Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Rupee’s Performance
Statement-I: Global trade dynamics play a significant role in determining the strength or weakness of the Indian Rupee
Statement-II: The rupee’s strength or weakness is solely determined by its exchange rate with the US dollar.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: 2
| Explanation | Why this question- Between the end of April 2014 and the present, the rupee has experienced a depreciation of 27.6% against the US dollar, declining from Rs 60.34 to Rs 83.38. Source: IE Explanation: Statement I is Correct It correctly identifies that global trade dynamics, which involve trade with various countries beyond the US, influence the strength of the Indian Rupee. The exchange rate of the rupee is affected not only by its rate against the US dollar but also against other currencies worldwide. Statement II is Incorrect This statement is incorrect because it states that the rupee’s strength or weakness is solely determined by its exchange rate with the US dollar, which is not true. The rupee’s strength is influenced by its exchange rates with multiple global currencies due to India’s extensive trade relationships. Therefore, Statement-II does not provide an accurate representation of the factors influencing the rupee’s strength. |
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Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Chambal River
1. An important river in the Malwa plateau, serving as a principal tributary of the Yamuna River within the greater Gangetic drainage system.
2. Its main tributaries include the Banas and Mej rivers on the left, and the Parbati, KaliSindh, and Shipra rivers on the right
3. Gandhi Sagar Dam is an important dam on Chambal river.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- only two
- all three
- none
Answer: 3
Why this question- In a recent incident near a jetty in Kota, Rajasthan, the bodies of a man and a woman were discovered in the Chambal River, prompting suspicion of a suicide case.
Source: MD
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
About Chambal River
- Location: An important river in the Malwa plateau, serving as a principal tributary of the Yamuna River within the greater Gangetic drainage system.
- States Flowing Through: Flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
- Pollution: Considered one of the most pollution-free rivers in India.
Statement 2 is Correct
Course
- Source: Rises in the Vindhya Range just south of Mhow, in western Madhya Pradesh.
- Flow: Travels north into southeastern Rajasthan, then turns northeast, passing Kota and along the Rajasthan–Madhya Pradesh border. Shifts east-southeast, forming a part of the Uttar Pradesh–Madhya Pradesh border, before emptying into the Yamuna.
- Length: Total length of 960 km.
- Drainage Basin: Rainfed river with a drainage basin covering an area of 143,219 sq. km. Bordered by the Vindhyan mountain ranges to the south, east, and west, and the Aravalli range to the northwest.
- Tributaries: Main tributaries include the Banas and Mej rivers on the left, and the Parbati, KaliSindh, and Shipra rivers on the right.
Statement 3 is Correct
Major Dams
- Gandhi Sagar Dam.
- Rana Pratap Sagar Dam
- Jawahar Sagar Dam
National Chambal Sanctuary
- Location: Encompasses a significant segment of the Chambal River, from the Jawahar Sagar Dam in Rajasthan to the Chambal-Yamuna confluence in Uttar Pradesh.
- Purpose: Established to restore ecological balance to the river system and provide protection to the highly endangered gharial crocodile.
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Army Tactical Missile Systems (ATACMS)?
1. ATACMS is a non-conventional surface-to-air artillery weapon system designed to strike targets beyond the range of existing Army cannons, rockets, and missiles
2. They are powered by a single-stage, solid propellant engine
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Option 1
- Option 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 and 2
Answer: 1
| Explanation | Why this question- The United States recently confirmed providing long-range Army Tactical Missile Systems (ATACMS) to Ukraine to support its war effort against Russia. Source: IE Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect About Army Tactical Missile Systems (ATACMS) Description: ATACMS is a conventional surface-to-surface artillery weapon system designed to strike targets beyond the range of existing Army cannons, rockets, and missiles. Manufacturer: Manufactured by the US defense company Lockheed Martin. Designations: Also known as M39 by the US Army and designated as MGM-140 by the Department of Defense (DoD). First Use: Saw initial deployment during the 1991 Persian Gulf War. Operators: Besides the US, known operators include Bahrain, Greece, South Korea, Taiwan, and the United Arab Emirates. Statement 2 is Correct Features ATACMS are 24/7, all-weather, surface-to-surface, inertially guided ballistic missiles. Range: Capable of reaching targets up to about 190 miles (305 km). Propulsion: Powered by a single-stage, solid propellant engine. Launch Platforms: Fired from the High Mobility Artillery Rocket System (HIMARS) and the M270 Multiple Launch Rocket System (MLRS) platforms. The MLRS can launch 12 surface-to-surface missiles in less than a minute. Munition Capability: Can carry cluster munitions, releasing hundreds of bomblets to cover a targeted area instead of a single warhead. Target Profiles: Targets include air defense artillery sites, surface-to-surface missile units, logistics sites, command and control complexes, and helicopter forward operating bases. |
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Q4. Consider the following statements
- Pesticides are regulated under the Insecticides Act, 1968 and the Insecticides Rules, 1971
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a statutory body formed under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2016
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Option 1: Only one
Option 2: Only two
Option 3: All three
Option 4: None
Answer: Option 1
Why this question- The Food Safety Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has recently come under scrutiny for its decision to increase the maximum residue limit (MRL) of pesticides, a move that has stirred controversy among activists and scientists.
