Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
1. Consider the following statements regarding Tapioca (Cassava) plant
Statement – I: Tapioca requires well-distributed rainfall not exceeding 100 cm annually.
Statement – II: Feeding tapioca crushed peels or leaves immediately after crushing, or without proper drying, poses a high risk of cyanide poisoning in animals
Select the correct answer using code given below:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer – (d)
Why this question- The ICAR-Central Tuber Crops Research Institute (CTCRI) has issued a cautionary advisory regarding the feeding of animals with cassava (tapioca).
Source: TH
Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect
About Tapioca Plant
- Cultivation Overview
- Tapioca is a significant horticulture crop extensively cultivated on nearly 3 lakh hectares in Tamil Nadu, yielding an annual production of 60 lakh tonnes.
- Global Importance
- Cultivated across tropical regions worldwide, the tapioca plant is valued for its tuberous roots.
- These roots serve as the source for various products, including cassava flour, bread, tapioca pearls, laundry starch, and an alcoholic beverage.
- Climatic Requirements
- Soil
- Flourishes in well-drained soil, preferably red lateritic loamy soil.
- Climate
- Thrives in a tropical, warm, and humid climate.
- Soil
- Rainfall
- Requires well-distributed rainfall exceeding 100 cm annually.
- Elevation
- Can be cultivated up to an elevation of 1000 m.
Statement II is Correct
Cyanogenic Glucosides (CNGs)
- All parts of the cassava or tapioca plant, including leaves, stem, tuber, and rind, contain cyanogenic glucosides (CNGs) like linamarin and lotaustralin.
- These compounds can be hydrolyzed by the endogenous enzyme linamarase to acetone cyanohydrin, which may spontaneously release free hydrogen cyanide.
- Both acetone cyanohydrin and free cyanide are toxic.
- Tapioca leaves contain approximately 10 times higher CNGs than the roots.
- Cyanogenic glucoside content in the rind is 10-30 times higher than in the edible parts.
Risk of Cyanide Poisoning
- Feeding crushed peels or leaves immediately after crushing, or without proper drying, poses a high risk of cyanide poisoning in animals.
- Proper processing and precautions are essential to mitigate the toxic effects of cyanogenic glucosides in tapioca plants.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization
1. Worker productivity (Rs. per worker at 2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased
3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer – (a)
Why this question: A recent article explores various facets of urbanization in India and emphasizes the role of the Kerala Urban Commission in setting a precedent for the entire country in comprehending urbanization as a holistic process
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
- The 1991 economic liberalization did lead to increased urbanization and industrialization, but it did not necessarily result in a decrease in worker productivity in rural areas.
- The dynamics of productivity are influenced by various factors, and a generalization about productivity trends in urban and rural areas may not hold.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
- After the economic liberalization in 1991, there was indeed a significant shift in employment patterns with an increased focus on the industrial and services sectors.
- While urbanization increased, the percentage share of rural areas in the total workforce did not steadily increase.
- Instead, there was a transformation in the composition of the workforce with a growing emphasis on non-agricultural activities.
Statement 3 is Correct
- The economic liberalization resulted in the diversification of the rural economy.
- While agriculture remained a crucial component, there was a notable increase in non-farm activities such as manufacturing, services, and small-scale industries in rural areas.
- This diversification contributed to rural economic growth and played a role in reducing dependency on traditional agricultural practices.
3. Consider the following statements regarding Bobbili Veena
1. This large plucked string instrument holds significance in Hindustani music.
2. Recently the Bobbili Veena earned a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – (d)
Why this question- Bobbili veena craftsmen, despite the instrument’s enduring popularity, encounter challenges owing to insufficient public demand and support from the government.
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Bobbili Veena Overview
Introduction
- The traditional ‘Saraswati Veena’ hailing from Bobbili is renowned for its exceptional tuning and distinctive musical notes.
- This large plucked string instrument holds significance in Carnatic music.
Historical Origins
- The crafting of the veena commenced in the 17th century under the patronage of King Pedda Rayudu of Bobbili Samsthanam, a notable supporter of music.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
Distinctive Features
- Crafted with precision in Gollapalli, a town in Bobbili, Andhra Pradesh, these veenas are meticulously fashioned from Jack-wood tree logs.
- The process of transforming a mute wood log into a refined musical instrument spans nearly a month.
- Jack-wood is preferred for its lightweight, and the distinctive grain enhances the quality of swara or tone.
- Referred to as ‘Ekandi Veena,’ each instrument is crafted from a single piece of wood.
- Noteworthy for intricate designs adorning the body, making each veena a unique piece of art.
