UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz – 20th January 2024

Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!

1. Consider the following statements regarding Classical Language 

Statement – I: Early texts or recorded history spanning 500-1000 years is one of the criteria to give classical language status to a language. 

Statement – II: The establishment of a Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is one of the benefits a language enjoys post-classical language recognition. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect: 
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer – (d) 

Why this question- The Chief Minister of West Bengal has recently appealed to the central government, urging the inclusion of ‘Bengali’ as a classical language.  

Source: TH  

Explanation:  

Statement I is Incorrect  

Classical Language Criteria  

Criteria for Declaration  

• High Antiquity  
  • Early texts or recorded history spanning 1500-2000 years.  

• Ancient Literature  
  • Possession of a valuable heritage in the form of a body of ancient literature or texts cherished by generations.  

• Original Literary Tradition  
  • The literary tradition should be original, not borrowed from another speech community.  

• Distinct Classical Identity  
  • Distinctiveness between classical language and literature compared to modern forms or offshoots, allowing for potential discontinuity  

Statement II is Correct  

Currently Recognized Classical Languages  

• Tamil (Declared in 2004)  
• Sanskrit (2005)  
• Kannada (2008)  
• Telugu (2008)  
• Malayalam (2013)  
• Odia (2014)  

Benefits of Classical Language Status  

• International Recognition  
  • Eligibility for two major annual international awards for scholars in classical Indian languages.  

• Academic Focus  
  • Establishment of a Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical Languages.  

• Academic Chairs  
  • Request to the University Grants Commission to create Professional Chairs for Classical Languages in Central Universities  

Additional Information:  

Key Facts about the Bengali Language  

• Official Status  
  • Official language of West Bengal.  
• Global Significance  
  • Second most spoken language in India and seventh most spoken language globally.  
• Cultural Heritage  
  • Rich heritage and culture dating back to prehistoric times.  
• Script Direction  
  • Bengali is written from left to right.

2. Consider the following statements 

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006 
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights 
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer – (b) 

Why this question- The tiger conservation initiative has developed over time, leading to the creation of 55 Tiger Reserves and the enforcement of essential wildlife protection laws.  

Source: TH  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Correct  

• The Forest Rights Act, 2006, indeed incorporates the definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat.”   
• Under this act, the rights of forest-dwelling communities are recognized, and it addresses the issue of identifying Critical Wildlife Habitats to balance conservation and the rights of forest-dwelling communities.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• The Baiga tribe were indeed the first community in India to receive Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006.   
• This was a significant step in recognizing and protecting the traditional rights and way of life of these vulnerable communities.  

Statement 3 is Incorrect  

• While the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change plays a role in the implementation of the Forest Rights Act, the decision to grant Habitat Rights actually rests with the Gram Sabhas, which are traditional village councils composed of forest-dwelling communities.   
• The Ministry provides guidance and oversight, but the final authority lies with the Gram Sabhas.

3. Consider the following statements regarding Cervical Cancer 

1. India bears the largest burden of global cervical cancer cases. 
2. Cervical cancer is particularly dangerous because it cannot be cured completely. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – (a) 

Why this question- The Indian Government plans to launch a three-phase vaccination campaign targeting girls aged 9-14 to combat the risk of cervical cancer associated with human papillomavirus (HPV).  

Source: IE  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Correct  

Cervical Cancer Overview  

• About Cervical Cancer  
  • Cervical cancer occurs in a woman’s cervix and ranks as the 4th most common cancer globally and the 2nd most common in India.  
  • India bears the largest burden of global cervical cancer cases, contributing to nearly 1 in 4 deaths worldwide, as per The Lancet study.  

• Global Impact and Causes  
  • Almost all cervical cancer cases (99%) are linked to high-risk Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, a common virus transmitted through sexual contact.  
  • Effective primary prevention through HPV vaccination and secondary prevention via screening and treating precancerous lesions can prevent the majority of cervical cancer cases.  

Statement 2 is Incorrect  

• Treatability and Diagnosis  
  • When diagnosed early, cervical cancer is highly treatable, making early detection and effective management crucial.  
  • India accounts for approximately 20% of the global burden, witnessing about 1.25 lakh cases and 75,000 deaths annually.  

• Strains and Oncogenic Types  
  • Persistent infections with high-risk HPV strains contribute to almost 85% of all cervical cancers.  
  • At least 14 oncogenic HPV types have been identified, with types 16 and 18 being the most culpable, responsible for around 70% of global cervical cancer cases. 