Source: DTE
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
What is Pesticide Poisoning?
- About
- Pesticide is any chemical or biological substance intended to prevent, destroy or control damage from pests which has both agricultural and non-agricultural uses.
- They also pose serious risks to human health and the environment, especially when they are misused, overused, or sold illegally.
- Pesticide Regulation in India
- Pesticides are regulated under the Insecticides Act, 1968 and the Insecticides Rules, 1971.
- The Insecticides Act of 1968 covers the registration, manufacture and sale of pesticides in India.
- The Act is administered by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- Types of Pesticides
- Insecticides: The chemicals that are used to protect plants from insects and pests are known as Insecticides.
- Fungicides: This class of crop protection chemicals is used to control the spread of fungal diseases in plants.
- Herbicides: Herbicides are chemicals that kill or control the growth of weeds in the cultivation area.
- Bio-Pesticides: They are pesticides of biological origin, i.e., derived from animals, plants, bacteria etc.
- Others: This includes plant growth regulators, nematicides, rodenticides and fumigants.
- Concept of Pesticide Poisoning
- Pesticide poisoning is a term that refers to the adverse effects of exposure to pesticides on humans or animals.
- Pesticide exposure can cause adverse health effects including cancer, effects on reproduction, and immune or nervous systems.
- According to the World Health Organization (WHO), pesticide poisoning is one of the leading causes of death among agricultural workers worldwide.
- Types of Pesticide Poisoning
- Acute poisoning occurs when a person ingests, inhales, or comes into contact with a large amount of pesticide in a short period.
- Chronic poisoning occurs when a person is exposed to low doses of pesticide over a long period, which can cause damage to various organs and systems in the body.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
What is the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India?
- About
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a statutory body formed under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
- The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced acts like the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act,1954, Fruit Products Order, 1955, Meat Food Products Order, 1973.
- It operates under the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- Mandate
- The FSSAI has the mandate of regulating the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import of food articles, and also establishing standards to ensure food safety.
- Structure and Organization
- It is made up of 22 members and a Chair-person, where one-third of the members must be women.
- Functions
- Setting Food Safety Standards: It has the power to lay down regulations to implement food safety standards in the country.
- Food Testing Accreditation: It has the power to set up guidelines for the accreditation of food testing laboratories in the country.
- Inspecting Authority Powers: Food safety officers have the right to enter and inspect any place where food products are manufactured, stored, or exhibited.
- Food Safety Research: The Research and Development division of FSSAI is responsible for research in the field of food safety standards. They continuously try to adopt international food standards.
- Identifying Threats: The FSSAI is required to collect data regarding food consumption, contamination, emerging risks, etc.
- Events and Campaigns of FSSAI
- World Food Safety Day.
- Eat Right India.
- Eat Right Station.
- Eat Right Mela.
- State Food Safety Index.
- RUCO (Repurpose Used Cooking Oil).
- Food Safety Mitra.
- 100 Food Streets.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
- The FSSAI is actually an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, but it is not directly under the charge of the Director General of Health Services
- The FSSAI is headed by a Chair-person who is in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, and it has a Chief Executive Officer (CEO) for its operational management
- The role of the Director General of Health Services primarily pertains to overseeing public health services and programs, which is distinct from the regulatory and standard-setting functions of the FSSAI. The FSSAI’s mandate includes laying down science-based standards for food products and regulating their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import to ensure safe and wholesome food for human consumption
- Therefore, the FSSAI functions with a degree of independence in its operations and governance, aimed at maintaining food safety standards across India, separate from the direct oversight of the Director General of Health Services .
