UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz – 24th February 2024

Welcome to this week’s current affairs quiz, where we’ll test your knowledge of the latest and most significant events happening around the world. In a rapidly changing global landscape, staying informed is essential. This quiz aims to challenge your understanding of the key developments in politics, science, technology, culture, and more. So, whether you’re a news enthusiast or just looking to keep up with the world’s happenings, join us as we delve into the headlines of the week and put your current affairs expertise to the test. Let’s get started!

Q 1.Consider the following statements regarding Kisan Credit Card scheme 

1. Short-term credit support is given to farmers for working capital for maintenance of farm assets 
2. Short-term credit support is given to farmers for purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks 
3. Short-term credit support is given to farmers for consumption requirements of farm households 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: B 

Why this question- The Union Cabinet recently granted approval to the “Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY),” and it has also extended the Fisheries Infrastructure Development Fund (FIDF) for an additional three years until 2025-26.

Source: PIB

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme primarily aims to provide short-term credit facilities to farmers for covering various aspects of their agricultural operations.  This includes expenses related to the maintenance of farm assets, such as irrigation equipment, tools, and storage facilities.  These expenses fall under the “working capital” category, as they contribute to the continuous functioning of the farm.  Statement 2 is Incorrect While the KCC scheme might offer limited support for acquiring smaller equipment like hand tools or pumps, it typically doesn’t provide credit for large investments like combine harvesters, tractors, or mini trucks.  These fall under the category of investment credit, which KCC generally doesn’t cover.  However, some banks might offer separate loan schemes specifically for such investments.  Statement 3 is Correct  The KCC scheme recognizes the diverse needs of farmers and allows them to utilize credit for essential household expenses beyond just direct agricultural costs.  This can include items like food, clothing, medicines, and education for their families.  This provision ensures some financial security and improves the overall well-being of farm households.

Q 2.Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric River 

1. An atmospheric river is a lengthy and narrow band of moisture-laden air, transporting substantial water vapor from the tropics to higher latitudes. 
2. The phenomena of atmospheric rivers is confined to the US West Coast bringing in copious rainfall. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– California in the United States is currently facing an unprecedented weather event referred to as an Atmospheric River, commonly known as the Pineapple Express Storm. This phenomenon has the capacity to release as much as 8 trillion gallons of rain across the state.

Source: TOI

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct Atmospheric River: A Moisture Transport Phenomenon  Overview An atmospheric river is a lengthy and narrow band of moisture-laden air, transporting substantial water vapor from the tropics to higher latitudes. Often associated with mT (Maritime Tropical) air mass, these rivers release intense precipitation upon making landfall, leading to either rain or snow depending on altitude and temperature.  Pineapple Express: A Notable Atmospheric River  The “Pineapple Express” exemplifies atmospheric river storms affecting the US West Coast, particularly California. Draws moisture from tropical waters near Hawaii, resembling an express train of moisture linked with pineapples. Driven by a robust southern branch of the polar jet stream, it transports humid, warm mT air from as far as the Hawaiian Islands.  Statement 2 is Incorrect Categories of Atmospheric Rivers: Assessing Impact  Category 1 (Weak) Milder and shorter weather events with primarily beneficial effects, such as 24 hours of modest rainfall.  Category 2 (Moderate) Moderate storms with a mix of beneficial and hazardous effects.  Category 3 (Strong) More powerful and longer-lasting, bringing both beneficial and hazardous impacts.  Category 4 (Extreme) Primarily hazardous, with the potential for heavy rain over several days leading to floods.  Category 5 (Exceptional) Predominantly hazardous in nature.  Significance of Atmospheric Rivers: Water Supply and Management  Crucial role in replenishing water supplies, particularly in regions like the western United States. Significant contribution to reservoir levels, aiding in alleviating drought conditions and ensuring water availability for various purposes.  Global Occurrence of Atmospheric Rivers: Beyond the US West Coast  Not confined to the US West Coast; they occur worldwide, affecting regions such as the UK, Ireland, Norway, and China. Impact the rainy season in China, known as Mei-Yu season.  Frequency and Predictability: A Key Aspect  While comprising only 17% of storms on the US West Coast, atmospheric rivers significantly contribute to California’s precipitation, snowpack, and major floods. Predictable and forecastable up to a week in advance, allowing for effective preparation and management.

