Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the report on Direct Tax Collection
Statement-I: India’s net direct tax collections surged by 17.7% in 2023-24, reaching Rs.19.58 lakh crores, with increased personal income taxes contributing 53.3% of total taxes.
Statement-II: The dip in corporate tax contribution is attributed to diminishing corporate tax shares since the deep tax cuts introduced in September 2019.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: B
| Why this question- In the midst of ongoing political debates and controversies surrounding socio-economic policies, recent tax data unveiled by the Ministry of Finance illuminates noteworthy trends in India’s tax scenario. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement I is CorrectStatement-I correctly summarizes the key findings of the report on Direct Tax Collection, stating that India’s net direct tax collections increased by 17.7% in 2023-24, reaching Rs.19.58 lakh crores, with personal income taxes contributing significantly to the total taxes collected. Statement II is CorrectStatement-II accurately highlights the dip in corporate tax contribution, attributing it to the trend of diminishing corporate tax shares since the implementation of deep tax cuts in September 2019. However, it does not directly explain the surge in net direct tax collections mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.  Hence, option B is the correct answer. The comprehensive solution should emphasize the key findings of the report, including the surge in net direct tax collections, the decrease in corporate tax contribution, and concerns arising from rising reliance on personal income tax and indirect taxes. Additionally, it should outline the government initiatives aimed at boosting direct tax collection, such as promoting voluntary income-tax compliance, focusing on digital transactions, increasing scrutiny and compliance measures, conducting awareness and education campaigns, and expanding the scope of Tax Deduction at Source (TDS) and Tax Collection at Source (TCS). |
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the significance of MSMEs in India
- MSMEs contribute approximately 27.0% to India’s GDP and account for more than 11 crore jobs.
- The majority (90%) of MSME funding comes from formal sources.
- The MSME sector lacks integration of digital technologies, hindering its transition to a circular and low-carbon economy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Union Budget 2023-24 introduced a provision in the IT Act to ensure timely payments to MSMEs within 45 days. However, it has led to large companies canceling orders to registered MSMEs and favoring unregistered ones to avoid compliance. |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct-This statement highlights the significant economic contribution of MSMEs to India. MSMEs play a crucial role in driving economic growth, providing employment opportunities, and fostering entrepreneurship. Their contribution to GDP underscores their importance in sustaining the country’s economic development. However, while MSMEs contribute substantially to GDP and employment, they often face challenges such as limited access to formal funding, inadequate infrastructure, and regulatory constraints. Statement 2 is Incorrect-This statement sheds light on the financing challenges faced by MSMEs in accessing formal funding channels. Due to factors such as lack of collateral, credit history, and stringent lending criteria, many MSMEs rely heavily on informal sources of finance, such as moneylenders, family, and friends. While informal financing may provide short-term relief, it often comes with high-interest rates and limited access to capital, hindering the long-term growth and sustainability of MSMEs. Addressing the financing gap and enhancing access to formal funding mechanisms are critical for supporting the growth and development of MSMEs. Statement 3 is Correct This statement underscores the importance of digitalization in enhancing the competitiveness and sustainability of MSMEs. While digital technologies such as big data, artificial intelligence, and virtual reality have the potential to improve productivity, efficiency, and innovation in MSMEs, their adoption remains limited. Many MSMEs face challenges such as lack of awareness, technical expertise, and financial resources to integrate digital technologies into their operations. Furthermore, the transition to a circular and low-carbon economy requires MSMEs to adopt sustainable practices and technologies, which necessitate investments in renewable energy, resource efficiency, and waste management. Supporting MSMEs in adopting digital technologies and sustainable practices is essential for enhancing their resilience, competitiveness, and contribution to a green economy. |
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the MQ-9B Predator
- The MQ-9B Predator is primarily designed for civilian applications, such as agricultural monitoring and environmental surveys.