Q5. With reference to Critical Minerals Summit consider the following statements
- The Ministry of Mines collaborates with the Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation to organise critical minerals summit.
- It addresses the rising demand for Critical Raw Materials (CRMs) crucial for renewable energy systems and electric vehicles, aligning with India’s strategic development objectives.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Option 1: 1 only
Option 2: 2 only
Option 3: Both 1 and 2
Option 4: Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: Option 1
Why this question– The Ministry of Mines is set to host a two-day event titled “Critical Minerals Summit: Enhancing Beneficiation and Processing Capabilities” at the India Habitat Centre in Lodhi Estate, New Delhi.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
Critical Minerals Summit Overview
- Organizers: The Ministry of Mines, Government of India, collaborates with the Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation (Shakti), the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW), and the Indian Institute of Sustainable Development (IISD).
- Purpose: The summit aims to facilitate collaboration, knowledge sharing, and innovation in critical mineral beneficiation and processing.
Statement 2 is Correct
- Participants: Diverse stakeholders, including industry leaders, startups, government officials, scientists, academics, and policy experts from India and abroad, will convene at the summit.
- Focus Areas: Addressing the rising demand for Critical Raw Materials (CRMs) crucial for renewable energy systems and electric vehicles, aligning with India’s strategic development objectives.
- Key Minerals: Eight key minerals identified by the Ministry of Mines for focus at the summit include Glauconite (Potash), Lithium – Rare Earth Elements (Laterite), Chromium, Platinum Group, Graphite, Tungsten associated with Graphite, Rare Earths (RE), and Vanadium associated with Graphite.
- Dialogue and Workshops: Participants will engage in active dialogue and interactive workshops on critical topics such as mineral auction progress, policy incentives for CRM ecosystem development, and the advancement of commercially viable and environmentally sustainable solutions.
Insights into Critical Minerals
- Definition and Characteristics: Critical minerals are metallic or non-metallic elements essential for modern technologies, economies, or national security, with a risk of supply chain disruptions.
- Applications: They are used in various advanced technologies, low-emission technologies, and common products, including electronics, electric vehicles, wind turbines, solar panels, and stainless steel.
- Examples: Examples of critical minerals include antimony, beryllium, cobalt, lithium, vanadium, and others.
- Top Producers: Leading producers of critical minerals globally include Chile, Indonesia, Congo, China, Australia, and South Africa.
Critical Minerals in India
- Government List: The Indian government has identified 30 critical minerals crucial for the country, including Antimony, Beryllium, Cobalt, Copper, Lithium, Niobium, and others.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the paradox of savings
Statement-I: The paradox of savings posits that an increase in individual savings rates may paradoxically lead to a decrease rather than an increase in overall savings within an economy.
Statement-II: Keynesian economists advocate against higher savings rates, contending that stimulating consumer spending is crucial for economic growth.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
Option 1: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Option 2: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Option 3: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Option 4: Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: Option 1
Why this question- The paradox of savings contends that an increase in individuals’ savings can paradoxically lead to a notable decline in overall savings and investment.
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement I is Correct
- It correctly outlines the paradox of savings, which suggests that higher individual savings rates may lead to a decrease in overall savings within an economy due to decreased consumer spending.
Statement II is Correct
- Statement-II accurately reflects the perspective of Keynesian economists, who argue against higher savings rates and emphasize the importance of stimulating consumer spending for economic growth.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain the paradox of savings mentioned in Statement-I. While it presents a related viewpoint advocating against high savings rates, it does not provide a direct explanation for why increased savings may paradoxically lead to reduced overall savings.
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance
1. The Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance comprises world leaders and experts from various sectors collaborating to expedite political action on antimicrobial resistance
2. Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) refers to the capability of bacteria and other microbes to withstand the effects of drugs intended to inhibit or kill them
3. While AMR is a natural occurrence, the primary cause of resistance to antimicrobials stems from deficient use of antimicrobial drugs
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Option 1: Only one
Option 2: Only two
Option 3: All three
Option 4: None
Answer: 1
Why this question- In Barcelona, Spain, the European Society for Clinical Microbiology and Infectious Diseases and the Global Leaders Group (GLG) on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) collaboratively hosted a prestigious event titled ‘Forging Partnerships Between Science and Policy.’
