Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
Q 1. Consider the following statements regarding Classical Language
- Early texts or recorded history spanning 500-1000 years is one of the criteria to give classical language status to a language.
- The establishment of a Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is one of the benefits a language enjoys post-classical language recognition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- The Chief Minister of West Bengal has recently appealed to the central government, urging the inclusion of ‘Bengali’ as a classical language. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Classical Language Criteria Criteria for Declaration High Antiquity Early texts or recorded history spanning 1500-2000 years. Ancient Literature Possession of a valuable heritage in the form of a body of ancient literature or texts cherished by generations. Original Literary Tradition The literary tradition should be original, not borrowed from another speech community. Distinct Classical Identity Distinctiveness between classical language and literature compared to modern forms or offshoots, allowing for potential discontinuity Statement II is Correct Currently Recognized Classical Languages Tamil (Declared in 2004) Sanskrit (2005) Kannada (2008) Telugu (2008) Malayalam (2013) Odia (2014) Benefits of Classical Language Status International Recognition Eligibility for two major annual international awards for scholars in classical Indian languages. Academic Focus Establishment of a Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical Languages. Academic Chairs studies request to the University Grants Commission to create Professional Chairs for Classical Languages in Central Universities |
Q 2. Consider the following statements
- The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006
- For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights
- Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The tiger conservation initiative has developed over time, leading to the creation of 55 Tiger Reserves and the enforcement of essential wildlife protection laws. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct The Forest Rights Act, of 2006, indeed incorporates the definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat.” Under this act, the rights of forest-dwelling communities are recognized, and it addresses the issue of identifying Critical Wildlife Habitats to balance conservation and the rights of forest-dwelling communities. Statement 2 is Correct The Baiga tribe was indeed the first community in India to receive Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, of 2006. This was a significant step in recognizing and protecting the traditional rights and way of life of these vulnerable communities. Statement 3 is Incorrect While the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change plays a role in the implementation of the Forest Rights Act, the decision to grant Habitat Rights actually rests with the Gram Sabhas, which are traditional village councils composed of forest-dwelling communities. The Ministry provides guidance and oversight, but the final authority lies with the Gram Sabhas. |
Q 3. Consider the following statements regarding Cervical Cancer
- India bears the largest burden of global cervical cancer cases.
- Cervical cancer is particularly dangerous because it cannot be cured completely.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– The Indian Government plans to launch a three-phase vaccination campaign targeting girls aged 9-14 to combat the risk of cervical cancer associated with human papillomavirus (HPV). |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Cervical Cancer Overview About Cervical Cancer Cervical cancer occurs in a woman’s cervix and ranks as the 4th most common cancer globally and the 2nd most common in India. India bears the largest burden of global cervical cancer cases, contributing to nearly 1 in 4 deaths worldwide, as per The Lancet study. Global Impact and Causes Almost all cervical cancer cases (99%) are linked to high-risk Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, a common virus transmitted through sexual contact. Effective primary prevention through HPV vaccination and secondary prevention via screening and treating precancerous lesions can prevent the majority of cervical cancer cases. Statement 2 is Incorrect Treatability and Diagnosis When diagnosed early, cervical cancer is highly treatable, making early detection and effective management crucial. India accounts for approximately 20% of the global burden, witnessing about 1.25 lakh cases and 75,000 deaths annually. Strains and Oncogenic Types Persistent infections with high-risk HPV strains contribute to almost 85% of all cervical cancers. At least 14 oncogenic HPV types have been identified, with types 16 and 18 being the most culpable, responsible for around 70% of global cervical cancer cases. |
Q 4. Consider the following statements regarding The CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act 2023
- The CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act 2023 replaced the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of ECs and Transaction of Business) Act 1991
