As the UPSC Prelims exam for the year 2023 approaches, candidates are eagerly preparing to showcase their knowledge and skills. In this blog, we are pleased to present the UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1.
UPSC Prelims 2023 Exam
The UPSC Prelims exam is one of the most challenging stages in the Civil Services Examination, acting as a gateway to the coveted positions in the Indian Administrative Services (IAS), Indian Police Services (IPS), and other central civil services. The exam is scheduled to take place on May 28, 2023, and will consist of two shifts. The General Studies Paper 1 exam will be conducted from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM, followed by the CSAT exam from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM.’
The Importance of Previous Year Question Papers
To excel in the UPSC Prelims, candidates must not only have a strong conceptual understanding but also be familiar with the exam pattern, question types, and time management techniques. One of the most effective ways to achieve this is by referring to the previous year’s question papers. These papers provide invaluable insights into the examination’s structure, difficulty level, and the types of questions that are asked.
UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2023 – Available on Edukemy’s Website
Candidates eagerly awaiting the release of the UPSC Prelims question papers need not search far and wide. Shortly after the examination is conducted, the question papers for General Studies Paper 1 will be available on Edukemy’s website. Aspirants can easily access and download the UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Papers in PDF format from our platform.
Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper 1 – Questions
1. Consider the following statements :
- Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
- Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
- Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Wular Lake is the 2nd largest fresh-water lake of Asia. Main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Kolleru, one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, is situated between the Krishna and West Godavari districts of the state. The Krishna River does not directly feed the Kolleru Lake. The Kolleru Lake is fed by two seasonal rivers, Budameru and Tammileru, which are tributaries of the Krishna River. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
- Kanwar Lake, which is a freshwater oxbow lake located in Begusarai district of Bihar, India, was formed by a cut-off meander of an old channel of Burhi Gandak River. The Burhi Gandak River flows parallel to the eastern side of the Gandak River through an old channel. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct.
2. Consider the following pairs:
Port – Well known as
- Kamarajar Port – First major port in India registered as a company
- Mundra Port – Largest privately owned port in India
- Visakhapatnam Port – Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The port was declared as a major port under the Indian Ports Act, 1908 in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Mundra Port is India’s first private port and largest privately-owned port, located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. It is owned and operated by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ), which is a part of Adani Group. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
- Visakhapatnam Port is India’s third largest state-owned port by volume of cargo handled and the largest on the Eastern Coast. It is located midway between the Chennai and Kolkata Ports on the Bay of Bengal. Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Seva), Maharashtra, is the largest container port in India. Hence, pair 3 is NOT correctly matched.
3. Consider the following trees:
- Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
- Mahua (Madhuca indica)
- Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, which means they retain their leaves throughout the year and do not shed them seasonally.
- Mahua (Madhuca indica) is found in the dry deciduous type of forests like the Forests of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. Teak (Tectona grandis) is a moist deciduous tree. Teak wood forests are mainly found in North East India.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
4. Consider the following statements
- India has more arable area than China.
- The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
- The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Arable land is land ploughed or tilled regularly. India has the most arable land in the world followed by the United States, Russia, China and Brazil. India has the largest arable land of any country at 1,656,780 km square (50.4% of total land) compared with 1,084,461 km square (11.3% of total land) of China. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- India has more proportion of irrigated land than China. China’s irrigation cover is 41% of the cultivated area, and India’s is 48%. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is 2.4 tonnes for rice and 3 tonnes for wheat, while in China it is 6.7 tonnes for rice and 5 tonnes for wheat. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.
5. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
(c) Naupada Swamp
(d) Rann of Kutch
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- The Rann of Kutch is a vast salt marsh located in the Thar Desert of Gujarat, India. It is known for its unique ecosystem and is characterized by extensive marshy areas. The present-day Kutch’s shoreline and the sand dune deposition is the result of hundreds of years of rainless years around 5,000 years ago. Due to these severe climate conditions, the sea levels fell, leading to the formation of dunes along the coastline. Hence, option (d) is correct.
6. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Titanium
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- India is endowed with large resources of heavy minerals which occur mainly along coastal stretches of the country and also in inland placers. Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite. Ilmenite (FeO. TiO2) and rutile (TiO2) are the two chief minerals of titanium. Hence, option (d) is correct.
7. About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
(a) Argentina
(b) Botswana
(c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(d) Kazakhstan
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Hence, option (c) is correct.
8. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The Congo Basin is a vast region in Central Africa that encompasses several countries, including Cameroon. It is the world’s second-largest river basin (next to that of the Amazon), comprising an area of more than 1.3 million square miles (3.4 million square km). The vast drainage area of the Congo River includes almost the whole of the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia, northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
9. Consider the following statements:
- Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
- Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
- Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- The Amarkantak Hill is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhya and the Satpura Range. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
- Biligirirangan Hills is situated in south-eastern Karnataka while the Satpura Range rises in eastern Gujarat running east through the border of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh and ends in Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
- Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh while Western Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.
10. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:
- East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project Dibrugarh and Surat. connects
- Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
- Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- The Golden Quadrilateral Project is a major highway development project in India that aims to connect the four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The East-West Corridor is a part of this project and connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
- The IMT Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in the Indian state of Manipur with Mae Sot in Thailand, passing through Myanmar. It is an ambitious infrastructure project aimed at enhancing connectivity and trade between India, Myanmar, and Thailand. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.
- The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM) Corridor is a proposed connectivity project that aims to enhance economic cooperation and trade between Bangladesh, China, India, and Myanmar. The corridor is expected to run from Kunming in China, through Myanmar, and Bangladesh, and eventually reach Kolkata in India. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct.
11. Consider the following statements
Statement-I:
India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
Statement-II:
Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- In India, power is generated from conventional (Thermal, Nuclear & Hydro) and renewable sources (Wind, Solar, Biomass etc). Major production of Electricity is achieved through coal, a thermal power plant which is around 75% of the total power generation. Hence, statement I is correct.
- However, uranium enriched to the extent of at least 60% is not required for the production of electricity. For civilian nuclear power plants, uranium is typically enriched to about 3-5% of uranium-235, which is sufficient for light water reactors that are commonly used for electricity generation. Hence, statement II is not correct.
12. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Marsupials (Metatheria) are pouched mammals, that is mammals in which the females bear their young alive but in an almost foetal state and, in most species, carry them within an external pocket or pouch formed by a flap of dermal tissue on the abdomen. The most familiar marsupials are the kangaroos. The Marsupials are native to Australia. They are not naturally found in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- However, marsupials can thrive in various habitats, not only in montane grasslands with no predators. They can live in any part of the forest habitat. Hence, statement II is not correct.
13. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
(a) The International Union Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence, option (a) is correct.
14. Consider the following fauna:
- Lion-tailed Macaque
- Malabar Civet
- Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Lion-tailed macaque, also known as the wanderoo, thrives in the upper canopy of tropical evergreen rainforests and monsoon forests, at a wide range of elevations, from 330 to 6,000 ft (100–1,850 m). They are endemic to the Western Ghats. Lion-tailed macaques are diurnal and live in groups of 10 to 20 individuals. Hence, 1 is not correct.
- Malabar Civet is a nocturnal and elusive animal. It is endemic to Western Ghats of India. They are mainly found in Wooded plains and hill slopes of evergreen rainforests. Hence, 2 is correct.
- Sambar deer is native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia that is listed as a vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List since 2008. Sambar are nocturnal or crepuscular animals and rest during the day under the cover of heavy forest. Hence, 3 is correct.
15. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honeybees
(d) Wasps
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Honeybees perform waggle dance to communicate the location of food sources or new nest sites to their colony mates. The dance consists of a straight run followed by a loop to one side and then another straight run followed by a loop to the other side, forming a figure-eight pattern. The angle of the straight run relative to gravity indicates the direction of the food source relative to the sun, and the duration of the straight run indicates the distance of the food source from the hive. Hence, option (c) is correct.
16. Consider the following statements:
- Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
- Some mushrooms have psycho active properties.
- Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
- Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Mushrooms act as antibacterial, immune system enhancer and cholesterol lowering agents; additionally, they are important sources of bioactive compounds. As a result of these properties, some mushroom extracts are used to promote human health and are found as dietary supplements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Psychedelic mushrooms are wild or cultivated mushrooms that contain psilocybin, a naturally occurring psychoactive and hallucinogenic compound. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Recently, an increasing number of mushrooms have been found to contain insecticidal compounds. Among these are species ofLactarius (Russulaceae), which react to wounding by exuding a milky fluid and/or color change reactions, which could be a warning reaction. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- A mushroom documentation project in the forests of Northeast India has revealed a bioluminescent or light emitting variety of mushroom. The new species named Roridomyces phyllostachydis was first sighted on a wet August night near a stream in Meghalaya’s Mawlynnong in East Khasi Hills district and later at Krang Shuri in West Jaintia Hills district. It is now one among the 97 known species of bioluminescent fungi in the world. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
17. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :
- They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
- They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
- They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Indian squirrels are found in India (south of the Vindhyas) and Sri Lanka. They live in tropical dry forests, rainforests, mangrove forests, grasslands, scrub, parks, gardens, and urban areas. They are solitary and only come together during the breeding season. They are active during the day spending their time both in trees and on the ground. Sometimes they live in a system of burrows that they use for shelter and storage. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. Squirrels hide nuts this way as preparation for cold weather when otherwise food will be scarce. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Indian squirrels are omnivores. They feed mainly on nuts and fruits but will also eat seeds, insects, small mammals and reptiles, eggs, and even sometimes chicks of bird. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
18. Consider the following statements
- Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
- Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
- Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- “Thermophiles” are microorganisms with optimal growth temperatures between 60 and 108 degrees Celsius. They are isolated from a number of marine and terrestrial geothermally-heated habitats including shallow terrestrial hot springs, hydrothermal vent systems, sediment from volcanic islands, and deep-sea hydrothermal vents. The boiling point of water is 100 degrees Celsius. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Microorganisms live in every part of the biosphere, and some of them are even capable of growing at low temperatures, including those below the freezing point. These microorganisms live in the sea or in high mountains. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Acidophiles are microorganisms that show optimal growth in highly acidic environments. They are of two types. The extreme acidophiles dwell in environments with a pH value <3, and moderate acidophiles grow optimally in conditions having pH values ranging between 3 and 5. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
19. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Researchers have spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from fruit and scrape insects using a stick from a hole in a tree in the wild. Orangutans are the largest arboreal mammal, spending most of their time in trees. Long, powerful arms and grasping hands and feet allow them to move through the branches. These great apes share 96.4% of our genes and are highly intelligent creatures. Hence, option (b) is correct.
20. Consider the following:
- Aerosols
- Foam agents
- Fire retardants
- Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a group of industrial chemicals primarily used for cooling and refrigeration. HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air-conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection. Hence, option (c) is correct.
21. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1:
Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II :
InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Recon- struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Interest income that InvIT gets from its underlying SPVs and passes on to unitholders is taxed. The dividends that InvIT pays also get taxed. Both interest and dividend are taxed per the income tax slab. This is applicable where the InvIT has opted for taxation under section 115BAA of the Act. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act 2002. The SARFAESI Act and the Recovery of Debts Act have been amended. Now, a pooled investment vehicle can be considered a borrower under these laws. This means that a debenture trustee for listed secured debt securities issued by an InvIT or REIT can use the protections and enforcement mechanisms under the SARFAESI Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
22. Consider the following statements :
Statement-1 :
In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II:
Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes to contain the post pandemic inflation. For Example, since May 2022, the Monetary Policy Committee (RBI) has gone for rate hikes many times. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The central banks generally are mandated with the task of containing the rising prices of the commodities. Central banks use monetary policy to manage economic fluctuations and achieve price stability. Hence, statement 2 is correct and it provides correct explanation to statement 1.
23. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1:
Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-Il
Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-11 are correct and Statement-11 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Carbon markets, also known as emissions trading systems or cap-and-trade programs, aim to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by creating a market for buying and selling carbon allowances or credits. Carbon markets, for years short of puff, have at last become one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. By the end of 2021 more than 21% of the world’s emissions were covered by some form of carbon pricing, up from 15% in 2020. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Carbon markets are designed to create a financial mechanism that encourages the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions. In carbon markets, companies and organisations can buy and sell emissions allowances or credits, which represent the right to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases. While carbon markets can generate revenue for the government through the sale of emissions allowances, it is not accurate to say that they transfer resources solely from the private sector to the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
24. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization?
