UPSC Prelims 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key – General Studies Paper 1

As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2017 draws near, candidates are actively gearing up to demonstrate their knowledge and skills. This blog is delighted to provide the UPSC Prelims 2016 Question Paper along with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1.

UPSC Prelims 2016 Exam

The UPSC Prelims exam is a tough phase in the Civil Services Examination, serving as an entry point to desirable positions like Indian Administrative Services (IAS) and Indian Police Services (IPS). It is set to happen on August 07, 2016, with two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam is from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM

The Importance of Previous Year Question Papers

To do well in the UPSC Prelims, candidates need more than just a solid grasp of concepts; they should also know the exam pattern, question formats, and time management strategies. A highly effective method for achieving this is to study the previous year’s question papers. These papers offer valuable insights into the exam’s format, level of difficulty, and the kinds of questions typically posed.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2016 – Available on Edukemy’s Website

Candidates eagerly anticipating the UPSC Prelims question papers don’t need to look everywhere. Soon after the exam, you can find the General Studies Paper 1 question papers on Edukemy’s website. Aspirants can effortlessly get and save the UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Papers in PDF format from our platform.

Prelims 2016 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions

Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 2 only. 

Prorogation  

• It means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House. 
• All pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. 
• Prorogation doesn’t affect the bills of any other business pending before the house. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 

Additional Information 

A Bill will lapse in following conditions, 

• A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the People. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• A bill that originates in the Lok Sabha or that the Rajya Sabha has forwarded to it but is still pending in the Lok Sabha expires. 
• Bills that begin in the Lok Sabha and are passed there but are still pending in the Rajya Sabha are also regarded as expired. 
• A bill that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha but is still pending in the Rajya Sabha does not expire. 
• A Bill that has been approved by both Houses and is awaiting the president’s assent does not expire.

Q2. Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?

1. Undernourishment
2. Child stunting
3. Child mortality

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. 

It is intended to comprehensively assess and track hunger globally, as well as by country and region. • It is estimated annually by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI). 

It emphasises achievements and failures in the fight against hunger and offers information on its causes. 

The GHI seeks to eliminate hunger by increasing knowledge of regional and national variations in hunger. 

To reflect the multidimensional nature of hunger, the GHI combines the four component indicators into one index: 

There are 4 measures it used by GHI: 

• Undernourishment 
• The share of the population whose caloric intake is insufficient. 
• This makes up 1/3 of the GHI score. 

• Child Stunting 
• The share of children under the age of 5 who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition. 
• This makes up 1/6 of the GHI score. 

• Child Wasting 
• The share of children under the age of 5 who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition. 
• This makes up 1/6 of the GHI score. 

• Child Mortality 
• The share of children who die before their 5th birthday, reflecting in part the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments. 
• This makes up 1/3 of the GHI score. 

Hence, Option 3 is correct. 

Q3. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?

1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Reducing import duty

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• The fiscal deficit 

• It is defined as the difference between total revenue and total expenditure.  
• Subsidies are a significant component of government expenditures, and reducing them reduces the fiscal deficit. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
• Revenue expenditure neither creates assets nor reduces the liability of the government. Unnecessary revenue expenditure increases the fiscal deficit. Therefore, reducing revenue expenditure has a very large effect on the fiscal deficit. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Introducing new welfare schemes neither creates assets nor reduces the liability of the government and will further enhance the fiscal deficit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Reducing import duty will reduce tax revenue and thus increases the fiscal deficit. Hence, statement 4 is not correct. 

Q4. The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

• Payment Banks  

• It is like any other bank, but operating on a smaller or restricted scale. 
• Credit risk is not involved with the Payments Bank.  
• It can carry out most banking operations but cannot advance loans or issue credit cards. Hence statement 2 is not correct and Statement 3 is correct. 
• It can accept demand deposits only i.e. savings and current accounts, not time deposits. 
• The Payment Banks cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities. 
• A committee headed by Dr. Nachiket Mor recommended setting up of ‘Payments Bank’ to cater to the lower income groups and small businesses. 
• It can Accept demand deposits. 
• It can Issue ATM/Debit cards, but can’t issue credit cards.  
• Eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks: 

• Existing non-bank Prepaid Payments Instrument (PPI) issuers, 
• NBFCs Corporate Business Correspondents, 
• Mobile phone companies, supermarket chains, public sector entities, real sector cooperatives, etc. Hence statement 1 is correct. 

Q5. With reference to ‘Li-Fi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.
2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘Wi-Fi’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• LiFi  

• It is a wireless technology that transmits high-speed data using visible light communication (VLC) as a medium of transmission. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• ​It is loosely expanded to Light-Fidelity. 
• By using precisely controlled light modulation, data can be transmitted using regular, visible light. 
• It will also allow connectivity in environments that do not currently readily support Wi-Fi, such as aircraft cabins, hospitals and hazardous environments.  

• This technology is 100 times faster than the average wifi speeds. Hence statement 2 is correct.  
• It can transmit up to 100 Gbps. 

Q6: The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East

b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change

c) capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

The correct answer is the Option 2. 

• Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC): 
• It embodies efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change. 
• It is a term used under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). 
• It is for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions that all countries that signed the UNFCCC were asked to publish in the lead-up to the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris, France in December 2015. 
• This is the post-2020 climate action commitment by parties to increase the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions.  Hence, Option 2 is correct. 

Q7: Which one of the following is a purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?

a) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy

b) Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018

c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time

d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) 
• It was launched by the Ministry of Power in 2015. 
• It is a financial restructuring and efficiency enhancing program.  
• It aims to reduce the debt burden of the state-owned electricity distribution companies (DISCOMs) started. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• Though the main component of UDAY is debt management, other measures like raising operational efficiency are also proposed to permanently settle the debt scenario of DISCOMs. 
• Objectives of UDAY: 
  • Improving operational efficiencies of DISCOM. 
  • Reduction of cost of power. 
  • Reduction in interest cost of DISCOMs. 
  • Enforcing financial discipline on DISCOMs through alignment with State finances. 
• Scheme aims at financial turnaround and revival of Power Distribution companies (DISCOMs) and ensures a sustainable permanent solution. 

Q8. With reference to `IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and
   private sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• Masala Bonds  
• It is debt instruments that are used to raise money in local currency from foreign investors. 
• It is issued outside India by an Indian entity or a corporate. 
• It is also used by Indian corporates to raise funds from foreign investors. 
• The goal of such bonds was to stimulate Indian culture at the international platform as ‘masala’ is a Hindi word for spices. 
• The first Masala bond was issued in 2014 by International Finance Corporation (IFC) for infrastructure projects in India and IFC is an arm of World Bank group. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• They are the rupee-denominated bonds issued to offshore investors and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sectors. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

Additional Information 

• The World Bank Group (WBG) consists of five organizations –  
• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) 
• International Development Association (IDA) 
• International Finance Corporation (IFC)  
• Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) 
• International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) 

Q9: Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements:

1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• Taxation policy of Vijayanagar rulers  
• The empire’s prosperity can be explained by their taxing principles.  
• During the reign of the Vijayanagar dynasty, the land tax was the most important source of revenue. 
• During the reign of Krishna Deva Raya, the rate was fixed between one third and one-sixth depending on the quality of the land. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• In addition to property tax, taxes were levied on retailers, farm servants, labourers, posters, shoemakers, singers, and others. 
• Grazing and property taxes were also levied. 
• Commercial taxes, such as levies, tariffs, and customs charges, were also charged on manufactured products of commerce. 
• Private workshop owners had to pay an industry tax as well. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q10: Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

a) Swapnavasavadatta

b) Malavikagnirnitra

c) Meghadoota

d) Ratnavali

The correct answer is Option 2. 

• Malavikagnimitra: 
• This is the Sanskrit play written by Kalidasa in the 5th-century CE. 
• This narrates the love story of King Agnimitra, the Shunga Emperor at Vidisha. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 
• Agnimitra was the son of Pushyamitra Shunga, founder of the Sunga dynasty. 
• Kalidasa is the most distinguished dramatist and he treated the rasa of love in all its possible manifestations. 

Additional Information 

• Svapnavasavadattam is a Sanskrit play of six acts written by Bhasa. 
• Meghadoota is a Sanskrit poem by Kalidasa. 
• Ratnavali is a Sanskrit drama about a princess Ratnavali, and a king Udayana, written by Harshvardhana. 

Q11: In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms `amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?

a) WTO affairs

b) SAARC affairs

c) UNFCCC affairs

d) India-EU negotiations on FTA

The correct answer is Option 1. 

World Trade Organisation (WTO) 

• Domestic agricultural subsidies are denoted by “Boxes” in WTO terminology, namely the Green Box, Amber Box, and Blue Box. Hence, Option 1 is correct. 