Historical Significance
- Having roots dating back to the 17th century, these veenas are played in a distinct style, giving rise to the ‘Bobbili Veena Sampradayam.’
Geographical Indication (GI) Recognition
- In 2012, the Bobbili Veena earned a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, acknowledging its unique design and exemplary craftsmanship.
4. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies and to demonstrate value-addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with a cluster approach
2. Poor, small, marginal, and tribal farmers have a larger stake in this scheme
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and microirrigation equipment
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer – (b)
Why this question- The Indigenous Seed Festival in West Bengal highlighted farmers’ commendable initiatives to preserve native seed varieties and share traditional knowledge
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
- The ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’ is designed to showcase and promote improved agricultural practices, including production and post-harvest technologies, and value addition techniques.
- The approach involves creating clusters where these practices are demonstrated and integrated.
Statement 2 is Correct
- The initiative specifically targets poor, small, marginal, and tribal farmers to enhance their participation in millet cultivation.
- By focusing on these vulnerable groups, the scheme aims to improve their nutritional security and economic well-being.
- This inclusive approach recognizes the importance of involving these farmers in millet promotion efforts.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
- The initiative primarily emphasizes the involvement of poor, small, marginal, and tribal farmers rather than specifically targeting farmers of commercial crops.
- It focuses on demonstrating improved techniques and practices rather than offering free kits for commercial crop farmers to shift to millet cultivation.
5. Concerning Project Veer Gatha consider the following statements
1. Project ‘Veer Gatha’ is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of Skill development
2. Gallantry awards are announced every year on Republic Day.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – (b)
Why this question- The nationwide reception to the third instalment of Project ‘Veer Gatha’ during Republic Day celebrations has been exceptionally positive.
Source: PIB
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
About Project Veer Gatha
Initiative Overview
- Project ‘Veer Gatha’ is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of Education.
- Established under the Gallantry Awards Portal (GAP) in 2021, its primary goal is to share the narratives of gallantry awardees’ courageous acts and life stories with students. The aim is to foster patriotism and instil civic values among the youth.
Enhanced Objective
- Project Veer Gatha goes beyond this noble objective by offering a platform to school students to engage in creative projects and activities cantered around gallantry award winners.
- Students express their appreciation through various media such as art, poems, essays, and multimedia presentations.
- The Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of Education acknowledge and award the best projects at the national level.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
Key Facts about Gallantry Awards
- Gallantry Awards, instituted by the Government of India, recognize acts of bravery and sacrifice by Armed Forces personnel and civilians.
- These awards are announced twice a year, on Republic Day and Independence Day.
- Post-independence, the Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra were instituted on January 26, 1950.
- Subsequently, on January 4, 1952, three more awards – Ashoka Chakra Class-I, Ashoka Chakra Class-II, and Ashoka Chakra Class-III – were introduced.
- These were later renamed as Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra, respectively, in January 1967.
- The order of precedence for these awards is Param Vir Chakra, Ashoka Chakra, Mahavir Chakra, Kirti Chakra, Vir Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra.
6. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Toy Industry
Statement-I: The Indian toy industry has witnessed substantial growth characterized by a notable 52% reduction in imports and a remarkable 239% increase in exports
Statement-II: Government initiatives have successfully fostered a conducive manufacturing ecosystem, evident in the doubling of manufacturing units over six years.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer – (a)
Why this question- IIM Lucknow, for DPIIT, highlighted a substantial increase in Made in India toy exports in FY 2022-23 over FY 2014-15.
Source: PIB
Explanation:
Statement I is Correct
Impressive Growth Trends
- The Indian toy industry has witnessed substantial growth from FY 2014-15 to FY 2022-23, characterized by a notable 52% reduction in imports and a remarkable 239% increase in exports.
- This shift underscores a move towards self-sufficiency and enhanced global competitiveness.
Quality Enhancement
- The overall quality of toys in the domestic market has seen improvement, emphasizing adherence to international standards and ensuring consumer satisfaction and safety.
Statement II is Correct
Driving Forces of Growth
- Advancements in Manufacturing Ecosystem
- Government initiatives have successfully fostered a conducive manufacturing ecosystem, evident in the doubling of manufacturing units over six years, a significant drop in dependence on imported inputs (from 33% to 12%), a 10% CAGR increase in gross sales value, and enhanced labor productivity.
- Global Integration and Export Focus
- India’s ascent as a leading toy exporter signifies successful integration into the global toy value chain.
- Zero-duty market access in key countries, such as the UAE and Australia, has contributed to this upward trajectory.
