Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge on the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
Q 1. Consider the following Indicators:
- Undernourishment
- Child stunting
- Child mortality
How many indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
India’s rank in the 2023 Global Hunger Index is a cause for concern as it ranked 111th out of 125 countries, reflecting a significant level of hunger. Notably, India lagged behind neighboring countries like Pakistan (102nd), Bangladesh (81st), Nepal (69th), and Sri Lanka (60th) in terms of hunger-related indicators.
Highlight of Global Hunger Index 2023:
- India’s GHI score 2023 stands at 28.7, categorized as ”serious” on the GHI Severity of Hunger Scale. This shows a slight improvement from its GHI 2015 score of 29.2, which was also deemed serious.
Related Data and References:
- Child stunting is prevalent at 35.5% ( India’s National Family Health Survey(NFHS) 2019-2021)
- The prevalence of undernourishment in India is 16.6% ( State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World report 2023 )
- India’s child wasting rate is a concerning 18.7% (India’s NFHS 2019-21), the highest among all countries in the report.
- The under-five mortality rate stands at 3.1% (United Nations Inter-Agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation January 2023 )
Q 2. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
- Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- Ministry of Panchayati Raj
- Ministry of Rural Development
- Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct: At the national level, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
Q 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions only for civilian in all environments.
Statement-II: Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)
Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
Recently, Russia said that it might revoke its ratification to the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).
About:
- The CTBT is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments.
- The roots of the CTBT can be traced back to the Cold War era when the United States and the Soviet Union were engaged in a nuclear arms race, conducting numerous nuclear tests.
- The treaty was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996.
- For the treaty to enter into force, it must be signed and ratified by 44 specific nuclear technology holder countries.
- But the eight of these 44 countries have not ratified the agreement yet. These eight countries are: China, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, North Korea, Pakistan and the United States.
- The CTBT itself includes a Protocol in 3 parts.
- Part I detailing the International Monitoring System (IMS)
- Part II on On-Site Inspections (OSI)
- Part III on Confidence-Building Measures (CBMs)
Preparatory Commission for the Comprehensive Nuclear Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):
- It is an international organization established by the States Signatories to the Treaty on 19 November 1996 and has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria.
- The objective of the organization is to achieve the object and purpose of the Treaty, to ensure the implementation of its provisions, including those for international verification of compliance with the Treaty and to provide a forum for consultation and cooperation among Member States.
Source: Indian Express
Q 4. Consider the following statements
Statement-I: Bats exhibit positive phenomena of Phonotaxis in response to the existing environmental and anatomical conditions.
Statement-II: Positive phenomena happens when the females of a particular are attracted to the sounds made by the males.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)
Phonotaxis Phenomenon
In News:
Recently, it has been discovered that certain creatures like Insects, Bats exhibit positive and negative phenomena of Phonotaxis in response to the existing environmental and anatomical conditions.
About:
- Scientists call phonotaxis as the movement by an animal in response to a sound.
- It has mostly been observed among crickets, moths, frogs, and toads, among a few other creatures.
- Types: There are two types of phonotaxis
Positive phonotaxis:
- The purpose of positive phonotaxis is attraction.
- It usually happens when the females of a particular species – including those of crickets and frogs – are attracted to the sounds made by the males.
Negative phonotaxis:
- It serves to repel or warn, such as when the sound of a predator nearby signals to an animal that it needs to move away.
- Crickets in particular have been found to steer themselves away from low-intensity ultrasound typically associated with bats (which use it for echolocation).
Source: The Hindu
Q 5. Consider the following statements:
- Passport to Earning Initiative is an e-learning solution launched by ministry of education.
- Passport to Earning Initiative aims to empower youth and connect them to job and self-employment opportunities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Passport to Earning (P2E) Initiative
UNICEF’s Passport to Earning (P2E) Initiative has achieved a significant milestone by certifying over one million young people in India in the areas of financial literacy and digital productivity.
About:
- P2E is an e-learning solution, launched in 2022, by UNICEF India, YuWaah and partners.
- This initiative aligns with the National Education Policy and provides free access to certificate courses in digital productivity, financial literacy, employability skills, and other in-demand, job-ready skills.