​Amber Box: 

• All domestic assistance programmes that distort production and commerce (with a few exceptions) are classified as amber. 

Blue Box: 

• It refers to a type of domestic assistance or subsidy under the World Trade Organization’s Agriculture Agreement.  
• This is the “amber box with conditions” – conditions aimed to decrease distortion.  
• Any support that would ordinarily be in the amber box is moved to the blue box if it also forces farmers to limit production. 

Green Box:  

• Subsidies that do not distort trade or produce minor distortion are placed in the Green Box.  
• These subsidies must be government-funded (rather than charged to consumers) and must not involve price support. 

Q12: Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
2. Loans received from foreign governments
3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3. 

The capital budgets  

• It refers to an account of assets and liabilities of the government that includes capital receipts and capital expenditures. 
• Capital expenditure components examples are, 
  • Examples include spending on the acquisition of land, buildings, machinery, and equipment, the construction of assets like as highways and hospitals, the repayment of central government borrowings, loans, and advances to state and union territory administrations, and so on. Hence statement 1 and 3 is correct. 
• Capital receipts components Examples are, 
  • Examples include loan borrowings, disinvestments, monies acquired via the issuance of shares or debentures, and so forth. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

Q13. What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’?

1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive
   inter-national partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. 

United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD): 

• The UNCCD was founded in 1994. 
• This is the first international agreement that links environmental protection, economic development, and sustainable land use. 
• It is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• ​The 195 parties to the convention cooperate to raise the standard of life for those who live in arid areas, preserve and increase soil and land productivity, and lessen the impact of drought. 
• It aims to promote effective action through innovative local programmes and supportive international partnerships. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• The Convention focuses primarily on the drylands, which are composed of arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid regions and are home to some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and populations. 
• The UNCCD is implemented through five regional annexes: Central and Eastern Europe, Latin America and the Caribbean, Northern Mediterranean, and Africa (which is given precedence because it is there where desertification is most severe). 
• There is no such provision that the secretariat facilitates the allocation of the major portion of financial resources to the South Asia and North Africa regions. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 

Q14: Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?

a) Rouble

b) Rand

c) Indian Rupee

d) Renminbi

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Special Drawing Right (SDR) 

• It is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969. 
• It is an artificial currency created to augment international liquidity. 
• It is not a currency or a claim against the IMF; rather, it adds to the current reserves of IMF member nations. 
• A currency must be freely useable, widely traded, and widely used in order to qualify as an SDR. 
• The SDR basket is made up of the US dollar, the euro, the British pound, and the Japanese yen. 
• In 2016, the Chinese renminbi (RMB) was added to the SDR basket as the fifth currency. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• The choice was made at the IMF’s five-year assessment of the currency basket. 
• The SDR currently uses a basket of five currencies as its base: the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese yuan, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling. 

Q15: With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
2. The World Bank participates as observer in IMFC’s meetings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) both 1 and 2

d) neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC) 
• The IMFC has 24 members, drawn from the pool of 187 governors.  
• Its structure mirrors that of the Executive Board and its 24 constituencies. As such, the IMFC represents all the member countries of the Fund. 
• It makes recommendations and provides updates to the IMF Board of Governors on matters pertaining to the supervision and administration of the global monetary and financial system, particularly how to handle developing situations that could cause disruptions. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
• Typically, the IMFC convenes twice a year. 
• The World Bank is among the foreign organisations that attend the IMFC meetings as observers. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
• It also considers proposals by the Executive Board to amend the Articles of Agreement and advises on any other matters that may be referred to it by the Board of Governors. 
• Although the IMFC has no formal decision-making powers, in practice, it has become a key instrument for providing strategic direction to the work and policies of the Fund. 

Q16: RashtriyaGarimaAbhiyaan’ is a national campaign to

a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood

b) release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood

c) eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers

d) release the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them

The correct answer is to Option 3. 

Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan 

• It is India’s National Campaign for Dignity and the Abolition of Manual Scavenging, which began in 2001. Hence, Option 3 is correct. 
• It is an initiative initiated by the ladies of Dalit communities. 
• It has been shown to be a very creative and successful method to end the practise of manual scavenging. 
• For the purpose of identifying manual scavengers and rehabilitating them, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has partnered with NGOs such as Safai Karamchari Andolan, Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan, Sulabh International, etc. 

Q17: With reference to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following statements:

1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry
2. Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste
   hierarchy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. 

• Siddhas (Sittars) Saiva schools in Tamil Nadu held the monotheistic puritan creed and roundly condemned idolatry, their history is not known they seem to be known as most active during the 16th and 17th centuries. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• The Lingayats worshiper of Shiva challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas. They also questioned the theory of rebirth. These won them, followers, amongst those who were marginalised within the Brahmanical social order.  
• Almost all of the ‘Siddhas’ songs were composed in the twilight language. 
• Basavanna is the founder of Lingayatism and is strongly against the rigid practices of the caste system. 
• Basavanna (1106-68) who was initially a Jaina and a minister in the court of a Chalukya king. His followers were known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga). 
• Lingayats believed that there is no rebirth and on death, the devotee reunites with Shiva never coming back to the World.  
• Hence Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

Q18: Which of the following best describes the term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the news?

a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross Domestic Product of a country

b) It is the total value of imports of a country in a year

c) It is the ratio between the value of exports and that of imports between two countries

d) It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves

The correct answer is Option 4. 

• Import cover: 
• Import Cover estimates how many months of imports may be covered by foreign exchange (forex) reserves held by the country’s central bank, in this case the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).  
• Eight to 10 months of import cover is critical for the currency’s and economy’s stability. 
• It is the number of months of imports that a country’s international reserves could cover. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• It is a crucial indicator of currency stability, and a minimum of eight to ten months of import cover is required for currency stability. 
• By taking early preventive action, import cover helps to avoid a B.

Q19: Consider the following pairs:

Community sometimes in the affairs of mentioned in the news

1. Kurd: Bangladesh
2. Madhesi: Nepal
3. Rohingya : Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 only

The correct answer is 2 and 3. 

Kurds  

• The fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East, Kurds are mostly Muslim and live in a hilly area that borders Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran, and Armenia. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched. 
• Despite their size, they have never established a sovereign nation-state. 

Madhesis  

• They made headlines by calling for more community representation in the constitution of Nepal. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• The Teraibasi Nepali, also known as the Madhesi, are a native ethnic group of Nepalese who hail from the Terai region of South Asia’s Madhesh plains. 

Rohingya 

• They are an ethnic community, the majority of whom are Muslims, who have lived in Myanmar’s Rakhine area for many years. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.  
• Many of their opponents refuse to recognise the Rohingya as an ethnically distinct population. 

Q20: With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.
2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
3. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. 

Organization for the Prohibitions of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) 

• It is an intergovernmental organisation and the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention. It is not under the European Union. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• ​It is the Hague-based autonomous body, which works within the framework of the United Nations, was established in 1997 by the Chemical Weapons Convention to carry out its mandate. 
• It oversees the global endeavour to permanently and verifiably eliminate chemical weapons. 
• The Convention contains four key provisions: 
• Destroying all existing chemical weapons under international verification by the OPCW. 
• Monitoring the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from re-emerging; Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• Providing assistance and protection to States Parties against chemical threats; Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• Fostering international cooperation to strengthen implementation of the Convention and promote the peaceful use of chemistry. 

Q21. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements:

1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop
   they cultivate in any season of the year.
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is 2 only. 

Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) 

• It is a government-sponsored crop insurance scheme that integrates multiple stakeholders on a single platform. 
• This scheme was launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. 
• Under this scheme farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of 2% for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops and 5% in the case of annual commercial and horticultural crops. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
• It offers insurance cover to farmers against post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains. Hence the statement 2 is correct. 
• ​Post-Harvest Losses coverage is available only up to a maximum period of two weeks from harvesting for those crops which are allowed to dry in cut and spread condition in the field after harvesting against specific perils of the cyclone and cyclonic rains and unseasonal rains.

Q22: In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the `Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

a) Sand deserts of northwest India

b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir

c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat

d) Western Ghats

The correct answer is the Option 4. 

Great Indian hornbills  

• This is found in the forests of Nepal, India, Mainland Southeast Asia, and Sumatra. 
• It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. 
• It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of India. 
• Great Hornbills are found in three separate areas in South Asia; The Western Ghats, The Himalayan foothills in Uttaranchal to south Nepal and Bhutan and northeast India. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
• They are also found in Myanmar, the Mergui archipelago, southern China, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Thailand, peninsular Malaysia, and Sumatra, Indonesia.  
• They are found in primary evergreen and moist deciduous forests, primarily in lowland forests, but can be found up to 2,000 metres in some regions.  
• It is the state bird of Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh.  
• The Great Indian Hornbill is a revered bird in Nagaland and is mentioned in the tribe’s folklore.  
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has listed the Great Indian Hornbill as vulnerable in the Red List of Threatened Species. 
• Nagaland also celebrates the Hornbill Festival every year between the first and tenth of December. 