- The Selection Committee includes the Prime Minister, CJI, and the Leader of the Opposition or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha
- The salary of the CEC and ECs is now equivalent to that of Judges of the Supreme Court
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question-SC Rejects Stay on Law Excluding CJI from CEC, EC Panel |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Introduction to the New Law Replacing the 1991 Act The CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act 2023 replaced the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of ECs and Transaction of Business) Act 1991. The 1991 Act governed the appointment, salary, and removal of the CEC and ECs. Statement 2 is Incorrect Appointment Process Under the New Law The President appoints the CEC and ECs based on the recommendation of a Selection Committee. The Selection Committee includes the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha. A Search Committee, headed by the Union Law Secretary, proposes a panel of names to the Selection Committee. Statement 3 is Correct Salary and Legal Authority The salary of the CEC and ECs is now equivalent to that of Judges of the Supreme Court. Orders passed by the CEC or ECs are not subject to challenge in any court of law. |
Q 5. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana consider the following statements
- The objective of this scheme is to reduce poverty in ST and SC communities through skill development, income-generating schemes, and other initiatives
- Up to 30% of grants are utilised for infrastructure development
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment highlights that Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM-AJAY) consolidates three Centrally Sponsored Schemes: Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY), Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCA to SCSP), and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY). |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Key Highlights of PM-AJAY Objectives Reduce poverty in SC communities through skill development, income-generating schemes, and other initiatives. Increase literacy and enrolment of SCs in schools and higher educational institutions. Statement 2 is Correct Components of PM-AJAY Development of SC-Dominated Villages Formerly known as Pradhan Mantri AdarshGram Yojana (PMAGY). Aims for integrated development of SC-majority villages. Infrastructure development for socio-economic needs. ‘Grants-in-aid’ for District/State-level Projects Formerly Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Caste Sub Plan. Supports comprehensive livelihood projects, skill development, and infrastructure. Focus on sustainable income and social advancement for SCs. Construction of Hostels in Higher Educational Institutions Aims to reduce dropout rates and promote quality education for SC students. Cost norms are based on geographical regions. 100% Central assistance for boys’ hostels. Achievements Development of SC-Dominated Villages 1834 villages declared as Adarsh Gram during FY 2023-24. ‘Grants-in-aid’ for District/State-level Projects Perspective plan for 17 states approved during FY 2023-24. Construction of Hostels in Higher Educational Institutions 15 new hostels sanctioned during FY 2023-24. Special Provisions Up to 15% of grants exclusively for viable income-generating schemes for SC women. Up to 30% of grants for infrastructure development. At least 10% of funds allocated for skill development. Promotion of SC Women Cooperatives in producing and marketing consumer goods and services. |
Q 6. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Army Day
- Indian Army Day is observed annually on January 15.
- It commemorates the victory of the Indian Army over the Pakistan Army
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: C
| Why this question- Recently, the President and Prime Minister extended their heartfelt wishes to the personnel of the Indian Army on the occasion of Army Day. |
| Source: HT |
| Explanation: Statement I is Correct Indian Army Day Overview Date of Celebration Indian Army Day is observed annually on January 15. Celebration Highlights On Army Day, a parade is conducted with senior dignitaries in attendance, and the Indian Army Chief takes the salute. Statement II is Incorrect Historical Significance Commemorates the victory of the Indian Army over the British Army. On January 15, 1949, Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa assumed the role of the first Indian Commander-in-Chief, succeeding British Commander-in-Chief General Francis Butcher. Parade Venue Evolution From 1949 to 2022, the Army Day parade traditionally took place at the Cariappa Parade Ground in Delhi Cantonment. In 2023, the Southern Command hosted the parade in Bengaluru, marking the first instance of the event being held outside the capital. Indian Army Day 2024 Marks the 76th Army Day. The parade for 2024 will be organized under the command of the Army’s ‘Central Command,’ headquartered in Lucknow. Theme of Indian Army Day 2024 The theme is “In Service of the Nation.” The theme aligns with the Indian Army’s motto, “Service Before Self.” |
Q 7. Consider the following statements regarding pulse production in India
- Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop.
- Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
- In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- According to the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, India is poised to become the leading global producer of lentils (masoor) in the 2023-24 crop year due to increased cultivation. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Black gram (Vigna mungo) is a versatile crop that can be cultivated in both kharif (summer) and rabi (winter) seasons. It is adaptable to different agro-climatic conditions, making it suitable for cultivation in various regions of India. Statement 2 is Incorrect Green gram (Vigna radiata), also known as mung bean, is an important pulse crop in India, but it does not alone account for nearly half of the pulse production. The distribution of pulse production varies among different pulses, and green gram is just one of several pulses grown in the country. Statement 3 is Incorrect The production of pulses has fluctuated and there is no definite increasing or decreasing trend that has been followed for three decades. |
Q 8. Consider the following statements regarding Punganur Cow
- They stand tall at a height of 170-180 cm and weigh more than 200 kg
- Their milk is rich in nutrients such as Omega fatty acids, calcium, potassium, and magnesium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question–: Recently, the Prime Minister was observed personally feeding a group of Punganur cows with fodder at his residence in New Delhi. |
| Source: News18 |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About Punganur Cow Dwarf Characteristics Stands at a height of 70-90 cm and weighs less than 200 kg. One of the world’s most dwarf cattle breeds. Native Habitat Indigenous to Punganur village in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh. Resilience and Adaptability High resilience to drought conditions. Can adapt to low-quality feed. Milk Quality Prized for its milk with higher fat content, making it ideal for ghee production. Yields approximately 1 to 3 litres of milk per day. Milk fat content is 8%, compared to 3 to 4% in other native breeds. Statement 2 is Correct Nutrient-rich Milk Rich in nutrients such as Omega fatty acids, calcium, potassium, and magnesium. Physical Characteristics Body color ranges from white, grey, or light brown to dark brown or red. Some may have a combination of white with red, brown, or black patches. Broad forehead and short crescent-shaped horns that curve backward and forward in males and laterally and forward in females. Eco-friendly Traits Considered eco-friendly, requiring less water, feed, and space compared to hybrid breeds. Cultural Significance Used for Ksheeraabhishekam (milk offering to the deity) in many temples in Andhra Pradesh, including the renowned Tirupati Thirumala Temple. |
Q 9. Consider the following statements regarding vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic
- The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform
- Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector-based platform
- COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) has developed a heat-tolerant vaccine effective against all existing SARS-CoV-2 strains and adaptable for future variants. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Covishield, produced by the Serum Institute of India, is not an mRNA-based vaccine. It is based on a different technology known as viral vector technology. Covishield is developed using a non-replicating adenovirus vector, specifically the chimpanzee adenovirus, to carry the genetic material that codes for the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus. This technology is different from mRNA platforms used in some other COVID-19 vaccines. Statement 2 is Correct Sputnik V, the COVID-19 vaccine developed by the Gamaleya Research Institute of Epidemiology and Microbiology in Russia, is indeed based on a vector platform. It uses two different adenoviruses, Ad26 and Ad5, as vectors to deliver the genetic material encoding the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus into cells. This technology is commonly referred to as a viral vector platform. Statement 3 is Correct COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech in India, is an inactivated virus-based vaccine. It is created by inactivating the SARS-CoV-2 virus, rendering it non-infectious, and then using it as a vaccine to stimulate an immune response. Inactivated vaccines have a long history in vaccine development, and COVAXIN falls into this category. |
Q 10. With reference to Mahanadi River Basin consider the following statements
- Mahanadi River Basin is the 8th largest river basin in India, covering approximately 4.28% of the country’s total geographical area.
- Mahanadi river originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question– In the Bay of Bengal, the state-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) has recently identified two substantial natural gas reserves in the Mahanadi basin block. |
| Source: LM |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Mahanadi River Basin Overview Geographical Significance The 8th largest river basin in India, covering 139681.51 sq. km, approximately 4.28% of the country’s total geographical area. Catchment Area and Extent The basin spans major parts of Chhattisgarh and Odisha, with smaller portions in Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh. Maximum length and width of the basin are 587 km and 400 km, respectively. Physiographic Divisions Divided into four regions: northern plateau, Eastern Ghats, coastal plain, and erosional plains of the central tableland. Northern plateau and Eastern Ghats are hilly regions, while the coastal plain is a fertile delta area. Central tableland is the basin’s interior region traversed by the river and its tributaries. Statement 2 is Correct Rainfall and Land Use Receives 90% of rainfall during the monsoon season. Over half of the basin is agricultural land (54.27%), with water bodies covering 4.45%. Dominant soil types are red and yellow soils. Key Facts about Mahanadi River East-Flowing Peninsular River One of the major east-flowing peninsular rivers in India. Origin and Length Originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh. Ranks second in water potential among peninsular rivers. Total length from origin to outfall into the Bay of Bengal is 851 km, with 357 km in Chhattisgarh and 494 km in Odisha. Tributaries Left-bank tributaries include Seonath, Hasdeo, Mand, and Ib. Right-bank tributaries include Ong, Tel, and Jonk. Hirakud Dam Hirakud Dam, the world’s longest earthen dam (26 km), is constructed across the Mahanadi River, 15 km from Sambalpur in Odisha. Chilika Lake Connection Chilika, a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, receives 61% of its inland flow from the Mahanadi River system, primarily from its distributaries, Daya and Bhargabi. |
Q 11. Consider the following statements
- Interim Budget focuses on short-term financial needs of the outgoing government.