Government Initiatives for Industry Growth
National Action Plan for Toys (NAPT)
- A comprehensive plan comprising 21 specific action points, coordinated by DPIIT and implemented by multiple Central Ministries/Departments.
- This plan addresses various aspects like design, quality control, and promotion of indigenous toy clusters.
Increase in Basic Customs Duty (BCD)
- Significant BCD hikes on toys (from 20% to 60% in February 2020, and subsequently to 70% in March 2023) aim to safeguard the domestic toy industry from cheaper imports and stimulate local manufacturing.
Mandated Sample Testing
- DGFT mandates sample testing for each import consignment to prevent the import of substandard toys, ensuring better quality control.
Quality Control Order (QCO) for Toys
- Issued in 2020, this order emphasizes quality standards for toys, effective from January 2021, enhancing the overall quality of toys manufactured and sold in the country.
Provisions for Toy Manufacturers
- Special provisions by BIS, including granting licenses to small units without testing facilities, facilitate compliance with quality standards.
BIS Standard Marks
- Over 1200 licenses granted to domestic manufacturers and over 30 to foreign manufacturers ensure adherence to quality standards through BIS marks.
Cluster-based Approach
- Supporting the domestic toy industry through schemes like SFURTI and providing support for designing and tooling to various toy clusters.
Promotional Initiatives
- Events like The Indian Toy Fair 2021 and Toycathon aim to promote indigenous toys, encourage innovation, and provide a platform for showcasing and ideation in the toy industry.
7. Consider the following statements regarding the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, of 1956
1. The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act (ITP), 1956, is designed to curb the commercialization of vices and the trafficking of females and outlaw sex work.
2. The act does not explicitly explain what a brothel is.
3. The Supreme Court recognizes sex work as a “profession,” entitling practitioners to equal protection under the law
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer – (a)
Why this question- The Kerala High Court has broadened the term ‘procure’ in Section 5 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, to include individuals seeking the services of prostitutes.
Source: IE
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Understanding the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
- Overview
- The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act (ITP), 1956, is designed to curb the commercialization of vices and the trafficking of females.
- While it doesn’t outlaw sex work, it prohibits running brothels.
- Engaging in prostitution is legally recognized, but soliciting and luring individuals into sexual activities are considered illegal.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
- Legal Framework
- Section 2 defines a brothel as any place used for sexual exploitation or abuse for gain.
- Prostitution, as per the act, is the sexual exploitation or abuse of persons for commercial purposes.
- Offenses and Penalties
- Section 5 penalizes those who procure, induce, or take individuals for prostitution, with a punishment of 3–7 years’ imprisonment and a fine of Rs 2,000.
- For offenses against a person’s will or a child, the maximum sentence can extend to fourteen years or life.
Statement 3 is Correct
Kerala High Court’s Ruling
Background of the Case
- A petitioner faced charges under various sections of the ITP Act for being a customer in a brothel.
- Seeking discharge, the accused argued that as a customer, he should not be implicated under the ITP Act.
Court’s Interpretation
- The Kerala High Court interpreted Section 5, ruling that the term “procure” includes customers.
- While not declaring the petitioner guilty, the ruling allows charges to be filed, broadening the scope of accountability.
Implications
- The ruling expands the meaning of “procure” in Section 5, stating that customers can be held liable for procuring individuals for prostitution.
- Differing opinions among High Courts reflect ongoing legal debates on this matter.
Legal Recognition of Sex Work
Supreme Court’s Perspective
- The Supreme Court recognizes sex work as a “profession,” entitling practitioners to equal protection under the law.
- The court emphasizes the rights secured by Article 21, stating that voluntary sex is not a crime.
Fundamental and Human Rights
- Judicial decisions affirm the fundamental and human rights of sex workers, acknowledging their right to dignity and protection under the law.
- Efforts like the Ujjawala scheme and initiatives by commissions demonstrate a commitment to addressing sex workers’ concerns.
Cultural Stigma
- Prostitution is often perceived as unethical, breaching cultural values and threatening family sanctity.
- Sex workers, particularly women, face discrimination, social isolation, and derogatory terms.
Gender Dynamics
- The profession is viewed as degrading and exploitative, especially towards women.
- Advocates for autonomy argue that women should have agency over their bodies and career choices.
8. Consider the following statements regarding Sponge Farming
1. Sponges are present in tropical oceans and contribute significantly to the global silicon biological sink.
2. Sponges exhibit remarkable resilience to climate change, contrasting with traditional seaweed farming
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – (b)
Why this question- Rising sea temperatures compelled women in Zanzibar to transition from seaweed cultivation to climate-resilient sponge farming to sustain themselves.
