UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz – 30th December 2023

Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!

Q 1. Widespread resistance of malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine?  

(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium 
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection 
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria 
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host 

Answer: (b) 

The cells in our body create mRNAs that serve as instructions to make specific proteins we need to function. Researchers can create new mRNAs to correct those instructions when they aren’t working. 

• Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by Plasmodium parasites that are transmitted to people through infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. 
• The malarial parasite has an extraordinary ability to evade the immune system, which explains the difficulty in developing an effective malaria vaccine. 
• RTS, S/AS01 (RTS, S) is the first and, to date, the only vaccine to show partial protection against malaria in young children. 
• Hence, option (b) is correct. 

Q 2. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: 

1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. 
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (c) 

The cells in our body create mRNAs that serve as instructions to make specific proteins we need to function. Researchers can create new mRNAs to correct those instructions when they aren’t working. 

• Recombinant vector vaccines are made through genetic engineering. The gene that creates the protein for a bacteria or virus is isolated and placed inside another cell’s genes. When that cell reproduces, it produces vaccine proteins which means the immune system will recognize the protein and protect the body against it. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Live recombinant bacteria or viral vectors effectively stimulate the immune system as in natural infections and have intrinsic adjuvant properties. They are used as the channel for the entry into the host organism. 
• Several bacteria have been used as vectors, such as Mycobacterium bovis BCG, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella spp., and Shigella spp. 
• Numerous viral vectors are available for vaccine development, such as vaccinia, modified vaccinia virus Ankara, adenovirus, adeno-associated virus, retrovirus/lentivirus, alphavirus, herpes virus, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Q 3. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to: 

(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons 

(b) Increase the speed of neutrons 

(c) Cool down the reactor 

b Stop the nuclear reaction 

Answer: (a) 

Recently, the fourth unit of Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS), Gujarat has achieved its first Criticality — the beginning of the regulated fission reaction — paving the way for its eventual transition to generating power for commercial use. 

The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to Slow down the speed of neutrons. Heavy water is used in certain types of nuclear reactors, where it acts as a neutron moderator to slow down neutrons so that they are more likely to react with the fissile uranium-235 than with uranium-238, which captures neutrons without fissioning. 

Q 4. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? 

1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units 
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs 
3. Disease diagnosis 
4. Text-to-Speech Conversion 
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy 

How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. Only two 
2. Only three 
3. Only four 
4. All five 

Answer: (d) 

India is gearing up for a significant Artificial Intelligence (AI) push with the recent announcement of the AI Mission by the Prime Minister  at the Global Partnership for AI Summit. 

• Artificial Intelligence (AI) refers to the simulation of human intelligence in machines that are programmed to think like humans and mimic their actions. 
• Artificial Intelligence has various applications in today’s society. in multiple industries, such as Healthcare, entertainment, finance, education, etc. 
• AI has been used in disease diagnosis, creating songs like ‘I am AI’ and ‘Daddy’s Car’ and creating short stories and fiction. AI has been used in Text-to-speech conversion, e.g. Cerewave AI. 
• Artificial Intelligence has also found use in the power industry, e.g. Machine -learning-assisted power transfer (based on AI) using magnetic resonance and AI used for energy efficiency.  

Q 5. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for the intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?  

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares a national emergency/financial emergency 

2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programs by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. 

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 

4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. 

How many statements given above is/are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. Only three 
4. All four 

Answer: (b) 

In the calendar year 2023, only 18 audit reports on the Union government’s accounts, prepared by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), were tabled in Parliament. A year-wise analysis shows that the number of audits on the Union Government tabled in Parliament has been decreasing. 

Comptroller and Auditor General of India During the Financial Proclamation is in operation, the executive authority of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions, and to the giving of such other directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose. Hence statement 1 is not correct.  

While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG does not have certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. CAG is only an advisory body and has some quasi-judicial powers. Hence statement 4 is not correct.  