- Vote on Account is passed without formal discussion, addressing immediate financial needs.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- The Finance Minister is prepared to present her consecutive sixth budget. Given that it is a general elections year, the government will be restricted to presenting either an Interim Budget or a Vote-on-account instead of a comprehensive full Budget |
| Source: BT |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Interim Budget vs Vote-On-Account: Key Differences Purpose and Duration Interim Budget Framework for managing provisional expenditures over a short duration. Covers a few months until a new government takes office. Vote-On-Account Parliamentary approval for essential expenditures for April to June/July. Covers the period until the new government presents a full-fledged budget. Contents Interim Budget Includes the current state of the economy, plan and non-plan expenditures, tax rate changes, and estimates for the coming financial year. Subject to constraints imposed by the Election Commission to avoid influencing the public during elections. Vote-On-Account Accounts for essential expenditures like salaries, ongoing project funding, and other government expenses. Focuses on short-term financial needs of the outgoing government. Statement II is Correct Parliament Approval Interim Budget Discussed and passed in the Lok Sabha similar to a regular budget. Vote-On-Account Passed without formal discussion, addressing immediate financial needs. Tax Regime Changes Interim Budget Can propose changes in the tax regime. Vote-On-Account Cannot alter the existing tax regime under any circumstances. Validity Period Interim Budget Valid throughout the year. Vote-On-Account Valid for a period of two to four months, depending on circumstances. |
Q 12. Consider the following statements regarding Harvest Festivals in India
- Makar Sankranti denotes the sun’s entry into the zodiac sign of Makara (Capricorn) and marks the onset of summers.
- Magh Bihu/Bhogali Bihu marks the Assamese New Year.
- Rooster fights, locally known as “Kodi Pandalu” are considered a heritage game are encouraged by the SC as a collective heritage symbol of some communities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Prime Minister of India has extended greetings to people nationwide on the celebration of Harvest Festivals, including Makar Sankranti, Uttarayan, Bhogi, Magh Bihu, and Pongal. |
| Source: HT |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Harvest Festivals in India Makar Sankranti Denotes the sun’s entry into the zodiac sign of Makara (Capricorn). Marks the onset of summer and the auspicious Uttarayan period for Hindus. Celebrated as Lohri in North India, Sukarat in Central India, Bhogali Bihu in Assam, and Pongal in South India. Gujarat hosts the International Kite Festival as part of Uttarayan celebrations. Statement 2 is Correct Bihu Celebrated during the annual harvest in Assam. Magh Bihu/Bhogali Bihu marks the Assamese New Year. Originated when people in the valley started tilling the land. Pongal Also known as Thai Pongal, observed in the month of Thai. Involves a four-day celebration expressing gratitude for the harvest. Tamilians create traditional designs (kolams) in their homes with rice powder. Statement 3 is Incorrect Rooster Fights About Rooster fights, locally known as “Kodi Pandalu,” involve specially bred birds with sharp leg blades fighting until one is killed or critically injured. Laws Related to Rooster Fights Banned under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act, 1960. Prohibits the organization and participation in animal fights. Supreme Court rulings emphasize the ban on using animals for entertainment purposes, including rooster fights |
Q 13. Consider the following statements regarding Instrument Landing System (ILS)
- Allows pilots to understand their aircraft’s position relative to the airport runway, however this system cannot work efficiently in lower visibility conditions like fogs.