Source: DTE
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Sponge Farming: A Sustainable Enterprise
Sponge Farming Overview
- Sponge farming emerges as a novel and environmentally friendly business venture that poses no harm to marine ecosystems.
- Sponges, living animals with a unique structure, serve as the foundation for this resilient and sustainable practice.
Key Characteristics of Sponges
Living Structure
- Sponges are living animals composed of loosely arranged cells surrounding a fibrous skeleton.
- Their specialized cells, acting as microscopic pumps, continuously draw water into the sponge, creating a dynamic and mutually beneficial environment.
Ecosystem Support
- Sponges provide habitats for various animals, plants, and microorganisms, fostering a symbiotic relationship.
- Their pumping mechanism not only aids in extracting nutrition and oxygen but also purifies ocean water by removing impurities, including sewage.
Global Presence
- Present in oceans worldwide, sea sponges contribute significantly to the global silicon biological sink, constituting 20% of this vital component.
Statement 2 is Correct
Advantages of Sponge Farming
- Climate Resilience
- Sponges exhibit remarkable resilience to climate change, contrasting with traditional seaweed farming.
- They require minimal maintenance and command premium prices in the market.
- Effortless Reproduction
- Most sponges are hermaphrodites, possessing both male and female reproductive organs.
- Their ability to self-propagate through budding allows for effortless reproduction, even from damaged or fragmented sponges.
- Regenerative Ability
- The regenerative capacity of sponges enables easy commercial farming.
- New sponges emerge from small buds, showcasing adaptability and feasibility in cultivation.
Diverse Uses
- Hygienic and Antibacterial Properties
- Sponges find applications in bathing and general hygiene due to their natural antibacterial and antifungal characteristics, along with resistance to odors.
- Climate Change Mitigation
- Research indicates that sponges play a vital role in combating climate change.
- As their skeletons break down into microscopic silicon pieces, they contribute to controlling the carbon cycle in the ocean, reducing the greenhouse effect.
- Diatom Growth Support
- Dissolved silicon from sponge breakdown supports the growth of diatoms, tiny organisms crucial for absorbing large amounts of CO2 in the ocean through photosynthesis.
9. Consider the following statements regarding Trichoderma
1. Trichoderma is a fungal biocontrol agent.
2. CSIR developed Tricholime integrates lime and Trichoderma to simplify the application process for farmers
3. Tricholime eliminates the need for a time-consuming two-step application, providing a more efficient solution for farmers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer – (b)
Why this question- The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR) in Kozhikode has achieved success in creating a novel granular lime-based formulation incorporating Trichoderma.
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
Tricholime: Simplifying Agricultural Applications
Introduction to Tricholime
- The innovative formulation, ‘Tricholime,’ streamlines the process for farmers by combining Trichoderma, a fungal biocontrol agent, with lime into a single product.
- This fusion aims to enhance application efficiency.
Trichoderma’s Role
- Trichoderma has established itself as a potent fungal biocontrol agent, effectively suppressing various soil-borne plant pathogens.
- It serves a dual purpose as a bio-pesticide and bio-fertilizer, contributing significantly to crop production.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
Scientific Development
- Acknowledging the value of Trichoderma and addressing challenges in conventional lime applications, scientists at IISR developed ‘Tricholime.’
- This product seamlessly integrates lime and Trichoderma to simplify the application process for farmers.
Statement 3 is Correct
Significance of Tricholime
- Streamlined Application Process
- Tricholime eliminates the need for a time-consuming two-step application, providing a more efficient solution for farmers.
- Comprehensive Benefits
- This lime-based formulation not only neutralizes soil acidity but also promotes plant growth and protects crops from soil-borne pathogens.
- It acts as a holistic solution in a single application.
- Enhanced Soil Conditions
- Beyond its primary functions, Tricholime improves the physical condition of the soil, increases secondary nutrient availability, and enhances soil microbial activity, contributing to overall soil health.
- Future Prospects
- IISR envisions the potential extension of this technology to incorporate other beneficial bio-agents, paving the way for diverse product development.
- This innovation aligns to support sustainable organic farming practices.
10. Concerning Northeast African Cheetah consider the following statements
1. It is significantly different than the Sudan cheetah.
2. It is categorised as Endangered by IUCN
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – (a)
Why this question- The Northeast African Cheetah is experiencing a reduction in genetic diversity attributed to the illegal trade of cubs to Arab countries.
Source: DTE
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Key Facts About Northeast African Cheetahs
- Scientific Name
- Acinonyx jubatus soemmeringii
- Overview
- This subspecies of Cheetah, initially identified as Cynailurus soemmeringii by Austrian zoologist Leopold Fitzinger in 1855, originated from a specimen in Sudan’s Bayuda Desert.