4. Consider the following statements regarding The CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act 2023 

1. The CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act 2023 replaced the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of ECs and Transaction of Business) Act 1991 
2. The Selection Committee includes the Prime Minister, CJI and the Leader of Opposition or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha 
3. The salary of the CEC and ECs is now equivalent to that of Judges of the Supreme Court 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None

Answer – (b) 

Why this question-SC Rejects Stay on Law Excluding CJI from CEC, EC Panel  

Source: IE  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Correct  

Introduction to the New Law  

• Replacing the 1991 Act  
  • The CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act 2023 replaced the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of ECs and Transaction of Business) Act 1991.  
  • The 1991 Act governed the appointment, salary, and removal of the CEC and ECs.  

Statement 2 is Incorrect  

Appointment Process Under the New Law  

• The President appoints the CEC and ECs based on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.  
• The Selection Committee includes the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of Opposition or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha.  
• A Search Committee, headed by the Union Law Secretary, proposes a panel of names to the Selection Committee.  

Statement 3 is Correct  

• Salary and Legal Authority  
  • The salary of the CEC and ECs is now equivalent to that of Judges of the Supreme Court.  
  • Orders passed by the CEC or ECs are not subject to challenge in any court of law.

5. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana consider the following statements 

1. The objective of this scheme is to reduce poverty in ST and SC communities through skill development, income-generating schemes, and other initiatives 
2. Up to 30% of grants are utilised for infrastructure development 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – (a) 

Why this question- The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment highlights that Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM-AJAY) consolidates three Centrally Sponsored Schemes: Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY), Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCA to SCSP), and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY).  

Source: PIB   

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

Key Highlights of PM-AJAY  

• Objectives  
  • Reduce poverty in SC communities through skill development, income-generating schemes, and other initiatives.  
  • Increase literacy and enrolment of SCs in schools and higher educational institutions.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

Components of PM-AJAY  

Development of SC-Dominated Villages  

• Formerly known as Pradhan Mantri AdarshGram Yojana (PMAGY).  
• Aims for integrated development of SC-majority villages.  
• Infrastructure development for socio-economic needs.  

‘Grants-in-aid’ for District/State-level Projects  

• Formerly Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Caste Sub Plan.  
• Supports comprehensive livelihood projects, skill development, and infrastructure.  
• Focus on sustainable income and social advancement for SCs.  

Construction of Hostels in Higher Educational Institutions  

• Aims to reduce dropout rates and promote quality education for SC students.  
• Cost norms based on geographical regions.  
• 100% Central assistance for boys’ hostels.  

Achievements  

• Development of SC-Dominated Villages  
  • 1834 villages declared as Adarsh Gram during FY 2023-24.  

• ‘Grants-in-aid’ for District/State-level Projects  
  • Perspective plan for 17 states approved during FY 2023-24.  

• Construction of Hostels in Higher Educational Institutions  
  • 15 new hostels sanctioned during FY 2023-24.  

• Special Provisions  
  • Up to 15% of grants exclusively for viable income-generating schemes for SC women.  
  • Up to 30% of grants for infrastructure development.  
  • At least 10% of funds allocated for skill development.  
  • Promotion of SC Women Cooperatives in the production and marketing of consumer goods and services.

6. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Army Day 

Statement-I: Indian Army Day is observed annually on January 15. 

Statement-II: It commemorates the victory of the Indian Army over the Pakistan Army 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer – (c) 

Why this question- Recently, the President and Prime Minister extended their heartfelt wishes to the personnel of the Indian Army on the occasion of Army Day.  

Source: HT  

Explanation:  

Statement I is Correct  

Indian Army Day Overview  

• Date of Celebration  
  • Indian Army Day is observed annually on January 15.  

• Celebration Highlights  
  • On Army Day, a parade is conducted with senior dignitaries in attendance, and the Indian Army Chief takes the salute.  

Statement II is Incorrect  

• Historical Significance  
  • Commemorates the victory of the Indian Army over the British Army.  
  • On January 15, 1949, Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa assumed the role of the first Indian Commander-in-Chief, succeeding British Commander-in-Chief General Francis Butcher.  

• Parade Venue Evolution  
  • From 1949 to 2022, the Army Day parade traditionally took place at the Cariappa Parade Ground in Delhi Cantonment.  
  • In 2023, the Southern Command hosted the parade in Bengaluru, marking the first instance of the event being held outside the capital.  