- The MQ-9B Predator includes two variants: Sky Guardian and Sea Guardian, with the latter being utilized by the Indian Navy since 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– Recently, the Defence Ministry approved the procurement of 30 MQ-9B Predator drones (SeaGuardian variant) from the US to bolster the surveillance capabilities of the armed forces. |
| Source: MC |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is IncorrectThe MQ-9B Predator is not primarily designed for civilian applications; instead, it is a high-altitude, long-endurance armed Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) primarily developed for military purposes by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI). While it has capabilities for surveillance and intelligence gathering, its primary use is for military operations such as airstrikes and reconnaissance. Statement 2 is CorrectThe MQ-9B Predator does include two variants: Sky Guardian and Sea Guardian. The Sea Guardian variant has been utilized by the Indian Navy since 2020. This variant is specifically adapted for maritime operations and is used for tasks such as maritime surveillance, anti-submarine warfare, and anti-surface warfare. |
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Mullaperiyar DamÂ
- The Mullaperiyar dam is located at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers entirely within Kerala.
- The safety concerns regarding the Mullaperiyar Dam arose in 1979 following reports of minor earthquakes causing cracks in the dam.
- The Dam Safety Act, enacted in December 2021, aims to address safety concerns of major dams nationwide, covering surveillance, inspection, operation, and maintenance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- In the Supreme Court, Tamil Nadu has alleged that while Kerala raises safety concerns about the Mullaperiyar dam, it obstructs essential maintenance efforts on the dam. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct– This statement accurately describes the geographical location of the Mullaperiyar Dam. Situated within the state of Kerala, the dam plays a crucial role in regulating the flow of water between the Mullayar and Periyar rivers. The significance of its location lies in its historical context, as the ownership and operation of the dam have been the subject of a long-standing dispute between Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Kerala argues for greater control over the dam due to its location within its territory, while Tamil Nadu emphasizes its rights to the water resources supplied by the dam for irrigation and other purposes. Statement 2 is Correct-This statement accurately reflects one of the key issues surrounding the Mullaperiyar Dam. In 1979, concerns regarding the structural integrity of the dam were raised after minor earthquakes in the region led to the discovery of cracks in the dam’s structure. These safety concerns have been a focal point of contention between Kerala and Tamil Nadu, with Kerala advocating for measures to address the potential risks associated with the dam’s aging infrastructure. Tamil Nadu, on the other hand, has sought to maintain the water levels in the reservoir at higher levels to meet its irrigation needs, despite Kerala’s safety concerns. Statement 3 is Incorrect-While this statement provides information about the Dam Safety Act, it is not directly related to the Mullaperiyar Dam situation. The Dam Safety Act is a legislative measure enacted by the Indian government to address safety concerns related to major dams across the country. It establishes provisions for the surveillance, inspection, operation, and maintenance of dams to prevent disasters related to dam failure. While the Dam Safety Act is relevant to the broader context of dam safety in India, its specific provisions do not directly influence the ongoing dispute between Kerala and Tamil Nadu regarding the Mullaperiyar Dam. |
Q5. With reference to drip pricing, consider the following statements:
- Drip pricing involves the upfront disclosure of all additional charges associated with a product or service.
- Drip pricing is commonly employed in industries like hospitality, travel, and online payments.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– Recently, the Centre issued a warning regarding “drip pricing,” highlighting its potential to catch consumers off guard with undisclosed fees. |
| Source: HT |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is IncorrectThis statement is incorrect. Drip pricing is a pricing technique where only a portion of a product’s price is advertised initially, with additional charges being revealed later in the buying process. Contrary to upfront disclosure, drip pricing typically involves withholding some charges, such as booking fees, service charges, or taxes, initially and gradually disclosing them as the buyer progresses through the purchasing process. This lack of upfront transparency is a key characteristic of drip pricing and can lead to frustration among consumers who prefer clear and transparent pricing. Statement 2 is CorrectThis statement is correct. Drip pricing is indeed commonly used in industries such as hospitality, travel, and online payments. In these industries, companies often employ drip pricing as a strategy to attract customers by initially presenting a lower base price and then revealing additional charges later in the buying process. For example, in the travel industry, airline tickets may appear cheaper initially but do not include additional fees such as baggage charges, which are disclosed later in the booking process. Similarly, online payment platforms may advertise low transaction fees but may later add additional charges, such as processing fees or currency conversion fees. |
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding carbon farming:
Statement I: Carbon farming involves agricultural practices aimed at storing carbon in various natural reservoirs to mitigate climate change.