Q23: Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)?

1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. 

National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) 

• The Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal Ministry for the NGRBA (National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA). 
• It is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, i.e.  Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, among others. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 
• It has started the Mission Clean Ganga with a changed and comprehensive approach to champion the challenges posed to Ganga through four different sectors, namely, of wastewater management, solid waste management, industrial pollution and river front development. 
• The river basin is the unit of planning and management, an internationally accepted strategy for integrated management of rivers. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• It is mandated to take up regulatory and developmental functions with sustainability needs for effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the river Ganga by adopting a river basin approach for comprehensive planning and management. 
• It will spearhead river conservation efforts at the national level and implementation will be by the State Agencies and Urban Local Bodies. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

Q24: Why does the Government of India promote the use of Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?

a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms

b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil

c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields

d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Urea 

• It is essential for plant growth, is a significant source of nitrogen, but only 30–40% of the available nitrogen in the area is used by crops, with the remainder degrading at various stages. 
• Ordinary urea is transformed into ammonium carbamate when it is applied, and some of this ammonium carbamate is turned to ammonia gas through a process known as ammonia volatilization. 
• When nitrogen is volatilized, 8–10% of it is lost. 
• Neem possesses qualities that monitor nitrogen loss at every stage. 
• Neem coating slows down the rate of urea dissolution in the soil because it slows down the process of nitrate production, which prevents excess nitrate from being accessible for denitrification. Hence, Option 2 is correct. 

Q25: Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

The Chief Secretary 

• It is ‘chosen’ by the Chief Minister. 
• The appointment of the Chief Secretary is made in the name of the State Governor because it is an executive decision made by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
• It is the highest administrative position in states. 
• There is no set term limit for the position of chief secretary of state, who also serves as the Council of Ministers’ ex officio secretary. 
• The Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 

Q26: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.

b) A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is 2 only.

Prorogation

• It means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House.
• All pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.

Prorogation doesn’t affect the bills of any other business pending before the house. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Q27: Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators
used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index
Report?

a) Undernourishment

b) Child stunting

c) Child mortality

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Global Hunger Index (GHI) 

• It is intended to comprehensively assess and track hunger globally, as well as by country and region.
• It is estimated annually by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI).
• It emphasizes achievements and failures in the fight against hunger and offers information on its causes.
• The GHI seeks to eliminate hunger by increasing knowledge of regional and national variations in hunger.
• To reflect the multidimensional nature of hunger, the GHI combines the four component indicators into one index:

There are 4 measures it used by GHI:

• Undernourishment
  • The share of the population whose caloric intake is insufficient.
  • This makes up 1/3 of the GHI score.

• Child Stunting
  • The share of children under the age of 5 who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition.
  • This makes up 1/6 of the GHI score.

• Child Wasting
  • The share of children under the age of 5 who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition.
  • This makes up 1/6 of the GHI score.

• Child Mortality
  • The share of children who die before their 5th birthday, reflecting in part the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments.
  • This makes up 1/3 of the GHI score.

Q28: There has been a persistent deficit budget year after
year. Which action/actions of the following can be
taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?

a) Reducing revenue expenditure

b) Introducing new welfare schemes

c) Rationalizing subsidies

d) Reducing import duty

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

• The fiscal deficit

It is defined as the difference between total revenue and total expenditure.

Subsidies are a significant component of government expenditures, and reducing them reduces the fiscal deficit. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Revenue expenditure neither creates assets nor reduces the liability of the government. Unnecessary revenue expenditure increases the fiscal deficit. Therefore, reducing revenue expenditure has a very large effect on the fiscal deficit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Introducing new welfare schemes neither creates assets nor reduces the liability of the government and will further enhance the fiscal deficit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Reducing import duty will reduce tax revenue and thus increases the fiscal deficit. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Q29: The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

a) Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks

b) Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.

c) Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Payment Banks

• It is like any other bank, but operating on a smaller or restricted scale.
• Credit risk is not involved with the Payments Bank.
• It can carry out most banking operations but cannot advance loans or issue credit cards. Hence statement 2 is not correct and Statement 3 is correct.
• It can accept demand deposits only i.e. savings and current accounts, not time deposits.
• The Payment Banks cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities.
• A committee headed by Dr. Nachiket Mor recommended setting up of ‘Payments Bank’ to cater to the lower income groups and small businesses.
• It can Accept demand deposits.
• It can Issue ATM/Debit cards, but can’t issue credit cards. 
• Eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks:
• Existing non-bank Prepaid Payments Instrument (PPI) issuers,
• NBFCs Corporate Business Correspondents,
• Mobile phone companies, supermarket chains, public sector entities, real sector cooperatives, etc. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Q30: With reference to ‘Li-Fi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.

b) It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘Wi-Fi’.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Li-Fi 

• It is a wireless technology that transmits high-speed data using visible light communication (VLC) as a medium of transmission. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is loosely expanded to Light-Fidelity.
• By using precisely controlled light modulation, data can be transmitted using regular, visible light.
• It will also allow connectivity in environments that do not currently readily support Wi-Fi, such as aircraft cabins, hospitals and hazardous environments. 
• This technology is 100 times faster than the average Wi-Fi speeds. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• It can transmit up to 100 Gbps.

Q31: The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East

b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change

c) capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

The correct answer is the Option 2.

Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC):

• It embodies efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
• It is a term used under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• It is for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions that all countries that signed the UNFCCC were asked to publish in the lead up to the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris, France in December 2015.
• This is the post-2020 climate action commitments by parties to increase the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions.  Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Q32: Which one of the following is a purpose of `UDAY’, a
scheme of the Government?

a) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy

b) Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018

c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time

d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY)

• It was launched by the Ministry of Power in 2015.
• It is a financial restructuring and efficiency enhancing program.
• It aims to reduce the debt burden of the state-owned electricity distribution companies (DISCOMs) started. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Though the main component of UDAY is debt management, other measures like raising operational efficiency are also proposed to permanently settle the debt scenario of DISCOMs.

Objectives of UDAY:

• Improving operational efficiencies of DISCOM.
• Reduction of cost of power.
• Reduction in interest cost of DISCOMs.
• Enforcing financial discipline on DISCOMs through alignment with State finances.
• Scheme aims at financial turnaround and revival of Power Distribution companies (DISCOMs) and ensures a sustainable permanent solution.

Q33: With reference to `IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

a) The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.

b) They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Masala Bonds

• It is debt instruments that are used to raise money in local currency from foreign investors.
• It is issued outside India by an Indian entity or a corporate.
• It is also used by Indian corporates to raise funds from foreign investors.
• The goal of such bonds was to stimulate Indian culture at the international platform as ‘masala’ is a Hindi word for spices.
• The first Masala bond was issued in 2014 by International Finance Corporation (IFC) for infrastructure projects in India and IFC is an arm of World Bank group. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• They are the rupee-denominated bonds issued to offshore investors and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sectors. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q34: Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements:

a) The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.

b) Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

• Taxation policy of Vijayanagar rulers
•  The empire’s prosperity can be explained by their taxing principles.
• During the reign of the Vijayanagar dynasty, the land tax was the most important source of revenue.
• During the reign of Krishna Deva Raya, the rate was fixed between one third and one-sixth depending on the quality of the land. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Q35: Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

a) Swapnavasavadatta

b) Malavikagnirnitra

c) Meghadoota

d) Ratnavali

The correct answer is Option 2.

Malavikagnimitra:

• This is the Sanskrit play written by Kalidasa in the 5th-century CE.
• This narrates the love story of King Agnimitra, the Shunga Emperor at Vidisha. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Agnimitra was the son of Pushyamitra Shunga, founder of the Sunga dynasty.
• Kalidasa is the most distinguished dramatist and he treated the rasa of love in all its possible manifestations.

Q36: In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms `amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?

a) WTO affairs
b) SAARC affairs
c) UNFCCC affairs
d) India-EU negotiations on FTA

The correct answer is Option 1.

World Trade Organisation (WTO)

• Domestic agricultural subsidies are denoted by “Boxes” in WTO terminology, namely the Green Box, Amber Box, and Blue Box. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

​Amber Box:

• All domestic assistance programmes that distort production and commerce (with a few exceptions) are classified as amber.

Blue Box:

• It refers to a type of domestic assistance or subsidy under the World Trade Organization’s Agriculture Agreement.
• This is the “amber box with conditions” – conditions aimed to decrease distortion.
• Any support that would ordinarily be in the amber box is moved to the blue box if it also forces farmers to limit production.

