not eligible to receive a grant-in-aid under this scheme.
- ADITI aims to establish a ‘Technology Watch Tool’ to bridge the gap between the modern Armed Forces’ expectations and requirements and the capabilities of the defence innovation ecosystem.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The ADITI scheme was inaugurated by the Union Minister of Defence at DefConnect 2024 in New Delhi. |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct About ADITI Scheme Scheme Overview Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) focuses on fostering innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies. Aim The primary objective is to develop approximately 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies within the specified timeframe. Statement 2 is Incorrect Eligibility Criteria Start-ups are eligible to receive a grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their research, development, and innovation efforts in defence technology. Scheme Duration and Budget ADITI is a Rs 750 crore scheme covering the period from 2023-24 to 2025-26. Framework Placement It operates under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework, a part of the Department of Defence Production under the Ministry of Defence. Statement 3 is Correct Technology Watch Tool ADITI aims to establish a ‘Technology Watch Tool’ to bridge the gap between the modern Armed Forces’ expectations and requirements and the capabilities of the defence innovation ecosystem. Challenges Launched In the inaugural edition of ADITI, 17 challenges were launched, addressing the needs of the Indian Army (3), Indian Navy (5), Indian Air Force (5), and Defence Space Agency (4). Expansion to iDEX Prime To motivate young innovators, iDEX was expanded to iDEX Prime, witnessing an increase in assistance from Rs 1.5 crore to Rs 10 crore. Transformation into a Knowledge Society Initiatives like ADITI, iDEX, and iDEX Prime aim to transform India into a knowledge society by nurturing youth innovation and advancing the country’s technological capabilities. |
20. With reference to Risa Textile consider the following statements
- Risa Textile is a handwoven fabric utilized as a female upper garment and serves various purposes such as headgear, stole, or as a respectful gift in Manipur.
- This traditional Manipuri attire has a historical origin predating the rule of the Manikya kings, who governed Manipur for over 500 years starting from the 15th century
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
| Why this question–: The traditional tribal attire ‘risa’ from Tripura was recently granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About Risa Textile Risa Textile is a handwoven fabric utilized as a female upper garment and serves various purposes such as headgear, stole, or as a respectful gift. The cloth features vibrant designs and holds significant social and religious importance. In the cultural tradition, adolescent Tripuri girls receive a risa during an event known as Risa Sormani, typically between the ages of 12 to 14. The religious relevance of risa extends to its use in tribal community festivals like Garia Puja, worn as a turban by men during weddings and festivals, as a cummerbund over dhotis, and as a head scarf for young girls and boys. It also serves as a muffler in winters. Statement 2 is Incorrect Risa serves a practical purpose as well, functioning as an improvised hanger to carry infants on their mothers’ backs. The fabric is often presented as a mark of honor to distinguished recipients. Risa is a common element in the traditional attire of almost all 19 indigenous tribal communities of Tripura. The complete Tripuri female attire comprises three parts: Risa (upper garment), Rignai (lower garment), and Rikutu (wrap or head cover for newly married women). This traditional Tripuri attire has a historical origin predating the rule of the Manikya kings, who governed Tripura for over 500 years starting from the 15th century. |
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