- Alternative Name
- Also recognized as the Sudan cheetah, it shares a closer genetic relationship with Southern African cheetahs than with those in Saharan populations.
- Distribution
- Found in Northeast Africa, specifically in Ethiopia and South Sudan, their habitat encompasses open landscapes, grasslands, and semi-arid regions, particularly in the East Sudanian Savanna.
Statement 2 is Correct
- Habitat
- Thriving in diverse environments like savannas, grasslands, and semi-arid areas, these cheetahs strategically inhabit regions with sparse vegetation, facilitating their high-speed hunting pursuits.
- Threats
- The Northeast African Cheetah faces severe threats from illegal trafficking to Arab countries, including Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, and Yemen.
- Additionally, habitat loss, human encroachment, and hunting contribute to a significant decline in their numbers.
- Conservation Status
- IUCN Red List: Endangered
11. Consider the following statements regarding K-Shaped Recovery
1. The emergence of new technologies and industries replacing older ones during a recession can halt a progressive K-shaped recovery
2. The differing effects of the initial recession on different sectors contribute to the K-shaped recovery pattern
Select the correct answer using code given below:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer – (d)
Why this question- The State Bank of India’s Economic Research Department reports a decrease in income inequality in India, attributing it to a larger tax base and a shift of taxpayers from lower to higher income tax brackets.
Source: IE
Explanation:
Statement I is Incorrect
Understanding K-Shaped Recovery
A K-shaped recovery is characterized by disparate economic rebound trajectories among various sectors post-recession, resulting in a divergence resembling the arms of the letter “K.”
Factors Influencing K-Shaped Recovery
- Creative Destruction in the Economy
- The emergence of new technologies and industries replacing older ones during a recession can contribute to a K-shaped recovery.
- Public Policy Responses and Income Inequality
- Differential impacts of monetary and fiscal policies on various segments of the economy can lead to income inequality.
Statement II is Correct
- Varied Initial Recession Impact
- The differing effects of the initial recession on different sectors contribute to the K-shaped recovery pattern.
12. Consider the following statements regarding The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO
1. It is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
2. It made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
3. It made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer – (b)
Why this question-The United States initiated the Peregrine Mission One, marking its initial endeavor to land on the Moon in over five decades
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
- Mangalyaan, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), is indeed known as the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM).
- The Mars Orbiter Mission was India’s first interplanetary mission, designed to explore Mars. Launched on November 5, 2013, it aimed to develop the technologies required for interplanetary missions.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
- The statement is not accurate, Mangalyaan made India the first country to succeed in its very first attempt to orbit Mars, not the second.
- Mangalyaan’s successful entry into Mars’ orbit on September 24, 2014, marked India’s significant achievement, making it the first Asian nation to reach Martian orbit and the first nation in the world to do so in its maiden attempt.
Statement 3 is Correct
- Mangalyaan indeed made India the only country to achieve success in making its spacecraft orbit Mars in its inaugural attempt.
- Mangalyaan’s successful insertion into the Martian orbit on its first attempt garnered global recognition. This accomplishment showcased India’s growing capabilities in space exploration and made ISRO the first space agency to succeed on its maiden Mars mission.
13. Consider the following statements regarding PRITHVI
1. PRITHVI is an overarching scheme initiated by the Ministry of Science and Technology spanning from 2021 to 2026
2. The primary goal is to augment and sustain long-term observations of the Earth’s vital signs, covering the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere, and solid earth
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – (b)
Why this question- The Union Cabinet has recently granted approval to the Ministry of Earth Sciences for the comprehensive scheme “PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI).”
Source: PIB
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Understanding the “PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI)” Scheme
About
Holistic Ministry Initiative
- PRITHVI is an overarching scheme initiated by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) spanning from 2021 to 2026.
- Comprehensive Sub-schemes
- The scheme encompasses five ongoing sub-schemes, namely:
- ACROSS: Atmosphere and Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services.
- O-SMART: Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology
- PACER: Polar Science and Cryosphere Research
- SAGE: Seismology and Geosciences.
- REACHOUT: Research, Education, Training and Outreach.
- Addressing Earth System Sciences
- PRITHVI comprehensively addresses the five components of Earth System Sciences: atmosphere, hydrosphere, geosphere, cryosphere, and biosphere.
- This integrated approach aims to enhance understanding and deliver reliable services for the country
Statement 2 is Correct
Objectives
- Long-term Observations
- The primary goal is to augment and sustain long-term observations of the Earth’s vital signs, covering the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere, and solid earth.