Q 3. Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India 

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory 
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status 
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: B 

Why this question- Two bills, aimed at modifying the lists of Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in Andhra Pradesh and Odisha, were recently passed by voice vote in the Lok Sabha.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct There are currently 75 identified PVTGs in India, residing across 18 states and the Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar Islands.  You can find the official list of PVTGs and their respective states on the website of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs: https://tribal.nic.in/ST/StatewisePvTGsList.pdf  Statement 2 is Correct One of the key characteristics used to identify PVTGs is a relatively small and stagnant or declining population size.  According to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, most PVTGs have populations less than 1000, with some even numbering less than 50 individuals.  This factor, combined with other characteristics like pre-agricultural technology, low literacy rates, and economic backwardness, contributes to their vulnerability. Statement 3 is Incorrect  Currently, there are only 75 officially notified PVTGs in India as per the latest list maintained by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.  The number 95 might be outdated or referring to a different classification system altogether.

Q 4. With reference to Nazool Land consider the following statements 

1. Nazool land is government-owned land and is administered as state property. 
2. Emerged during British rule, post-battles with opposing kings who lost their lands 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– Uttarakhand recently witnessed outbreaks of violence following the demolition of a mosque and a madrasa situated on Nazool land.

Source: IS

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Nazool Land: Overview and Governance  Ownership and Administration Nazool land is government-owned but not directly administered as state property. Typically, the state allocates such land on lease for fixed periods, ranging from 15 to 99 years.  Lease Renewal Process Leaseholders can approach the authority for renewal by submitting a written application to the Revenue Department of the local development authority. The government has the discretion to either renew or cancel the lease, reclaiming Nazool land.  Allotment Across India Nazool land is allocated to various entities for diverse purposes in major cities across India.  Statement 2 is Correct Historical Origin Emerged during British rule, post-battles with opposing kings who lost their lands. British took possession, and after Independence, these lands became Nazool land, owned by state governments.  Usage by the Government Governments utilize Nazool land for public infrastructure like schools, hospitals, Gram Panchayat buildings, etc. In several cities, Nazool land is leased for housing societies.  Legal Framework The Nazool Lands (Transfer) Rules, 1956, primarily govern Nazool land adjudication. While various states may issue government orders, this law is commonly used for regulatory purposes

Q 5. Consider the following statements regarding Bonds and Bond Yield 

1. A bond is a fixed-income instrument signifying a loan from an investor to a borrower 
2. Bond yield represents the annual return anticipated by an investor until maturity 
3. There is an inverse relationship between bond price and yield. When bond prices rise, yields fall, and vice versa 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: C 

Why this question- The recent statement from the Reserve Bank of India Governor suggests that as inflation continues to ease, bond yields will also decrease, leading to a reduction in borrowing costs

Source: Investopedia

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct About Bonds A bond is a fixed-income instrument signifying a loan from an investor to a borrower. The borrower is typically a corporation or government entity. In exchange for the loan, the investor receives regular interest payments. The duration between the bond’s issuance and the agreed-upon repayment by the borrower is known as its ‘term to maturity. Bonds are utilized by issuers to raise funds for diverse purposes, including expansion projects, refinancing existing debt, and funding welfare activities  Statement 2 is Correct About Bond Yield Bond yield represents the annual return anticipated by an investor until maturity. It is influenced by coupon payments, which are periodic interest earnings received by bondholders for holding the bonds. At the bond’s maturity, bondholders receive its face value, but bonds can be bought at par value, discount (below par), or premium (above par) in the secondary market  Statement 3 is Correct About Bond Yield The prevailing market price of bonds impacts the bond yield calculation. The formula for calculating bond yield is Bond Yield = Coupon Amount / Price. There is an inverse relationship between bond price and yield. When bond prices rise, yields fall, and vice versa. For example, if interest rates decrease, existing bonds become more valuable as they offer higher interest payments compared to new bonds with lower interest rates. However, the increased price of existing bonds makes them more expensive for new investors, causing the bond yield to decline due to the lower expected return on investment