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct
The Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance: Key Aspects and Background
- The Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance comprises world leaders and experts from various sectors collaborating to expedite political action on antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
- Functioning autonomously, the group plays a vital global advisory and advocacy role, aiming to sustain urgency, garner public support, maintain political momentum, and enhance the visibility of the AMR challenge on the global health and development agenda.
- Established in November 2020 at the recommendation of the Interagency Coordination Group (IACG) on Antimicrobial Resistance, the Global Leaders Group on AMR seeks to bolster worldwide political momentum and leadership on the issue.
- The inaugural meeting of the Group convened in January 2021, marking the initiation of collaborative efforts towards addressing AMR challenges.
- The Quadripartite Joint Secretariat (QJS) on Antimicrobial Resistance, jointly operated by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE), provides secretariat support for the Group.
Statement 2 is Correct
Understanding Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)
- Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) refers to the capability of bacteria and other microbes to withstand the effects of drugs intended to inhibit or kill them.
- Often termed ‘superbugs,’ these microbes are accountable for drug-resistant infections that pose significant challenges in treatment.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
- Causes of AMR
- While AMR is a natural occurrence, the primary cause of resistance to antimicrobials stems from the extensive use of antimicrobial drugs.
- Elevated usage of antimicrobial drugs in humans, animals, and plants contributes to a troubling escalation in drug resistance, rendering infections increasingly difficult to manage.
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding Salmonella
- Salmonella comprises a group of viruses known for causing gastrointestinal illness and fever, a condition referred to as salmonellosis.
- Risks associated with Salmonella infection include symptoms such as diarrhea, fever, and stomach cramps
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Option 1: 1 only
Option 2: 2 only
Option 3: Both 1 and 2
Option 4: Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: Option 1
Why this question– Since October 2023, the United States has allegedly rejected nearly one-third of shipments from Mahashian Di Hatti Pvt Ltd (MDH) due to concerns over salmonella contamination.
Source: ET
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Understanding Salmonella: Causes, Transmission, and Risks
- Salmonella comprises a group of bacteria known for causing gastrointestinal illness and fever, a condition referred to as salmonellosis.
- Naturally inhabiting the intestines of animals, Salmonella can be present in their feces, posing a risk of transmission to humans.
- Transmission to humans occurs when they come into contact with Salmonella-infected animals or contaminated items within their environment.
Statement 2 is Correct
- Salmonella is characterized by its widespread presence and resilience, capable of surviving for several weeks in dry environments and several months in water.
- Risks associated with Salmonella infection include symptoms such as diarrhea, fever, and stomach cramps.
- Certain demographics, including children under 5 years old, adults over 65 years old, and individuals with weakened immune systems, are particularly vulnerable to experiencing severe illness requiring medical intervention or hospitalization as a result of Salmonella infection.
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding The Great Rift Valley
1. The Great Rift Valley stands as one of the most expansive rifts on Earth’s surface, spanning a distance of approximately 4,000 miles across South Africa
2. The Great Rift Valley owes its existence to the convergence of three tectonic plates, originating approximately 40 million years ago when these plates split, initiating the formation of the African Rift
3. These valleys can be found on land and generally not found beneath the ocean.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Option 1: Only one
Option 2: Only two
Option 3: All three
Option 4: None
Answer: Option 1
Why this question- Heavy rains and floods wreaked havoc in Kenya’s Rift Valley region, resulting in a tragic incident where a dam burst its banks near a town, claiming the lives of at least 42 individuals.
Source: News18
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Exploring the Great Rift Valley: Features, Formation, and Significance
- The Great Rift Valley stands as one of the most expansive rifts on Earth’s surface, spanning a distance of approximately 4,000 miles (6,400 kilometers) across East Africa.
- Stretching from Jordan in southwestern Asia to the central coast of Mozambique in the Indian Ocean, it traverses numerous countries including Eritrea, Djibouti, Ethiopia, Kenya, Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Malawi, Zambia, and Mozambique.
- This geological wonder is part of the broader East African Rift System (EARS).
Statement 2 is Correct
Formation
- The Great Rift Valley owes its existence to the convergence of three tectonic plates, originating approximately 40 million years ago when these plates split, initiating the formation of the East African Rift.