Statement II: Agroforestry is not a suitable method for carbon farming as it does not contribute to carbon sequestration.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: C
| Why this question- Carbon farming is the practice of implementing regenerative agricultural techniques to restore ecosystem health, improve soil fertility, and mitigate climate change by increasing carbon storage in agricultural landscapes and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement I is Correct- This statement accurately captures the essence of carbon farming as described in the passage. Carbon farming refers to a set of agricultural techniques designed to sequester carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and store it in natural reservoirs such as soil, vegetation, and trees. These practices help mitigate climate change by reducing the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, thus contributing to efforts to combat global warming. The passage provides several examples of carbon farming practices, including agroforestry, conservation agriculture, integrated nutrient management, and livestock management, all of which are aimed at enhancing carbon sequestration in agricultural systems. Statement II is Incorrect– This statement is incorrect based on the information provided in the passage. Agroforestry, which involves integrating trees and shrubs into agricultural landscapes, is indeed a highly effective method for carbon farming. Trees and woody vegetation act as carbon sinks, absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through photosynthesis and storing it in their biomass and soil. As a result, agroforestry practices contribute significantly to carbon sequestration and can help mitigate climate change. The passage explicitly mentions agroforestry as one of the methods utilized in carbon farming and highlights its benefits, including carbon storage and diversified income opportunities for farmers. |
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the benefits to tobacco farmers in Andhra Pradesh:
- Tobacco farmers in Andhra Pradesh are experiencing a significant surge in auction prices, attributed to crop damage in Brazil and Zimbabwe.
- China has imposed limitations on tobacco exports, which have contributed to the price escalation in India.
- The surge in tobacco prices is expected to provide long-term benefits to Indian growers due to sustained favorable pricing conditions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
| Why this question- Tobacco farmers in Andhra Pradesh are poised to gain as a result of reduced crop yields in Brazil, Zimbabwe, and Indonesia caused by droughts and erratic rainfall patterns. |
| Source: BS |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is CorrectThis statement is accurate. Tobacco farmers in Andhra Pradesh, a significant tobacco-producing region in India, have witnessed a notable increase in auction prices for their tobacco produce. The surge in prices can be linked to crop damage experienced in other major tobacco-producing countries like Brazil and Zimbabwe. Adverse weather conditions, such as drought and unfavorable climatic conditions, have led to crop failures in these countries, resulting in reduced supply and global stock shortages. As a consequence, the demand for tobacco from regions like Andhra Pradesh has risen, leading to higher auction prices for tobacco farmers. Statement 2 is CorrectThis statement is also accurate. China, being a significant producer of tobacco, has implemented restrictions on tobacco exports to protect its domestic cigarette industry.By limiting tobacco exports, China aims to ensure an adequate supply of tobacco for its domestic market, especially amidst reports of global stock shortages due to crop failures in other major tobacco-producing countries. The reduction in available tobacco from China has contributed to increased demand for tobacco from countries like India, consequently driving up auction prices for tobacco farmers in Andhra Pradesh and other regions. Statement 3 is CorrectThis statement is correct. Tobacco exporters and industry experts anticipate that the current surge in tobacco prices is not merely a short-term phenomenon but is likely to persist for a considerable duration. Factors such as ongoing export limitations by China and the sustained effects of crop damage in other major tobacco-producing countries indicate that the demand for Indian tobacco is expected to remain high. As a result, Indian tobacco growers are expected to benefit from sustained favorable pricing conditions in the long term, providing them with increased income and financial stability. |
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Choline
- Choline is not an essential nutrient and have a minimal function in controlling the rate of the metabolism in humans and animals.