(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems
(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
(d) Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Sterilization is an action taken by the Central Bank (such as RBI in India) to counterbalance the effects of foreign exchange interventions on domestic money supply and inflation. It is done to neutralize the impact of inflows or outflows of foreign exchange reserves on the domestic monetary system. Open Market Operations (OMOs) are one of the tools used by the RBI for sterilization. OMOs are the purchase or sale of government securities by the Central Bank in the open market in order to regulate the money supply in the economy. Hence, option (a) is correct.
25. Consider the following markets :
- Government Bond Market
- Call Money Market
- Treasury Bill Market
- Stock Market
How many of the above are included/ in capital markets?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Government bond market is a part of the Capital Market. Hence, option 1 is correct.
- Call money rate is the rate at which short term funds are borrowed and lent in the money market. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
- Treasury bills are short-term debt securities issued by the government. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
- The Stock Market is a part of the Capital Market. Hence, option 4 is correct.
26. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company manufacturing for its process and commercial production
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- “Small Farmers Large Field (SFLF)” is an agri model to overcome the disadvantages faced by millions of small and marginal farmers due to diseconomies of scale and lack of bargaining power in the supply chain. This model is participatory and flexible and allows small farmers to benefit from achieving economies of scale by organising themselves into groups and synchronising and harmonising selected operations. Hence, option (b) is correct.
27. Consider the following statements :
- The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
- Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The government provides MSP for Niger Seeds. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Niger Seed is cultivated as Kharif crop. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The tribal population uses niger seed oil for cooking, the press cake post oil-extraction as livestock feed, and also consume the seeds as a condiment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
28. Consider the investments in the following assets:
- Brand recognition
- Inventory
- Intellectual property
- Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The assets that cannot be touched are known as intangible assets. They are non-physical in nature and can be used for a year or more and the list includes brand value, goodwill, and intellectual property like trademarks, patents, and copyrights etc. A tangible asset is an asset that has physical substance. Examples include inventory, a building, rolling stock, manufacturing equipment or machinery, and office furniture. Hence, option (c) is correct.
29. Consider the following:
- Demographic performance
- Forest and ecology
- Governance reforms
- Stable government
- Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used the following as criteria:
- Population
- Area
- Forest & ecology
- Income Distance
- Tax & fiscal efforts
- Demographic performance
Hence, option (b) is correct.
30. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
- Affordable housing
- Mass rapid transport
- Health care
- Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3) initiative focus for its investments?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative was launched in 2015 as a proof of concept to explore innovative ways of financing sustainable infrastructure projects in developing countries. The initiative aimed to leverage UNOPS expertise and experience in delivering infrastructure solutions that meet the needs and aspirations of people and communities. S3i seed-funds large-scale affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure projects. It does not focus on mass rapid transport infrastructure. Hence, option (c) is correct.
31. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice.
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The due process of law doctrine examines not only whether a law exists to deprive a person of his or her life and personal liberty, but also whether the legislation is fair, just, and not arbitrary. Hence, option (c) is correct.
32. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1:
In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II:
In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-11 are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Prison is a State subject under List-II of the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution. The management and administration of Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State Governments, and is governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. Thus, States have the primary role, responsibility and power to change the current prison laws, rules and regulations. Hence, statement I is correct.
- Under Prison act 1894, which governs the prisons, management and administration of prison falls in the domain of state governments. Hence, statement II is correct and it gives correct explanation to statement I.
33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The chief purpose of a constitution is to establish the fundamental principles, structure, and functions of a government and to define the rights and freedoms of individuals within a country. Constitutions serve as the supreme law of the land and provide a framework for governance, ensuring the balance of power, protecting individual rights, and guiding the functioning of the state. Hence, option (c) is correct.
34. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment.
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- During the initial months of the working of the Constitution, certain difficulties were brought to light by judicial decisions and pronouncements especially in regard to the chapter on fundamental rights. The citizen’s right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by article 19(1)(a) had been held by some courts to be so comprehensive as not to render a person culpable even if he advocates murder and other crimes of violence. As a result of this, the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 was passed. Its object was to amend Article 19 for the purposes indicated above and to insert provisions fully securing the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws in general and certain specified State Acts in particular. Hence, option (a) is correct.
35. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India :
- The National Commission for Backward Classes
- The National Human Rights Commission
- The National Law Commission.
- The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 has been repealed through the National Commission for Backward Classes (Repeal) Act, 2018. The Commission has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through “The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018” Act.
- The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October, 1993. The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006.
- The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
- Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
36. Consider the following statements:
- If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
- Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
- When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision remain valid. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Election for the post of the President of India is not postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. As when an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the Presidential election. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- When the bill is presented to the President, and the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill, or that he withholds assent therefrom Provided that the President may, as soon as possible after the presentation to him of a Bill for assent, return the Bill if it is not a Money Bill to the Houses with a message requesting that they will reconsider the Bill or any specified provisions thereof. The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit within which he/she has to declare his/ her assent. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
37. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
- When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
- When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
- In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- A Finance Bill is a Money Bill as defined in Article 110 of the Constitution. Whereas a Financial Bill is an ordinary bill as it apart from dealing with money matters also deals with non-money matters. The Finance Bill is accompanied by a Memorandum containing explanations of the provisions included in it. The Finance Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. However, the Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments in the Bill. The bill has to be passed by the Parliament within 75 days of its introduction. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
- As a finance bill is a money bill so no joint sitting of the two houses is allowed with regard to a finance bill under Article 108. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
38. Consider the following statements:
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
- the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest hunting is not allowed in such area
- people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
- people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Once the Centre notifies an area as a community reserve, as per Section 33 of the WLPA Act, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state becomes the governing authority of the forest, whose consent is required for all decisions pertaining to the area. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- After a forest has been made into a community reserve:
- People are allowed to hunt there. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- People can collect non-timber forest produce. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- People are not allowed to use it for agricultural practices such as jhum cultivation. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
39. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements :
- Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
- The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
- The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- In the Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule are:
- Preponderance of tribal population
- Compactness and reasonable size of the area
- A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring areas.