- With an average width ranging from 30 to 40 miles (48 to 64 kilometers), the valley widens significantly to nearly 300 miles (480 kilometers) in the Danakil Desert of northeastern Africa.
- Its steep walls tower above the valley floor, reaching heights of about 3,000 feet (900 meters) and cliffs soaring up to 9,000 feet (2,700 meters) in some regions.
- Characterized by geological activity, the area boasts features such as volcanoes, hot springs, geysers, and frequent seismic events.
- Along its expanse, a chain of approximately thirty lakes is found, including the renowned Great Lakes of Africa, such as Lake Tanganyika, the world’s second-deepest lake, and Lake Victoria, the second-largest freshwater lake by surface area globally.
- The Great Rift Valley is home to several of Africa’s highest peaks, including Mount Kilimanjaro, Mount Kenya, and Mount Margherita, situated in ranges that flank the valley.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Understanding Rift Valleys
- A rift valley is a lowland region formed by the movement of Earth’s tectonic plates, where they diverge or rift apart.
- These valleys can be found both on land and beneath the ocean, where they originate from the process of seafloor spreading.
- Rift valleys are distinct from river valleys and glacial valleys as they are shaped primarily by tectonic forces rather than erosion processes.
Q10. With reference to IMF’s Stand-By Arrangement consider the following statements
1. The Stand-By Arrangement (SBA) is designed to offer Long-term financial aid to countries grappling with balance of payments challenges. It has historically been the preferred lending mechanism for both advanced and emerging market economies
2. IMF was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, its primary objective was to reconstruct the international monetary system.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Option 1: 1 only
Option 2: 2 only
Option 3: Both 1 and 2
Option 4: Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 1
Why this question– As part of the bailout package backed by the IMF’s Stand-By Arrangement (SBA), the International Monetary Fund has authorized an immediate disbursement of USD 1.1 billion to Pakistan
Source: TH
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect
The IMF’s Stand-By Arrangement: Key Aspects and IMF Overview
- The Stand-By Arrangement (SBA) is designed to offer short-term financial aid to countries grappling with balance of payments challenges. It has historically been the preferred lending mechanism for both advanced and emerging market economies.
- Eligibility for the SBA extends to all member nations facing actual or potential external financing difficulties. While it is predominantly utilized by advanced and emerging market economies, low-income countries occasionally access the SBA alongside the Standby Credit Facility (SCF).
- Conditionality is a central feature of the SBA, requiring recipient countries to address the underlying issues that prompted their request for financial support. Disbursements are contingent upon meeting specified quantitative performance criteria. Additionally, progress in implementing essential structural reforms is evaluated comprehensively, including through predefined benchmarks.
- The duration of assistance under the SBA is flexible, typically spanning a period of 12 to 24 months, with a maximum extension of 36 months.
Statement 2 is Correct
- Key aspects of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) include its role in fostering economic growth and employment through temporary financial aid to facilitate balance of payments adjustments and technical assistance.
- Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, the IMF’s primary objective was to reconstruct the international monetary system.
- Noteworthy publications issued by the IMF include the World Economic Outlook and the Global Financial Stability Report.
- The IMF’s headquarters are located in Washington, DC, USA.
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Ocean Warming
- The Indian Ocean has experienced a temperature rise of 1.2°C from 1950 to 2020, with projections indicating a further increase by 1.7°C to 3.8°C from 2020 to 2100.