- Our body can produce choline nutrient.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– Recently, researchers made a discovery revealing that a protein known as FLVCR2 facilitates the transportation of the essential nutrient choline into the brain. |
| Source: MN |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect- About Choline: Choline is an essential nutrient crucial for supporting various bodily functions, including cellular growth and metabolism. Forms and Absorption: Choline exists in both water-soluble and fat-soluble forms, with the body transporting and absorbing it differently based on its form. Statement 2 is Correct-Dietary Sources:While the body can produce small amounts of choline in the liver, it’s insufficient to meet daily requirements, necessitating dietary intake. Rich sources include meat, fish, dairy, eggs, as well as fruits, vegetables, and whole grains. Functions Cell Structure: Choline is a key component of phospholipids, such as lecithin, essential for cell membrane integrity across plant and animal cells.Methyl Group Source: It provides methyl groups crucial for various metabolic processes.Liver Health: Choline aids in clearing cholesterol from the liver, preventing fat and cholesterol buildup associated with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease.Nervous System: Choline is essential for acetylcholine synthesis, a neurotransmitter vital for memory, muscle movement, and other nervous system functions.Other Roles: It plays roles in gene expression, cell membrane signaling, lipid metabolism, brain development, and acts as a food source for beneficial gut bacteria. Deficiency Implications:Choline deficiency can lead to health issues like cardiovascular disease and muscular damage. |
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding rat-hole mining:
- Rat-hole mining is primarily practiced in Meghalaya, India.
- The demand for coal drives rat-hole mining, facilitated by middlemen and illegal traders.
- Rat-hole mining is permitted under Nagaland’s coal mining policy, with licenses granted to individual landowners under specific conditions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has granted authorities a period of four weeks to provide a response in a case concerning the death of six workers in a fire at a rat-hole coal mine in Nagaland’s Wokha district. |
| Source: DTE |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is CorrectRat-hole mining is predominantly carried out in the state of Meghalaya, located in northeastern India. Meghalaya’s terrain, which includes hilly regions with thin coal seams, makes it conducive to the practice of rat-hole mining. Additionally, the state’s socio-economic conditions, including poverty and limited livelihood options, contribute to the prevalence of this illegal mining method.Statement 2 is CorrectThe demand for coal, both legal and illegal, plays a significant role in driving rat-hole mining activities. Coal is a valuable commodity used in various industries, including power generation, steel production, and manufacturing. The lure of quick profits from the coal trade motivates individuals and groups to engage in illegal mining operations, often facilitated by middlemen and illegal traders who profit from the sale of illegally mined coal.Statement 3 is IncorrectRat-hole mining is indeed permitted under Nagaland’s coal mining policy, but licenses are not granted to individual landowners. Instead, the policy allows for small-scale rat-hole mining operations in areas with scattered coal reserves, with licenses issued to cooperative societies or community groups. These licenses are subject to specific conditions and regulations aimed at ensuring environmental protection and safety standards in mining operations |
Q10. With reference to Fusobacterium nucleatum and its role in colorectal tumors, consider the following statements:
- Fusobacterium nucleatum is exclusively found in the oral cavity and is not present in the gastrointestinal tract.
- Genetic analysis revealed that only one subspecies of Fusobacterium nucleatum, termed Fna C2, was consistently present in colorectal tumor samples.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
| Why this question– In a recent study, researchers have pinpointed a unique subtype of Fusobacterium nucleatum that is present in significantly higher levels within colorectal cancer (CRC) tumors. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is IncorrectFusobacterium nucleatum is commonly found in various human reservoirs, including both the mouth and gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, it is not exclusively limited to the oral cavity.Statement 2 is Incorrectgenetic analysis revealed that among the various subspecies of Fusobacterium nucleatum, only one, termed Fna C2, was consistently present in colorectal tumor samples. This finding indicates that other subspecies may also be present in tumor samples, not just Fna C2. |
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Artificial General Intelligence (AGI):
Statement-I: AGI represents a highly advanced form of intelligence surpassing conventional Artificial Intelligence (AI).