• Indian Army Day 2024  
  • Marks the 76th Army Day.  
  • The parade for 2024 will be organized under the command of the Army’s ‘Central Command,’ headquartered in Lucknow.  

• The theme of Indian Army Day 2024  
  • The theme is “In Service of the Nation.”  
  • The theme aligns with the Indian Army’s motto, “Service Before Self.”  

7. Consider the following statements regarding pulse production in India 

1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop. 
2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production. 
3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer – (a) 

Why this question- According to the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, India is poised to become the leading global producer of lentils (masoor) in the 2023-24 crop year due to increased cultivation.  

Source: TH  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Correct  

• Black gram (Vigna mungo) is a versatile crop that can be cultivated in both kharif (summer) and rabi (winter) seasons.   
• It is adaptable to different agro-climatic conditions, making it suitable for cultivation in various regions of India.  

Statement 2 is Incorrect  

• Green gram (Vigna radiata), also known as mung bean, is an important pulse crop in India, but it does not alone account for nearly half of pulse production.   
• The distribution of pulse production varies among different pulses, and green gram is just one of several pulses grown in the country.  

Statement 3 is Incorrect   

• The production of pulses has fluctuated and there is no definite increasing or decreasing trend that is followed for three decades.  

8. Consider the following statements regarding Punganur Cow 

1. They stand tall at a height of 170-180 cm and weighs more than 200 kg 
2. Their milk is rich in nutrients such as Omega fatty acids, calcium, potassium, and magnesium 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – (b) 

Why this question-: Recently, the Prime Minister was observed personally feeding a group of Punganur cows with fodder at his residence in New Delhi.  

Source: News18  

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

About Punganur Cow  

• Dwarf Characteristics  
  • Stands at a height of 70-90 cm and weighs less than 200 kg.  
  • One of the world’s most dwarf cattle breeds.  

• Native Habitat  
  • Indigenous to Punganur village in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh.  

• Resilience and Adaptability  
  • High resilience to drought conditions.  
  • Can adapt to low-quality feed.  

• Milk Quality  
  • Prized for its milk with higher fat content, making it ideal for ghee production.  
  • Yields approximately 1 to 3 litres of milk per day.  
  • Milk fat content is 8%, compared to 3 to 4% in other native breeds.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• Nutrient-rich Milk  
  • Rich in nutrients such as Omega fatty acids, calcium, potassium, and magnesium.  

• Physical Characteristics  
  • Body color ranges from white, grey, or light brown to dark brown or red.  
  • Some may have a combination of white with red, brown, or black patches.  
  • Broad forehead and short crescent-shaped horns that curve backward and forward in males and laterally and forward in females.  

• Eco-friendly Traits  
  • Considered eco-friendly, requiring less water, feed, and space compared to hybrid breeds.  

• Cultural Significance  
  • Used for Ksheeraabhishekam (milk offering to the deity) in many temples in Andhra Pradesh, including the renowned Tirupati Thirumala Temple. 

9. Consider the following statements regarding vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic 

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform 
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector-based platform 
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer – (b) 

Why this question- The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) has developed a heat-tolerant vaccine effective against all existing SARS-CoV-2 strains and adaptable for future variants.  

Source: TH  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

• Covishield, produced by the Serum Institute of India, is not an mRNA-based vaccine.   
• It is based on a different technology known as viral vector technology. Covishield is developed using a non-replicating adenovirus vector, specifically the chimpanzee adenovirus, to carry the genetic material that codes for the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus.   
• This technology is different from mRNA platforms used in some other COVID-19 vaccines.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• Sputnik V, the COVID-19 vaccine developed by the Gamaleya Research Institute of Epidemiology and Microbiology in Russia, is indeed based on a vector platform.   
• It uses two different adenoviruses, Ad26 and Ad5, as vectors to deliver the genetic material encoding the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus into cells.   
• This technology is commonly referred to as a viral vector platform.  

Statement 3 is Correct   

• COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech in India, is an inactivated virus-based vaccine.   
• It is created by inactivating the SARS-CoV-2 virus, rendering it non-infectious, and then using it as a vaccine to stimulate an immune response.   
• Inactivated vaccines have a long history in vaccine development, and COVAXIN falls into this category. 