- Predictions suggest a surge in marine heatwave occurrences, potentially escalating from an average of 20 days per year to 220–250 days annually, which can expedite cyclone formation and lead to prolonged heatwave conditions in the tropical Indian Ocean, posing risks to coral reefs, seagrass, and kelp forests vital to fisheries.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: B
| Why this question- A recent study conducted by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) in Pune suggests a tenfold surge in marine heatwaves, which could lead to the escalation of cyclones. The study indicates an increase from 20 days to 220–250 days per year. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation:Statement I is CorrectThe report mentions that the Indian Ocean has indeed experienced a temperature rise of 1.2°C from 1950 to 2020, with further projections indicating an increase by 1.7°C to 3.8°C from 2020 to 2100.Statement II is CorrectPredictions do suggest a surge in marine heatwave occurrences, potentially escalating from an average of 20 days per year to 220–250 days annually. These heatwaves can indeed expedite cyclone formation and lead to prolonged heatwave conditions in the tropical Indian Ocean, posing risks to marine ecosystems.Statement-II provides additional information about the impacts of marine heatwaves on cyclone formation and marine ecosystems but does not directly explain why the Indian Ocean has experienced a temperature rise. The two statements provide complementary information rather than a cause-and-effect relationship. |
Q12. Consider the following statements
- The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
- The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does
- The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- While global food prices experienced a significant drop from their highs in 2022, India’s food inflation remained elevated at 9.5% in December 2023, contrasting with the global deflation rate of -10.1%. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is CorrectThe CPI and WPI are two key measures of inflation used in India. The CPI measures the average change in prices paid by urban consumers for a basket of goods and services, while the WPI measures the average change in the selling prices received by producers.In the CPI, the basket of goods and services includes a significant portion allocated to food items as they form a substantial part of the expenditure for urban consumers. Therefore, the weightage of food in the CPI is relatively higher compared to the WPI, which focuses more on wholesale prices across all sectors of the economy.Statement 2 is CorrectThe WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.This statement is also correct. While the CPI considers changes in prices across various goods and services consumed by urban consumers, including both goods and services, the WPI primarily focuses on changes in the prices of goods traded in wholesale markets. It does not include services in its calculation. Therefore, the WPI may not fully capture inflationary pressures arising from changes in service prices, which are an essential component of household expenditures.Statement 3 is IncorrectThe Reserve Bank of India (RBI) primarily uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its key measure of inflation to guide its monetary policy decisions, including setting key policy rates such as the repo rate.The CPI is considered a more comprehensive measure of inflation from a monetary policy perspective because it reflects the actual prices paid by consumers for a basket of goods and services. Since the RBI’s primary objective is to maintain price stability, it pays closer attention to CPI inflation, especially the CPI combined (CPI-C), which includes both urban and rural areas.While the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is also monitored by the RBI and provides insights into inflationary trends in the production and wholesale sectors of the economy, it is not the primary measure used for monetary policy decisions. The WPI is more indicative of inflationary pressures at earlier stages of the supply chain, which may not directly translate into consumer price inflation.Therefore, the RBI relies predominantly on CPI inflation data to assess the overall inflationary environment and make decisions regarding changes in key policy rates, such as the repo rate, which influences borrowing costs and overall economic activity in the country. |
Q13. Consider the following statements regarding Front-running
- Front-running is considered legal in India.
- Front-running involves trading securities based on material, non-public information about a company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question– Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) sanctioned amendments to mutual fund regulations aimed at curbing front-running within asset management companies (AMCs). |
| Source: TT |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is IncorrectFront-running is deemed illegal in India. It involves engaging in a trade using pre-existing non-public information about a significant transaction, aiming to gain economic advantages from potential changes in asset prices, equities, or derivatives. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.Statement 2 is IncorrectFront-running does not involve trading securities based on material, non-public information about a company. Instead, it entails trading securities based on knowledge of pending orders or anticipated market movements. Therefore, statement 2 is also incorrect. |
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding Essential Programme on Immunization
- It was Launched as the Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) by the World Health Organisation (WHO) in 1974
- It Initially focused on six childhood vaccine-preventable diseases
- India’s Universal Immunization Programme was Launched in 1978 as part of the EPI and renamed UIP in 1985
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
| Why this question- The year 2024 marks the 50th anniversary of the initiation of the Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1974, which has since evolved into the Essential Programme on Immunization. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is CorrectOverview of the Essential Programme on Immunization (EPI) and India’s Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) Origin and EvolutionLaunched as the Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) by the World Health Organisation (WHO) in 1974.Evolved into the Essential Programme on Immunization, emphasizing universal access to life-saving vaccines.Statement 2 is CorrectDiseases CoveredInitially focused on six childhood vaccine-preventable diseases.Expanded to include a total of 13 diseases, such as BCG, diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, polio, measles, etc.Recent additions include COVID-19, Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), and others.Statement 3 is Correct India’s Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)Launched in 1978 as part of the EPI and renamed UIP in 1985.Objectives include rapidly increasing coverage, improving service quality, and establishing a reliable cold chain system.Monitoring of performance and achieving self-sufficiency in vaccine production are key goals. Eligibility and CoverageAll beneficiaries, including pregnant women and children, can access vaccinations at government or private health facilities.Vaccinations are provided free of cost against 12 vaccine-preventable diseases.Nationally covered diseases include diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, polio, measles, etc.Sub-nationally covered diseases include rotavirus diarrhoea, pneumococcal pneumonia, and Japanese encephalitis, with ongoing expansions for certain vaccines. |
Q15. With reference to La Cumbre Volcano and Galápagos Land Iguanas consider the following statements
- La Cumbre Volcano is Situated on Fernandina Island, the third largest island in the Galápagos archipelago
- Galápagos Land Iguanas are Classified as Vulnerable by the International Union for Conservation of Nature
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014
- The Street Vendors Act aims to safeguard and regulate street vending activities across Indian cities, involving local authorities in establishing designated vending zones.