Q 6. Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT) and Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) 

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government 
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: B 

Why this question– GS – 2 Government Policies & Interventions GS- 3 Conservation Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Statutory Bodies

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has indeed been established by an Act of the Parliament, specifically the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.  It is a statutory body created to handle cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources, and enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment.  On the other hand, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was created by the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and later expanded by the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.  Both Acts were passed by the Parliament, making the CPCB a statutory body as well, not created by an executive order.  Statement 2 is Correct The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is designed to provide environmental justice and reduce the burden of litigation in higher courts by handling cases related to environmental issues directly.  It has the authority to hear appeals against orders and decisions of environmental regulators like the CPCB.  The NGT plays a crucial role in addressing environmental disputes and promoting sustainable development. In contrast, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is primarily responsible for promoting cleanliness of streams and wells, preventing and controlling pollution, and improving the quality of air and water in the country.  It formulates and enforces standards for the quality of air and water, conducts research, and advises the government on pollution-related matters.  While the CPCB is involved in regulatory and preventive activities, the NGT is more focused on adjudicating environmental disputes and providing a forum for citizens to seek justice in environmental matters.

Q 7. Consider the following statements regarding Brumation 

1. Brumation, unlike hibernation in mammals, is a state of hyper activity observed in reptiles 
2. The purpose of brumation in reptiles is to conserve energy and endure harsh conditions during periods of dropping temperatures and scarce food resources 
3. Some snakes and lizards have been observed entering brumation and it is widely not seen in other reptiles unlike hibernaton. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: A 

Why this question- In recent findings, researchers have illuminated a survival strategy utilized by reptiles called brumation

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect About Brumation Brumation, similar to hibernation in mammals, is a state of dormancy or reduced activity observed in reptiles. This phenomenon is a natural part of the reptile’s cycle, typically occurring in colder months with limited food availability.  Statement 2 is Correct About Brumation Reptiles, categorized as cold-blooded vertebrates with backbones, possess dry skin covered with scales or bony plates and often lay soft-shelled eggs. The purpose of brumation in reptiles is to conserve energy and endure harsh conditions during periods of dropping temperatures and scarce food resources. This dormant state allows reptiles to survive until more favorable conditions emerge for feeding and reproduction.  Statement 3 is Incorrect  About Brumation During brumation, reptiles seek sheltered areas such as burrows or rock crevices, where they slow their metabolism to endure extended periods without eating. Various reptilian species, including turtles, snakes, and lizards, have been observed entering brumation, each exhibiting unique behaviors to cope with adverse conditions. Researchers document and study these instances to gain insights into the specific adaptations and strategies employed by different reptile species during brumation

Q 8. Consider the following statements regarding Bubonic Plague 

1. Bubonic Plague is an infectious disease caused by the virus Yersinia pestis, typically found in small mammals and their fleas 
2. The case-fatality ratio for bubonic plague is 30% to 60%, and pneumonic plague is always fatal when untreated 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  D 

Why this question- Authorities in Oregon, USA, have reported a rare human case of bubonic plague, likely transmitted by a pet cat.