Green Box: 

• Subsidies that do not distort trade or produce minor distortion are placed in the Green Box.
• These subsidies must be government-funded (rather than charged to consumers) and must not involve price support.

Q37: Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

a) Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.

b) Loans received from foreign governments

c) Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

The capital budgets

• It refers to an account of assets and liabilities of the government that includes capital receipts and capital expenditures. Capital expenditure components examples are,
• Examples include spending on the acquisition of land, buildings, machinery, and equipment, the construction of assets like as highways and hospitals, the repayment of central government borrowings, loans, and advances to state and union territory administrations, and so on.
• Hence statement 1 and 3 is correct.
• Capital receipts components Examples are, Examples include loan borrowings, disinvestments, monies acquired via the issuance of shares or debentures, and so forth. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q38: What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’?

a) It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive inter-national partnerships.

b) It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.

c) It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):

• The UNCCD was founded in 1994.
• This is the first international agreement that links environmental protection, economic development, and sustainable land use.
• It is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The 195 parties to the convention cooperate to raise the standard of life for those who live in arid areas, preserve and increase soil and land productivity, and lessen the impact of drought.
• It aims to promote effective action through innovative local programmes and supportive international partnerships. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Convention focuses primarily on the drylands, which are composed of arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid regions and are home to some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and populations.
• The UNCCD is implemented through five regional annexes: Central and Eastern Europe, Latin America and the Caribbean, Northern Mediterranean, and Africa (which is given precedence because it is there where desertification is most severe).
• There is no such provision that the secretariat facilitates the allocation of the major portion of financial resources to the South Asia and North Africa regions. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q39: Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?

a) Rouble
b) Rand
c) Indian Rupee
d) Renminbi

The correct answer is Option 4.

Special Drawing Right (SDR)

• It is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969.
• It is an artificial currency created to augment international liquidity.
• It is not a currency or a claim against the IMF; rather, it adds to the current reserves of IMF member nations.
• A currency must be freely useable, widely traded, and widely used in order to qualify as an SDR.
• The SDR basket is made up of the US dollar, the euro, the British pound, and the Japanese yen.
• In 2016, the Chinese renminbi (RMB) was added to the SDR basket as the fifth currency. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The choice was made at the IMF’s five-year assessment of the currency basket.
• The SDR currently uses a basket of five currencies as its base: the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese yuan, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling.

Q40: With reference to the International Monetary and inancial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

a) IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.

b) The World Bank participates as observer in IMFC’s meetings.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC)

• The IMFC has 24 members, drawn from the pool of 187 governors.
• Its structure mirrors that of the Executive Board and its 24 constituencies. As such, the IMFC represents all the member countries of the Fund.
• It makes recommendations and provides updates to the IMF Board of Governors on matters pertaining to the supervision and administration of the global monetary and financial system, particularly how to handle developing situations that could cause disruptions. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Typically, the IMFC convenes twice a year.
• The World Bank is among the foreign organizations that attend the IMFC meetings as observers. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It also considers proposals by the Executive Board to amend the Articles of Agreement and advises on any other matters that may be referred to it by the Board of Governors.
• Although the IMFC has no formal decision-making powers, in practice, it has become a key instrument for providing strategic direction to the work and policies of the Fund.

Q41: “Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan” is a national campaign to

a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood

b) release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood

c) eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers

d) release the bonded laborers from their bondage and rehabilitate them

The correct answer is to Option 3.

Rastriya Garima Abhiyan

• It is India’s National Campaign for Dignity and the Abolition of Manual Scavenging, which began in 2001. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It is an initiative initiated by the ladies of Dalit communities.
• It has been shown to be a very creative and successful method to end the practise of manual scavenging.
• For the purpose of identifying manual scavengers and rehabilitating them, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has partnered with NGOs such as Safai Karam Chari Andolan, Rastriya Garima Abhiyan, Sulabh International, etc.

Q42: With reference to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following statements:

a) Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry

b) Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

• Siddhas (Sittars) Saiva schools in Tamil Nadu held the monotheistic puritan creed and roundly condemned idolatry, their history is not known they seem to be known as most active during the 16th and 17th centuries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Lingayats worshiper of Shiva challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas. They also questioned the theory of rebirth. These won them, followers, amongst those who were marginalised within the Brahmanical social order.
• Almost all of the ‘Siddhas’ songs were composed in the twilight language.
• Basavanna is the founder of Lingayatism and is strongly against the rigid practices of the caste system.
• Basavanna (1106-68) who was initially a Jaina and a minister in the court of a Chalukya king. His followers were known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga).
• Lingayats believed that there is no rebirth and on death, the devotee reunites with Shiva never coming back to the World. 
  Hence Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q43: Which of the following best describes the term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the news?

a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross Domestic Product of a country
b) It is the total value of imports of a country in a year
c) It is the ratio between the value of exports and that of imports between two countries
d) It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves

The correct answer is Option 4.

Import cover:

• Import Cover estimates how many months of imports may be covered by foreign exchange (forex) reserves held by the country’s central bank, in this case the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Eight to 10 months of import cover is critical for the currency’s and economy’s stability.
• It is the number of months of imports that a country’s international reserves could cover. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• It is a crucial indicator of currency stability, and a minimum of eight to ten months of import cover is required for currency stability.
• By taking early preventive action, import cover helps to avoid a BoP disaster.

Q44: Consider the following pairs:

Community sometimes in the affairs of mentioned in the news

Kurd : Bangladesh

Madhesi : Nepal

Rohingya : Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

The correct answer is 2 and 3.

Kurds 

• The fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East, Kurds are mostly Muslim and live in a hilly area that borders Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran, and Armenia. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Despite their size, they have never established a sovereign nation-state.

Madhesis 

• They made headlines by calling for more community representation in the constitution of Nepal. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
• The Teraibasi Nepali, also known as the Madhesi, are a native ethnic group of Nepalese who hail from the Terai region of South Asia’s Madhesh plains.

Rohingya

• They are an ethnic community, the majority of whom are Muslims, who have lived in Myanmar’s Rakhine area for many years. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Many of their opponents refuse to recognise the Rohingya as an ethnically distinct population.

Q45: With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements:

a) It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.

b) It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.

c) It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Organization for the Prohibitions of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)

• It is an intergovernmental organization and the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention. It is not under the European Union. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is the Hague-based autonomous body, which works within the framework of the United Nations, was established in 1997 by the Chemical Weapons Convention to carry out its mandate.
• It oversees the global endeavour to permanently and verifiably eliminate chemical weapons.

The Convention contains four key provisions:

• Destroying all existing chemical weapons under international verification by the OPCW.
• Monitoring the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from re-emerging; Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Providing assistance and protection to States Parties against chemical threats; Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Fostering international cooperation to strengthen implementation of the Convention and promote the peaceful use of chemistry.

Q46: With reference to ‘Pradhan MantriFasalBimaYojana’, consider the following statements:

a) Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.

b) This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

The correct answer is 2 only.

• Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
• It is a government-sponsored crop insurance scheme that integrates multiple stakeholders on a single platform.
• This scheme was launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• Under this scheme farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of 2% for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops and 5% in the case of annual commercial and horticultural crops. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It offers insurance cover to farmers against post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains. Hence the statement 2 is correct.
• Post-Harvest Losses coverage is available only up to a maximum period of two weeks from harvesting for those crops which are allowed to dry in cut and spread condition in the field after harvesting against specific perils of the cyclone and cyclonic rains and unseasonal rains.

Q47: In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the `Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

a) Sand deserts of northwest India
b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
d) Western Ghats

The correct answer is the Option 4.

Great Indian hornbills 

• This is found in the forests of Nepal, India, Mainland Southeast Asia, and Sumatra.
• It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
• It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of India.
• Great Hornbills are found in three separate areas in South Asia; The Western Ghats, The Himalayan foothills in Uttaranchal to south Nepal and Bhutan and northeast India. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• They are also found in Myanmar, the Mergui archipelago, southern China, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Thailand, peninsular Malaysia, and Sumatra, Indonesia.
• They are found in primary evergreen and moist deciduous forests, primarily in lowland forests, but can be found up to 2,000 metres in some regions.
• It is the state bird of Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh.
• The Great Indian Hornbill is a revered bird in Nagaland and is mentioned in the tribe’s folklore.
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has listed the Great Indian Hornbill as vulnerable in the Red List of Threatened Species.
• Nagaland also celebrates the Hornbill Festival every year between the first and tenth of December.