The Public Account Committee carries out the examination of the Appropriation Accounts relating to the Railways, Defence Services, P&T Department and other Civil Ministries of the Government of India and Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India thereon as also the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General on Revenue Receipts mainly form the basis of the deliberation of the Committee. The Comptroller and Auditor General is the “friend, philosopher and guide” of the Committee. Hence statement 2 is correct.  

Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. Hence statement 3 is correct. 

Q 6. Consider the following statements with reference to India 

1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between `15 crore and `25 crore. 
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (d) 

The Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) has launched three sub-schemes under the RAMP program, aimed at bolstering the MSME sector in India. 

After 14 years since the MSME Development Act came into existence in 2006, a revision in the MSME definition was announced in the Atmnirbhar Bharat package on 13th May 2020. As per this announcement, the definition of Micromanufacturing and services units was increased to Rs. 1 Crore of investment and Rs. 5 Crore of turnover. The limit of small units was increased to Rs. 10 Crore of investment and Rs 50 Crore of turnover. Similarly, the limit of medium units was increased to Rs. 20 Crore of investment and Rs. 100 Crore of turnover. The Government of India on 01.06.2020 decided for further upward revision of the MSME Definition. For medium Enterprises, now it will be Rs. 50 Crore of investment and Rs. 250 Crore of turnover. So, statement 1 is not correct. 

MSME Priority Sectors 

All bank loans to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises do not qualify under the priority sector. Bank loans to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, for both manufacturing and service sectors are eligible to be classified under the priority sector as per the following norms: 

• Manufacturing Enterprises - The Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises engaged in the manufacture or production of goods to any industry specified in the first schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 and as notified by the Government from time to time. Manufacturing Enterprises are defined in terms of investment in plant and machinery. 
• Service Enterprises - Bank loans up to Rs 5 crore per unit to Micro and Small Enterprises and Rs 10 crore to Medium Enterprises engaged in providing or rendering services and defined in terms of investment in equipment under MSMED Act, 2006. So, statement 2 is not correct.  

Q 7. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule 
2. Appointing the Ministers 
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government 

How many statements given above is/are correct? 

1. Only one 

2. Only two 

3. Only three 

4. All four 

Answer: (b) 

Recently, the Madras High Court convicted the Tamil Nadu Minister in a disproportionate asset case. The High Court’s decision comes 12 years after the First Information Report (FIR) was first registered in the case in 2011. The minister now faces possible disqualification as a Member of the Legislative Assembly(MLA) due to his conviction, unless the conviction is overturned. 

The governor can use the following discretionary powers: 

• If no party gets an absolute majority, the governor can use his discretion in the selection of the chief minister. 
• During an emergency, he can override the advice of the council of ministers. At such times, he acts as an agent of the president and becomes the real ruler of the state. 
• He uses his discretion in submitting a report to the president regarding the affairs of the state. 
• He can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the president for approval. 

The governor is empowered under Article 192 to disqualify a member of a House of the State Legislature when the election commission recommends that the legislator is no longer complying with provisions of Article 191. This is not his discretion. 

Q 8. With reference to the ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?  

1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 
3. It is coordinated by the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). 

How many statements given above is/are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. Only three 
4. All four 

Answer: (b) 

India secured 7th position in the recently released Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2024 underscoring its notable role and contribution to the ongoing global efforts aimed at mitigating climate change. 

The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular least developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing States (SIDS). (Hence statement 1 is correct)  

The GCCA also provides technical and financial support to partner countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets, and to implement projects that address climate change on the ground, promoting climate-resilient, low-emission development. (Hence statement 2 is correct)  

By fostering effective dialogue and cooperation on climate change, the Alliance helps to ensure that poor developing countries most vulnerable to climate change increase their capacities to adapt to the effects of climate change, in support of the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs). There is no mention of WRI and WBCSD on the official partner’s page of GCCA, even though a lot of other institutions are mentioned like FAO, UNDP, etc. (Hence statement 3 is not correct) 

Q 9. Consider the following statements: 

1. The coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. 
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on a lottery basis. 
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production. 