Source: NDTV

Explanation:  Statement I is Incorrect About Bubonic Plague Bubonic Plague is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis, typically found in small mammals and their fleas.  Y. pestis is capable of affecting both humans and animals, primarily transmitted by fleas.  The disease is named after the swollen lymph nodes (buboes) it induces in infected individuals.  Historically known as the Black Death, it caused millions of deaths in Europe during the Middle Ages.  Other forms of plague include Septicemic plague, which spreads throughout the body, and Pneumonic plague, affecting the lungs.  Statement II is Correct The case-fatality ratio for bubonic plague is 30% to 60%, and pneumonic plague is always fatal when untreated.  Symptoms of bubonic plague include sudden high fever, chills, abdominal, arm, and leg pains, headaches, and swollen lymph nodes (buboes).  Y. pestis is mainly spread by fleas on rodents and animals, with transmission occurring through flea bites, direct contact with infected tissues, and inhalation of respiratory droplets.  The incubation period for bubonic plague is typically 2 to 8 days.  Bubonic plague is treatable and curable with antibiotics, including Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, Gentamicin, and Doxycycline. Untreated cases can be fatal

Q 9. Consider the following statements regarding micro-irrigation 

1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced. 
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming. 
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: B 

Why this question- A recently published study titled “Production Vulnerability to Wheat Blast Disease Under Climate Change” highlights the concerning connection between a warming climate and the fungal plant disease known as Wheat Blast (WB).

Source: DTE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct Micro-irrigation systems, such as drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation, provide a targeted and precise delivery of water directly to the root zone of plants.  This precision allows for better control over the application of fertilizers and nutrients.  In traditional irrigation methods like flood irrigation, there is a higher likelihood of nutrient runoff, which can lead to environmental pollution and wastage of resources.  Micro-irrigation helps minimize this loss, as water and nutrients are applied more efficiently, reducing the environmental impact and improving the overall effectiveness of fertilizer use.  Statement 2 is Incorrect Micro-irrigation is not the only means of irrigation in dryland farming. Dryland farming refers to agriculture practiced in areas with low annual rainfall, where water availability is a limiting factor for crop production.  While micro-irrigation systems can be used in dryland farming to efficiently utilize available water resources, other irrigation methods and techniques are also employed in these areas.  Various irrigation methods can be adapted to suit dryland farming conditions. Some examples include:  Rainwater Harvesting: Collection and storage of rainwater for later use during dry periods.  Drip Irrigation: This micro-irrigation system is suitable for delivering water directly to the plant roots, making it efficient in water usage.  Mulching: Covering the soil with organic or synthetic materials to reduce evaporation, conserve moisture, and control weed growth.  Rainfed Farming: Relies solely on natural rainfall for crop irrigation, without the use of additional irrigation systems.  Subsurface Drip Irrigation: Similar to traditional drip irrigation, but water is delivered below the soil surface, minimizing evaporation losses.  Check Dams and Water Conservation Structures: Building structures to capture and store rainwater, preventing runoff and facilitating percolation into the soil.  Statement 3 is Correct  Micro-irrigation systems are known for their water efficiency. By delivering water directly to the plants’ root zones, they minimize water wastage through evaporation and runoff.  In areas where over-extraction of groundwater is a concern, micro-irrigation can play a role in conserving water and helping to stabilize or slow down the decline of the groundwater table.  This is particularly important in regions facing water scarcity issues, where sustainable water management practices, including efficient irrigation methods, are crucial for maintaining a balance in the water table.

Q 10. Consider the following statements regarding Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals 

1. The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species, also known as the Bonn Convention, is an environmental treaty under the UNEP 
2. This convention is the sole global and UN-based intergovernmental organization dedicated exclusively to the conservation and management of terrestrial, aquatic, and avian migratory species. 
3. Appendix I lists species with an unfavorable conservation status and encourages range states to develop range-wide agreements for the conservation and management of these species 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: B 

Why this question- The Government of Uzbekistan will host the Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (COP14) in Samarkand from February 12 to 17, 2024.