Q48: Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)?

a) River basin is the unit of planning and management.

b) It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.

c) One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)

• The Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal Ministry for the NGRBA (National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).
• It is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, i.e.  Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, among others. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• It has started the Mission Clean Ganga with a changed and comprehensive approach to champion the challenges posed to Ganga through four different sectors, namely, of wastewater management, solid waste management, industrial pollution and river front development.
• The river basin is the unit of planning and management, an internationally accepted strategy for integrated management of rivers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is mandated to take up regulatory and developmental functions with sustainability needs for effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the river Ganga by adopting a river basin approach for comprehensive planning and management.
• It will spearhead river conservation efforts at the national level and implementation will be by the State Agencies and Urban Local Bodies. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q49: Why does the Government of India promote the use of Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?

a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms

b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil

c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields

d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops

The correct answer is Option 2.

Urea

• It is essential for plant growth, is a significant source of nitrogen, but only 30–40% of the available nitrogen in the area is used by crops, with the remainder degrading at various stages.
• Ordinary urea is transformed into ammonium carbamate when it is applied, and some of this ammonium carbamate is turned to ammonia gas through a process known as ammonia volatilization.
• When nitrogen is volatilized, 8–10% of it is lost.
• Neem possesses qualities that monitor nitrogen loss at every stage.
• Neem coating slows down the rate of urea dissolution in the soil because it slows down the process of nitrate production, which prevents excess nitrate from being accessible for denitrification. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Q50: Consider the following statements:

a) The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.

b) The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

The Chief Secretary

• It is ‘chosen’ by the Chief Minister.
• The appointment of the Chief Secretary is made in the name of the State Governor because it is an executive decision made by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It is the highest administrative position in states.
• There is no set term limit for the position of chief secretary of state, who also serves as the Council of Ministers’ ex officio secretary.
• The Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q51: With reference to ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? Its purpose is to

a) promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.

b) It provides for refinance through SIDBI.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Stand Up India Scheme 

• It is aimed at promoting entrepreneurship among SC/ST and Women entrepreneurs and facilitates at least two such projects per bank branch. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• With an initial sum of Rs. 10,000 crore, it allows for refinancing through the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It makes it possible for at least one borrower from a Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) and at least one woman to obtain bank loans between ten lakh and one crore for the establishment of a new business in the manufacturing, service, or trading sectors.

Q52: The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

a) To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity

b) To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapers, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities

c) To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS

The correct answer is 2 only.

Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)

• In 2002, FAO launched an initiative for the identification and the active conservation of the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) in order to protect and promote the world’s agricultural heritage systems. Therefore, it is not about providing modern technologies or modern practices to enhance agricultural productivity. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It strives to discover, support, and protect globally significant agricultural legacy systems and their livelihoods, agriculture and associated biodiversity, knowledge systems, cultures, and landscapes worldwide. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  GI tag is accorded to products from a certain origin and not to traditional agricultural systems. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q53: Which of the following is/are tributary tributaries of Brahmaputra?

a) Dibang

b) Kameng

c) Lohit

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

River Brahmaputra:

• In the region of Tibet, it is referred as the Yarlung Tsangpo.
• It rises in the Himalayas’ Chemayungdung Glacier and empties into the Bay of Bengal.
• Its length is around 2,900 km.
• After passing through Tibet, the river enters India through the state of Arunachal Pradesh, then travels through Bangladesh and Assam before joining the Bay of Bengal.
• The river travels through Assam before entering Bangladesh, where it takes the name Jamuna before joining the Ganga and eventually emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

Q54: The term ‘Core Banking Solutions’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?

a) It is a networking of a bank’s branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.

b) It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization.

c) It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Core Banking Solution (CBS)

• It can be defined as a solution that enables banks to offer a multitude of customer-centric services on a 24×7 basis from a single location, supporting retail as well as corporate banking activities.
• It is a networking of bank branches, which allows customers to manage their accounts, and use various banking facilities from any part of the world. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is a centralized back-end system that efficiently processes banking transactions across the various branches of a bank.
  Core Banking Solution (CBS) helps in speeding up banking transactions and to expand the presence of banking in rural & remote areas.
• Statements 2 and 3 are not correct related to the core banking solution.
• The centralisation thus makes a “one-stop” shop for financial services a reality. Using CBS, customers can access their accounts from any branch, anywhere, irrespective of where they have physically opened their accounts.
• Almost all branches of commercial banks, including the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), are brought into the core-banking fold.
• The e-kuber system can be accessed either through INFINET or Internet. The INFINET is a Closed User Group Network for the exclusive use of member banks and financial institutions and is the communication backbone for the National Payments System.

Q55: Consider the following pairs: Terms sometimes Their origin seen in the news

1. Annex—I Countries: Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions: Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanism: Kyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

The correct answer is 3 only.

Kyoto Protocol:

• It is an international agreement with the goal of controlling and lowering greenhouse gas emissions.
• It was ratified in December 1997, is a pact made under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
• The agreement to minimise greenhouse gas emissions is a binding legal document.
• Annex 1 countries include developed and transitional economies. Therefore, Annex 1 is related to the Kyoto Protocol. Hence, Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Annex 2 countries:

• These are industrialised nations that aid developing nations and economies in transition by giving them financial and technical support so they can lower their greenhouse gas emissions.
• The Clean Development Mechanism allows emission-reduction projects in developing countries to earn certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched and Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Industrialized nations can trade, sell, and employ these CERs to help them reach their Kyoto Protocol emission reduction goals.

Additional Points

Cartagena Protocol:

• This protocol is a legally binding international agreement under the United Nations’ Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
• It aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology.
• Nagoya Protocol:
• It is an international legally binding protocol on access to genetic resources and benefit-sharing.

Q56: In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to

a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing
b) the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism
c) the description of the mechanism of gene expression
d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cell

The correct answer is Option 2

Bioinformatics

It refers to the application of computer technology to the management of biological information.

Transcriptome:

• It is a collection or array of mRNA molecules made by a specific type of cell or tissue. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• A genome is a collection of all the DNA found in a somatic cell’s nucleus and mitochondria, and the transcriptome is the first thing that happens when a genome is expressed.
• The transcriptome undergoes active change, in contrast to the genome, which is distinguished by its stability.
• The transcriptome of an organism fluctuates depending on a variety of variables, including its stage of development and its environment.

Q57: ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to

a) immunization of children and pregnant women
b) construction of smart cities across the country
c) India’s own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
d) New Educational Policy

The correct answer is the Option 1.

Mission Indra Dhanush

• It is a health mission launched by the union Health minister on December 25, 2014.
• The mission’s goal is to provide complete immunisation with all available vaccines for children under the age of two and pregnant women. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The goal is to be fully immunised against seven vaccine-preventable diseases.
• By 2020, offer vaccination to all children who are either unvaccinated or only partially vaccinated against Diphtheria, Pertussis (Whooping cough), Tetanus, Tuberculosis, Polio, Measles, and Hepatitis B.

Q58: Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?

a) Incorporating environment al benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the `green accounting’

b) Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future

c) Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures

The correct answer is 3 only.

Green India Mission:

• It was released in 2014.
• It falls under one of the National Action Plan on Climate Change’s eight missions (NAPCC).
• Its goal is to combat climate change by utilising both adaptation and mitigation strategies.
• It aims to preserve, improve, and expand India’s dwindling forest cover. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• One of its primary goals is to increase yearly CO2 sequestration by 50-60 million tonnes by 2020.
• Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are irrelevant to the Green India mission.

Q59: With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011?

a) List of ingredients including additives

b) Nutrition information

c) Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions

d) Vegetarian/non-vegetarian

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4.

Every package of food shall carry the following information on the label, namely-

• The Name of Food
• List of Ingredients including additives (Hence the statement 1 is correct)
• Nutritional information (Hence the statement 2 is correct)
• Declaration regarding Veg or Non-veg (Hence the statement 4 is correct)
• Declaration regarding Food Additives 
• Name and complete address of the manufacturer
• Net quantity
• Date of manufacture or packing 
• Lot/Code/Batch identification
• Best Before and Use By Date
• Country of origin for imported food
• Instructions for use
• Therefore, Information about Allergic reactions made by the medical profession is not mandatory on the food packets. Hence the statement 3 is not correct.

Q60: ‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to

a) waste management technology
b) wireless communication technology
c) solar power production technology
d) water conservation technology

The correct answer is Option 2.

Project loon

• It is a network of stratospheric balloons that helps to connect rural and remote regions of the world to Internet connectivity via wireless communication technology. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It is a research and development project being developed by Google.
• Project Loon helps to improve communication during natural disasters to affected regions.
• It uses a part of the radio spectrum known as White spaces. White Space refers to the unused broadcasting frequencies in the wireless spectrum. These spaces can provide broadband internet access that is similar to that of 4G mobile. Microsoft is providing whitespace internet to unserved areas of several countries.

Q61: ‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the

a) production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers
b) use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households
c) installation of CNG kits in motor-cars
d) installation of water meters in urban households

The correct answer is the Option 1.

