In News: The Election Commission of India (ECI) recently issued a report regarding the enforcement of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), highlighting the role of star campaigners in maintaining societal harmony without disruption.

Understanding the Derecognition of Political Parties

• Definition of Derecognition
  • Derecognition entails the withdrawal of recognition granted to a political party by the Election Commission of India (ECI). 
  • Such parties are then categorized as registered-unrecognized parties, retaining the eligibility to contest elections but losing the privileges associated with recognized parties.
• Recognition of Political Parties
  • Registered parties not recognized as national or state parties are termed as Registered Unrecognized Political Parties (RUPP).
  • Recognition as a national or state party is conferred under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, based on specific criteria such as winning requisite seats or obtaining a certain percentage of votes in general elections.
  • Presently, there are six national parties and sixty-one state parties recognized by the ECI, enjoying various privileges like reserved symbols and star campaigners during elections.
• Criteria for Derecognition of National Parties
  • Derecognition of a national party may occur if it fails to meet certain criteria
    
    • Failure to secure a minimum percentage of votes or seats in general elections.
    • Non-submission of audited accounts to the ECI on time.
    • Failure to conduct organizational elections within the party promptly.

Explaining Deregistration of Political Parties

• Definition of Deregistration
  • Deregistration refers to the cancellation of a political party's registration, thereby barring it from contesting elections. However, the ECI lacks the authority to deregister parties.
• Registration of Political Parties
  
  • Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 outlines the requirements for political party registration, including submission of a constitution pledging allegiance to the Indian Constitution and its principles.
  • Registered parties enjoy benefits such as tax exemption and a common symbol for elections.
• Grounds for Deregistration
  • A political party can only be deregistered under specific circumstances:
    • Obtaining registration through fraud.
    • Declaration of illegality by the Central Government.
    • Refusal to comply with the Indian Constitution after revising its internal constitution.

Challenges and Proposed Solutions

• Need for Deregistration
• Many registered but unrecognized parties do not actively participate in elections, raising concerns about potential misuse of tax exemptions and donations.
• While recognized parties may breach Model Code of Conduct (MCC) norms, the ECI's authority to penalize them is limited.
• Proposed Solutions
• The ECI and the Law Commission have recommended amendments empowering the ECI to deregister inactive parties.
• Periodic reviews could identify and discourage inactive parties from solely seeking tax benefits.
• The National Electoral Fund and penalties for defaulting parties have been suggested to enhance transparency and accountability.
• Granting the ECI the authority to audit political party accounts would further ensure transparency.

Source: TH

In News: The decline in the household net financial savings to GDP ratio in India can be attributed to increased borrowing and structural shifts, rather than being solely a result of a change in savings patterns.

Emergence of the Debate on India’s Declining Household Savings

• Background
• A news article highlighted a significant decrease in the household net financial savings to GDP ratio during 2022-23 in India, primarily due to a higher borrowing to GDP ratio.
• Interpretation by the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA)
• The CEA to the Government of India viewed this trend as merely a shift in the composition of household savings, where increased borrowing is utilized to finance higher physical savings (investment).

Critique of the CEA's Interpretation

• Declining Household Savings Not Just a Change in Savings Pattern

• The household savings to GDP ratio encompasses net financial savings, physical savings, and gold and ornaments.
• A mere shift in savings composition would have maintained the overall savings ratio, which didn't occur.
• The net financial savings to GDP ratio dropped significantly more than the increase in physical savings, leading to a decline in the household savings to GDP ratio.

Arguments Against the CEA's Position

• Problems with CEA's Argument
  • The CEA's analysis of absolute nominal household total savings doesn't address the historic decline in net financial savings.
  • Although the nominal value of total savings increased, it doesn't negate the explanation for the higher borrowing to GDP ratio.
• Higher Household Debt-to-Income Ratio as a Structural Change
  
  • The rise in the household debt-to-income ratio is influenced by factors like increased borrowing relative to income and rising interest rates.
  • The post-COVID period witnessed nominal income growth rates lower than lending rates, leading to increased debt servicing burdens.
• Macroeconomic Challenges Highlighted by the Structural Change
  • Challenges include narrowing the gap between interest rates and income growth to prevent higher interest payment burdens.
  • Maintaining aggregate demand amidst rising household debt obligations and interest rates necessitates macroeconomic policies to support household income growth and stabilize the economy.