- The Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of the said areas. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
40. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II :
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The Court has held in several judgments (Indra Sawhney and Others v Union of India and Others 1993; M Nagaraj and Others v Union of India and Others 2006) that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4)1 of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335 (2) which provides for “maintenance of efficiency of administration,”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- While considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the making of appointments to public services and posts. This was done while the Constitution does not define the term “efficiency of administration.” Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
41. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
(a) Andhra
(b) Gandhara
(c) Kalinga
(d) Magadha
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Amaravati (Andhra) is the site of ancient Dhanyakataka, an important town in the Deccan and the capital of the later Satavahanas, mentioned in many inscriptions. A large Buddhist establishment was located here. The six occupational periods ranged from the 2nd century BCE to the 2nd/3rd century CE. Hence, option (a) is correct.
42. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements :
- The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
- Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
- Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The word Stupa is mentioned in the Rigveda, Atharvaveda, Vajasaneyi Samhita, Taittriya Samhita, in the Panchavimsata Brahmana. Rigveda refers to a Stupa raised by the King Varuna above the forest in a place having no foundation. The word ‘estuka’ is also used in the same sense in Rigveda, probably by then anything raised on the ground like a heap/pile might have been known as Stupa. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The practice of preserving the remains of an important personality below accumulated earth was long in existence. Buddhist art adopted this practice and the structure built over such a site was known as Stupa Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The Buddhist texts like the Avadana Satakam, Mahavadana and Stupavadanam mentions about the commemorative aspects of the Stupa even the Jaina literature like Raya Pasenaiya Sutta refers to it. Probably in the later period, due to the deep desire of the common mass to worship the lord for the sake of salvation, Stupa acquired its votive character as well. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
43. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
(a) capital cities
(b) ports
(c) centres of iron-and-steel trailing
(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Korkai was the port city of early Pandyas situated on the banks of the Thamirabarani near Bay of Bengal.
- Poompuhar is a town in the Mayiladuthurai district in the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It was once a flourishing ancient port city known as Kaveri Poompattinam, which for a while served as the capital of the Early Chola kings in Tamilakam.
- Kodungallur is a town and a municipality in the Thrissur district (Kerala) and was known in ancient times as Mahodayapuram, Shinkli, Muchiri, Muziris and Muyirikkodu.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
44. Which one of the following explains the practice of ‘Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?
(a) Kings employing women bodyguards
(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Vatakkiruttal was a Tamil ritual of fasting till death. It was especially widespread during the Sangam age. The Tamil kings, in order to save their honour, and prestige, were prepared to meet their death facing North (‘Vatakkiruttal’) and never would they turn their back in battle. Hence, option (d) is correct.
45. Consider the following dynasties
- Hoysala
- Gahadavala
- Kakatiya
- Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Hoysala:
- The Hoysala Empire was one of the powerful forces that ruled parts of southern India between the 10th and 14th centuries. The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur but was later moved to Halebidu.
- Gahadavala:
- Gahadavala dynasty, one of the many ruling families of north India on the eve of the Muslim conquests in the 12th–13th century. Its history, ranging between the second half of the 11th century and the mid-13th century, illustrates all the features of early medieval north Indian polity—dynastic hostilities and alliances, feudal state structure, absolute dependence on Brahmanical social ideology, and vulnerability in the face of external aggressions.
- Kakatiya:
- The sub-feudatories of the Rashtrakutas emerged themselves as independent kings and founded the Kakatiya dynasty around 950 AD and this kingdom became a strong and united whole of Telugu-speaking lands and lasted for more than three centuries and a half.
- Yadava:
- In the last quarter of the 12th century AD the Yadavas of Devagiri came into prominence. They had previously been ruling over Seunadesha (Khandesh) as feudatories of the Chalukyas of Kalyani. The founder of the family was Dridhaprahara, the son of Subahu.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
46. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs :
Literary – work Author
- Devichandragupta : Bilhana
- Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
- Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna
- Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Sufi
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Literary works and their authors:
- Devichandragupta : Vishakadatta
- Hammira-Mahakavya : Naya Chandra Suri
- Milinda-panha : Nagasena (Nagarjuna)
- Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri
Hence, option (c) is correct.
47. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.”
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Shaivism
(d) Vaishnavism
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The central tenet of Jainism is non-violence. No other religion lays as much emphasis on non-violence as Jainism. As Jainism placed great emphasis on non-violence, strict observers of the faith wear a muslin cloth around their mouth and nose so that they would not inhale small insects even by mistake. To avoid trampling on ants and other insects, Jain monks used feathers to sweep the path before walking. Jains could not practise agriculture or other crafts that involve killing or injury to living organisms. Hence, they took to trading and money-lending and excelled in it. As a result, they were closely associated with urbanisation. Hence, option (b) is correct.
48. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
(a) Devaraya I
(b) Mallikaijuna
(c) Vira Vijaya
(d) Virupaksha
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Deva Raya I constructed a dam across the Tungabhadra so that he could bring the canals into the city to relieve the shortage of water. It irrigated the neighbouring fields also, for we are told that the canals increased his revenues by 350,000 pardaos. He also built a dam on the river Haridra for irrigation purposes. Hence, option (a) is correct.
49. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
(a) Ahmad Shah
(b) Mahmud Begarha
(c) Bahadur Shah
(d) Muhammad Shah
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Early in the 16th century, the Sultan of Gujarat, Bahadur Shah, came under immense pressure when his kingdom was invaded by the second Mughal Emperor Humayun. At that juncture, he decided to remain on conciliatory terms with the Portuguese, who had arrived in India at the end of the 15th century, and were at the time an energetic and ambitious maritime power. In 1534, the Shah signed the Treaty of Bassein with the Portuguese, ceding Diu to the latter, as well as other territories of his empire such as Vasai and the islands that today form Mumbai. The Portuguese obtained Daman from the Shah in 1559. Hence, option (c) is correct.
50. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Charter Act of 1833 was the final step towards centralisation in British India. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India. Hence, option (d) is correct.
51. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :
- It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
- Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
- It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
- Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Janani Suraksha Yojana:
- The Yojana, launched on 12th April 2005, is being implemented in all states and UTs with special focus on low performing states. It is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- It was implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
- Providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age is not an objective of the scheme. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
52. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy :
- It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
- It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
- It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
- It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Interventions of Anaemia Mukt Bharat:
- Not Prophylactic calcium supplementation but Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation is provided to children, adolescents and women of reproductive age and pregnant women irrespective of anemia. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Increase intake of iron-rich, protein-rich and vitamin C-rich foods through dietary diversification/quantity/frequency and food fortification. Promoting practice of delayed cord clamping (by atleast 3 minutes or until cord pulsations cease) in all health facility deliveries followed by early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the age groups between 1-19 years is carried out every year under National Deworming Day (NDD) programme. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The Anaemia Mukt Bharat, also integrates deworming of women of reproductive age and for pregnant women as part of the NDD strategy. Addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets, with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
53. Consider the following statements :
- Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
- Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Aerospace and automobiles were some of the first industries to adopt carbon fibre. The high modulus of carbon fibre makes it suitable structurally to replace alloys such as aluminium and titanium. The weight savings carbon fibre provides is the primary reason carbon fibre has been adopted by the aerospace industry. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Currently, the most common recycling process used to recover carbon fibre from composite waste is pyrolysis, where high heat basically burns off the resin. Solvolysis, which uses a solvent to dissolve the resin, has long been claimed to offer superior properties. However, one of the main challenges to date has been obtaining recycled carbon fibre keeping the same mechanical properties as virgin carbon fibre. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
54. Consider the following actions :
- Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously
- Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
- Detection of the tilt of the smart-phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode
In how many of the above lions is the function of accelerometer required?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The accelerometer detects signals that are used to identify major vehicle crash/collisions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The accelerometers in laptops protect hard drives from damage. If the laptop were to suddenly drop while in use, the accelerometer would detect the sudden free fall and immediately turn off the hard drive to avoid hitting the reading heads into the hard drive platter. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Accelerometers allow the user to understand the surroundings of an item better. For example, smartphones rotate their display between portrait and landscape mode depending on how you tilt the phone. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
55. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements :
- Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
- Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
- Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Role of Biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System (RAS):
- RAS biofilters act to remove nitrogenous waste by-products generated by fish protein catabolism and oxidation processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Ammonia is removed from an aquarium system through the use of a biofilter. The biofilter provides a substrate on which nitrifying bacteria grow. These nitrifying bacteria consume ammonia and produce nitrite, which is also toxic to fish. Other nitrifying bacteria in the biofilter consume nitrite and produce nitrate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The biofilter system reduces the concentration of nitrite, nitrate, phosphorus, and ammonium ions from the synthetic water. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
56. Consider the following pairs :
Objects in space : Description
1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Cepheids, also called Cepheid Variables, are stars which brigthen and dim periodically. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
- A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space. Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying star, such as a supernova. Other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
- Pulsars are rotating neutron stars observed to have pulses of radiation at very regular intervals that typically range from milliseconds to seconds. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
57. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Japan is the country that has its own satellite navigation system. The system is called the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) and it is designed to augment the existing GPS system, providing more accurate and reliable positioning and timing information within Japan and surrounding regions. Hence, option (d) is correct.
58. Consider the following statements :
- Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
- Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements gin above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Cruise missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial (boost) phase of flight, after which they follow an arcing trajectory to the target. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Agni V is India’s long-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile, which can hit a target with a precision that is 5,000 km away. The BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, developed by the joint Russian-Indian BrahMos Aerospace company. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
59. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :
- Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
- Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
- There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- One major source of mercury emissions is small-scale gold mining that occurs in many countries. Artisanal gold mining currently contributes more than 35 per cent of all global mercury emissions created by people. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Coal-based thermal power plants are a known source of mercury pollution. When coal is burned to generate electricity, trace amounts of mercury present in coal can be released into the atmosphere as emissions. These emissions contribute to mercury pollution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Acute or chronic mercury exposure can cause adverse effects during any period of development. Mercury is a highly toxic element; there is no known safe level of exposure. Ideally, neither children nor adults should have any mercury in their bodies because it provides no physiological benefit. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
60. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements :
- It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
- It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
- It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Hydrogen produced through clean pathways can be injected into natural gas pipelines, and the resulting blends can be used to generate heat and power with lower emissions than using natural gas alone. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Hydrogen can be used in two kinds of vehicles: those with internal combustion engines (ICEs) and those with fuel cells. For example, Germany’s hydrogen-powered passenger train. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
61. Consider the following countries :
- Bulgaria
- Czech Republic
- Hungary
- Latvia
- Lithuania
- Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Ukraine is bordered by the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov to the south, Russia to the east and north, Belarus to the north, Poland, Slovakia, and Hungary to the west, and Romania and Moldova to the south. Hence, option (a) is correct.
62. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The Earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short wavelengths. The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation, which in short, is termed insolation. The atmosphere is largely transparent to short wave solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the near infrared radiation. Hence, option (c) is correct.
63. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
The soil in tropical rainforests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II :
The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- The soils of the tropical rainforest are typically nutrient-poor. The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. In tropical rainforests, the plants grow so fast that they quickly consume the nutrients from the soil, and the leftover nutrients are then leached away by abundant rainfall, which leaves the soil infertile. Hence, statement I is not correct and statement II is correct.
64. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II :
The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. This is because of more heat and stronger sea breeze in the summer than in winter. Hence, statement I is correct.
- The specific heat capacity of water is much greater than the land because the relative density of water is much lower than that of the land surface. However, this is true throughout the year and not related to any particular season. Hence, statement II is correct but it is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
65. Consider the following statements :
- In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
- In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves. The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The P-waves are longitudinal waves, so P-wave particles vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. But S-waves are transverse waves, so S-wave particles vibrate perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, statement 2 is correct,
66. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :
- None of them uses seawater.
- None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
- None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) ll three
- (d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- In India, several coal-fired thermal power plants employ seawater for a variety of functions, including cooling the condenser system. Seawater is a frequent supply of cooling water for power plants near the coast. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- According to a report, 40 per cent of the country’s thermal power plants are located in areas facing high water stress, a problem since these plants use water for cooling. Scarce water is already hampering electricity generation in this region. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- There are both privately and publicly owned coal-fired thermal power stations in India. The country’s power generating is a collaboration of corporate and public companies. For example, Adani Power Limited is the country’s largest thermal power producer company. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
67. Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
(b) Converting crop residues into packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastic
(d) Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Wolbachia are natural bacteria present in up to 60% of insect species, including some mosquitoes. In World Mosquito Program’s Wolbachia method, the field teams release male and female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes with Wolbachia over a number of weeks. These mosquitoes then breed with the wild mosquito population. Over time, the percentage of mosquitoes carrying Wolbachia grows until it remains high without the need for further releases. Mosquitoes with Wolbachia have a reduced ability to transmit viruses to people, decreasing the risk of Zika, dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever outbreaks. Hence, option (a) is correct.