10. With reference to Mahanadi River Basin consider the following statements 

1. Mahanadi River Basin is the 8th largest river basin in India, covering approximately 4.28% of the country’s total geographical area. 
2. Mahanadi river originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – (d) 

Why this question- In the Bay of Bengal, the state-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) has recently identified two substantial natural gas reserves in the Mahanadi basin block.  

Source: LM  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Correct  

Mahanadi River Basin Overview  

• Geographical Significance  
  • The 8th largest river basin in India, covering 139681.51 sq. km, approximately 4.28% of the country’s total geographical area.  

• Catchment Area and Extent  
  • The basin spans major parts of Chhattisgarh and Odisha, with smaller portions in Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh.  
  • Maximum length and width of the basin are 587 km and 400 km, respectively.  

• Physiographic Divisions  
  • Divided into four regions: northern plateau, Eastern Ghats, coastal plain, and erosional plains of the central tableland.  
  • Northern plateau and Eastern Ghats are hilly regions, while the coastal plain is a fertile delta area.  
  • Central tableland is the basin’s interior region traversed by the river and its tributaries.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• Rainfall and Land Use  
  • Receives 90% of rainfall during the monsoon season.  
  • Over half of the basin is agricultural land (54.27%), with water bodies covering 4.45%.  
  • Dominant soil types are red and yellow soils.  

Key Facts about Mahanadi River  

• East-Flowing Peninsular River  
  • One of the major east-flowing peninsular rivers in India.  

Origin and Length  

• Originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh.  
  • Ranks second in water potential among peninsular rivers.  
  • Total length from origin to outfall into the Bay of Bengal is 851 km, with 357 km in Chhattisgarh and 494 km in Odisha.  

• Tributaries  
  • Left-bank tributaries include Seonath, Hasdeo, Mand, and Ib.  
  • Right-bank tributaries include Ong, Tel, and Jonk.  

• Hirakud Dam  
  • Hirakud Dam, the world’s longest earthen dam (26 km), is constructed across the Mahanadi River, 15 km from Sambalpur in Odisha.  

• Chilika Lake Connection  
  • Chilika, a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, receives 61% of its inland flow from the Mahanadi River system, primarily from its distributaries, Daya and Bhargabi.  

11. Consider the following statements 

Statement-I: Interim Budget focuses on short-term financial needs of the outgoing government. 

Statement-II: Vote on Account is passed without formal discussion, addressing immediate financial needs. 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer – (d) 

Why this question- The Finance Minister is prepared to present her consecutive sixth budget. Given that it is a general elections year, the government will be restricted to presenting either an Interim Budget or a Vote-on-account instead of a comprehensive full Budget  

Source: BT  

Explanation:  

Statement I is Incorrect  

Interim Budget vs Vote-On-Account: Key Differences  

Purpose and Duration  

• Interim Budget  
  • Framework for managing provisional expenditures over a short duration.  
  • Covers a few months until a new government takes office.  

• Vote-On-Account  
  • Parliamentary approval for essential expenditures for April to June/July.  
  • Covers the period until the new government presents a full-fledged budget.  

Contents  

• Interim Budget  
  • Includes the current state of the economy, plan and non-plan expenditures, tax rate changes, and estimates for the coming financial year.  
  • Subject to constraints imposed by the Election Commission to avoid influencing the public during elections.  

• Vote-On-Account  
  • Accounts for essential expenditures like salaries, ongoing project funding, and other government expenses.  
  • Focuses on short-term financial needs of the outgoing government.  

Statement II is Correct  

Parliament Approval  

• Interim Budget  
  • Discussed and passed in the Lok Sabha similar to a regular budget.  

• Vote-On-Account  
  • Passed without formal discussion, addressing immediate financial needs.  

Tax Regime Changes  

• Interim Budget  
  • Can propose changes in the tax regime.  

• Vote-On-Account  
  • Cannot alter the existing tax regime under any circumstances.  

Validity Period  

• Interim Budget  
  • Valid throughout the year.  

• Vote-On-Account  
  • Valid for a period of two to four months, depending on circumstances. 

12. Consider the following statements regarding Harvest Festivals in India 

1. Makar Sankranti denotes the sun’s entry into the zodiac sign of Makara (Capricorn) and marks the onset of summers. 
2. Magh Bihu/Bhogali Bihu marks the Assamese New Year. 
3. Rooster fights, locally known as “Kodi Pandalu” are considered a heritage game are encouraged by the SC as a collective heritage symbol of some communities. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer – (b) 

Why this question- The Prime Minister of India has extended greetings to people nationwide on the celebration of Harvest Festivals, including Makar Sankranti, Uttarayan, Bhogi, Magh Bihu, and Pongal.  