- ILS is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) precision landing aid
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– Flight operations often face challenges in thick mist conditions, compelling a reliance on crucial instruments like the Instrument Landing System (ILS). |
| Source: FE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About Instrument Landing System (ILS) Navigation System Overview ILS is a ground-based radio navigation system offering precise information to pilots regarding their aircraft’s position and alignment with the runway. Components Comprises two main components: the localizer and the glide slope. The localizer ensures lateral alignment, guiding the aircraft along the correct azimuth toward the runway centerline. Simultaneously, the glide slope provides vertical guidance, assisting pilots in maintaining the proper descent angle for a safe landing. Dual-Axis Guidance Guides pilots along both horizontal and vertical axes, facilitating a correct approach path, especially in low-visibility conditions. Positional Awareness Allows pilots to understand their aircraft’s position relative to the airport runway, even in scenarios of limited visibility. Warning System Warns pilots if their aircraft deviates from the runway centerline. Provides alerts for being too low or too high, minimizing the risk of undershooting or overshooting the runway. Critical Landing Aid Crucial for ensuring safe landings when visual confirmation of the runway is challenging. Statement 2 is Correct Integration with Avionics Modern aircraft feature advanced avionics and autopilot systems, often coupled with radar altimeters. Enhances precision during foggy landings and maintains stable descent along the designated glide path. International Standard ILS is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) precision landing aid. Used to provide accurate azimuth and descent guidance signals for safe landings under adverse weather conditions. |
Q 14. Consider the following statements regarding Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023
- It is conducted by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs since 2016 and is considered as the world’s largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey
- Indore retains the cleanest city title for the 7th consecutive year.
- Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Nagaland, and Tripura rank as the bottom five states in cleanliness.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
| Why this question- The Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023 were presented by the President of India at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, in an event hosted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct Major Highlights of Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023 About Swachh Survekshan Conducted by MoHUA since 2016, the world’s largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey. Fosters healthy competition among cities, promoting cleaner urban spaces. The 2023 round covered 4,416 urban local bodies, 61 cantonments, and 88 Ganga towns. Statement 2 is Correct City Rankings Indore retains the cleanest city title for the 7th consecutive year. Surat claims the top spot for the first time, sharing the honor with Indore. Both cities achieve 100% door-to-door waste collection, 98% source segregation, and 100% dumpsite remediation. Navi Mumbai secures the third cleanest city position. Statement 3 is Correct Evaluation Parameters Swachh Survekshan 2023 rankings based on factors like door-to-door waste collection, source segregation, public area cleanliness, water body cleanliness, and citizen feedback on city cleanliness. Cleanest State Award Maharashtra claims the cleanest state award with 89.24% door-to-door waste collection and 67.76% source segregation. Madhya Pradesh secures the second position in state cleanliness rankings. Bottom Five States Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Nagaland, and Tripura rank as the bottom five states in cleanliness. Other Specialized Awards Chandigarh receives Safaimitra Surakshit Shehar award for the city with the best safety standards for sanitation workers. Varanasi recognized as the cleanest Ganga town. Sasvad in Maharashtra earns the cleanest city title among those with a population below 1 lakh. Mhow Cantonment declared the cleanest cantonment in the country. |
Q 15. With reference to Exercise Ayutthaya consider the following statements
- Exercise Ayutthaya is a bilateral exercise of Indian Navy with Vietnamese Navy
- Aligns with the Government of India’s vision of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region).
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– Recently, the inaugural Bilateral Maritime Exercise, named ‘Ayutthaya,’ took place between the Indian Navy (IN) and the Royal Thai Navy (RTN). |
| Source: PIB |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About Exercise Ayutthaya Naming and Significance The bilateral exercise is named ‘Ex-Ayutthaya,’ translating to ‘The Invincible One’ or ‘Undefeatable.’ Symbolizes the historical legacies and rich cultural ties between Ayodhya in India and Ayutthaya in Thailand. Participating Naval Ships Indigenously built Indian Naval ships Kulish and IN LCU 56 took part in the inaugural edition. Statement 2 is Correct Strengthening Operational Synergy The exercise marks a significant step in strengthening operational synergy between the Indian Navy and Royal Thai Navy. Focuses on progressively increasing exercise complexity. Activities during the Exercise Participating units conducted surface and anti-air exercises, including weapon firing, seamanship evolutions, and tactical maneuvers. The Sea Phase of the exercise included Maritime Patrol Aircraft from both navies. Coordinated Patrol The 36th edition of India-Thailand Coordinated Patrol (Indo-Thai CORPAT) was conducted concurrently with the maiden bilateral exercise. Regional Maritime Security Aligns with the Government of India’s vision of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region). Highlights the Indian Navy’s proactive engagement with countries in the Indian Ocean Region for enhancing regional maritime security. Close Relationship The Indian Navy and Royal Thai Navy maintain a close and friendly relationship that has strengthened over the years. |