Source: CMS

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct About Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (COP14) The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species, also known as the Bonn Convention, is an environmental treaty under the United Nations Environment Programme. Signed on June 23, 1979, in Bonn, Germany, it serves as a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats  Statement 2 is Correct This convention is the sole global and UN-based intergovernmental organization dedicated exclusively to the conservation and management of terrestrial, aquatic, and avian migratory species throughout their range.  Parties to the convention recognize the significance of conserving migratory species, especially those with an unfavorable conservation status, and emphasize the need for special attention to such species. Activities by CMS Parties vary from legally binding treaties, termed Agreements, to less formal instruments like Memoranda of Understanding  Statement 3 is Incorrect  The Conference of Parties (COP) serves as the decision-making body of the convention.  The convention comprises two Appendices, with Appendix I listing endangered migratory species, including prohibitions on their take. Appendix II lists species with an unfavorable conservation status and encourages range states to develop range-wide agreements for the conservation and management of these species.

Q 11. Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards 

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India 
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once 
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: D 

Why this question- The distinguished Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honor, will be awarded to five notable individuals for their outstanding contributions in politics, governance, and agriculture

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are not titles under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.  Article 18(1) of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of titles, and it states that no title, except military and academic distinctions, shall be conferred by the State.  Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are civilian awards conferred for exceptional service in various fields and are not considered as titles.  Statement 2 is Incorrect The Padma Awards were instituted in 1954, but there has been no record of them being suspended at any time.  These awards are given annually by the Government of India to recognize and honour individuals for their exceptional and distinguished service in various fields, such as arts, literature, sports, public service, etc.  Statement 3 is Incorrect   There is no restriction on the number of Bharat Ratna awards given in a year.  This was never a rule, although only a maximum of three awards have been conferred in any single year so far.

Q 12. Consider the following statements regarding Pallava Dynasty 

1. The Pallava Dynasty held prominence in South India from the 3rd to the 9th centuries. 
2. The Pallavas were patrons of Buddhism, Jainism, and the Brahminical faith. 
3. The Pallavas embraced Shaivism. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: C 

Why this question- In Tamil Nadu, near Ulundurpet, archaeologists have recently unearthed a Kotravai sculpture from the eighth century, providing a valuable artifact from the Pallava period.

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct  Overview of the Pallava Dynasty  Period of Existence: The Pallava Dynasty held prominence in South India from the 3rd to the 9th centuries.  Territorial Rule: They governed the northern regions of Tamil Nadu, portions of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana, establishing Kanchipuram as their capital.  Statement 2 is Correct  Religious Patronage: The Pallavas were patrons of Buddhism, Jainism, and the Brahminical faith.  They actively supported music, painting, and literature.  Origin and Autonomy Initially, the Pallavas were vassals under the Andhra Satavahanas. They gained autonomy following the decline of the Andhra Satavahanas at Amaravati. The Pallavas progressively moved southward, founding their capital in Kanchipuram during the 4th century CE.  Statement 3 is Correct  Notable Rulers and Prosperity The reigns of Mahendravarman I (571 – 630 CE) and Narasimhavarman I (630 – 668 CE) witnessed an increase in the wealth and power of the Pallava realm. Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese traveler, depicted Bodhidharma, the Chan (Zen) Buddhism initiator in China, as a Pallava prince.  Architectural Contributions Renowned for Dravidian architecture, the Pallavas played a crucial role in the shift from rock-cut structures to stone temples. Significant architectural achievements at Mahabalipuram, which became a center for art, architecture, and literature. Key temples include the Kailasanatha Temple and the Shore Temple, the latter constructed by Narasimhavarman II. Kailasanatha and Vaikuntaperumal temples are particularly celebrated for their architectural excellence.  Religious Affiliation The Pallavas embraced Shaivism, adopting the local religion and contributing to the Dravidian cultural identity.  Conflicts and Battles Engaged in persistent conflicts with the Chalukya Dynasty in the north and Tamil kingdoms of Chola and Pandyas in the south. The Pallavas confronted the Chalukyas of Badami and were eventually absorbed by the Chola kings in the 8th century CE.  Decline The ascendancy of the Rashtrakutas marked the decline of the Pallava Dynasty. Vijayalaya, the Chola King, decisively defeated Aparajitavarman, the last Pallava King, in 897 AD.