Source: HT  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Correct  

Harvest Festivals in India  

• Makar Sankranti  
  • Denotes the sun’s entry into the zodiac sign of Makara (Capricorn).  
  • Marks the onset of summer and the auspicious Uttarayan period for Hindus.  
  • Celebrated as Lohri in North India, Sukarat in Central India, Bhogali Bihu in Assam, and Pongal in South India.  
  • Gujarat hosts the International Kite Festival as part of Uttarayan celebrations.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• Bihu  
  • Celebrated during the annual harvest in Assam.  

• Magh Bihu/Bhogali Bihu marks the Assamese New Year.  
  • Originated when people in the valley started tilling the land.  

• Pongal  
  • Also known as Thai Pongal, observed in the month of Thai.  
  • Involves a four-day celebration expressing gratitude for the harvest.  
  • Tamilians create traditional designs (kolams) in their homes with rice powder.  

Statement 3 is  Incorrect  

Rooster Fights  

• About  
  • Rooster fights, locally known as “Kodi Pandalu,” involve specially bred birds with sharp leg blades fighting until one is killed or critically injured.  

• Laws Related to Rooster Fights  
  • Banned under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act, 1960.  
  • Prohibits the organization and participation in animal fights.  
  • Supreme Court rulings emphasize the ban on using animals for entertainment purposes, including rooster fights. 

13. Consider the following statements regarding Instrument Landing System (ILS) 

1. Allows pilots to understand their aircraft’s position relative to the airport runway, however this system cannot work efficiently in lower visibility conditions like fogs. 
2. ILS is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) precision landing aid 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – (b) 

Why this question- Flight operations often face challenges in thick mist conditions, compelling a reliance on crucial instruments like the Instrument Landing System (ILS).  

Source: FE 

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

About Instrument Landing System (ILS)  

• Navigation System Overview  
  • ILS is a ground-based radio navigation system offering precise information to pilots regarding their aircraft’s position and alignment with the runway .

• Components  
  • Comprises two main components: the localizer and the glide slope.  
  • The localizer ensures lateral alignment, guiding the aircraft along the correct azimuth toward the runway centerline.  
  • Simultaneously, the glide slope provides vertical guidance, assisting pilots in maintaining the proper descent angle for a safe landing.  

• Dual-Axis Guidance  
  • Guides pilots along both horizontal and vertical axes, facilitating a correct approach path, especially in low-visibility conditions.  

Positional Awareness  

• Allows pilots to understand their aircraft’s position relative to the airport runway, even in scenarios of limited visibility.  

• Warning System  
  • Warns pilots if their aircraft deviates from the runway centerline.  
  • Provides alerts for being too low or too high, minimizing the risk of undershooting or overshooting the runway.  

• Critical Landing Aid  
  • Crucial for ensuring safe landings when visual confirmation of the runway is challenging.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• Integration with Avionics  
  • Modern aircraft feature advanced avionics and autopilot systems, often coupled with radar altimeters.  
  • Enhances precision during foggy landings and maintains stable descent along the designated glide path.  

• International Standard  
  • ILS is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) precision landing aid.  
  • Used to provide accurate azimuth and descent guidance signals for safe landings under adverse weather conditions.

14. Consider the following statements regarding Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023 

1. It is conducted by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs since 2016 and is considered as the world’s largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey 
2. Indore retains the cleanest city title for the 7th consecutive year. 
3. Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Nagaland, and Tripura rank as the bottom five states in cleanliness. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None

Answer – c 

Why this question- The Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023 were presented by the President of India at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, in an event hosted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).  

Source: IE  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Correct  

Major Highlights of Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023  

• About Swachh Survekshan  
  • Conducted by MoHUA since 2016, the world’s largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey.  
  • Fosters healthy competition among cities, promoting cleaner urban spaces.  
  • The 2023 round covered 4,416 urban local bodies, 61 cantonments, and 88 Ganga towns.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• City Rankings  
  • Indore retains the cleanest city title for the 7th consecutive year.  
  • Surat claims the top spot for the first time, sharing the honor with Indore.  
  • Both cities achieve 100% door-to-door waste collection, 98% source segregation, and 100% dumpsite remediation.  
  • Navi Mumbai secures the third cleanest city position.  