- It aims to empower 5 million youth between the ages of 14-29 with skills (by 2024) and connect them to job and self-employment opportunities to achieve financial independence.
- Notably, 62% of the beneficiaries of P2E courses in India are adolescent girls and young women.
- It was celebrated during an event on the UN International Day of the Girl Child (11th October)
- Mode of Learning: It provides learning options in online, hybrid, and offline models.
Source: PIB Gov.
Q 6. Consider the following statements
Statement-I: Habitat rights for PVTGs are granted under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
Statement-II: Legal provision is the basis for recognizing and securing the rights of PVTGs over their customary territories.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)
Legality of Habitat Right
- Habitat rights for PVTGs are granted under Section 3(1)(e) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
- This legal provision is the basis for recognizing and securing the rights of PVTGs over their customary territories, which encompass their habitation, economic and livelihood means, as well as their knowledge of biodiversity.
- It’s a legal framework that seeks to protect and empower these vulnerable tribal communities in India.
Q 7. Consider the following statements:
- Waste Electrical and Electronic Equipment (WEEE) Forum is the largest global centre of expertise in the world for “waste electrical and electronic equipment”.
- It was established in 2017 and is a non-profit association.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Waste Electrical and Electronic Equipment (WEEE) Forum:
- It is the largest global centre of expertise in the world for “waste electrical and electronic equipment” operational know-how.
- It was established in April 2002 and is a non-profit association of 46 WEEE producer responsibility associations from throughout the world.
Provisions regarding E-waste in India:
- The E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016 cover over 21 goods (Schedule-I).
- With the primary goal of digitising the e-waste management process and improving visibility, the Government of India published the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022.
- Additionally, it prohibits the use of toxic materials (including lead, mercury, and cadmium) that are harmful to both human health and the environment when making electrical and electronic equipment.
- An additional economic tool known as the Deposit Refund Scheme has been introduced. Under this scheme, the producer charges a deposit in addition to the price of the electrical and electronic equipment at the time of sale and returns it to the customer, along with interest, when the end-of-life electrical and electronic equipment is returned.
Q 8. World Economic Outlook is released by which of the following organisation?
- International Monetary Fund
- World Economic Forum
- World Bank
- International Energy Agency
Answer: (a)
World Economic Outlook: IMF
Recently, IMF in its report raised India’s FY24 GDP growth forecast to 6.3% from 6.1%.
About
The IMF World Economic Outlook 2023 expects global Gross Domestic Product growth to be 3% in 2023, which is the same as its July 2023 forecast. Global GDP growth for 2024, however, has seen a reduction of 10 basis points from the July forecast to 2.9%.
Findings related to India
- India’s GDP growth forecast for 2023-24 is set at 6.3%, which reflects a 20-basis point increase from the figures reported in July 2023.
- The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank (WB) now share the same growth forecast for India in 2023-24. This aligns with what the World Bank had previously projected in its India Development Update.
- India’s GDP growth forecast for 2024-25 remains unchanged at 6.3%.
- The upward revision of India’s GDP growth for 2023-24 by the IMF is attributed to a robust 7.8% growth rate recorded in the quarter ending June 2023.
- It’s worth noting that the annual growth forecast of 6.3% by the IMF is still lower than the 6.5% projection made by the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).
Q 9. Consider the following statements:
- The Central Road and Infrastructure Fund was established in 2000 under the central road fund (CRIF) act 2000.
- CRIF fund comprises a cess imposed along with excise duty on petrol and Diesel.
- Administration control of CRIF falls under the Ministry of Finance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
Source: PIB Gov.
Q 10. India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to:
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct: India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Act to comply with the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.
Q 11. Consider the following statements
Statement-I: Consanguinity is both a social and genetic concept that refers to a reproductive relationship between two closely related individuals.
Statement-II: The offspring of consanguineous couples are at increased risk for autosomal recessive disorders due to their increased risk for homozygosity by descent.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)
Consanguinity
Recently, newly conducted research has investigated the impact of intermarriage within families on genetic factors and health outcomes. New research sheds light on how this common practice influences susceptibility to diseases and the emergence of human characteristics across diverse populations worldwide.
About
- Consanguinity is both a social and genetic concept, it refers to a reproductive relationship between two closely related individuals. The degree of relatedness between two individuals defines the proportion of genes shared between them.