Q 16. Consider the following statements regarding Defection
- The 99th Amendment Act in 2003 eliminated the exception provision related to defection in case of a split
- Questions regarding disqualification due to defection are decided by the presiding officer of the respective legislative house.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: D
| Why this question- The Speaker of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly has declined to disqualify 40 MLAs belonging to the Eknath Shinde faction, having officially acknowledged it as the authentic Shiv Sena |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement I is Incorrect Defection In the legislative context, a defector is an individual who relinquishes allegiance to one political party in favor of another, engaging in a perceived illegitimate change of sides. Defection in India During the 1960s and 70s, defections of legislators led to political instability in several Indian states, resulting in the downfall of elected governments. The 52nd constitutional amendment in 1985 introduced the ‘anti-defection’ law through the Tenth Schedule to ensure the stability of elected governments. Anti-Defection Law The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 introduced Schedule 10, commonly known as the ‘anti-defection law,’ providing for the disqualification of members of Parliament and state legislatures for defection. The 91st Amendment Act in 2003 eliminated the exception provision related to defection in case of a split. Statement II is Correct Salient Features The Tenth Schedule outlines provisions for the disqualification of members based on defection, encompassing actions such as voluntarily giving up party membership, voting against party directives, and joining a political party post-election. Exceptions include defection resulting from a party merger or a member leaving a party after being elected as the presiding officer. Deciding Authority Questions regarding disqualification due to defection are decided by the presiding officer of the respective legislative house. In the Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court clarified that the presiding officer functions as a tribunal, subject to judicial review for factors like mala fides and perversity. Benefits of Anti-Defection Law Promotes stability in the political landscape by curbing the tendency of legislators to switch parties. Facilitates democratic realignment through party mergers. Reduces corruption and non-developmental expenses associated with irregular elections. Constitutionally recognizes the existence of political parties. Criticism Lacks differentiation between dissent and defection, limiting legislators’ right to dissent. Fails to provide for the expulsion of a legislator from their party for activities outside the legislature. Inconsistency in treating independent and nominated members joining a party. Committee Views Dinesh Goswami Committee suggests limitations on disqualification and vests the power of decision in the President/Governor on the advice of the Election Commission. Law Commission recommends deleting exceptions related to split and mergers, treating pre-poll electoral fronts as political parties. Judicial Pronouncements In the Kihoto Hollohan case, the Supreme Court upheld the validity of the law but found the provision on judicial review unconstitutional. In Shri Rajesh Verma v. Shri Mohammad Shahid Akhlaque, public opposition to the original party was deemed a resignation. In Mannadi Satyanarayan Reddy v. Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly, the court affirmed the Speaker’s jurisdiction to decide questions related to defection. |
Q 17. Consider the following statements regarding objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’
- To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers
- To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women
- To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- Anganwadi workers in Andhra Pradesh are on strike, demanding improved wages and benefits. In response, the State government has invoked the Essential Services and Maintenance Act (ESMA), 1971, against the protesting workers and helpers. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct This objective aims to address the nutritional needs of pregnant women and lactating mothers. Creating awareness is a crucial step in ensuring that these women receive proper nutrition during their critical phases, contributing to their well-being and the health of their children. Statement 2 is Correct The focus on reducing anaemia underscores the importance of combating nutritional deficiencies, particularly iron-deficiency anemia. This objective targets specific vulnerable groups, including young children, adolescent girls, and women, to enhance their overall health and well-being by addressing and preventing anaemia through appropriate nutritional interventions. Statement 3 is Incorrect The National Nutrition Mission, also known as POSHAN Abhiyaan, primarily focuses on reducing malnutrition and promoting nutritional awareness, especially among vulnerable groups like pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children. The mission does not specifically highlight the promotion of certain food items like millets, coarse cereals, and unpolished rice. |
Q 18. Consider the following statements regarding Kolam Tribes
- The Kolam tribes, alternatively known as Kolamboli, Kulme, and Kolmi, inhabit a significant part of Kerala
- The Kolam tribal community uses the Devanagari script for written communication