Statement 3 is Correct   

• Evaluation Parameters  
  • Swachh Survekshan 2023 rankings based on factors like door-to-door waste collection, source segregation, public area cleanliness, water body cleanliness, and citizen feedback on city cleanliness.  

• Cleanest State Award  
  • Maharashtra claims the cleanest state award with 89.24% door-to-door waste collection and 67.76% source segregation.  
  • Madhya Pradesh secures the second position in state cleanliness rankings.  

• Bottom Five States  
  • Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Nagaland, and Tripura rank as the bottom five states in cleanliness.  

• Other Specialized Awards  
  • Chandigarh receives Safaimitra Surakshit Shehar award for the city with the best safety standards for sanitation workers.  
  • Varanasi recognized as the cleanest Ganga town.  
  • Sasvad in Maharashtra earns the cleanest city title among those with a population below 1 lakh.  
  • Mhow Cantonment declared the cleanest cantonment in the country. 

15. With reference to Exercise Ayutthaya consider the following statements 

1. Exercise Ayutthaya is a bilateral exercise of Indian Navy with Vietnamese Navy 
2. Aligns with the Government of India’s vision of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region). 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – (a) 

Why this question- Recently, the inaugural Bilateral Maritime Exercise, named ‘Ayutthaya,’ took place between the Indian Navy (IN) and the Royal Thai Navy (RTN).  

Source: PIB   

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

About Exercise Ayutthaya  

• Naming and Significance  
  • The bilateral exercise is named ‘Ex-Ayutthaya,’ translating to ‘The Invincible One’ or ‘Undefeatable.’  
  • Symbolizes the historical legacies and rich cultural ties between Ayodhya in India and Ayutthaya in Thailand.  

• Participating Naval Ships  
  • Indigenously built Indian Naval ships Kulish and IN LCU 56 took part in the inaugural edition.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• Strengthening Operational Synergy  
  • The exercise marks a significant step in strengthening operational synergy between the Indian Navy and Royal Thai Navy.  
  • Focuses on progressively increasing exercise complexity.  

• Activities during the Exercise  
  • Participating units conducted surface and anti-air exercises, including weapon firing, seamanship evolutions, and tactical maneuvers.  
  • The Sea Phase of the exercise included Maritime Patrol Aircraft from both navies.  

• Coordinated Patrol  
  • The 36th edition of India-Thailand Coordinated Patrol (Indo-Thai CORPAT) was conducted concurrently with the maiden bilateral exercise.  

Regional Maritime Security  

• Aligns with the Government of India’s vision of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region).  
• Highlights the Indian Navy’s proactive engagement with countries in the Indian Ocean Region for enhancing regional maritime security.  

• Close Relationship  
  • The Indian Navy and Royal Thai Navy maintain a close and friendly relationship that has strengthened over the years.  

16. Consider the following statements regarding SHRESHTA 

Statement-I: The scheme aims to grant meritorious students from Scheduled (SC) communities access to the best private residential schools 

Statement-II: Admissions are for education in Classes 6 through 12 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer – (c) 

Why this question- The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has recently provided guidelines for Residential Private Schools expressing interest in becoming a part of the SHRESHTA Scheme.  

Source: FPJ  

Explanation:  

Statement I is Correct  

Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA)  

• Objective  
  • The scheme aims to grant meritorious students from Scheduled Caste (SC) communities access to the best private residential schools.  

• Targeted Classes  
  • Provides scholarships for students from SC communities to pursue education in private and NGO-run residential schools, specifically for Classes 9-12.  

• Expected Impact  
  • Anticipates offering admissions to approximately 3,000 students annually in Classes 9 and 11.  

• Core Objectives  
  • Enhance the government’s development initiatives by addressing service gaps in education in SC dominant areas.  
  • Collaborate with voluntary organizations to create an environment conducive to the socio-economic upliftment and overall development of SC communities.  

• Implementation Agency  
  • The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment  

Statement II is Incorrect  

Implementation Modes  

• SHRESHTA Schools  
  • Involves the best CBSE/state board-affiliated private residential schools.  
  • Selection of outstanding SC community students through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS).  

• Admissions for education in Classes 9 through 12.  
  • School selection based on a performance score of above 75 percent pass rate in Class 10 and 12 board examinations over the past three years.  