Source: TH

In News: Scarlett Johansson, a Hollywood actress, recently alleged that the voice of GPT-4o closely resembles her own. She accused OpenAI of utilizing her voice without consent, despite her prior refusal to grant licensing requests from CEO Sam Altman.

Understanding Personality Rights and Their Protection

• Introduction
  • Recently, OpenAI introduced its latest AI model, GPT-4o, with a feature called Voice Mode, allowing uses to engage in voice conversations with the AI and choose from five different voices. 
• Concerns Raised by Johansson
  
  • Johansson raised concerns about one of the voices, named 'Sky', allegedly mimicking her voice.
• Response from OpenAI
  • OpenAI responded by pausing the availability of the 'Sky' voice, clarifying that it was not intended to resemble Johansson's voice and was voiced by another actor.
• Defining Personality Rights
  • Personality rights encompass aspects like name, voice, signature, and images, which are easily recognizable by the public.
  • These rights are sometimes registered as trademarks by celebrities to utilize them commercially.

Types of Personality Rights

• The right of publicity protects one's image and likeness from being commercially exploited without consent.
• The right to privacy prevents one's personality from being publicly represented without permission.

Legal Basis in India

• While not explicitly stated in Indian law, personality rights are derived from the right to privacy and property.
• The 2017 Puttaswamy judgment elevated personality rights to constitutional rights, recognizing the right to privacy as fundamental.

Relevant Court Judgments

• Various court cases, such as Rajinikanth v. Varsha Production and ICC Development Ltd. v. Arvee Enterprises, have recognized personality rights in India.
• These rights have evolved from the right to privacy and are protected under Articles 19 and 21 of the Constitution.

Personality Rights on the Internet

• The Delhi High Court's 2011 ruling in Arun Jaitley vs Network Solutions Pvt Ltd emphasized that fame on the internet is no different from real-life fame.
• Names with distinctive character, coupled with popularity, are protected as personal marks under trademark law.

Balancing Personal and Consumer Rights

• While celebrities are safeguarded from commercial misuse of their names and personalities, misleading advertisements and endorsements can mislead consumers.
• The Ministry of Consumer Affairs introduced guidelines in 2022 to prevent misleading advertisements and endorsements, imposing penalties on endorsers.

Recent Examples from India

• In September 2023, the Delhi High Court issued an interim order protecting Anil Kapoor's personality rights, restraining the unauthorized use of his name, image, and characters.
• Similarly, in May 2024, the Delhi High Court protected Jackie Shroff's personality and publicity rights, preventing misuse of his name, image, and voice without consent.

Source: IE

In News: A five-year-old girl undergoing treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM), a rare brain infection caused by Naegleria fowleri, the "brain-eating amoeba," has passed away at the Government Medical College Hospital in Kozhikode.

Understanding Naegleria fowleri: The "Brain-Eating Amoeba"

• Introduction
• Naegleria fowleri, commonly referred to as the "brain-eating amoeba," is a microscopic single-cell organism found predominantly in warm freshwater environments such as lakes, hot springs, and poorly maintained swimming pools.
• Discovery and Characteristics
• Discovered in Australia in 1965, Naegleria fowleri is so tiny that it can only be observed under a microscope.
• It is the only species of Naegleria known to infect humans.
• Process of Human Infection
• The amoeba enters the human body through the nasal passage and then migrates to the brain.
• Infection typically occurs during activities like swimming, diving, or even when water enters the nasal passages.
• There have been instances of infection through nostril cleaning with contaminated water.
• There is no evidence of Naegleria fowleri spreading through water vapor or aerosol droplets.
• Impact on Human Health
• Once in the brain, Naegleria fowleri causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM), a severe and often fatal infection.
• Symptoms can initially resemble those of meningitis, including headache, nausea, and fever, progressing to stiff neck, seizures, hallucinations, and coma.
• Non-Communicable Nature
• Naegleria fowleri infection is not transmitted from person to person and typically does not manifest symptoms unless contracted in its specific form.
• The infection is closely associated with warm freshwater environments, particularly during hot summer months.
• Survival Rates and Prognosis
• With a mortality rate of 97%, survival chances from Naegleria fowleri infection are extremely low.
• The rapid destruction of brain tissue leads to severe neurological symptoms and inflammation.
• Early diagnosis and immediate treatment are critical, but the outlook remains bleak.
• Treatment Options
• The CDC recommends treatment with a combination of drugs, including amphotericin B, azithromycin, fluconazole, rifampin, miltefosine, and dexamethasone.
• Miltefosine, the newest addition to these drugs, has shown promise in laboratory settings and has been utilized in treating some survivors.
• Preventive Measures for Swimmers
• Limiting activities in warm freshwater bodies unless properly disinfected.
• Using nose protection while swimming or diving.
• Maintaining clean swimming pools and practicing proper hygiene, including thorough handwashing before and after water activities and meals.
• Using sterile water for nasal cleaning to minimize the risk of infection.