- The Act establishes Town Vending Committees (TVCs), comprising street vendor representatives, with a mandated 33% representation of women vendors.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: B
| Why this question- The recent celebration of the tenth anniversary of the Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014 marks a significant milestone in the legal evolution and advocacy efforts of street vendor movements in India, spanning four decades. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation:Statement I is CorrectStatement-I accurately summarizes the aim of the Street Vendors Act, which is to regulate and safeguard street vending activities across Indian cities by involving local authorities in establishing designated vending zones. This is in line with the provisions of the Act aimed at integrating street vendors into formal urban planning while securing their livelihoods.Statement II is CorrectStatement-II correctly describes one of the provisions of the Act, which is the establishment of Town Vending Committees (TVCs) comprising street vendor representatives, with a mandated 33% representation of women vendors. However, it does not directly explain the broader aim of the Act mentioned in Statement-I. While the provision of TVCs contributes to the Act’s goals of representation and inclusivity, it alone does not fully explain the Act’s comprehensive approach to regulating street vending activities. Therefore, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Hence, option B is the correct answer. |
Q17. Consider the following statements regarding SMART (Supersonic Missile Assisted Torpedoes)
- SMART is solely developed by the Indian Navy.
- SMART involves launching torpedoes with the assistance of supersonic missiles.
- SMART can only be deployed from coastal locations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has achieved a successful test of the long-range Supersonic Missile Assisted Torpedo (SMART). This milestone aims to enhance the Navy’s anti-submarine warfare capabilities. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is CorrectStatement 1 is incorrect because SMART (Supersonic Missile Assisted Torpedoes) is not solely developed by the Indian Navy. Instead, it is a technological advancement developed by DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organization). Several DRDO laboratories, including Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Aerial Delivery Research and Development Establishment (ADRDE), and Naval Science and Technology Laboratory (NSTL), have contributed to the development of SMART. This collaboration highlights the multi-disciplinary effort involving various defense research institutions in India.Statement 2 is CorrectStatement 2 is correct. SMART indeed involves launching torpedoes with the assistance of supersonic missiles, extending their operational range significantly. This advancement addresses the limitation of conventional torpedoes, which are constrained by their limited range. By utilizing supersonic missiles, SMART enhances the reach and effectiveness of torpedoes, enabling them to engage targets located hundreds of kilometers away. This capability is crucial for maritime defense, especially in scenarios where immediate action against detected enemy submarines is necessary.Statement 3 is Incorrect Statement 3 is incorrect because SMART can be deployed not only from coastal locations but also from warships. This versatility in deployment options enhances the flexibility and adaptability of the system to different operational scenarios. Whether deployed from coastal installations or warships, SMART provides an effective means of countering underwater threats, thereby bolstering maritime security. |
Q18. Consider the following statements regarding International Labour Day
- International Labour Day, also known as Workers Day or May Day, is celebrated globally on May 3rd each year
- The origins of International Labour Day trace back to the late 19th-century labour movement in the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– Recently, International Labour Day was observed worldwide to recognize and honor the invaluable contributions made by workers across the globe. |
| Source: NDTV |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is IncorrectInternational Labour Day OverviewInternational Labour Day, also known as Workers Day or May Day, is celebrated globally on May 1st each year.It’s dedicated to honoring the efforts and achievements of workers and the labour movement.More than 80 countries, including India, Cuba, and China, observe International Labour Day.On this day, people worldwide participate in marches to advocate for working-class rights and to protect them from exploitation.Statement 2 is CorrectHistory of International Labour DayThe origins of International Labour Day trace back to the late 19th-century labour movement in the United States.In 1886, a significant demonstration took place where workers demanded an eight-hour workday.The demonstration escalated, resulting in the Haymarket Affair in Chicago, causing injuries to many people.The Haymarket Affair incident marked the inception of International Labour Day.In 1889, various socialist parties in Europe collectively decided to celebrate May 1st as International Labour Day.Since then, the day has been observed annually on May 1st. International Labour Organization (ILO) Key FactsThe ILO is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards globally.Established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles, it became the first affiliated specialized agency of the UN in 1946.The organization is committed to advancing opportunities for both women and men to obtain decent and productive work in conditions of freedom, equity, security, and human dignity.Its main objectives include promoting rights at work, encouraging decent employment opportunities, enhancing social protection, and strengthening dialogue on work-related issues.The ILO provides technical assistance in social policy and administration, workforce training, and fosters cooperative organizations and rural industries.Additionally, it compiles labour statistics, conducts research on various social problems, and helps protect the rights of international migrants and organized labour.In recognition of its activities, the ILO was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969. |
Q19. Consider the following statements regarding Antares
- Antares is the brightest star in the Orion constellation
- Antares is approximately 600 light-years away from Earth.