Statement-II: AGI aims for a broader, generalized form of intelligence, transcending specific tasks, and exhibiting characteristics such as generalization, complex reasoning, learning, self-awareness, and consciousness.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: B
| Why this question- In a recent interview, the CEO of OpenAI reaffirmed the organization’s commitment to investing in the progress of Artificial General Intelligence (AGI). |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation:Statement I is CorrectAGI indeed represents a highly advanced form of intelligence that surpasses conventional AI. AGI aims to achieve human-like intelligence, which goes beyond performing specific tasks and involves a broader understanding of the world.Statement II is Correct AGI aims for a broader, generalized form of intelligence, as mentioned in the characteristics section provided. It encompasses abilities like generalization, complex reasoning, learning, self-awareness, and consciousness, aiming to replicate or exceed human intelligence across various domains.However, Statement-II is not an explanation for Statement-I. While Statement-II elaborates on the characteristics and goals of AGI, it does not directly explain why AGI represents a highly advanced form of intelligence surpassing conventional AI. The relationship between the two statements is one of correlation rather than causation. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding The Explosives Act
- The Explosives Act of 1884 is a crucial piece of Indian legislation that governs the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transportation, import, and export of explosives in India.
2. The Act empowers the State Government to make rules regulating the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transport, import, and export of explosives
3 The Central Government can prohibit the manufacture, possession, or importation of especially dangerous explosives in the interest of public safety
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- The Government of India intends to substitute the Explosives Act of 1884 with the proposed Explosives Bill of 2024. |
| Source: BS |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is CorrectAbout The Explosives Act of 1884 The Explosives Act of 1884 is a crucial piece of Indian legislation that governs the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transportation, import, and export of explosives in India. Historical ContextEnacted during British colonial rule, the Explosives Act of 1884 aimed to regulate various aspects of explosives.Statement 2 is IncorrectSafety RegulationsThe Act applies to various types of explosives, including gunpowder, dynamite, nitroglycerin, and other similar substances.The Act mandated safety standards and procedures to mitigate risks associated with explosives, encompassing handling, transportation, and storage guidelines to prevent accidents.The Act empowers the Central Government to make rules regulating the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transport, import, and export of explosives.These rules govern the issuance of licences, fees, conditions, and exemptions.Statement 3 is CorrectProhibition of Dangerous ExplosivesThe Central Government can prohibit the manufacture, possession, or importation of especially dangerous explosives in the interest of public safety. ExemptionThe Act does not affect the provisions of the Arms Act, 1959.Provisions are made for licences issued under the Explosives Act to have the effect of licences under the Arms Act.The Arms Act of 1959 regulates the possession, acquisition, and carrying of ammunition and firearms. It also aims to curb illegal weapons and violence.The Arms Act of 1959 replaced the Indian Arms Act of 1878. Evolution and AmendmentsOver time, the Explosives Act underwent several amendments to adapt to technological advancements and emerging challenges, primarily focusing on enhancing safety standards and regulatory mechanisms. |
Q13. Consider the following statements regarding Central Bank digital currencies
- It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
| Why this question– GS – 2 Government Policies & Interventions GS – 3 Growth & Development, IT & Computers |
| Source: IE |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is CorrectCentral Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) offer a new form of digital currency issued by a central bank. Unlike traditional currencies, which are often transferred through intermediaries like banks or payment networks (e.g., SWIFT system), CBDCs can enable direct peer-to-peer transactions between users, bypassing the need for intermediaries and the use of other currencies like the US dollar. CBDCs can be used for domestic payments, cross-border transactions, and international trade settlements without relying on third-party currencies or payment systems.Statement 2 is CorrectOne of the key features of digital currencies, including CBDCs, is programmability. Unlike physical cash or even some traditional forms of digital money, CBDCs can have programmable attributes embedded within them. For example, a central bank could impose conditions on the use of CBDCs, such as setting expiration dates or restricting their use to specific purposes (e.g., only for certain types of transactions or within a designated geographical area). These conditions can be encoded in the digital currency’s smart contracts, allowing for automated enforcement without the need for manual oversight. |
Q14. Consider the following statements regarding Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
- The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) functions as the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) in India for the medical devices industry, operating under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act
- The CDSCO operates under the Directorate General of Health Services, which falls under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare of the Government of India
- Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation is headquartered in Navi Mumbai.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question-Amid heightened global scrutiny of drugs manufactured in India, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has assumed exclusive authority for issuing manufacturing licenses for new drugs intended for export. |
| Source: LM |
| Explanation:Statement 1 is CorrectOverview of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) functions as the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) in India for the medical devices industry, operating under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.Its primary responsibility encompasses overseeing the import, manufacture, sale, and distribution of medical devices within the country, ensuring compliance with safety, quality, and efficacy standards.Statement 2 is CorrectThe CDSCO operates under the Directorate General of Health Services, which falls under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare of the Government of India.At the helm of the CDSCO is the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI), who oversees its operations and regulatory functions.Statement 3 is Incorrect Headquartered in New Delhi, the CDSCO holds various responsibilities under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act:Approval of new drugsConducting clinical trialsEstablishing standards for drugsMonitoring the quality of imported drugsCoordinating with State Drug Control OrganizationsTogether with state regulators, the CDSCO shares the responsibility for granting licenses for specialized categories of critical drugs, including blood and blood products, I.V. fluids, vaccines, and sera.The CDSCO carries out inspections and audits to ensure that medical device companies adhere to regulations regarding safety, quality, and efficacy. |
Q15. With reference to Shinkun La Tunnel and Border Roads Organisation consider the following statements
- The Shinkun La Tunnel is an upcoming motorable passage situated beneath the 16,580 feet high Shinku-La pass, linking Himachal’s Lahaul valley and Ladakh’s Shyok valley.