Source: IE

In News: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has issued color-coded alerts for several districts in Kerala, warning of potential isolated heavy to very heavy rainfall in the state.

The Role and Functioning of the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)

• The IMD issues color-coded weather warnings to notify individuals about severe or hazardous weather conditions that could lead to damage, disruption, or pose a threat to life.
• These warnings are categorized into four color codes: Green, Yellow, Orange/Amber, and Red, based on the severity of the weather phenomena.
• Established in 1875, the IMD operates as an agency under the Ministry of Earth Sciences of the Government of India.
• Its primary responsibilities include conducting meteorological observations, providing weather forecasts, and monitoring seismological activities.
• The IMD's headquarters are located in New Delhi, India.
• Additionally, the IMD functions as one of the six Regional Specialized Meteorological Centres recognized by the World Meteorological Organization.

Source: TH

In News: India is poised to gain access to two recently developed cancer medications named Tislelizumab and Zanubrutinib.

Advancements in Cancer Treatment and the Rising Cancer Burden in India

• Tislelizumab, a novel immunotherapy drug, demonstrates efficacy in treating advanced esophageal squamous cell carcinoma, a type of cancer that forms in the thin, flat cells lining the inside of the esophagus.
• Zanubrutinib, a medication inhibiting Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), a protein vital for the growth and survival of certain cancerous blood cells, has received approval for treating specific types of blood cancers.
• Cancer encompasses a group of diseases characterized by the uncontrolled proliferation and spread of abnormal cells in the body, which can infiltrate and damage healthy tissues and organs.
• In 2019, India witnessed 1.2 million new cancer cases and 930,000 deaths, positioning it as the second-highest contributor to the disease burden in Asia during that year.
• According to projections by the Indian Council of Medical Research, cancer cases in the country are expected to rise from 14.6 lakh in 2022 to 15.7 lakh in 2025.

Source: TH

In News: Recently, the National Council for Cement and Building Materials-Incubation Centre (NCB-IC) was inaugurated by the Joint Secretary of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Support for Startups in the Cement and Building Materials Industry

• At NCB-IC, startups and entrepreneurs undergoing incubation will receive mentoring from NCB scientists and experts from the cement and building materials sector to enhance and refine their products for commercialization.
• The number of startups officially recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has risen to 136,584.

National Council for Cement and Building Materials (NCB)

• NCB serves as the premier research and development organization operating under the administrative jurisdiction of DPIIT.
• Dedicated to research, technology development, and transfer, as well as providing education and industrial services, NCB focuses on cement, allied building materials, and the construction industries.

Source: PIB

In News: Researchers have recently discovered that Neanderthals, who lived 50,000 years ago, were infected with three viruses that continue to impact modern humans today.

Overview of Neanderthals

• Neanderthals, an extinct relative of modern humans, once inhabited Europe and extended into Central and Southwest Asia.
• Belonging to the species Homo neanderthalensis, they are considered our closest extinct human relatives.
• Current evidence, from both fossils and DNA analysis, suggests that the Neanderthal lineage diverged from that of modern humans at least 500,000 years ago.
• The last populations of Neanderthals are believed to have disappeared approximately 40,000 years ago, shortly after the arrival of modern humans in Europe.
• Despite their extinction, traces of Neanderthal genes persist in modern human DNA.

Distinctive Features

• Neanderthals had characteristic skull features, including a large middle face, angled cheekbones, and a prominent nose, adapted for humidifying and warming cold, dry air.
• Their bodies were shorter and stockier than those of modern humans, an adaptation to cold environments, although their brains were comparable in size or even larger in proportion to modern humans.
• Although robust and muscular, Neanderthals suffered frequent injuries, indicative of their challenging lifestyles.
• Unlike modern humans, Neanderthals lacked a distinct chin.