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– Under the Jan Jati Adivasi Nyay Maha Abhiyan, the Central government plans to provide essential amenities to the vulnerable Kolam tribe, emphasizing health and education. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect Kolam Tribes Overview The Kolam tribes, alternatively known as Kolamboli, Kulme, and Kolmi, inhabit a significant part of Madhya Pradesh. Their primary settlements are found in both plains and mountainous regions. Geographical Distribution These tribal communities are recognized as scheduled tribes and extend beyond Madhya Pradesh, also residing in certain areas of Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh. In Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh, they are classified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG). Historical Background Dating back to the twelfth century, Kolam individuals served as priests for the Gond, representing essential deities. Generally believed to be descendants of the original population in the region, their lifestyle has been influenced by the proximity to the Gond community. Statement 2 is Correct Social Structure The Kolam people are organized into distinct clans, such as Chal Deve, Pach Deve, Saha Deve, and Sat Deve. Intra-clan marriages are prohibited, and surnames are derived from the names of their respective clans. Their societal structure is patrilineal, emphasizing descent through the male line. Occupation Primarily engaged in agriculture and forestry, the Kolam people historically practiced shifting cultivation on hill slopes. However, contemporary life sees them settled as farmers employing plow cultivation. Language and Communication The Kolam community communicates in the Dravidian language called Kolami. Proficiency in additional languages, including Marathi, Telugu, or Gondi, is common among adults. Written Script The Kolam tribal community uses the Devanagari script for written communication |
Q 19. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana objectives
- Bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system
- Providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops
- Providing pensions to old and destitute persons
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: A
| Why this question- The Assam government has recently launched the Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyaan (MMUA), a financial assistance scheme with the goal of empowering women entrepreneurs in rural areas. |
| Source: HT |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct One of the primary objectives of the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is to bring small entrepreneurs, particularly those in the unorganized and informal sectors, into the formal financial system. By providing them with access to formal credit, the scheme aims to empower these entrepreneurs, enhance their financial inclusion, and enable them to avail banking services for their business needs. Statement 2 is Incorrect Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is primarily focused on providing financial support to micro-enterprises and small businesses, not for specific agricultural activities or crop cultivation. Agricultural loans for crop cultivation fall under the purview of other agricultural financing schemes. Statement 3 is Incorrect Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana does not involve providing pensions to old or destitute individuals. It is specifically designed to address the credit needs of small businesses and entrepreneurs by facilitating loans through various lending institutions. Pensions for the elderly or destitute individuals typically fall under social welfare or pension schemes, which are distinct from MUDRA Yojana. |
Q 20. With reference to Guru Gobind Singh consider the following statements
- Guru Gobind Singh was the 10th and final human Guru of the Sikhs.
- His notable contributions to Sikhism include the founding of the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question– January 17 this year marks the celebration of Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, also known as the Prakash Parv of the tenth Sikh Guru |
| Source: LM |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct About Guru Gobind Singh Guru Gobind Singh was the 10th and final human Guru of the Sikhs. Born as Gobind Rai on December 22, 1666, in Patna, Bihar, he was the son of Guru Teg Bahadur, the ninth Guru of Sikhism. He assumed the role of spiritual and temporal leader of the Sikhs on November 11, 1675, at the age of nine, following the martyrdom of his father at the hands of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. Renowned as a warrior, poet, and prophet, Guru Gobind Singh is remembered as a defender of the faith and a champion of equality and justice. Statement 2 is Correct His notable contributions to Sikhism include the founding of the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699. He introduced the Five Ks, the articles of faith that Khalsa Sikhs wear at all times: Kesh (uncut hair), Kangha (a wooden comb), Kara (an iron or steel bracelet), Kirpan (a sword), and Kacchera (short breeches). Engaged in 21 battles against the Mughal Empire and their allies, including the Battle of Bhangani, Battle of Nadaun, Battle of Anandpur, Battle of Chamkaur, Battle of Muktsar, and Battle of Khidrana. Authored literary works in various languages, including Jaap Sahib, Tav-Prasad Savaiye, and Benti Chaupai. Codified Sikh law, wrote martial poetry and music, and reputedly authored the Dasam Granth (“Tenth Volume”). Proclaimed that he was the last of the personal Gurus, with the Guru Granth Sahib (Sikh Holy Book) becoming the Sikh Guru. Assassinated in 1708 at the age of 41. His birth anniversary is celebrated as Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, and his death anniversary is commemorated as Guru Gaddi Diwas. |
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