Q 13. With reference to Baltic Sea consider the following statements 

1. Separates the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Asia. 
2. Regarded as the world’s largest brackish inland water body. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– Archaeologists in Germany have uncovered a Stone Age wall beneath the Baltic Sea, considered to be the oldest megastructure constructed by humans in Europe.

Source: HT

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Baltic Sea: A Snapshot  Geographical Location Situated in Northern Europe, the Baltic Sea is a semi-enclosed inland sea. An extension of the North Atlantic Ocean, it stretches northward from southern Denmark, nearly reaching the Arctic Circle. Separates the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe.  Coastline and Countries The coastline spans approximately 8,000 km and is shared by multiple countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.  Size and Dimensions Covers an area of about 377,000 sq.km. Length is approximately 1,600 km, and width is around 193 km   Statement 2 is Correct Connectivity Connected to the White Sea through the White Sea Canal. Links to the North Sea’s German Bight via the Kiel Canal. Connects to the Atlantic Ocean via the Danish Straits.  Major Gulfs Features three significant gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south.  Brackish Inland Water Body Often regarded as the world’s largest brackish inland water body. Lower water salinity compared to the World Oceans due to inflow from surrounding land and shallow depths.  River Inflow Over 250 rivers and streams discharge into the Baltic Sea. The Neva, the largest river in this context, flows into the Baltic Sea.  Islands and Archipelagos Home to more than 20 islands and archipelagos. Gotland, situated off the coast of Sweden, stands as the largest island in the Baltic Sea.

Q 14. Consider the following statements regarding Energy Sector of India 

1. India targets 500 GW of non-fossil energy, including 450 GW of renewable energy by 2045 
2. India aims for net zero emissions by 2070. 

Select the correct answer using code given below: 

A.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

B.     Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I  

C.     Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect  

D.     Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 

Answer:  D 

Why this question- Climate Analytics has released a report titled “Tripling Renewables by 2030,” breaking down the regional implications of achieving a 1.5ºC-aligned renewables rollout.

Source: DTE

Explanation:  Statement I is Incorrect Indian Initiatives towards Clean Energy Transition  Ambitious Targets India targets 500 GW of non-fossil energy, including 450 GW of renewable energy by 2030. Complementary policies, legislative mandates, missions, fiscal incentives, and market mechanisms support these goals.  Statement II is Correct Net Zero Target India aims for net zero emissions by 2070. Updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) reflect a goal of 50% cumulative electric power from non-fossil sources by 2030.  Energy Conservation Amendment Bill, 2022 Passed in August 2022, the bill mandates non-fossil fuel sources, including green hydrogen, green ammonia, biomass, and ethanol for energy and feedstock Grants power to the Central Government to establish carbon markets.

Q 15.Consider the following statements regarding Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015 

1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN, and it will go into effect in 2017 
2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2ºC or even 1.5ºC above pre-industrial levels 
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.   Only one 

B.   Only two  

C.   All three  

D.   None 

Answer: A 

Why this question- Climate Analytics has released a report titled “Tripling Renewables by 2030,” breaking down the regional implications of achieving a 1.5ºC-aligned renewables rollout.

Source: DTE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect While the Paris Agreement was indeed signed by a large number of countries during the UNFCCC (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change) meeting in Paris in 2015, the agreement did not automatically go into effect in 2017.  Instead, it entered into force on November 4, 2016, much earlier than the suggested 2017 date.  The agreement required ratification by at least 55 countries representing at least 55% of global greenhouse gas emissions, and these conditions were met before 2017.  Statement 2 is Correct  The primary goal of the Paris Agreement is to limit the increase in global average temperature to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 degrees Celsius.  This is to prevent the most severe impacts of climate change.  The agreement emphasizes the importance of nationally determined contributions (NDCs) from each participating country to achieve these temperature goals.  Statement 3 is Incorrect  While developed countries did acknowledge the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities” in the context of historical contributions to climate change, the specific commitment of $1000 billion a year from 2020 is not a provision of the Paris Agreement.  The agreement does call for financial support to assist developing countries in both mitigation and adaptation efforts, but the $1000 billion figure is not a specific commitment outlined in the agreement.  Financial commitments and contributions are part of ongoing discussions and negotiations within the UNFCCC framework.