Technological and Cultural Abilities

• Neanderthals demonstrated advanced tool-making skills, controlled fire, constructed shelters, crafted clothing, hunted large animals, consumed plant foods, and occasionally produced symbolic or ornamental objects.
• Evidence suggests that Neanderthals practiced deliberate burial rituals and occasionally adorned graves with offerings, such as flowers, a behavior previously unseen in primates or earlier human species.

Source: LS

In News: France has achieved a noteworthy advancement in its defense capabilities with the successful testing of the upgraded ASMPA supersonic missile, designed to carry a nuclear warhead.

Overview of ASMPA Missile: France's Land-Attack Supersonic Cruise Missile

• The Air-Sol Medium Range (ASMP/ASMP-A) is a supersonic cruise missile designed for air-launched land-attack missions, equipped with a nuclear payload.
• It serves as a critical element of France's nuclear deterrence capability.

Versions

• The original ASMP, developed in 1986, boasted a range of 80 to 300 km and carried the TN 81 warhead with variable yield ranging from 100 to 300 kilotons of TNT.
• ASMP-A, an upgraded iteration introduced in 2009, extended the range to 500 km and featured a new 300 kt thermonuclear warhead.
• The ASMPA-R project aims to renovate the ASMPA, enhancing its range capabilities and introducing advancements in its warhead technology.

Features

• The ASMPA missile measures 5.38 meters in length, with a body diameter of 0.38 meters and a launch weight of 860 kg.
• It employs an inertial-guided, air-to-surface guidance system, likely utilizing terrain-mapping and pre-programmed onboard computers.
• Propulsion is provided by a solid-propellant engine, which ignites after the missile is released from the aircraft.
• Upon ignition, the missile accelerates to Mach 2.0 within five seconds, followed by the ejection of the booster cartridge from the ramjet exhaust nozzle.
• Subsequently, the liquid (kerosene)-powered ramjet motor takes control, propelling the missile to a maximum speed of Mach 3.0, dependent on altitude.

Source: TR

In News: Researchers have discovered through a recent study that ferroptosis serves as the primary mechanism of cell death underlying lung disease in COVID-19.

Understanding Ferroptosis and Apoptosis

• Ferroptosis Defined
  • Ferroptosis is a regulated form of cell death initiated by an accumulation of lipid peroxides on cell membranes, distinguishing it from other cell death mechanisms like apoptosis.
  • This process, reliant on iron, earns its name "FERroptosis" due to its iron dependence.
• Mechanism of Ferroptosis
  
  • Lipid peroxides, a byproduct of normal metabolic processes, can inflict oxidative damage on cell membranes, leading to ferroptosis.
  • Characterized by decreased levels of intracellular glutathione (GSH) and reduced activity of glutathione peroxidase, ferroptosis prevents the oxidation of lipid peroxides, resulting in heightened lipid peroxidation spurred by iron.
  • Under normal conditions, cells possess robust defense mechanisms to ensure survival.
  • However, when these mechanisms falter, lipid peroxides accumulate unchecked, compromising membrane integrity and culminating in cell death through ferroptosis.
• Link to Diseases
  
  • Numerous studies have implicated ferroptosis in various diseases such as ischemia-reperfusion injuries, kidney disorders, neurological ailments, cancer, and haematological disorders.

Understanding Apoptosis

• Apoptosis, a programmed cell death process, occurs naturally in multicellular organisms as a means of maintaining tissue homeostasis during development and aging.
• Examples of Apoptosis
  
  • During embryonic development, apoptosis orchestrates the separation of digits in humans, illustrating its role in shaping tissues.
  • Apoptosis also serves as a defence mechanism and response to cellular damage inflicted by diseases or harmful agents.
• Triggers and Process 
  • Apoptosis can be activated by mild cellular injury or internal and external factors, initiating the removal of damaged cells in an orderly manner.
  • The process involves nuclear and cytoplasmic condensation, ultimately leading to cellular fragmentation for disposal.

Source: ME

In News: The recent judgment handed down by the Madhya Pradesh High Court has reignited discussions across India on whether marital rape should be made a criminal offense.