68. Consider the following activities :
- Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
- Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
- Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Carbon sequestration is the technologies designed to tackle global warming by capturing CO2 at power stations, industrial sites or even directly from the air and permanently storing it underground. It describes the long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to either mitigate or defer global warming. Some of the methods of Carbon sequestration are:
- Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
- Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
- Capturing carbon dioxide directly or indirectly from the atmosphere and then storing or burying it in a suitable deep, underground location.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
69. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?
(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Metagenomics is the study of the structure and function of entire nucleotide sequences isolated and analysed from all the organisms (typically microbes) in a bulk sample. Aerial metagenomics is a scientific field that involves studying the genetic material present in the air, specifically the DNA and RNA of microorganisms suspended in the atmosphere. It focuses on the analysis of the microbial communities or microbiomes found in the air samples collected from various environments such as outdoor air, indoor air, and airborne particles. Hence, option (a) is correct.
70. `Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?
(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- Microsatellite DNA is utilised in genetic analysis, more specifically in molecular genetics and genomics. Microsatellites are small DNA sequences made up of repeating units. They are also known as short tandem repeats (STRs) or simple sequence repeats (SSRs). The number of repeats at a certain microsatellite locus might vary greatly between people in a population because microsatellite DNA is highly variable. Researchers can analyse the genetic structure, population dynamics, and evolutionary relationships among various species of animals by analysing microsatellite DNA. Hence, option (a) is correct.
71. Consider the with reference to the India :
- According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs 15 crore and Rs 25 crore.
- All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- As per the new definition and criterion of MSMEs which came into effect from 1st July, 2020.
- The definition of Micro manufacturing and services units has been increased to Rs. 1 Crore of investment and Rs. 5 Crore of turnover.
- The limit of small unit has been increased to Rs. 10 Crore of investment and Rs 50 Crore of turnover.
- The limit for medium Enterprises has been changed to Rs. 50 Crore of investment and Rs. 250 Crore of turnover.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- In terms of Master Direction on ‘Priority Sector Lending (PSL) – Targets and Classification’ dated September 4, 2020, all bank loans to MSMEs conforming to the conditions prescribed therein qualify for classification under priority sector lending. Bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (for both manufacturing and service sectors) engaged in providing or rendering of services and defined in terms of investment in equipment under MSMED Act, 2006, irrespective of loan limits, are eligible for classification under priority sector, w.e.f. March 1, 2018. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
72. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :
- It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is a digital form of currency notes issued by a central bank. Here payments in a digital currency are without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- A CBDC is programmable to the point that the currency can be made to expire, thus forcing consumers to use it upto a certain date. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
73. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to
(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an . asset from different platforms
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- Beta is a measure of a stock’s historical volatility in comparison with that of a market index such as the S&P 500. Stocks with a beta above 1 tend to be more volatile than their index, while stocks with lower betas tend to be less volatile. Hence, option (d) is correct.
74. Consider the following statements :
- The Self-Help Group (SHG) Programme was originally initiated pr State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
- In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
- The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- In 1970, Ilaben Bhat, founder member of ‘SEWA’(Self Employed Women’s Association) in Ahmadabad, had developed a concept of ‘women and micro-finance’. The Annapurna Mahila Mandal’ in Maharashtra and ‘Working Women’s Forum’ in Tamilnadu and many National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)-sponsored groups have followed the path laid down by ‘SEWA’. ‘SEWA’ is a trade union of poor, self-employed women workers. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- In an SHG, all members are jointly responsible for the loans taken by individual members. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Both the Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
75. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II:
Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- The Ayushman Bharat – Health and Wellness Centres (ABHWCs) were launched under the Ayushman Bharat Programme in a bid to move away from selective health care to a more comprehensive range of services spanning preventive, promotive, curative, rehabilitative and palliative care for all ages. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- In ABHWCs at the Sub Health Centre (SHC) level, Multi-Purpose Workers (male & female) & ASHAs and Primary Health Centre/ Urban Primary Health Centre are organized by state govt but in case of tertiary Health services Central govt is also a key stakeholder. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
76. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’ India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II :
India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement and Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022,’ India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal every year. Hence, statement I is correct.
- As per the report, about 89% of this groundwater is used in India for irrigation. Hence, statement-II is not correct.
77. Consider the following statements :
- According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
- The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
- According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- As per Article 355, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- As per Article 22(1), No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice. And as per Article 22(5), when any person is detained in pursuance of an order made under any law providing for preventive detention, the authority making the order shall, as soon as may be, communicate to such person the grounds on which the order has been made and shall afford him the earliest opportunity of making a representation against the order. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- The Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, 1987 and the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 had made provisions to admit the confessions made by the accused before the police authorities. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
78. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- A total of 6.5 million people in Somalia face acute food insecurity amid the driest conditions in 40 years, following five consecutive failed rainy seasons. Drought is compounding the impacts of other recurrent climate shocks, persistent insecurity and instability. In 2021, Somalia faced its worst desert locust infestation in 25 years, which further threatened food security and livelihoods. A total of 1.84 million children under 5 face acute malnutrition. Hence, option (d) is correct.
79. Consider the following statements :
- In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
- The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- In India, the Biological Diversity Act 2002 (BD Act), is in close synergy with the Nagoya Protocol and aims to implement provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The Nagoya Protocol sought to ensure commercial and research utilisation of genetic resources led to sharing its benefits with the government and the community that conserved such resources. Under Section 41(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, every local body in the State shall constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee within its area of jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Some of the major functions of Biodiversity Management Committee are:
- To prepare People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with local people.
- Ensuring the protection of the knowledge recorded in PBR, especially to regulate its access to outside persons and agencies.
- Conservation, sustainable use and access and benefit sharing of biological resources.
- Regulation of access to the biological resources and/ or associated Traditional Knowledge, for commercial and research purposes.
- May levy charges by way of collection fees from any person for accessing or collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes from areas falling within its territorial jurisdiction.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
80. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :
- The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
- Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State..
- The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
- The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statement are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of
- The elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and
- The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry].