• NGO and Voluntary Organization-Run Schools and Hostels  
  • Includes institutions operated by NGOs and voluntary organizations up to Class 12.  

• Eligibility Criteria  
  • Students with annual parental income less than Rs 2,50,000 and belonging to SC communities.  
  • Eligible candidates are those who have passed or are appearing in Class VIII/X in the current academic session, applying for admission to Class IX/XI.  

• Financial Coverage  
  • The scheme covers tuition fees, hostel fees, and mess fees for qualifying students.  
  • Students have the flexibility to choose from various schools based on merit.

17. Consider the following statements regarding Chang’e 6 Mission 

1. The Chang’e 6 mission is a planned lunar lander aiming to retrieve samples from the lunar south pole 
2. The mission is completely indigenous and carried out entirely by the China space agency 
3. Chang’e 6 comprises a rover only which makes it special in its own sense 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None 

Answer – (a) 

Why this question- The China National Space Administration (CNSA) has recently declared that the Chang’e 6 sample return mission is progressing as planned and is expected to achieve a lunar surface landing in the first half of 2024.  

Source: News9live  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Correct  

Chang’e 6 Mission Overview  

• Objective  
  • The Chang’e 6 mission is a planned lunar lander aiming to retrieve samples from the lunar south pole.  

Mission Components  

• Landing and Sample Collection  
  • Intends to land on the Moon’s surface, collect lunar samples, and bring them back to Earth.  
  • The collected samples are pivotal for advancing our understanding of the Moon’s geological mysteries.   

Statement 2 is Incorrect  

• Far Side Exploration  
  • Marks the initial endeavor to retrieve samples from the far side of the Moon.  
  • Aims to gather up to two kilograms of lunar samples, employing a configuration similar to the successful Chang’e 5 mission.  

• International Collaboration  
  • The mission involves collaboration with international partners, including the European Space Agency (ESA) and the French space agency CNES.  

• ESA Contribution  
  • ESA contributes a lunar surface ion tester, enhancing the mission’s scientific capabilities.  

• CNES Contribution  
  • CNES provides equipment for measuring radon gas and its decay products, contributing valuable scientific data.  

Statement 3 is Incorrect  

• Additional Collaborations  
  • Inclusive of an Italian laser corner reflector for radar instrument calibration.  
  • Pakistan’s ICUBE-Q CubeSat is also part of the mission, showcasing diverse international participation.  

• Mission Configuration  
  • Chang’e 6 comprises both a lander and a rover.  

• Lunar Surface Operations  
  • The lander is tasked with touching down on the lunar surface.  
  • The rover will explore specific regions, conduct experiments, and assist in the sample collection process.  

• Global Scientific Access  
  • The retrieved lunar samples will be accessible to the global scientific community, fostering collaborative research and exploration.

18. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) 

1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – (b) 

Why this question-Snowfall Shortage in Kashmir is Impacting the Tourism, Environment, and Economy  

Source: IE   

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

• The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is a climate phenomenon characterized by the difference in sea surface temperatures between two regions in the Indian Ocean – the western Indian Ocean (near the Arabian Sea) and the eastern Indian Ocean (near Indonesia).   
• It is not related to the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. The IOD has two phases: positive and negative.   
• In the positive phase, the western Indian Ocean tends to be warmer than the eastern part, and in the negative phase, the reverse is true.   
• The IOD has significant impacts on the monsoon patterns and rainfall in the Indian subcontinent.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

• There is a connection between the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) and El Niño, which is known as the “IOD-El Niño teleconnection.”  
• El Niño is a climate phenomenon associated with the warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean.   
• Both El Niño and the positive phase of the IOD tend to suppress monsoon rainfall in the Indian subcontinent.  
• However, the combined impact of a positive IOD and El Niño can result in more severe and widespread drought conditions in the Indian subcontinent.   
• The warming of the western Indian Ocean during a positive IOD enhances the El Niño impact on the Indian monsoon, leading to reduced rainfall.   
• Conversely, a negative IOD can have a mitigating effect on El Niño, reducing its impact on the Indian monsoon.  