Renewed Debate on Marital Rape in India: A Constitutional and Societal Imperative

• Introduction
  
  • The recent ruling by the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Manish Sahu vs State of Madhya Pradesh has reignited the debate on whether marital rape should be considered a criminal offense in India.
• Legal Framework and Recent Amendments
  
  • Exception 2 of Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) exempts sexual acts between a husband and his wife aged 18 or older from rape charges.
  • The Supreme Court amended this provision in Independent Thought vs Union of India (2017), raising the age to 18.
  • However, the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita of 2023, set to replace the IPC, has not addressed marital rape, leaving it legal. 
• Contrasting High Court Rulings
  
  • The Chhattisgarh High Court, in Dilip Pandey & others vs State of Chhattisgarh (2021), stated that sexual acts by a husband with his wife, even if forced, do not constitute rape.
  • Conversely, the Gujarat High Court, in Nimeshbhai Bharatbhai Desai vs State of Gujarat (2018), recognized the dignity of women and denounced coercive sexual acts by husbands.
• Outdated Beliefs vs Constitutional Rights
  
  • Exception 2 of IPC Section 375 assumes irrevocable consent from wives, contradicting women's individual agency guaranteed by the Constitution.
  • Marriage does not revoke a woman's right over her body.
• Missed Opportunities in Judicial Decisions
  
  • In RIT Foundation vs Union of India (2022), the Delhi High Court issued a split verdict on the constitutionality of the marital rape exception.
  • Justice Rajiv Shakdher emphasized women's autonomy and the importance of consent within marriage, advocating against the exception.
  • Justice C. Hari Shankar upheld the exception but shifted the responsibility to address the issue to the legislature.
• Legislative Efforts
  
  • The Justice Verma panel recommended removing the marital rape exception, but Parliament did not accept the recommendations.
  • In 2018, Shashi Tharoor introduced a bill to criminalize marital rape, but it lapsed.
• Government Stance 
  • The Union government hesitates to criminalize marital rape, fearing it could destabilize marriage.
  • However, evolving perspectives on marriage emphasize equality and individual rights.
• Judicial Discourse
  
  • The Supreme Court, in X vs The Principal Secretary, Health and Family Welfare Department, Government of NCT of Delhi (2022), recognized intimate partner violence, including marital rape, as a harsh reality.
• Conclusion
  
  • A Constitutional challenge to the marital rape exception is pending before the Supreme Court.
  • It urges reflection on whether India should uphold outdated patriarchal norms or strive for a rights-based society where laws apply equally to everyone.

Source: Mint

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs):

Statement-I: NTDs predominantly affect impoverished tropical communities and are caused by various pathogens.

Statement-II: NTDs receive substantially less funding for research and treatment compared to diseases like HIV/AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis.

Select the correct answer using code given below:

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding cervical cancer and HPV vaccination:

1. Cervical cancer is primarily caused by certain strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is commonly transmitted through sexual contact.

2. Cervical cancer ranks as the second most prevalent cancer type and the second leading cause of cancer-related deaths among women aged 15-44 globally.

3. The HPV vaccine demonstrated significant efficacy, reducing cervical cancer rates by nearly 90% and pre-cancerous conditions by approximately 95%, particularly when administered to individuals aged 12-13 years.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding The Iberian lynx

1. The Iberian lynx is one of only two carnivore species native to Europe, the other being the European mink, Mustela lutreola.

2. Renowned as the world's most endangered feline, the Iberian lynx is characterized by its distinctive pointed ears, long legs, and leopard-like spotted fur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC)

1. NBFCs differ from banks in several aspects, including their inability to accept demand deposits, issue cheques, or provide deposit insurance facilities like banks.

2. NBFCs with asset sizes exceeding ₹500 crore are classified as systemically important, considering their potential impact on the economy's financial stability.

3. The RBI has intensified its monitoring of NBFCs following instances of regulatory violations, such as those observed with IIFL Finance, which was barred from issuing fresh gold loans in March for non-compliance with lending norms.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Q5. With reference to National Endangered Species Day consider the following statements:

1. National Endangered Species Day is commemorated on the third Friday of May each year to raise awareness about the impacts of human activities on endangered species and emphasize collective efforts to safeguard them.

2. In 2006, David Robinson and the Endangered Species Coalition established National Endangered Species Day as an annual event to rally individuals to contribute to the protection of endangered species.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the popularity of the UK as a study destination among Indians:

Statement-I: Indians represent the largest community of international students in the UK.

Statement-II: Recent data indicates a substantial surge in student visas granted to Indians.