- Antares has a surface temperature of approximately 10,000 degrees Fahrenheit.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), headquartered in Bengaluru, has captured footage of the moon passing in front of Antares, a prominent red star. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is IncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect because Antares, also known as Alpha Scorpii, is not the brightest star in the Orion constellation. Instead, it holds the distinction of being the alpha, or brightest, star in the Scorpius constellation. This distinction is important for celestial navigation and understanding the arrangement of stars in the night sky.Statement 2 is CorrectStatement 2 is correct. Antares is indeed positioned roughly 600 light-years away from Earth, shining from a significant distance in the cosmos. This distance places it relatively close to our solar system in astronomical terms, yet still far enough to be considered a distant celestial object.Statement 3 is CorrectStatement 3 is incorrect. Antares has a surface temperature of approximately 6,100 degrees Fahrenheit (3,400 degrees Celsius). This relatively cool surface temperature gives Antares its distinctive ruddy hue, in contrast to the higher surface temperature of our Sun, which is about 10,000 degrees Fahrenheit (5,500 degrees Celsius). Understanding the temperature of stars is crucial for categorizing them based on their spectral characteristics and evolutionary stages. |
Q20. With reference to Kutch Ajrakh consider the following statements
- Kutch Ajrakh is a traditional textile craft deeply ingrained in the cultural heritage of Gujarat, particularly prevalent in regions such as Sindh, Barmer, and Kutch, where its legacy spans thousands of years
- Textiles undergo treatment with vegetable and mineral-based colors, followed by a series of about eight washing cycles to achieve the desired color fastness and vibrancy
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question– Recently, the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks (CGPDTM) has awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) certificate to the traditional artisans of ‘Kutch Ajrakh,’ who originate from the dynamic region of Kutch in Gujarat. |
| Source: TOI |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is CorrectAbout Kutch Ajrakh Kutch Ajrakh is a traditional textile craft deeply ingrained in the cultural heritage of Gujarat, particularly prevalent in regions such as Sindh, Barmer, and Kutch, where its legacy spans thousands of years.This art form involves a meticulous process of hand-block printing on treated cotton fabric, resulting in elaborate designs imbued with rich symbolism and historical significance. Origins and Meaning The term “Ajrakh” finds its roots in the word “Azrak,” which means indigo, a commonly used dye that imparts a bluish hue to the fabric.Traditional Ajrakh prints typically incorporate three primary colors: blue symbolizing the sky, red symbolizing the earth and fire, and white symbolizing the stars.Statement 2 is CorrectCraftsmanship and Techniques Textiles undergo treatment with vegetable and mineral-based colors, followed by a series of about eight washing cycles to achieve the desired color fastness and vibrancy.This craft was introduced to the region over 400 years ago by Sindhi Muslims, contributing to its rich cultural heritage and historical significance. Cultural Significance and Usage Nomadic pastoralist and agricultural communities such as the Rabaris, Maldharis, and Ahirs commonly adorn themselves with Ajrakh-printed cloth, using it for turbans, lungis, or stoles, thus reflecting its integral role in everyday life and cultural identity. |
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