Q 16. Consider the following statements regarding INSAT-3DS mission 

1. INSAT-3DS will be launched using the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle F14 (GSLV F14) 
2. It is partially funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), it belongs to the Third Generation Meteorological Satellites in Geostationary Orbit 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– On February 17, 2024, the Indian Space and Research Organisation (ISRO) is poised to launch the GSLV-F14/INSAT-3DS mission, aiming to bolster weather forecasting and disaster warning capabilities.

Source: TH

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct Key Highlights of GSLV-F14/INSAT-3DS Mission  Launch Vehicle Details INSAT-3DS will be launched using the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle F14 (GSLV F14). GSLV-F14 is a three-stage launch vehicle. The first stage (GS1) utilizes a solid propellant motor, while the second stage (GS2) and third stage (GS3) are earth-storable and cryogenic propellant stages, respectively. GSLV-F14 marks the 16th flight of GSLV and the 10th flight with the indigenous cryo stage.  Statement 2 is Incorrect Payloads of INSAT-3DS INSAT-3DS comprises four essential payloads: Imager Payload: Capable of generating Earth images in six wavelength bands. Sounder Payload: Offers data on atmospheric vertical profiles, including temperature and humidity, with a 19-channel configuration. Data Relay Transponder (DRT): Receives global meteorological, hydrological, and oceanographic data, relaying it back to user terminals. Satellite-Aided Search and Rescue (SA&SR) Transponder: Relays distress signals for global search and rescue operations in the Ultra High-Frequency band.  Mission Objectives and Significance INSAT-3DS is designed to enhance meteorological observations, improve weather forecasting, and strengthen disaster warning capabilities. Fully funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), it belongs to the Third Generation Meteorological Satellites in Geostationary Orbit. The satellite will monitor land and ocean surfaces, complementing the services of existing INSAT-3D and INSAT-3DR satellites. INSAT-3DS aims to provide accurate weather forecasts, contribute to disaster management, and facilitate data collection for emergency response. The satellite will play a crucial role in satellite-aided search and rescue services, bolstering India’s capabilities in emergency situations.

Q 17. Consider the following statements regarding Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti 

1. Constituted by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India in 2021, Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti functions as a High Powered Committee for the Promotion of Hindi Language. 
2. Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti is entrusted to provide guidance to the Ministry on matters related to the revitalization of language teaching, research, and its extension across various institutions in the country 
3. Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit University (SLBSNSU), New Delhi, provides secretarial assistance and space for the committee 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: B 

Why this question- The Chairman of Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti recently emphasized the promotion of Indian languages in education.

Source: HT

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti: Promoting Indian Languages  Establishment: Constituted by the Ministry of Education, Government of India in 2021, Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti functions as a High Powered Committee for the Promotion of Indian Languages.  Mandate: The committee is tasked with exploring and recommending pathways for the holistic and multi-disciplinary growth of Indian languages, aligning with the objectives outlined in the National Education Policy-2020.  Statement 2 is Correct Advisory Role: Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti is entrusted to provide guidance to the Ministry on matters related to the revitalization of existing language teaching, research, and its extension across various institutions in the country.  Sub-Committees/Study Groups: To efficiently carry out its assigned tasks, the committee has the authority to appoint sub-committees and study groups.  Events and Coordination: The committee may organize seminars, workshops, conferences, and webinars to emphasize the importance of promoting Indian languages. It is also authorized to interact and coordinate with relevant Central/State Government institutions involved in language teaching, research, and promotion.  Statement 3 is Correct  Secretarial Assistance: Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit University (SLBSNSU), New Delhi, provides secretarial assistance and space for the committee, covering associated expenditures in compliance with Government of India rules.  Consultants and Experts: SLBSNSU is responsible for appointing consultants, experts, scholars, officials, and young professionals on a short-term basis, as well as conducting various events based on the committee’s recommendations. The Ministry of Education (MoE) finances these activities under relevant budget heads.