- Modeling for Hazards and Climate Change
- The development of modeling systems is emphasized to understand and predict weather, ocean, and climate hazards while comprehending the science of climate change.
- Exploration of Polar and High Seas Regions
- PACER focuses on the exploration of polar and high seas regions to discover new phenomena and resources.
- Technology Development for Oceanic Resources
- A crucial objective is to develop technology for exploring and sustainably harnessing oceanic resources for societal applications.
- Knowledge Translation for Societal Benefit
- The scheme aims to translate knowledge and insights from Earth systems science into services for societal, environmental, and economic benefit.
Benefits for India
- Advanced Warning Services
- PRITHVI provides advanced warning services for natural disasters like cyclones, floods, heatwaves, and earthquakes, facilitating prompt and effective disaster management.
- Precision in Weather Forecasting
- The scheme ensures precise weather forecasts for both land and oceans, enhancing safety and minimizing property damages in adverse weather conditions.
- Exploration of Earth’s Poles
- PRITHVI extends its reach to explore the three poles of the Earth—Arctic, Antarctic, and Himalayas—facilitating valuable insights and knowledge about these regions.
- Technology Development for Oceanic Resources
- The scheme encourages the development of technology for exploration and sustainable harnessing of oceanic resources, aligning with modern advancements in Earth Science.
14. Consider the following statements regarding the Space Sector
1. GSAT-20 provides comprehensive coverage across the country, including remote areas like Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands
2. NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) is a partially owned Government of India company, established on March 6, 2019, under the Companies Act, 2013
3. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer – (b)
Why this question- NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial subsidiary of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), is slated to launch GSAT-20 (GSAT-N2) using SpaceX’s Falcon-9 in the year 2024.
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
Understanding GSAT-20
- High Throughput Satellite (HTS)
- GSAT-20 is a high throughput Ka-band satellite designed to offer high-speed broadband internet connectivity, digital video transmission, and audio transmission.
- Broadband Communication Needs
- Launched to address India’s growing broadband communication needs, GSAT-20 provides comprehensive coverage across the country, including remote areas like Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
- Impressive HTS Capacity
- This satellite boasts an impressive High Throughput Satellite (HTS) capacity, reaching nearly 48Gbps. It features 32 beams tailored to meet the service requirements of underserved areas, aiming to bridge connectivity gaps
Statement 2 is Incorrect
What is NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)?
- Government-Owned Company
- NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) is a wholly owned Government of India company, established on March 6, 2019, under the Companies Act, 2013. It operates under the administrative control of the Department of Space (DOS).
- Primary Responsibilities
- NSIL’s primary responsibilities include enabling Indian industries to engage in high technology space-related activities, promoting and commercially exploiting products and services from the Indian space program.
Major Business Areas
- Launch Vehicle Production
- Production of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) through industry collaboration.
- Space-Based Services
- Production and marketing of space-based services, including launch services and applications like transponder leasing, remote sensing, and mission support services.
- Satellite Building
- Building satellites, both communication and Earth observation, based on user requirements.
- Technology Transfer
- Transfer of technology developed by ISRO centers and units, along with constituent institutions of the Department of Space.
- Marketing Spin-Off Technologies
- Marketing spin-off technologies and products/services arising from ISRO activities.
- Consultancy Services
- Providing consultancy services in space-related domains.
Statement 3 is Correct
PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle)
Earth Resources Monitoring
- PSLV is primarily designed for launching satellites into polar orbits. These polar orbits are particularly useful for Earth observation satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV are often used for monitoring Earth’s resources, including land, water, and vegetation.
- Payloads: PSLV has been instrumental in launching a variety of Earth observation satellites, such as the Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) series, Cartosat series, and RISAT series, which are equipped with imaging and remote sensing capabilities.
GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle)
Communication Satellites
- GSLV is designed to launch satellites into geosynchronous transfer orbits (GTO) and geostationary orbits (GEO). These orbits are suitable for communication satellites, allowing them to stay fixed relative to a specific point on Earth’s surface.
- Payloads: GSLV has been frequently used to launch communication satellites like INSAT/GSAT series, which provide services such as telecommunication, broadcasting, and broadband connectivity.
15. With reference to National Legal Services Authority consider the following statements
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – (d)
Why this question- Supreme Court Justice BR Gavai has been recently appointed as the Chairman of the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC).
Source: IE
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
- The primary objective of NALSA is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society, ensuring that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen based on economic or other disabilities.
- This aligns with the constitutional mandate to promote justice and equality.
Statement 2 is Correct
- NALSA issues guidelines and policies to State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to facilitate the implementation of legal aid programs and schemes throughout the country.