How many statements given above is/are correct? 

1. Only one 
2. Only two 
3. Only three 
4. All four 

Answer: (a) 

The International Energy Agency’s (IEA) annual coal market report predicts a significant shift in the trajectory of global coal demand, hinting at a structural decline by 2026. 

The coal sector was nationalized under the Indira Gandhi Government in 1972 in two phases. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.  

The coal Blocks are allocated through auctions and not on a lottery basis. Hence Statement 2 is Not Correct.  

The coal sector is the monopolistic sector in India. India holds 5th biggest coal reserves in the world but due to the incapacity of coal production by monopolistic firms, it imports coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply. But, still, the country is not self-sufficient in coal production. Hence Statement 3 is Not Correct. 

Q 10. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?  

1. High ash content 
2. Low sulphur content 
3. Low ash fusion temperature 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (a) 

The International Energy Agency’s (IEA) annual coal market report predicts a significant shift in the trajectory of global coal demand, hinting at a structural decline by 2026. 

Indian coals by their very nature are high in ash content but low in sulphur content. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.  

Indian coal has a high ash fusion temperature of about 1,500°C. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. 

Q 11. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing:”? 

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound 

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country 

(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development 

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/program 

Answer: (a) 

The United Kingdom’s Advertising Standards Authority (ASA) has banned advertisements from Air France, Lufthansa, and Etihad. These airlines face accusations of ’greenwashing,’ as they allegedly misled consumers by falsely claiming the sustainability of their flights and downplaying the environmental impact of air travel. 

Greenwashing 

• The term greenwashing was first used in 1986 by Jay Westerveld, an American environmentalist and researcher. 
• Greenwashing is a deceptive practice where companies or even governments exaggerate their actions and their impact on mitigating climate change, often providing misleading information or making unverifiable claims. 
• It is an attempt to capitalize on the growing demand for environmentally sound products. 
• It is fairly widespread, and entities often label various activities as climate-friendly without verifiable evidence, undermining genuine efforts against climate change. 
• Examples of Greenwashing: 
  • The Volkswagen scandal, in which the German car company was found to have been cheating in emissions testing of its supposedly green diesel vehicles, was a case of greenwashing. 
  • Several other multinational corporations, including oil giants like Shell and BP, and Coca Cola have faced accusations of greenwashing. 

Q 12. Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?  

(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol 

(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota 

(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission 

(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme. 

Answer: (d) 

Carbon Credits:  

• A carbon credit is a tradable permit or certificate that provides the holder of the credit the right to emit one ton of carbon dioxide or an equivalent of another greenhouse gas – it’s essentially an offset for producers of such gases.  
• The main goal for the creation of carbon credits is the reduction of emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases from industrial activities to reduce the effects of global warming. Carbon credits are market mechanisms for the minimization of greenhouse gas emissions.  
• Governments or regulatory authorities set the caps on greenhouse gas emissions. For some companies, the immediate reduction of emissions is not economically viable. Therefore, they can purchase carbon credits to comply with the emission cap.  
• Companies that achieve carbon offsets (reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases) are usually rewarded with additional carbon credits. The sale of credit surpluses may be used to subsidize future projects for the reduction of emissions.  
• The introduction of such credits was ratified in the Kyoto Protocol. The Paris Agreement validates the application of carbon credits and sets the provisions for the further facilitation of the carbon credit markets. 

Q 13. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? 

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature 
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme 
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development 
(d) The World-Wide Fund for Nature 

Answer: (a) 

Recently, the ongoing war in Ukraine has cast a shadow over conservation efforts aimed at preserving the wisent, also known as the European wood bison. 