- The offspring of consanguineous couples are at increased risk for autosomal recessive disorders due to their increased risk for homozygosity by descent.
- Consanguinity can complicate pedigree analysis when a provider is unaware of the presence of consanguinity at the time they are evaluating the pedigree, and what appears to be an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern is associated with an autosomal recessive disease phenotype.
Q 12. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab countries over the years. The first Arab country to officially recognize and establish diplomatic relations with Israel was Egypt. The historic peace treaty between Israel and Egypt was signed in 1979 at Camp David, leading to diplomatic relations and normalization of ties between the two nations.
Another Arab country that has established diplomatic relations with Israel is Jordan. In 2020, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Bahrain signed agreements with Israel to establish full diplomatic relations, known as the Abraham Accords.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Arab Peace Initiative was not signed by Israel. The Arab Peace Initiative, also known as the “Saudi Initiative,” was proposed by Saudi Arabia in 2002 at the Arab League Summit in Beirut. It was endorsed by the Arab League as a potential resolution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
The initiative called for the recognition of Israel by the Arab states and the establishment of normal diplomatic relations in exchange for Israel’s complete withdrawal from the territories occupied during the 1967 Six-Day War, the creation of a Palestinian state with East Jerusalem as its capital, and a “just solution” for Palestinian refugees based on UN General Assembly Resolution 194. While Israel has not officially signed the Arab Peace Initiative, it has been the subject of discussions and negotiations between Israel and the Arab states.
Q 13. The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Answer: (b)
- The two-state solution refers to an arrangement where Israeli and Palestinian states co-exist in the region.
- However, such a solution has not materialised over the decades.
- As outlined in the beginning and in the briefly explained roots of the conflict, the two-state solution means two separate states for Israelis and Palestinians.
Q 14. Consider the following statements
Statement-I: CAR T-cell treatments utilise the patient’s own cells, as opposed to chemotherapy and immunotherapy, which both entail taking medications.
Statement-II: Leukaemia’s and lymphomas have been approved for CAR T-cell treatment.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b)
T Cells:
- White blood cells called T lymphocytes, sometimes referred to as T cells, are a key component of the immune response.
- As part of cell-mediated immunity, T cells assist the body in identifying and reacting to foreign substances such as viruses, bacteria, and aberrant cells such as cancer cells.
- The helper T cell and the cytotoxic T cell are the two main subtypes of T cells.
CAR T-cell Therapy:
- CAR T-cell treatments utilise the patient’s own cells, as opposed to chemotherapy and immunotherapy, which both entail taking medications. They are modified in the lab to stimulate T-cells and specifically target tumour cells.
- Leukaemias (cancers developing from cells that make white blood cells) and lymphomas (cancers arising from the lymphatic system) have been approved for CAR T-cell treatment.
- Greater clinical efficacy is achieved with CAR T-cell treatments because they are even more focused than targeted drugs and directly activate the patient’s immune system to combat cancer.
- T cells from a patient’s blood are collected, and in a lab, the gene for a unique receptor that attaches to a certain protein on the patient’s cancer cells is added. Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) is the name of the unique receptor.
- The CAR T cells are grown in a lab and given to the patient by infusion in large quantities.
Q 15. Consider the following statements:
- International Energy Agency is an independent intergovernmental organisation that was founded in Paris, France, in 1974.
- India Energy Outlook Report is released by International Energy Agency
- India joined the International Energy Agency in 2007.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
International Energy Agency:
It is an independent intergovernmental organisation that was founded in Paris, France, in 1974.
It primarily focuses on its energy policy, which include environmental preservation, economic growth, and energy security.
Major Reports: World Energy Outlook Report, World, Energy Investment Report, and India Energy Outlook Report.
India joined the IEA in 2017.
Q 16. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
- Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
- Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the sea floor.
- Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
- Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. It is an “ice” that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits where temperature and pressure conditions are favourable for its formation.