- These guidelines help standardize legal services, ensuring consistency and effectiveness in addressing the legal needs of the marginalized and underprivileged.
16. Consider the following statements regarding Rights of Persons with Disabilities (PwD) Act, 2016
Statement-I: Recognizing various disabilities like physical, intellectual, and sensory, the Act lays the foundation for protecting the rights of individuals across diverse impairments however mental illness is not explicitly covered under the act.
Statement-II: Ensuring access to affordable and quality healthcare services for persons with disabilities is a key focus of the Act
Select the correct answer using code given below:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer – (d)
Why this question- Recently, the Election Commission of India issued a vital advisory, urging political parties to embrace terminologies that are sensitive to disability
Source: IE
Explanation:
Statement I is Incorrect
An Overview of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (PwD) Act, 2016
- An Important Legislation for PwD
- The Act serves as crucial legislation, intending to safeguard and improve the rights and entitlements of persons with disabilities, replacing the 1995 Act.
- It signifies a substantial stride toward promoting their rights and inclusion.
- Definition of Disabilities
- Recognizing various disabilities like physical, intellectual, mental, and sensory, the Act lays the foundation for protecting the rights of individuals across diverse impairments.
- Rights and Entitlements
- Outlining the rights and entitlements, including equality, non-discrimination, and full participation in society, the Act emphasizes creating an inclusive environment.
- Education
- Ensuring free education up to 18 years and advocating for inclusive education, the Act aims to provide equal learning opportunities.
- Employment
- Promoting equal employment opportunities, the Act prohibits discrimination and mandates job reservations for persons with disabilities.
- Reservation in Higher Education
- The Act provides for reserved seats in higher education institutions, fostering educational inclusivity.
Statement II is Correct
- Special Employment Exchanges
- Calling for special employment exchanges, the Act facilitates employment opportunities for persons with disabilities.
- Accessibility
- Emphasizing barrier-free access in public spaces, transportation, and technology, the Act advocates for enhanced accessibility.
- Healthcare
- Ensuring access to affordable and quality healthcare services for persons with disabilities is a key focus of the Act.
- Legal Capacity
- Recognizing their right to equal recognition before the law, the Act supports the decision-making capacity of persons with disabilities.
- Social Security
- Promoting social security measures, the Act advocates for the welfare of persons with disabilities.
- National and State Advisory Boards
- Constituting National and State Advisory Boards, the Act ensures oversight for effective implementation.
- Offenses and Penalties
- Prescribing penalties for offenses against persons with disabilities, the Act ensures accessible legal proceedings.
17. Consider the following statements
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer – (b)
Why this question- The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has issued its yearly Article IV consultation report on India, focusing on key issues such as the country’s debt sustainability and management of exchange rates.
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
- The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee was formed to review the FRBM Act and suggest modifications.
- The committee, headed by N.K. Singh, recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023.
- This proposed ratio is further divided, with 40% allocated for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
- The aim is to maintain fiscal discipline and ensure sustainable debt levels.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
- Without specific information on the domestic liabilities of the Central and State Governments, we cannot confirm the accuracy of this statement.
- The accuracy of this statement would depend on the actual figures.
Statement 3 is Correct
- As per Article 293 of the Constitution of India, states have the power to borrow money within specified limits.
- If any state has outstanding liabilities to the Central Government and wishes to borrow beyond these limits, it is required to obtain the consent of the President of India.
18. Consider the following statements regarding INS Kabra
1. INS Kabra is a naval vessel named after an island in the Lakshadweep archipelago
2. With a top speed exceeding 35 knots, INS Kabra offers excellent maneuverability through water-jet propulsion
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – (b)
Why this question- The Indian warship, INS Kabra, an indigenous fast attack craft, has arrived at the Colombo port, signaling a step toward strengthening bilateral ties between India and Sri Lanka.
Source: BS
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Name and Origin
- INS Kabra is a naval vessel named after an island in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
- It belongs to the Car Nicobar class, crafted by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) for the Indian Navy.
Series and Design
- It is the eighth vessel among the 10 Fast Attack Crafts in the Car Nicobar class.
- Designed as a cost-effective platform for patrol, anti-piracy, and rescue operations within India’s Exclusive Economic Zone.
Naming Convention
- The class and its vessels are named after Indian islands.
- They represent the first water jet-propelled vessels in the Indian Navy.
Statement 2 is Correct
Performance Characteristics
- With a top speed exceeding 35 knots, INS Kabra offers excellent manoeuvrability through water-jet propulsion.
- Ideal for high-speed interdiction of fast-moving targets.