Select the correct answer using code given below:

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding India's climate policy:

1. Developed countries account for 74% of excess resource use, contrasting with 58 countries, including India, staying within sustainability limits.

2. Climate change disrupts India's seasonal cycle, impacting GDP by 2.8% by 2050 due to extreme weather events.

3. India's climate policy emphasizes inclusive growth, poverty eradication, and supports a multilateral approach for achieving net zero emissions by 2070.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Spices Board of India and the issue of Ethylene Oxide (ETO):

1. The Spices Board of India was established in 1987 solely for the development and export promotion of Indian cardamom.

2. CODEX has established specific limits for the usage of Ethylene Oxide (ETO) in spices, ensuring standardized testing protocols for ETO contamination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court ruling on the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA):

1. The Supreme Court ruled that if an accused appears before a designated special court pursuant to a summons, they cannot be deemed to be in custody, and thus, need not seek bail under the stringent conditions of the PMLA.

2. The special court has the authority to direct the accused to provide a surety/guarantee (bonds) under Section 88 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. However, such surety does not equate to granting bail and does not require adherence to the stringent conditions of Section 45 of the PMLA.

3. The ED retains the power to arrest individuals not named as accused in the initial PMLA complaint, but must follow the proper arrest procedures outlined in Section 19 of the PMLA.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Q10. With reference to Red Pandas consider the following statements

1. Red pandas primarily inhabit forests in Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, and Nepal.

2. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Eastern Himalayas.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Protection Act (CPA):

Statement-I: The Consumer Protection Act (CPA) aims to safeguard consumers' interests concerning products or services they acquire.

Statement-II: The CPA underwent revision in 2019 to adapt to evolving circumstances.

Select the correct answer using code given below:

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding India's participation at UNFF19:

1. India proposed the operationalization of the Global Fire Management Hub, a collaborative effort by UNEP and FAO, to share knowledge and experiences in mitigating forest fires.

2. India ranks third globally in the net gain of average annual forest area between 2010 and 2020.

3. India's Draft National Forest Policy in 2018 focused on addressing modern challenges like climate change and human-wildlife conflict, prioritizing forest restoration through public-private partnerships.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Q13. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.

2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Q14. Consider the following statements regarding Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):

1. SIDBI was initially incorporated as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI).

2. SIDBI's primary objective is to serve as the leading financial institution for the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector.

3. SIDBI operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India (GoI).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Q15. With reference to Genetic drift consider the following statements

1. Genetic drift is primarily influenced by specific selection pressures acting on certain individuals within a population.

2. Genetic drift leads to an increase in genetic diversity within a population over time.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Biomass cultivation on degraded land

Statement-I: Biomass cultivation on degraded land involves growing organic matter, such as crops or trees, on land rendered unsuitable for conventional agriculture due to factors like soil erosion or deforestation.

Statement-II: Benefits of biomass cultivation on degraded land include soil restoration, erosion prevention, carbon sequestration, sustainable biohydrogen production, bioenergy generation, and enhanced food security.

Select the correct answer using code given below:

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding

1. SHGs are self-governed groups comprising individuals with similar socio-economic backgrounds and objectives, typically consisting of five to twenty members sharing common economic outlooks and social statuses.

2. The SHG-Bank Linkage Programme, launched by NABARD in 1992, connects SHGs with formal banking institutions.

3. Challenges faced by SHGs include sustainability issues, dependency on external aid, intersectional challenges such as caste and class disparities, and limited access to larger marketplaces.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Q18. Consider the following statements

1. The bharal, also known as the blue sheep, is a caprine species native to the high Andes.

2. Himalayan Ibex is Near Threatened on the IUCN Red List

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-Services Organisations (ISOs) Act:

1. The ISO Act aims to modify existing Service Acts to address coordination issues within the Armed Forces.

2. Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command of ISOs gain authority over service personnel under their command, regardless of branch, to streamline command structure and enhance decision-making efficiency.

3. The Act may extend to other centrally controlled forces beyond the Army, Navy, and Air Force, and it specifies eligibility criteria for Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two 

All three

None 

Q20. With reference to rangelands consider the following statements

1. Covering roughly half of the Earth's land surface, rangelands are prominent features, particularly in western North America.

2. Approximately two billion people, including small-scale herders, ranchers, and farmers, rely on healthy rangelands for their livelihoods, highlighting their global importance

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2