- BRO was established on May 7, 1960, its primary objectives include securing India’s borders and developing infrastructure in remote regions of the northern and northeastern states.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
| Why this question– The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is gearing up to initiate the construction of the Shinkun La Tunnel. |
| Source: HT |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect: Overview of Shinkun La Tunnel and Border Roads Organisation (BRO) The Shinkun La Tunnel is an upcoming motorable passage situated beneath the 16,580 feet high Shinku-La pass, linking Himachal’s Lahaul valley and Ladakh’s Zanskar valley.Positioned on the Nimu-Padam-Darcha Road link, the tunnel spans a length of 4.1 kilometers.Upon completion, it will emerge as the longest high altitude highway tunnel worldwide.The Border Roads Organization (BRO) has undertaken the construction of the tunnel at an estimated cost of Rs. 1,681.5 crores.Once operational, the Shinku-la tunnel will furnish all-weather road connectivity to Ladakh, serving as the shortest route to Ladakh’s border areas.Its construction is anticipated to facilitate the transportation of heavy machinery to strategic locations like Kargil, Siachen, and the Line of Control (LOC), effectively shortening travel distances by approximately 100 kilometers.Notably, traffic movement within the tunnel will be immune to long-range artillery shelling or missile firings from adversaries like China or Pakistan. Statement 2 is Correct: Border Roads Organisation (BRO) The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a dedicated road construction executive force in India, offering support to the Indian Armed Forces.Established on May 7, 1960, its primary objectives include securing India’s borders and developing infrastructure in remote regions of the northern and northeastern states.The BRO undertakes the development and maintenance of road networks in India’s border areas as well as in friendly neighboring countries.Its operational scope spans across 19 states, three union territories, and neighboring countries such as Afghanistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, Tajikistan, and Sri Lanka.Personnel from the General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) constitute the parent cadre of the BRO, complemented by officers and troops from the Indian Army’s Corps of Engineers on deputation.The BRO is incorporated into the Order of Battle of the Armed Forces, ensuring its availability for support whenever required.The organization’s motto, “Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam” translates to “everything is achievable through hard work.” |
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Pharmaceutical Industry:
Statement-I: India has transitioned to self-sufficiency in medical consumables and disposables and is the largest global manufacturer of generic medicines.