• The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence, option (a) is correct. 
• It was established in 1994. 
• The ISSG manages the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD), which provides information on invasive alien species worldwide. The ISSG also maintains other online resources such as the Aliens-L listserv, the Invasive Species Compendium, the Global Register of Introduced and Invasive Species, and the Environmental Impact Classification for Alien Taxa. 

Q 14. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?  

(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigation stage and not those matters pending before any court 

(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature 

(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person 

(d) None of the statements given above is correct 

Answer: (d) 

Recently, a seven-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court (SC) held that arbitration agreements embedded in unstamped or insufficiently-stamped substantive commercial contracts or instruments are not invalid, unenforceable, or even nonexistent. 

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. Lok Adalat is one of the Alternative Dispute Redressal(ADR) mechanisms.   

It is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at the pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987.  Nature of cases to be referred to Lok Adalat:- Any case pending before any court or Any dispute that has not been brought before any court and is likely to be filed before the court. Provided that any matter relating to an offense not compoundable under the law shall not be settled in Lok Adalat. Hence, option 1 is not correct.  

As per section 18(1) of the Act, a Lok Adalat shall have jurisdiction to determine and to arrive at a compromise or settlement between the parties to a dispute in respect of:- Any case pending before; or Any matter which is falling within the jurisdiction of, and is not brought before, any court for which the Lok Adalat is organized. Provided that the Lok Adalat shall have no jurisdiction in respect of matters relating to divorce or matters relating to an offense not compoundable under any law. All cases of civil and criminal nature which are permitted under law to be compromised and compounded are settled in Lok Adalats, Hence option 2 is not correct.  

Composition of Lok AdalatsThe Lok Adalat has a chairman, two members, and one social worker. The chairman must be a sitting or retired judicial officer. The other two members should be a lawyer. Hence, option 3 is not correct 

Q 15. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?  

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in the Arctic Tundra and under the sea floor. 
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: (d) 

The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) recently released its 18th Annual Arctic Report Card, highlighting the profound impact of extreme weather and Climate Events on the Arctic. 

• Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. It is an “ice” that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits where temperature and pressure conditions are favorable for its formation. 
• Regions with suitable temperature and pressure conditions for the formation and stability of methane hydrate– sediment and sedimentary rock units below the Arctic permafrost; sedimentary deposits along continental margins; deep-water sediments of inland lakes and seas; and, under Antarctic ice. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Methane hydrates, the sensitive sediments, can rapidly dissociate with an increase in temperature or a decrease in pressure. The dissociation produces free methane and water, which can be triggered by global warming. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Methane is removed from the atmosphere in about 9 to 12-year period by oxidation reaction where it is converted into Carbon Dioxide. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
• Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. 

Q 16. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?  

(a) The waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories. 

(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns, and all industrial townships only. 

(c) The Rules provide exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities. 

(d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district. 

Answer: (c) 

In a recent written reply in the Rajya Sabha, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change highlighted the significant steps taken to tackle waste management in the country. 

• The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having 1 million or more population within two years.   
• In case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or stand-alone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having a 0.5 million or more population and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years. Hence Option 2 is Not Correct. 
• Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of landfill sites and waste processing facilities. Hence Option 3 is Correct. 
• Waste generators would now have to segregate waste into three streams- Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, Metal, Wood, etc.), and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellents, cleaning agents, etc.) before handing it over to the collector. Hence Option 1 is Not Correct.  
• It is not mandatory for the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district. Hence Option 4 is Not Correct. 

Q 17. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (b) 

Recently, the Advocates Amendment Bill, 2023, was passed in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Its purpose was to weed out ‘touts’ from the legal system. 

Under Section 7 (1) (h) of the Advocates Act, 1961, the Bar Council of India (BCI) is entitled to promote legal education and set “standards” for it in consultation with universities that offer it. Hence, statement 2 is correct.  

Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as lawyers and there’s no prohibition on their recognition as lawyers. Advocates. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.  