Compliance and Regulations
- Adheres to the latest regulations of the International Maritime Organisation for sea compliance and pollution control.
19. Consider the following statements regarding reasons for Antimicrobial Resistance
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer – (b)
Why this question- Over half of the surveyed hospital patients, nearly 10,000 in total, received antibiotics for preventing infections rather than treating them, raising concerns about antibiotic resistance.
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
- Antimicrobial resistance is not primarily a result of genetic predisposition in individuals.
- It is more related to the genetic changes that occur in bacteria over time due to selective pressure from the use and misuse of antibiotics.
- While genetic factors in humans can influence responses to infections and antibiotic treatments, they are not the primary drivers of antimicrobial resistance in bacteria.
Statement 2 is Correct
- The inappropriate use of antibiotics, including taking incorrect doses or not completing the prescribed course, contributes significantly to the development of antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
- When antibiotics are not taken as directed, some bacteria may survive, and those that survive are more likely to have resistance to the antibiotics used.
- This selective pressure on bacteria promotes the survival and proliferation of resistant strains, reducing the effectiveness of antibiotics over time.
Statement 3 is Correct
- The use of antibiotics in livestock farming for growth promotion, disease prevention, and treatment can contribute to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
- In many cases, antibiotics are administered to animals in subtherapeutic doses over extended periods, creating an environment where bacteria can develop resistance.
- Resistant bacteria can then be transmitted to humans through the consumption of contaminated food products, direct contact, or environmental exposure, posing a risk to human health.
20. With reference to Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’ consider the following statements
1. Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’ is an indigenous Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
2. Equipped with advanced communication systems, including satellite communication and Line-of-Sight (LOS) data links, ensuring reliable and secure data transmission
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – (a)
Why this question- The Chief of Naval Staff has officially launched the inaugural indigenous Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’ Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) for the Navy.
Source: NDTV
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
- Name and Origin
- Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’ is an indigenous Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) developed by Adani Defence and Aerospace.
- Capabilities
- An advanced intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) platform with a 36-hour endurance and a 450 kg payload capacity.
- Weather and Airspace Clearance
- An all-weather military platform with clearance to operate in both segregated and unsegregated airspace
Statement 2 is Correct
- Strategic Significance
- Designed to enhance India’s naval capabilities with high endurance, combat-proven features, and advanced capabilities.
- Autonomous Operation
- The UAV’s autonomous nature, combined with its mission effectiveness and flexible payload configuration options, makes it invaluable for strategic operations.
- Maintenance Efficiency
- Notable for minimal maintenance requirements, ensuring cost-effectiveness and operational efficiency.
- Enhances operational readiness, minimizes downtime, and maximizes deployment opportunities.
Communication Systems
- Equipped with advanced communication systems, including satellite communication and Line-of-Sight (LOS) data links, ensuring reliable and secure data transmission.
FAQs on Weekly Current Affairs
Q: What are weekly current affairs, and why are they important?
A: Weekly current affairs refer to the most significant events and developments in the world during the past week. They are important because they help individuals stay informed about what’s happening globally, enabling them to make informed decisions and engage in discussions on relevant topics.
Q: How can I stay updated with weekly current affairs?
A: You can stay updated with weekly current affairs by reading newspapers, watching news broadcasts, following credible news websites, or subscribing to news apps and newsletters. Weekly news summaries and quizzes can also help you stay informed.
Q: What types of topics are typically covered in weekly current affairs?
A: Weekly current affairs cover a wide range of topics, including politics, economics, science, technology, sports, culture, and more. They may include international and national news, as well as regional and local stories that have garnered significant attention.
Q: Are there any recommended sources for reliable weekly current affairs updates?
A: Reliable sources for weekly current affairs include established news organizations like BBC, CNN, The New York Times, and The Guardian, as well as trusted magazines and websites dedicated to current affairs analysis, such as The Economist and Foreign Affairs.
Q: How can I use weekly current affairs to enhance my knowledge and engage in meaningful discussions?
A: To make the most of weekly current affairs, consider participating in discussions, forums, or social media platforms that focus on these topics. Additionally, you can use the knowledge gained from weekly current affairs to engage in debates, contribute to informed decision-making, and expand your overall awareness of global issues.
In case you still have your doubts, contact us on 9811333901.
For UPSC Prelims Resources, Click here
For Daily Updates and Study Material:
Join our Telegram Channel – Edukemy for IAS
- 1. Learn through Videos – here
- 2. Be Exam Ready by Practicing Daily MCQs – here
- 3. Daily Newsletter – Get all your Current Affairs Covered – here
- 4. Mains Answer Writing Practice – here