- Regions with suitable temperature and pressure conditions for the formation and stability of methane hydrate– sediment and sedimentary rock units below the Arctic permafrost; sedimentary deposits along continental margins; deep-water sediments of inland lakes and seas; and, under Antarctic ice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Methane hydrates, the sensitive sediments, can rapidly dissociate with an increase in temperature or a decrease in pressure. The dissociation produces free methane and water, which can be triggered by global warming. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Methane is removed from the atmosphere in about 9 to 12-year period by oxidation reaction where it is converted into Carbon Dioxide. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Source: Down To Earth
Q 17. Consider the following statements:
- A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
- A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
- A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
- A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c)
- A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
- A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
- A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India. (Statement 3 is not correct)
- A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Source: The Hindu
Q 18. Consider the following statements:
- Arabian leopard is a critically endangered species native to the Arabian Peninsula.
- These leopards were historically found in various parts of the Arabian Peninsula, including the Negev and Judaean deserts
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Arabian Leopards
In News:
Arabian leopard is critically endangered, with the leopard having lost 98% of its historical range in its northern range, including the Negev and Judaean deserts.
About
- Arabian leopard is a critically endangered species native to the Arabian Peninsula. These leopards were historically found in various parts of the Arabian Peninsula, including the Negev and Judaean deserts.
- recent study published in 2023 reported that the Arabian leopard has lost most of its historical range, and its populations have become highly isolated and fragmented.
- In the Negev and Judaean deserts, this species is considered extinct in its entire northern range.
Q 19. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Rail India Technical and Economic Service Limited (RITES) is a leading transport infrastructure consultancy and engineering firm in India
Statement-II: Rail India Technical and Economic Service Limited (RITES) was incorporated by the Central Government (Ministry of Railways) under the Companies Act, 1956 in 1976.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c)
About RITES and IRCON
- Rail India Technical and Economic Service Limited (RITES) is a leading transport infrastructure consultancy and engineering firm in India. It provides services in the diverse sectors of transportation.
- Indian Railway Construction International Limited (IRCON) was incorporated by the Central Government (Ministry of Railways) under the Companies Act, 1956 in 1976. It serves as a premier public-sector construction company.
Source: PIB Gov.
Q 20. Consider the following statements:
- Estivation is a biological occurrence wherein certain animals enter an extended state of dormancy or inactivity as a response to hot and arid environmental conditions.
- Estivation serves as an essential survival tactic aimed at preserving both energy and water resources.
- Animals undergoing estivation typically find refuge in underground burrows and crevices.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
Estivation/ Aestivation
About
- Estivation is a biological occurrence wherein certain animals enter an extended state of dormancy or inactivity as a response to hot and arid environmental conditions.
- This serves as an essential survival tactic aimed at preserving both energy and water resources.
- Animals undergoing estivation typically find refuge in underground burrows, crevices, or protective cocoons, which allows them to minimize their metabolic processes and energy expenditure.
- This behavioral adaptation is crucial for preventing desiccation and reducing the vulnerability to predation. Some examples of animals that employ estivation as a strategy include the West African lungfish, desert tortoises, and specific land snail species.
Source: The Hindu
FAQs on Weekly Current Affairs
Q: What are weekly current affairs, and why are they important?
A: Weekly current affairs refer to the most significant events and developments in the world during the past week. They are important because they help individuals stay informed about what’s happening globally, enabling them to make informed decisions and engage in discussions on relevant topics.
Q: How can I stay updated with weekly current affairs?
A: You can stay updated with weekly current affairs by reading newspapers, watching news broadcasts, following credible news websites, or subscribing to news apps and newsletters. Weekly news summaries and quizzes can also help you stay informed.
Q: What types of topics are typically covered in weekly current affairs?
A: Weekly current affairs cover a wide range of topics, including politics, economics, science, technology, sports, culture, and more. They may include international and national news, as well as regional and local stories that have garnered significant attention.
Q: Are there any recommended sources for reliable weekly current affairs updates?
A: Reliable sources for weekly current affairs include established news organizations like BBC, CNN, The New York Times, and The Guardian, as well as trusted magazines and websites dedicated to current affairs analysis, such as The Economist and Foreign Affairs.
Q: How can I use weekly current affairs to enhance my knowledge and engage in meaningful discussions?
A: To make the most of weekly current affairs, consider participating in discussions, forums, or social media platforms that focus on these topics. Additionally, you can use the knowledge gained from weekly current affairs to engage in debates, contribute to informed decision-making, and expand your overall awareness of global issues.
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