According to Bar Council of India Rule 49, an advocate shall not be a full-time salaried employee of any person, government, firm, corporation, or concern, so long as he continues to practice, and shall, on taking up any such employment, intimate the fact to the Bar Council on whose roll his name appears and shall thereupon cease to practice as an advocate so long as he continues in such employment.  

Supreme Court has struck down the appearance by Law Officers in Court even on behalf of their employers the Judgement will operate in the case of all Law Officers. Even if they were allowed to appear on behalf of their employers all such Law Officers who are still now appearing on behalf of their employers shall not be allowed to appear as advocates.  

The State Bar Council should also ensure that those Law Officers who have been allowed to practice on behalf of their employers will cease to practice. It is made clear that those Law Officers who after joining services obtained enrolment because of the enabling provision cannot practice even on behalf of their employers.   

The Bar Council of India is of the view that if the said officer is a full-time employee drawing a regular salary, he will not be entitled to be enrolled as an advocate. If the terms of employment show that he is not in full-time employment he can be enrolled. 

Q 18. In recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan caught international attention for which one of the following reasons is common to all of them? 

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements 
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases 
(c) Southward expansion of the Sahara Desert 
(d) Successful coups 

Answer: (d) 

In the wake of an unsuccessful coup attempt in Sierra Leone, the West African nation finds itself at the crossroads of political turmoil and economic crisis. 

All four countries have experienced successful coups in recent years. Chad: In April 2021, President Idriss Déby was killed while leading troops against rebels in the north of the country. 

Q 19. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?  

1. Automobile exhaust 
2. Tobacco smoke 
3. Wood burning 
4. Using varnished wooden furniture 
5. Using products made of polyurethane 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 
(b) 2 and 4 only 
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 

Answer: (a) 

Benzene  is a chemical that is a colorless or light yellow liquid at room temperature. It dissolves only slightly in water and will float on top of the water. It is highly flammable. It is formed from both natural processes and human activities.  

It is found in crude oils and as a by-product of oil-refining processes. It is a known human carcinogen and is linked to an increased risk of developing lymphatic and hematopoietic cancers, acute myelogenous leukemia, as well as chronic lymphocytic leukemia.  

Uses 

 It is used in very large quantities to make other chemicals that are used to make plastics, resins, nylon, and synthetic fibers. It is used to make some types of rubbers, lubricants, dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides. It is also used in paints, glues, and furniture wax.  

Exposure Benzene is degraded rapidly in the upper atmosphere. Because of its solubility in water, a minor amount may be removed by rain to contaminate surface waters and soil.  

Chronic exposure to benzene can reduce the production of red and white blood cells from bone marrow in humans, resulting in aplastic anemia. Benzene is a by-product of the combustion of tobacco in cigarettes. Benzene is also found in wood smoke and automobile exhaust. 

Q 20. Which one of the following best describes the term “Bluewashing”?  

1. The practice of using misinformation that overstates a company’s commitment to responsible social practices. 
2. The process of cleaning clothes with blue dye to make them appear brighter.  
3. The act of promoting ocean conservation through educational programs and initiatives.  
4. The use of blue light to reduce stress and improve mental well-being.  

Answer: (a) 

Recently, a report has been released by the International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES) titled “Who’s tipping the scales”, highlights how corporate capture of global Food Governance is increasingly taking place in more visible ways and raising concerns over Bluewashing.  

Option (a) is correct: Bluewashing (a word with similar connotations to “whitewash” and “greenwash”) is a term used to describe deceptive marketing that overstates a company’s commitment to responsible social practices. It can be used interchangeably with the term greenwashing but has a greater focus on economic and community factors. 

Bluewashing is using misinformation to deceive consumers into thinking that a company is more digitally ethical and secure than it really is. The term ‘bluewashing’ was first used to refer to companies who signed the United Nations Global Compact and its principles but did not make any actual policy reforms. 

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