Statement-II: The industry is valued at USD 50 billion and serves over 200 countries, with projections to reach USD 65 billion by 2024 and USD 130 billion by 2030.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: A
| Why this question- In the fiscal year 2022-23, India reached a notable milestone in the medical goods sector by becoming a net exporter of medical consumables and disposables for the first time. |
| Source: ET |
| Explanation: Statement I is Correct- India’s pharmaceutical industry has made remarkable strides over the years, evolving from a country reliant on medical imports to achieving self-sufficiency in producing medical consumables and disposables. Moreover, India has emerged as the largest global manufacturer of generic medicines, supplying a significant portion of the world’s demand for affordable and accessible pharmaceutical products. This transition reflects India’s capability to meet both domestic and international healthcare needs through its robust pharmaceutical manufacturing sector. Statement II is Correct-The pharmaceutical industry in India holds considerable economic value, with an estimated worth of USD 50 billion. Notably, it caters to a vast global market, serving over 200 countries worldwide. Additionally, projections indicate further growth in the industry’s valuation, with anticipated values of USD 65 billion by 2024 and USD 130 billion by 2030. These projections underscore the industry’s expanding reach and economic significance on both domestic and international fronts. Solution Analysis:Both Statement-I and Statement-II provide accurate descriptions of India’s pharmaceutical industry and its significant achievements. Statement-I highlights the industry’s transition to self-sufficiency and dominance in generic drug manufacturing, while Statement-II presents the industry’s economic value and global reach, supported by future growth projections.Statement-II effectively explains the transition mentioned in Statement-I by providing additional context regarding the industry’s economic value and future prospects. The projections further validate the industry’s transformation and its potential for continued growth and impact on the global pharmaceutical market.Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. |
Q17. Consider the following statements regarding Centre’s Plea on CBI Probes’ Maintainability:
- West Bengal filed a suit under Article 131, accusing the Union government of unauthorized CBI investigations within the state.
- The Centre argues for the suit’s dismissal, denying involvement in CBI investigations within states and claiming that CBI isn’t a ‘state’ under Article 131.
- The Supreme Court highlights Section 5(1) of the DSPE Act, granting the central government authority over CBI investigations across states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: C
| Why this question- The Supreme Court has yet to deliver its verdict on West Bengal’s suit alleging that the CBI is conducting investigations into post-poll violence cases without the state’s consent. The Centre argued that West Bengal’s suit under Article 131 is not maintainable and constitutes an abuse of legal process. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct– West Bengal initiated legal proceedings by filing a suit under Article 131 of the Constitution of India. This suit alleged that the Union government was conducting CBI investigations within the state of West Bengal without proper authorization or consent. By invoking Article 131, West Bengal sought judicial intervention to address what it perceived as unauthorized interference by the central government through the CBI. Statement 2 is Correct– The Centre, representing the Union government, presented its defense against West Bengal’s suit. It contended that the suit should be dismissed as it denied any involvement in directing CBI investigations within states. Additionally, the Centre argued that the CBI, as an investigative agency under the central government, does not qualify as a ‘state’ under Article 131 of the Constitution. This argument aimed to limit the scope of the suit and contest West Bengal’s allegations of unauthorized CBI actions within the state. Statement 3 is Correct-During the proceedings, the Supreme Court made pertinent observations regarding the jurisdiction and authority of the central government over CBI investigations. The Court pointed out Section 5(1) of the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, which explicitly grants the central government the power to direct CBI investigations across states. By highlighting this provision, the Supreme Court emphasized the legal basis for the central government’s authority in matters related to CBI investigations, reinforcing the argument presented by the Centre. |
Q18. Consider the following statements regarding AlphaFold3
- AlphaFold3 can predict the structure and interactions of all molecules with unprecedented accuracy, excluding human DNA.
- AlphaFold3 assembles its predictions using a diffusion network, a technique reminiscent of those employed in AI image generators
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
| Why this question– Google DeepMind has introduced the third significant iteration of its “AlphaFold” artificial intelligence model, with the aim of assisting scientists in the more efficient design of drugs and targeting diseases. |
| Source: TH |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect- Exploring AlphaFold3: Revolutionizing Molecular Structure Prediction Introduction to AlphaFold3AlphaFold3 is a groundbreaking AI model jointly developed by Google DeepMind and Isomorphic Labs. It represents a significant advancement in predicting the structure and interactions of various molecules, including those crucial to life. Capabilities of AlphaFold3AlphaFold3 can predict the structure and interactions of all molecules with unprecedented accuracy, including human DNA.It generates joint 3D structures of molecules, providing insights into their arrangement and interactions.The model extends its predictions to encompass large biomolecules such as proteins, DNA, and RNA, as well as small molecules like ligands, which include many drugs.Additionally, AlphaFold3 can model chemical modifications that regulate cellular functions and may contribute to disease when disrupted. Statement 2 is Correct- MethodologyAlphaFold3 assembles its predictions using a diffusion network, a technique reminiscent of those employed in AI image generators. Significance of AlphaFold3AlphaFold3 offers scientists a comprehensive view of cellular systems, encompassing structures, interactions, and modifications.This newfound understanding of molecular connections enhances our comprehension of biological functions, including drug actions, hormone production, and DNA repair mechanisms |
Q19. Consider the following statements regarding Constructed Wetlands:
- Constructed wetlands are human-made systems designed to mimic natural wetland processes for wastewater treatment, utilizing vegetation, soil, and water interactions.