Net metering

• The billing system gives owners of solar energy systems credit for the electricity they supply to the grid. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It enables residential or commercial users who produce their own electricity using photovoltaic or solar panels to export their excess energy back to the grid.
• It empowers customers to control their electricity costs and supports renewable energy.
• The consumer can invest in renewable energy solutions in a simple and low-cost manner.
• It boosts the value of electricity generated through renewable sources and enables users to store energy for later use.
• A required policy to support the expansion of renewable energy is net metering.
• Enabling consumers to manage their electricity bills.

In addition to providing significant economic benefits in terms of jobs, income, and investment in the renewable energy sector, net metering enables utility customers to produce their own electricity in a clean and efficient manner.
In addition, by encouraging generation close to the point of consumption, net metering lessens the strain on distribution systems and prevents losses in long-distance electricity transmission and distribution.

Q62: India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?

a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
b) World Economic Forum
c) World Bank
d) World Trade Organization (WTO)

The correct answer is the Option 3.

Ease of Doing Business Index

• Every year, the World Bank releases it. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The indicator gauges a nation’s performance over a 12-month period ending May 1, 2019, across ten distinct parameters.
• India climbed from 77th place in the 2019 ranking to 63rd place in the 2020 study.
• India’s score improved from 67.23 to 71.0 this year over the previous year.
• Starting a Business, Dealing with Construction Permits, Trading Across Borders, and Resolving Insolvency are the four criteria on which India’s rating has improved.
• India appeared on the list of the top 10 economies where the business climate has improved the most for the third year in a row.
• India continues to hold the top spot among the nations of South Asia.
• India is maintaining its first position among South Asian countries.
• Global Economic Prospects, World Development Report IBRD are the other reports released by the World Bank.

Q63: Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally

a) agriculturists
b) warriors
c) weavers
d) traders

The correct answer is Option 4.

Banjaras

• In mediaeval India, there were numerous diverse tribal groups, some of which were nomadic hunters and gatherers.
• The banjaras were an example of a nomadic people.
• During India’s mediaeval age, banjaras were typically merchants or traders. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• During the reign of Alauddin Khalji, Banjaras were very important. Alauddin Khalji used the Banjaras to bring grain to the city marketplaces.
• The Banjaras were people who moved products from one location to another.
• According to Emperor Jahangir’s memoirs, the Banjaras transported grain from various regions on their bullocks and sold it in towns.

Q64: Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?

a) Georg Bilhler
b) James Prinsep
c) Max Muller
d) William Jones

The correct answer is Option 2.

• The Ashoka edicts were decrypted in 1837 by British archaeologist and historian James Prinsep. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• The Prinsep inscription turned out to be a collection of proclamations made by a ruler identifying himself as “Beloved-of-the-Gods King Piyadasi.”

Q65: With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of
the following statements is/are correct?

a) As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.

b) The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

The correct answer is 2 only.

Gram Nyayalayas/village courts

• It was established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act 2008.
• It was established with an aim to provide speedy and easy access to the justice system in the rural areas of India.
• It is presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who enjoys the same benefits as of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
• It tries both Civil and Criminal cases. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

As per the act, District Court shall, in consultation with the District Magistrate, prepare a panel consisting of the names of social workers at the village level having integrity for appointment as Conciliators who possess such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the High Court. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q66: With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statement

a) It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.

b) It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Trans-Pacific Partnership 

• It is a trade agreement between 12 pacific-rim countries: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, Vietnam, and the United States. It is not an agreement between all the pacific rim countries. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It was signed on 4 February 2016 in Auckland, New Zealand
• The agreement covers 40% of the world’s economy
• This is a trade agreement that would liberalize trade and investment among the 12 pacific-rim countries. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The objective is to promote economic growth; support the creation and retention of jobs; enhance innovation, productivity and competitiveness; raise living standards; reduce poverty in our countries; and promote transparency, good governance, and enhanced labour and environmental protections.

Q67: Consider the following statements:

The India-Africa Summit

a) held in 2015 was the third such Summit

b) was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is 1 only.

India-Africa Summit

• The first India-Africa Summit was held in 2008 in New Delhi.
• It is a forum to re-initiate and reboot relation between India and African countries.
• It is an official platform for the African-Indian relations and held once in every three years.
• The second and third summit was held in 2011 and 2015 in Addis Ababa and New Delhi respectively. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was not initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q68: What is/are the purpose/purposes of the `Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?

a) These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.

b) These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Marginal cost of funds-based lending rate (MCLR) 

• It is the lowest interest rate that a bank can charge borrowers.
• The Reserve Bank of India issued final guidelines for calculating interest rates on advances based on the marginal cost of funds.
• The transmission of policy rates into bank lending rates is also improved by these rules.
• It helps to improve transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining interest rates on advances. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• These guidelines are also expected to ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Marginal cost pricing of loans will help the banks become more competitive and enhance their long-run value and contribution to economic growth.

Q69: What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found in India?

a) It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in seawater.

b) It survives by grazing on mangroves.

c) It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

The Kharai camels

• It is a unique breed of the camel found only in Kutch of Gujarat and feed on mangroves on the island offshore. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It can swim up to three kilometres into the sea in search of mangroves, its primary food. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• People consume their milk, while male calves are sold for economic returns. Hence it can be domesticated. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Due to the breed’s capacity to thrive both on land and at sea, the Kharai camel is one of the most popular choices among graziers in the arid coastal region of Kutch.

Q70: Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?

a) Andaman Islands
b) Anaimalai Forests
c) Maikala Hills
d) Tropical rain forests of northeast

The correct answer is the Option 1.

• A new species of banana has been found by researchers from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in the Little Andaman islands’ remote tropical Krishna Nalah rain forest. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The typical banana species is just three to four metres high, whereas the new variety stands over 11 metres tall.
  Orange fruit pulp stands out from the white and yellow tint of typical bananas.
• Musa indandamanensis, a new and distinct sweet species of banana with orange pulp, has been discovered in the Andaman islands.
• The species was found by a team of scientists from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI).
• The newly discovered species is also thrice in the size of a regular banana species. 

Q71: Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

a) Amphibious warfare ship
b) Nuclear-powered submarine
c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

The correct answer is Option 3.

INS Astradharini 

• It was commissioned on October 6, 2015, and it is a torpedo launch and recovery vessel that was produced domestically. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It is an indigenously designed and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel built by Shoft Shipyard for the Indian Navy.
• INS Astradharini is a replacement of INS Astravahini that was built by Goa Shipyard Limited and P.S. and Company for the Indian Navy. It was decommissioned on 17 July 2015 after 31 years of service.
• The ship is equipped with cutting-edge navigation, power generating, and communication equipment.
• The ship is capable of travelling at up to 15 knots.

Q72: What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)’, recently in the news?

a) Electric plane tested by NASA
b) Solar-powered two-seater aircraft designed by Japan
c) Space observatory launched by China
d) Reusable rocket designed by ISRO

The correct answer is Option 1.

Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10):

• It is an electric plane that NASA created and successfully tested in flight. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It is a battery-powered aircraft with ten engines that can fly effectively and take off and land like a helicopter.
• It is a hybrid tilt-wing diesel-electric aircraft.
• It has a 10-foot wingspan, can fly effectively like an aeroplane, and can take off like a helicopter.

Q73: With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster approach.

b) Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have larger stake in this scheme.

c) An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro irrigation equipment.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millet Promotion (INSIMP)

• It was launched by the central government in 2011-12 to promote millets as “Nutri-cereals”.
• It intends to demonstrate improved production and post-harvest technologies in an integrated manner with visible impact in order to spark higher millet production in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Technology demonstration kits containing vital nutrients and plant protection measures, including micro-nutrients (but not micro-irrigation equipment), fungicides and bio-fertilizers, DAP, urea, potash, and pesticides including weedicides, will be provided to all farmers in the units at a cost of Rs. 3,000/- per ha for sorghum, pearl millet, and finger millet and Rs. 2,000/- per ha for small millets. Equipment for micro-irrigation is not included. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• These kits would be supplied free of cost to the beneficiary farmers subject to the maximum area of 2 hectares.
• Certain districts with large crop areas under millets but with productivity less than that of the National Average Yield could be taken up for the active promotion of production technologies through block demonstrations.
• For small millets, which have low productivity in general and are harvested by resource-poor tribal farmers in distant interior areas, production programmes would be developed in all selected districts, regardless of productivity levels. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q74: The `Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the

a) agitation against the Partition of Bengal
b) Home Rule Movement
c) Non-Cooperation Movement
d) visit of the Simon Commission to India

The correct answer is Option 1.

The Swadeshi movement in Bengal

• It was started by the Indian National Congress after Lord Curzon, who was viceroy of India at the time, announced the division of Bengal in July 1905. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The Boycott movement in the nation got its start as a result of the protest movement known as the Swadeshi movement.
• The main figures in the swadeshi movement are Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai. All political parties, with the exception of the Justice party and a portion of the Muslim League, rejected the commission.