The Members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The value of the vote of an MP in a presidential election is based on the number of elected members in legislative assemblies of states and union territories, including Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir. If the number of elected Assembly seats increased, the value of vote of each MLA of that state will decrease. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is 131 which is less than that of Kerala where it is 152. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
- The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry (16) is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh (8) because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
81. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- A.H. Longhurst, Walter Elliot, Alexander Rea, James. Burgess, Robert Sewell and many others conducted systematic and careful excavations at Bhattiprolu, Ghantasala, Amaravati etc. in Andhra Pradesh. Hence, option (a) is correct.
82. Consider the following pairs :
Site : Well known for
1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Udayagiri Caves (in Besnagar Modern day Vidisha) are a group of rock – cut cave sanctuaries, carved into a sandstone hill. Cave 4, also known as Bina Cave, is a significant stage in the process of cave development. It features an impressive Shiva Lingam, a symbolic representation of Lord Shiva, placed on a rock-cut platform within the cave. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Bhaja Caves is a group of 22 rock cut caves built during the 2nd century BC. This cave is located in Pune district, near Lonavala, Maharashtra. The Caves belong to the Hinayana Buddhism sect in Maharashtra. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
- Sittanavasal Caves (Arivar Koil): Located 16 km northwest of Pudukkottai town in Tamil Nadu, these famous rock-cut caves are known for the paintings in the Jain temples. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
83. Consider the following statements :
Statement- I:
7th August declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II
It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement and Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- In 2015, the Government of India decided to designate the 7th August every year, as the National Handloom Day. On this day, we honour our handloom-weaving community and highlight the contribution of this sector in the socio-economic development of our country. Hence, statement-I is correct.
- The Swadeshi Movement which was launched on 7th August, 1905 had encouraged indigenous industries and in particular handloom weavers. In 2015, the Government of India decided to designate the 7th August every year, as the National Handloom Day. Hence, statement II is correct and is correct explanation to statement I.
84. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
Statement-I :
One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II :
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement and Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- The Flag Code of India, 2002 was amended recently, and National Flag made of polyester or machine-made flag have also been allowed. Now, the National Flag shall be made of hand-spun, hand-woven or machine-made cotton/polyester/wool/ silk/khadi bunting, as per the amended flag code. The standard sizes of the National Flag shall be as follows:
| 1 | 6300 X 4200 |
| 2 | 3600 X 2400 |
| 3 | 2700 X 1800 |
| 4 | 1800 X 1200 |
| 5 | 1350 X 900 |
| 6 | 900 X 600 |
| 7 | 450 X 300 |
| 8 | 225 X 150 |
| 9 | 150 X 100 |
Hence, statement I is not correct.
- The National Flag shall be rectangular in shape. The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the flag shall be 3:2. Hence, statement II is correct.
85. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :
Statement-I :
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II :
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The Constitution Day is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment on 19th November 2015 notified the decision of Government of India to celebrate the 26th day of November every year as ‘Constitution Day’ to promote Constitution values among citizens. Hence, statement-I is correct.
- The Drafting Committee was set up on August 29, 1947. It was this committee that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
86. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1:
Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II :
Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Switzerland’s gold exports amounted to a value of nearly 87 billion U.S. dollars in 2021. Switzerland is consistently the world’s leading gold exporting country based on value. In addition to being the largest exporter of gold based on value, Switzerland is also consistently the largest importer of gold based on value in the world. Switzerland imports unrefined gold, and exports it in its refined form. Hence, statement I is correct.
- Switzerland has the seventh-largest reserves of gold in the world. Its reserves of 1,040.0 tons account for 6.3% of its foreign reserves. Hence, statement II is not correct.
87. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade Technology Council’. and
Statement-II :
The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Recently the United States of America and the European Union have launched the Trade and Technology Council, a strategic coordination mechanism to tackle challenges at the nexus of trade, trusted technology and security. Hence, statement I is correct.
- The EU-US Trade and Technology Council serves as a forum for the United States and European Union to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues and to deepen transatlantic trade and economic relations based on these shared values. Hence, statement II is not correct.
88. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II :
Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- According to the recent WTO’S Global Trade Outlook and Statistics report, India accounts for 1.8 % of global exports of goods. Hence, statement I is not correct.
- The ‘Production Linked Initiative’ (PLI) scheme offers companies incentives on incremental sales from products manufactured in India. It aims to attract foreign companies to set up units in India while encouraging local companies to expand their manufacturing units, generate more employment, and reduce the country’s reliance on imports. Hence, statement II is correct.
89. Consider the following statements :
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that
- limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
- makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
- enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (a)
- The Stability and Growth Pact is a political agreement that sets limits on the fiscal deficits and public debt of the Member States of the European Monetary Union (EMU). These guidelines are intended to ensure sound management of public finances within the EMU in order to prevent one Member State’s irresponsible budgetary policies from spilling over and undermining the economic stability of the entire Europe. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The European Union Stability and Trade Pact does not make any provision related to sharing of infrastructure and technology. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
90. Consider the following statements:
- Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
- The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
- The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration is the first intergovernmental agreement, adopted under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner. It was adopted at an intergovernmental conference on migration in Marrakesh, Morocco, on 10 December 2018. The pact was agreed by all 193 members, except the United States. But at the ceremony to adopt the text on 10 December, only 164 countries formally adopted it. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The global compact is non-legally binding. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration is the world’s first, intergovernmental negotiated agreement covering all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
91. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements
- Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
- The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
- To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. They are recruited from amongst all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for betterment of the community. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan (4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
92. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action : The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearing: of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties. : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others. : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Official Secrets act stated that Unauthorised use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents. If any person for the purpose of gaining admission or of assisting any other person to gain admission to a prohibited place or for any other purpose prejudicial to the safety of the State wears police or military uniform shall be guilty. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Official secrets act stated that No person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of engaged on guard, Sentry, patrol, or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
- The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019ensures that those using firearms in a rash or negligent manner in celebratory gunfire, endangering human life or personal safety of others, shall be punishable with an imprisonment to two years or with fine which may extend to Rs one lakh or with both. Hence, pair 3 correctly matched.
93. Consider the following pairs:
Regions often mentioned in news : Reason for being in news
1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Azerbaijan.
2. Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique.