19. Consider the following statements regarding World Economic Forum 

1. WEF serves as the International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation, engaging prominent leaders across various sectors to influence global, regional, and industry agendas, and is headquartered in Washington DC 
2. Formally recognized as an international organization in 2000. 
3. WEF regularly publishes globally recognized reports, including the Global Competitiveness Report. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. All three 
4. None

Answer – (a) 

Why this question- The Annual Meeting of the World Economic Forum (WEF) is taking place in Davos, Switzerland, from January 15th to January 19th, 2024.  

Source: IE  

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

Overview of the World Economic Forum (WEF)  

• Introduction  
  • WEF serves as the International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation, engaging prominent leaders across various sectors to influence global, regional, and industry agendas.  
  • Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.  

• Foundation and Concept  
  • Founded in 1971 by Klaus Schwab, originally named the European Management Forum.  
  • Schwab introduced the concept of “stakeholder capitalism,” emphasizing long-term value creation and considering the needs of all stakeholders and society.  

Statement 2 is Incorrect  

• Evolution of Focus  
  • Events in 1973 led to a shift from management to economic and social issues.  
  • In 1975, membership for the world’s top 1,000 companies was introduced.  
  • In 1987, it officially became the World Economic Forum, broadening its vision to provide a platform for global dialogue.  
  • Formally recognized as an international organization in 2015.  

• Funding  
  • Primarily supported by partnering corporations with annual turnovers exceeding USD 5 billion.  

• Annual Meeting in Davos  
  • The Davos Annual Meeting brings together approximately 3,000 participants, including investors, business leaders, political figures, economists, and celebrities.  
  • Over 500 sessions are conducted to discuss global issues.  

Statement 3 is Correct  

Key Diplomatic Moments at WEF  

• Korean Diplomacy  
  • Davos witnessed the first ministerial-level meetings between North and South Korea.  

• German Reunification (1989)  
  • East German Prime Minister and German Chancellor met at WEF to discuss reunification.  

• South African Milestone (1992)  
  • South African President de Klerk, Nelson Mandela, and Zulu prince Mangosuthu Buthelezi made their inaugural joint appearance outside South Africa, marking a significant milestone in the country’s political transition.  

• G20 Genesis (1998)  
  • WEF emphasized the involvement of major developing countries, contributing to the emergence of the G20 concept initially limited to finance ministers.  

Major Reports by WEF  

• WEF regularly publishes globally recognized reports, including the Global Competitiveness Report, Global Gender Gap Report, Energy Transition Index, Global Risk Report, and Global Travel and Tourism Report.  

20. With reference to FASTags consider the following statements 

1. The tag needs to be updated every year and is available in seven different colour codes. 
2. Promotes fuel savings and reduces emissions thus help in achieving green targets. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – (a) 

Why this question-The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has introduced the ‘One Vehicle, One FASTag’ initiative, designed to discourage the practice of using a single FASTag for multiple vehicles or associating multiple FASTags with a specific vehicle.  

Source: PIB   

Explanation:  

Statement 1 is Incorrect  

Understanding FASTag  

• Introduction  
  • FASTag is a technological device utilizing Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) for seamless toll payments while a vehicle is in motion.  
  • NHAI has introduced two mobile apps, namely MyFASTag and FASTag Partner, to enhance the accessibility of FASTags.  
  • The tag remains valid for five years from the date of issuance and is available in seven different colour codes.  

Statement 2 is Correct  

Benefits of FASTag  

• For Road Users  
  • Allows near non-stop motion through toll plazas.  
  • Provides convenience for cashless toll fee payment.  
  • Contributes to reduced traffic congestion and shorter commute times.  

• For Toll Operator  
  • Reduces operating costs.  
  • Enhances audit control through centralized user accounts.  
  • Improves capacity without the need for additional infrastructure.  

• For Government  
  • Promotes fuel savings and reduces emissions from idling and repeated stops at toll plazas.  
  • Enhances transparency in toll transactions  

FAQs on Weekly Current Affairs

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A: Weekly current affairs refer to the most significant events and developments in the world during the past week. They are important because they help individuals stay informed about what’s happening globally, enabling them to make informed decisions and engage in discussions on relevant topics.

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A: Weekly current affairs cover a wide range of topics, including politics, economics, science, technology, sports, culture, and more. They may include international and national news, as well as regional and local stories that have garnered significant attention.

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A: To make the most of weekly current affairs, consider participating in discussions, forums, or social media platforms that focus on these topics. Additionally, you can use the knowledge gained from weekly current affairs to engage in debates, contribute to informed decision-making, and expand your overall awareness of global issues.

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