Q75: With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements

a) The concept of Bodhisattva is central to Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

b) Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.

c) Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Bodhisattva

• It is central to the Mahayana sect of Buddhism. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Mahayana Buddhist tradition describes the bodhisattva as the person who pursues the road of enlightenment and engages in altruistic activities.
• The bodhisattva’s most important quality is compassion, which is an empathic sharing of others’ sufferings. Therefore,
• Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is held that the Bodhisattva makes four vows expressing a determination to work for the happiness of others; “However innumerable sentient beings are, I vow to save them; However inexhaustible the passions are, I vow to master them; however limitless the teachings are, I vow to study them; however infinite the Buddha-truth is, I vow to attain it.”  Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q76: Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontieres)’, often in the news, is

a) a division of World Health Organization
b) a non-governmental international organization
c) an inter-governmental agency sponsored by European Union
d) a specialized agency of the United Nations

The correct answer is Option 2.

Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF) or Doctors without Borders

• It is a non-governmental organisation. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It was founded on December 20, 1971.
• The worldwide humanitarian medical aid organisation operates in 69 nations.
• There is no actual “headquarters” for it. Despite the fact that the organisation was founded in France.

Doctors without Borders has expanded to become a global organisation with 24 separate chapters. It provides healthcare to some of the most underserved peoples on the earth, including those affected by diseases, armed conflicts, natural catastrophes, and man-made disasters.

Q77: With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct

a) It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.

b) It presents an approach that can help decisionmakers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)

• It is an international initiative that draws attention to the global economic benefits of biodiversity. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The TEEB study was initiated by Germany and the European Commission in response to a suggestion made by the G8+5
• Environment Ministers in Potsdam, Germany, in 2007.
• The project’s goal was to provide global research on the economics of biodiversity loss.
• The UNEP, IMF, and World Economic Forum do not host it. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

It tries to achieve this goal by using a structured approach to valuation that assists decision-makers in recognizing the wide range of benefits offered by ecosystems and biodiversity, demonstrating their economic values, and suggesting ways to capture those values in decision-making where appropriate. Hence statement 3 is correct. 

Q78: With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

a) It is a tree species found in a part of South India.

b) It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is 1 only.

Pterocarpus santalinus

• It is also known by Red Sanders, Red Saunders, Red Sandalwood, Rakt Chandan, and Saunders wood.
• It is a species of Pterocarpus endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats Mountain range of South India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is mostly found in Andhra Pradesh, where it thrives in dry, hot weather and does not grow in tropical rain forests. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It thrives on lateritic and gravelly soil and is typically found between 150 and 900 metres above sea level.
• It prefers dry, steep, and frequently rocky terrain and hill sides. It cannot stand water logging.

Q79: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) per design and effective implementation of UNREDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to

b) protection of biodiversity resilience of forest ecosystems

c) poverty reduction

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

• In 2005, the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held its first round of negotiations on the REDD+, or Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation, and the Role of Conservation, Sustainable Management of Forests, and Enhancement of Forest Carbon Stocks in Developing Countries.
• The primary goal was to reduce climate change by lowering net emissions of greenhouse gases by improving forest management in developing nations.
• The majority of the important REDD+ decisions were made by 2013; the rulebook’s final components were completed in 2015.
• It is predicated on the idea that without REDD+, forests in developing nations would have been cleared, hastening climate change.
• Proper implementation of the REDD+ strategies can help in tackling:
  • Forest degradation and biodiversity loss.
  • Improving Social standards reducing poverty.
  • Resilience of forest ecosystem.

Q80: What ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?

a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies

c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

The correct answer is Option 1.

Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHG Protocol)

• It is a tool for global accounting that helps leaders in industry and government comprehend, measure, and control greenhouse gas emissions. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development have been working together for ten years (WBCSD).
• It creates a comprehensive, global, standardised framework for measuring and managing emissions from operations, value chains, products, cities, and policies in the public and private sectors.
• It collaborates with businesses, governments, and environmental organisations from all over the world to create a new generation of credible and successful programmes for combating climate change.
• In addition, the GHG Protocol offers training on its standards and instruments via webinar, e-learning, in-person sessions, and capacity-building assistance.
• In addition, GHG Protocol offers companies and organizations the opportunity to apply for our “Built on GHG Protocol” mark that recognizes sector guidance, product rules, or tools that are in conformance with GHG Protocol Standards.

Q81: With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements

a) It is an organ of NITI Aayog.

b) It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.

c) It monitors macro prudential supervision of the economy.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)

• It was established by Executive Order in 2010 and serves as the Ministry of Finance’s non-statutory apex council. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Its members comprise the heads of all financial sector regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, and IRDA), the finance secretary, the secretaries of the departments of economic affairs (DEA), financial services (DFS), and chief economic adviser.
• It is presided over by the finance minister. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The objective of FSDC is to Strengthening and institutionalising the system for preserving financial stability is FSDC’s primary goal. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Improving inter-regulatory coordination and encouraging the growth of the financial sector.
• Keep an eye on the macroprudential control of the economy.
• It will evaluate how well the major financial corporations are operating.

Q82: With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

a) It is a global action plan for sustainable development

b) It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Agenda 21

• It is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by organizations of the United Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in every area in which human impacts on the environment.
• It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Q83: Satya Shodhak Samaj organized

a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
d) a peasant movement in Punjab

The correct answer is Option 3.

Satya Shodak Samaj 

• It is an Anti-caste movement in Maharashtra. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The fundamental goal was to free the so-called “lower castes” from oppression and exploitation.
• Jyotirao Phule created Satyashodhak Samaj.
• It was established on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra.
• It was against brahminical dominance and in favour of the emancipation of the lower castes, untouchables, and widows.
• Tenants revolted against their brahman landlords in Satara in 1919, in tandem with the Samaj’s anti-religious ideology.
• It arrived with its ideology that mocked brahman superiority, and the process of rebellion in other cities in Maharashtra took a similar shape.
• Peasants abandoned their reliance on brahmans for religious ceremonies, disrupted brahman ceremonies, violated temples, and broke idols.
• These peasant revolts in Maharashtra demonstrated that the Satyashodhak Samaj’s ideology was appealing to the general public and capable of inciting group action.

Q84: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) Viruses can infect

b) bacteria

c) fungi

d) plants

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Viruses

• It can infect almost any kind of host that has living cells.
• Animals, plants, fungi, and bacteria etc. can get infected by a virus.
• It can replicate only inside the living cells of an organism.
• Viruses infect all types of life forms.
• A bacteriophage is a virus that infects and replicates within a bacterium. 
• Mycoviruses are viruses that infect fungi.
• A host of other Viruses affect plants.
• Viruses are diverse. They vary in their structure, their replication methods, and in their target hosts or even host cells.
• While most biological diversity can be understood through evolutionary history, such as how species have adapted to conditions and environments, much about virus origins and evolution remains unknown.

Q85: The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

a) mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich but backward areas

b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies

c) exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companies

d) lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning and implementation of developmental projects

The correct answer is Option 2.

Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS)

• It has to do with tax avoidance tactics used by businesses to artificially transfer earnings to low- or no-tax jurisdictions by taking advantage of gaps and inconsistencies in tax laws. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• More than 135 nations and jurisdictions work together within the inclusive framework to implement the BEPS measures and reduce BEPS.
• To stop this behaviour, member countries communicate tax information with one another and sign double tax avoidance treaties.

Q86: Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in

a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Gujarat
c) Maharashtra
d) Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Option 1.

National Investment & Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs)

• It is one of the important instruments of National Manufacturing Policy, 2011. 
• NIMZs are envisaged as large areas of developed land with the requisite eco-system for promoting world class manufacturing activity. 
• Andhra Pradesh has been selected as the location for India’s first national investment and manufacturing zone (NIMZ). Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The government offers various facilities like incentives like exemption from capital gains tax and liberalised norms to promote these zones.
• NIMZs are mega industrial zones or integrated townships with world-class supporting infrastructure.
• The NIMZ consist of a special purpose vehicle and a developer, along with the state and the central governments as stakeholders.

Q87: What is/are the purpose/purposes of `District Mineral Foundations in India?

a) Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts

b) Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations

c) Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration

The correct answer is 2 only.

District Mineral Foundation (DMF)

• It is a non-profit body primarily established in those districts affected by the mining works. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is supported by miner contributions and works in the interests of those whose lives are impacted by mining-related operations as well as the communities in which they occur.
• District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) must be established in every district of the nation that is impacted by mining-related activities.
• The Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Act of 2015 (MMDRA) established it as a requirement.
• Each State Government is responsible for overseeing the operation and regulation of DMF.
• It does not promote mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts. Hence Statement 1 is not correct
• It does not authorize states to issue a license for mineral exploration. Hence Statement 3 is not correct. 