- Surface Flow (SF) constructed wetlands involve passing wastewater through gravel beds or porous media underground, where microbial activity breaks down organic matter.
- Constructed wetlands are not cost-effective compared to traditional treatment methods due to high construction and maintenance costs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Answer: B
| Why this question- In recent times, there has been a notable transition towards constructed wetlands as a holistic and nature-centric approach for industrial wastewater treatment, contrasting with traditional methods that have shown limitations in handling the diverse range of pollutants present. |
| Source: DTE |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct– Constructed wetlands are indeed human-made systems engineered to replicate the natural processes occurring in wetland ecosystems. These systems utilize a combination of vegetation, soil, and water interactions to treat wastewater effectively. By harnessing natural processes such as filtration, adsorption, and microbial degradation, constructed wetlands can remove pollutants and improve water quality before discharge or reuse. Statement 2 is Correct– This statement accurately describes Subsurface Flow (SSF) constructed wetlands rather than Surface Flow (SF) constructed wetlands. In SSF constructed wetlands, wastewater is directed through gravel beds or porous media buried underground. As the wastewater percolates through the substrate, microbial activity plays a vital role in decomposing organic matter and removing pollutants. This process effectively treats the wastewater before it is discharged or reused. Statement 3 is Incorrect -Constructed wetlands are known for their cost-effectiveness compared to traditional wastewater treatment methods. While the initial construction of constructed wetlands may require investment, they are generally less expensive to build, operate, and maintain over their lifespan. The use of natural processes and minimal energy inputs contribute to their affordability. Additionally, constructed wetlands offer long-term benefits such as habitat creation, flood control, and biodiversity enhancement, further enhancing their value. |
Q20. With reference to Glide Phase Interceptor (GPI) Project consider the following statements
- The Glide Phase Interceptor (GPI) Project is a collaborative effort between the United States and Japan to develop a missile-intercepting system.
- Hypersonic weapons fly at relatively low altitudes (20 to 80 km) during the glide phase.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
| Why this question– In response to escalating worries regarding adversaries deploying sophisticated armaments such as hypersonic missiles, Japan is dedicating resources to the Glide Phase Interceptor (GPI) Project, a collaborative endeavor with the United States. |
| Source: NN |
| Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct: The Glide Phase Interceptor (GPI) Project: Enhancing Regional Hypersonic Missile Defense Introduction: The Glide Phase Interceptor (GPI) Project is a collaborative effort between the United States and Japan to develop a missile-intercepting system. Understanding the Glide Phase: Traditional Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) follow a parabolic trajectory driven by gravity after separation from their booster.In contrast, hypersonic weapons separate from their booster and accelerate towards the Earth using gravity. They then transition into a flatter trajectory known as the glide phase.During the glide phase, hypersonic vehicles travel at speeds exceeding five times the speed of sound on unpredictable trajectories. Statement 2 is Correct: Challenges Posed by Hypersonic WeaponsHypersonic weapons fly at relatively low altitudes (20 to 80 km) during the glide phase.They have the capability to navigate around areas containing known missile defense sensors, making tracking difficult.Ground-based radar systems face challenges in efficiently tracking hypersonic missiles due to their speed and trajectory unpredictability. Objectives of the GPI ProjectThe GPI Project aims to provide regional defense against hypersonic missiles.Specially modified missiles will be launched from surface warships to engage and destroy incoming hypersonic missiles.The intercept will occur as the hypersonic missiles glide through the boundary between space and Earth’s atmosphere.The intercept during the glide phase provides the optimal opportunity to neutralize the threat before the missile enters its final high-speed descent |
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