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- North Kivu and Ituri are the Provinces of the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Humanitarian Emergency in North Kivu, Ituri and South Kivu in 2023. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
- The landlocked mountainous region of Nagorno-Karabakh is the subject of an unresolved dispute between Azerbaijan, in which it lies, and its ethnic Armenian majority, backed by neighbouring Armenia. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
- Russia carried out referendums on joining Russia in the Ukrainian regions of Luhansk, Donetsk, Zaporizhzhia and Kherson – which represent 15 percent of Ukraine’s territory and are controlled by Russia. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
94. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1:
Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II :
The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- Egypt and Jordan are the only two Arab countries that have formal diplomatic relations with Israel, though some other Arab countries, like Saudi Arabia and Morocco, have reportedly had back-channel communications with it for years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Arab Peace Initiative is a comprehensive peace plan which was proposed in 2002 by then-Crown Prince Abdullah of Saudi Arabia. The Initiative calls for an end to the conflict between Israel and the Palestinians and the normalization of relations between Israel and the entire Arab world, in exchange for an Israeli withdrawal from the areas gained by Israel during the 1967 Six Day War and a “just settlement” to the issue of Palestinian refugees. The Arab League endorsed the plan in March 2002, and readopted it in March 2007. However, The Israeli government rejected the initiative immediately, calling it a “non-starter,” though the Quartet on the Middle East endorsed the Initiative in 2003. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
95. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding per- formance by a sportsperson over period of last four years.
2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams.
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: The recipient(s) is/are selected by a committee constituted by the Ministry and is honoured for their “spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years” at international level. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- The Arjuna Award, officially known as Arjuna Awards for Outstanding Performance in Sports and Games,is the second-highest sporting honour of India. Dhyan chand award is the lifetime achievement sporting honour of India. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
- Dronacharya Award is is given to coaches for doing outstanding and meritorious work on a consistent basis and enabling sportspersons to excel in International events. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
- ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar’ is given to corporate entities (both in private and public sector), Sports Control Boards, NGOs, including sports bodies at the State and National level, who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and development. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
96. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
- It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
- The official mascot was named Thambi’.
- The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
- The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Correct Answer: Option (b)
- The world’s biggest chess event is happening in India for the first time. Chennai is hosting the 44th Chess Olympiad. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Official Mascot of 44th Chess Olympiad is ‘Thambi’. The word ‘Thambi’ in Tamil language means – little or younger brother. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The trophy for the 1st place in the Open section: Hamilton-Russel Cup. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
- The trophy for the 1st place in the Women’s section: Vera Menchik Cup. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
97. Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict mentioned in news : Country where it is located
- Donbas – Syria
- Kachin – Ethiopia
- Tigray – North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- The Donbas or Donbass is a historical, cultural, and economic region in eastern Ukraine. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
- Kachin State also known by the endonym Kachinland, is the northernmost state of Myanmar. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
- Tigray is Ethiopia’s northernmost region. Bordering Eritrea, it is home to most of the country’s estimated 7 million ethnic Tigrayans. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
98. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups
Correct Answer: Option (d)
- In the last couple of years, Africans witnessed a series of military coups. Most of the recent military takeovers have taken place in West Africa, but the trend threatens to spread wider. In West Africa, the cycle of coups began in Chad. Mali has witnessed two military coups within a span of 18 months. In 2021, the military in Sudan ended its uneasy cohabitation with the civilian government by staging a coup. Hence, option (d) is correct.
99. Consider the following heavy industries
- Fertilizer plants.
- Oil refineries
- Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The primary focus for adoption of green hydrogen is likely to be oil refineries, fertilisers and chemical industry. oil refineries using grey hydrogen for desulphurisation, ammonia production for fertilisers and chemicals industry, and treatment of basic metals are the leading market opportunities for green hydrogen in the short-medium term. Oil refineries, fertiliser companies and steel producers are likely to be asked to meet a compulsory green hydrogen purchase obligation (GHPO) in a planned national move to green energy. Hence, option (c) is correct.
100. Consider the following statements about G-20:
- The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
- Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option (c)
- The G20 group of 19 countries and the EU was established in 1999 as a platform for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Together, the G20 countries account for almost two-thirds of the global population, 75% of global trade, and 85% of the world’s GDP. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- India is pitching its digital infrastructure at G20 as an open-access platform that can aid in improving development outcomes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Download UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 General Studies 1 – Question Paper
Download UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 General Studies 1 – Answer Key (SET A)
Benefits of Referring to UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2023
By analyzing the UPSC Prelims question papers, candidates can assess their performance, identify their strengths and weaknesses, and make targeted improvements in their preparation. Moreover, going through the answer key provided alongside the question paper will help aspirants gauge their accuracy and enhance their understanding of the correct answers.
As you embark on your UPSC Prelims 2023 journey, we encourage you to make the most of the available resources. Referring to the UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2023 with the answer key for General Studies Paper 1 will undoubtedly provide you with the necessary edge in your preparation. Stay tuned to Edukemy’s website for the timely release of the question papers, and make the best use of this valuable resource to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC Prelims examination. Best of luck!
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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
FAQ 1: What is the pattern of the UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper 1?
Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper 1 consists of objective-type multiple-choice questions. It covers diverse subjects such as History, Geography, Polity, Economics, Environment, and Current Affairs. The total marks for the paper are 200, and it is designed to test candidates’ knowledge and understanding of a wide range of topics.
FAQ 2: How many questions can candidates expect in the UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper 1?
Answer: The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC Prelims 2023 typically comprises 100 to 150 questions. The exact number may vary each year. Candidates need to answer all the questions within a specified time limit, usually two hours.
FAQ 3: Is there negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper 1?
Answer: Yes, there is negative marking in the UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper 1. For each incorrect answer, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question are deducted. However, there is no negative marking for unanswered questions.
FAQ 4: What is the role of the UPSC Prelims 2023 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1?
Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2023 Answer Key for General Studies Paper 1 is a crucial resource for candidates. It provides the correct answers to all the questions asked in the exam. Candidates can use the answer key to estimate their probable scores and identify areas where they need improvement. It also serves as a valuable tool for self-assessment.
FAQ 5: How can candidates access the UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key?
Answer: The UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper 1 Answer Key is usually made available on the official UPSC website after the examination. Candidates can download the answer key and compare it with their responses to calculate their expected scores. Additionally, coaching institutes and educational websites often release unofficial answer keys shortly after the exam for quick reference, but candidates are advised to rely on the official answer key for accurate information.
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