Q88: `SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at

a) promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas
b) providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
c) promoting the education and health of adolescent girls
d) providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free

The correct answer is Option 4.

SWAYAM

• It is an abbreviation for “Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds,” which is a Hindi acronym.
• It is a Ministry of Human Resource Development online platform that provides online programs/courses to students in India.
• SWAYAM was introduced on July 9, 2017.
• It offers Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) that offer high-quality instruction in a variety of areas to students in grades 9 through 12, as well as in Undergraduate and Postgraduate programmes.
• The scheme aims to provide free high-quality e-content to all colleges and universities free of cost. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Students who want a SWAYAM certificate must sign up for the final proctored tests, which cost money, and take them in person at certain locations on certain dates.

Q89: The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to

a) social reforms
b) educational reforms
c) reforms in police administration
d) constitutional reforms

The correct answer is Option 4.

Montagu-Chelmsford reforms:

• The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms were implemented in India by the British administration in 1919.
• Lord Chelmsford was India’s Viceroy at the time, while Edwin Montagu served as the country’s Secretary of State for India.
• It announced that India would gradually become a part of the British Empire and get responsible government.
• Important provisions of the act:
• Separate Preamble & End of Benevolent Despotism.
• Introduction of Diarchy.
• This act made the central legislature bicameral.
• The act provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India for the first time.

Q90: What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?

a) Both were built in the same period.

b) Both belong to the same religious denomination.

c) Both have rock-cut monuments

The correct answer is 3 only.

Ajanta Caves

• The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra’s Aurangabad district are a group of 30 Buddhist rock-cut cave monuments that date from the second century BCE to roughly 480 or 650 CE.
• The majority of the monuments are linked to the reign of Narasimha Varman-I, Mamalla (AD 630-68), the Pallava emperor, even though there is some indication of architectural activity dating back to Mahendravarman-I, the father of Mamalla (AD 600-30).
• Different eras saw the excavation of the Ajanta caves. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Ajanta was a member of the Buddhist faith. While scenes from Mahabalipuram, like as Arjuna’s penance and the Jala-Sayana Perumal Temple, are primarily associated with Vaishnavites. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Because Chaityas, Viharas, and Stupas were all carved out of rock in Ajanta, both are rock-cut structures. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Q91: With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.

b) Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address.

c) Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.

The correct answer is ​2 and 3 only.

The Bitcoin system

• It is peer-to-peer, and transactions take place directly between users.
• There isn’t any involvement from a middleman.
• Therefore, neither the Central Bank nor any middleman can trace it. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Anywhere in the globe, anyone can receive bitcoins directly. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The sender must simply have the recipient’s Bitcoin address in order to send money.
• The transaction can be carried out anonymously. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Q92: Consider the following statements:

a) New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.

b) The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is 2 only.

New development bank

• India presented the idea to establish the New Development Bank at the 4th BRICS summit in Delhi in 2012.
• The BRICS nations established the new development bank in 2014. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Its main office is in Shanghai, China. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Bank’s primary responsibility is to support public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity investments, and other financial instruments. In addition, the Bank collaborates with other financial institutions and international organisations and offers technical assistance for projects.
• Johannesburg, South Africa, is home to the NDB’s first regional office.
• The BRICS, or Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, is an organisation of five significant emerging national economies.

Q94: ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to

a) Constitutional reforms
b) Ganga Action Plan
c) linking of rivers
d) protection of Western Ghats

The correct answer is Option 4.

The Gadgil Committee Report and the Kasturirangan Committee Report are both concerned with the conservation of the Western Ghats.

The Gadgil Committee

• It is also known as the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP).
• Madhav Gadgil served as the Gadgil Committee’s chairman.
• The Gadgil Committee was an environmental study committee that the Indian Ministry of Environment and Forests created.
• On August 31, 2011, the group’s report was sent to the Indian government.
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests should establish the Western Ghats Ecology Authority (WGEA) as a statutory body having authority under section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

The Kasturirangan Committee

• It was established in August 2012 and was led by Kasturirangan, succeeded the Gadgil Committee.
• The Kasturirangan committee recommended a ban on mining, quarrying, and mining, as well as new polluting industries.
• It was a High-Level Working Group on the Western Ghats to examine the Gadgil Committee report in a holistic and multidisciplinary manner in light of the responses received from Central Ministries, State, and others.

Q95: Consider the following:

a) Calcutta Unitarian Committee

b) Tabernacle of New Dispensation

c) Indian Reform Association

Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Raja Ram Mohan Roy formed the Calcutta Unitarian Committee. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

Keshab Chandra Sen 

• He was a social reformer from Bengal.
• In 1856, he joined the Brahmo Samaj.
• Keshab Chandra Sen lay the cornerstone for his mandir, the Tabernacle of New Dispensation, on January 24, 1868. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The first Brahmo street procession in Calcutta was led by Keshab and his followers, who marched to the designated location early in the morning while singing sankirtan. It was denounced by Adi Samaj as being beneath Brahmoism.
• He additionally belonged to the Indian Reform Association. Its objective also included to create public opinion against child marriage, get Brahmo form of marriage legalized, promote the status of women. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The Indian reform association strived to legalize Brahmo marriage and to fix the minimum age of marriage.

Q95: Which of the following is not a member of `Gulf Cooperation Council’?

a) Iran
b) Saudi Arabia
c) Oman
d) Kuwait

The correct answer is Option 1. 

The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)

• It is an association of six nations from the Middle East.
• Bahrain, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman, and the UAE are GCC members.
• Iran is not a GCC member. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The GCC’s main office is in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, and all of its present members are monarchies.
• The highest decision-making body in the GCC is the supreme council.
• It establishes a vision and goals.
• There is one vote per member state.
• Procedural decisions require a majority, but decisions on substantive issues require unanimous consent.

Q96: What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’?

a) To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy

b) To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector

c) To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme

• Under the Gold Monetization Scheme, the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was introduced in November 2015.
• Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are government securities issued by the RBI on behalf of the government and denominated in kilos of gold.
• The Gold Monetization Scheme aims to minimise the nation’s dependency on gold imports by facilitating the use of household gold that is already in circulation for productive purposes. Hence statement 1 and 3 is correct.
• All Scheduled Commercial Banks excluding RRBs are eligible to implement the Scheme.
• Both the schemes are not intended to promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q97: ‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

a) African Union
b) Brazil
c) European Union
d) China

The correct answer is Option 4.

The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)

• It was introduced by China’s President Xi Jinping in 2013, is another name for the OBOR initiative. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The term ‘Belt’ can also refer to the Silk Road Economic Belt.
• The Initiative, which spans the continents of Asia, Europe, and Africa, intends to integrate the East Asian economic region with the European economic circle and strengthen sub-regional and regional collaboration.

Q98: Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at

a) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system
b) providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops
c) providing pensions to old and destitute persons
d) funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation

The correct answer is Option 1.

Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana:

• On April 8, 2015, Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled the programme.
• It is a flagship programme that seeks to integrate small business owners into the official financial system by providing micro and small businesses with accessible loans. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It offers small and micro businesses that are neither corporations or farms loans up to Rs. 10 lakh.
• The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA loan offers three products:
• Paying back loans up to Rs. 50,000 made through Shishu.
• Covering loans under Kishore from over Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 500,000.
• Tarun loan coverage ranging from Rs. 500,000 and Rs. 10,000.

Q99: In which of the following regions of India are shale
gas resources found?

a) Cambay Basin

b) Cauvery Basin

c) Krishna-Godavari Basin

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

• Six basins have been recognised by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) as having shale gas potential.
• These are the Indo-Gangetic plain, Krishna-Godavari, Gondwana, Assam-Arakan, and Cambay. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Shale gas is trapped under low permeable rocks, which are typically found next to rocks providing usable/drinking water known as “aquifers.”
• Shale rocks are fine-grained sedimentary rocks that can be rich resources of petroleum and natural gas.

Q100: ‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the

a) European Central Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
c) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
d) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

The correct answer is Option 2.

IMF

It was set up along with the World Bank after the Second World War to assist in the reconstruction of war-ravaged countries.

• The two organizations agreed to be set up at a conference in Bretton Woods in the US. Hence, they are known as the Bretton Woods twins.
• Created in 1945, the IMF is governed by and accountable to the 189 countries that make up its near-global membership. India joined on 27th December 1945.
• The IMF’s primary purpose is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system — the system of exchange rates and international payments that enables countries (and their citizens) to transact with each other.
• The Fund’s mandate was updated in 2012 to include all macroeconomic and financial sector issues that bear on global stability.
• Global Financial Stability Report Of IMF
  • The Global Financial Stability Report provides an assessment of the global financial system and markets and addresses emerging market financing in a global context.

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