Q 18. With reference to Electoral Bonds consider the following statements 

1. These can be purchased from the State Bank of India (SBI), and could be donated to registered political parties for encashment within 14 days. 
2. Removal of donation limits facilitated crony capitalism in the donation ecosystem. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A 

Why this question– The Supreme Court of India struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme, citing a breach of the right to information.

Source: IE

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect Electoral Bonds Scheme Overview of Electoral Bonds Electoral bonds, akin to promissory notes, were introduced in 2018 for political funding in India. Purchased from the State Bank of India (SBI), these bonds could be donated to registered political parties for encashment within 15 days. The scheme aimed at enhancing transparency in electoral funding, aligning with the government’s vision of a cashless-digital economy.  Statement 2 is Correct Amendments in 2022 An additional 15-day period was introduced during general elections for Legislative Assemblies. This amendment raised concerns regarding the impact on the electoral process and transparency.  Concerns Raised Contradiction of Transparency Critics argued that the scheme lacked transparency, with anonymity benefiting the ruling party and posing risks to free and fair elections.  Potential for Extortion The sale of bonds through a government-owned bank raised concerns about the government’s knowledge of funding sources, potentially leading to extortion or bias.  Compromising Right to Know Exemption of political parties from disclosing donations contradicted citizens’ right to know, a vital aspect of a representative democracy.  Crony Capitalism Removal of donation limits facilitated crony capitalism, allowing well-resourced corporations to unduly influence elections.

Q 19. Consider the following statements regarding solar power production in India 

1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units 
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: D 

Why this question– The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) recently participated in a global webinar organized by the World Bank (WB), providing insights into India’s Renewable Energy scenario.

Source: PIB

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Incorrect As of 2023, India is the fifth largest manufacturer of silicon wafers, not the third. The top three manufacturers are China, Taiwan, and South Korea.  Statement 2 is Incorrect While the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) plays a role in facilitating solar power auctions and setting guidelines, the final tariffs are determined through a bidding process involving multiple agencies and developers.  SECI does not have the sole authority to set tariffs.

Q 20. Consider the following statements regarding Jute Industry 

1. Jute is also known as the ‘golden fibre’. 
2. Top export markets include the USA, France, Ghana, the UK. 
3. Jute Industry is the one of the most undisputed industry in the world with little challenge from the synthetic fibre due to durability of the jute. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

A.  Only one 

B.  Only two  

C.  All three  

D.  None 

    Answer: B 

Why this question- The Standing Committee on Labour, Textiles, and Skill Development has recently submitted the Fifty-Third Report on the ‘Development and Promotion of Jute Industry.’

Source: SANSAD

Explanation:  Statement 1 is Correct Potential of Jute Industry The jute industry holds a significant position in India’s national economy, particularly in West Bengal. Jute, known as the ‘golden fibre,‘ meets safety standards for packaging as a natural, renewable, biodegradable, and eco-friendly product. India’s Global Jute Production Share India contributes 70% to the world’s jute production. The jute industry employs around 3.7 lakh workers, with the majority of production consumed domestically. West Bengal houses 73% of jute industries.  Statement 2 is Correct  Production and Export Data (2022-23) Jute goods production in 2022-23 reached 1,246,500 MT. Jute goods exports surged to 177,270 MT, a 56% increase from 2019-20. Top export markets include the USA, France, Ghana, the UK, and others. Statement 3 is Incorrect  Major Challenges Faced by Jute Industry High procurement rates impact mills’ profitability. Insufficient raw material supply hampers production. Obsolete mills and machinery require technological upgrades. Fierce competition from synthetic materials affects demand. Labor issues and infrastructure hurdles contribute to instability

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